#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 108 of 1
So x - 3 | 5 & x - 3 | 2
Therefore x - 3 | 10
x mod 10 = 3
Or just in quick terms
Does that make sense?
I went very quick
Can explain better if you're still unsure
the line is mod?
so ≡₂ means is congruent mod 2 I believe
yes
I'm pretty sure it is although I've not seen much of that notation
i havent seen the one u used earlier
what does it mean by
You mean x | y ?
this
Okay
yea
why u divide by the mod?
so do you agree x ≡₂ 1 means x is congruent to 1 (mod 2)
yes
okie
So do you agree x - 1 ≡₂ 0 ?
yep
although im not sure if we are allowed to do that
cuz i havent been taught that
So that is the same as x - 1 / 2 = n remainder 0
right
Idk if you can however It's basic stuff if that makes sense ? You might just use different notation
You don't have to use | if you don't like
But like you know when I divide modulo n there will be a remainder from 0 to n-1 right
yes
So this is basically saying we can divide by 2
As there's no remainder
Then minusing 2 again is also going to be remainder 0
as we have (x - 1) - 2
x - 1 is divisible by 2 in this system so so is - 2 right
so x - 3 is divisible by 2
we know x ≡₅ 3
So we also know x - 3 ≡₅ 0
Thus x - 3 is divisible by 5
hcf(2,5) = 1 (as they are coprime) (and also prime)
So x - 3 must also be divisible by 10
Thus x - 3 ≡ ₁₀ 0
hmmm i understand this but applying this in the exam is another matter
x ≡ ₁₀ 3
so for this question
i got x is congruence to 13 mod 40
is that right or am i wrong
but i worked that out using Euclid's Algorithm
ohhh gotcha
Sorry I kinda skimmed the explanation he gave initially
(it's 330am for me!)
all g
Euclid's algorithm kinda guarantees stuff
can u double check if i did that right?
I think so?
I'm bit sleepy
Can I ask a quick question which might help
Are you doing group theory or ring / field theory
ring n field
i got a question, if i got 2x is congruence to 2 (mod 4)
can i divide both sides by 2 and get x is congruence to 1 mod 4?
"dividing by 2" isn't really well-defined mod 4
like 2 divided by 2 mod 4 could also be 3
the other option is x4
Yeah as ℤ/4ℤ isn't even an integral domain
i think you can divide by anything coprime to the thing you're modding by
so for instance it's valid to divide by 4 modulo 9, and it's the same as multiplying by 7 because 4*7 = 1
so bee did i do this right
(i'm not a guy)
well i think if 2x is congruent to 2 mod 4, then x is congruent to 1 mod 2
implying i gotta also divide the modulo by 2
no, look at 33
that's congruent to 3 mod 10, and to 1 mod 4, but not to 13 mod 40
knowing a number mod 10 and mod 4 is only enough to determine it mod lcm(10, 4) = 20
this is all over the place
can you pls show me how to work it out using Euclid's Algorithm
...doesn't euclid's algorithm compute a greatest common divisor? i'm not really sure how that would be useful here
rings are abelian under addition
i'm not sure what level of formalism they're expecting here
are you "allowed" to just do algebra on the elements of a ring as if they're something more familiar like integers, or do they want you to explicitly cite axioms of rings?
Seems like the latter
Based on the quesiton
Cephy do you know the axioms of a ring
what axiom are you using to do that?
okay take it step by step
that’s not true in all rings
what axiom are you using to justify that (a+b)(a-b) = a^2 - ab + ba - b^2?
.
No you need to use another axiom
what's "that"
No, that's the same as what you just said
rings are under abelian under addition
why can you cancel out the terms
that's true, but it doesn't justify why (a+b)(a-b) = a^2 - ab + ba - b^2
I mean, the entire statement is false, but understanding why this step is true will probably be helpful
because ab isn't necessarily equal to ba
but this equation is true
dont we just substitute ab = ba
why is ab = ba? can you come up with a ring where this isn't true?
nope
what about the ring of 2×2 real-valued matrices
is AB always equal to BA for A, B being matrices?
So can you give a counterexample for 13i)
two matrices A and B
what are A and B equal to
um i need to work that out lol
not good with matrices
so that mean i is not always true
Yes i is not always true
for ii give me a sec
i ned to read it again
ii should be true tho right
from a(b+2) = ab + 2a
compare that to the rhs
why is ab + 2a equal to 2a + ab?
a(b + 2) = ab + a2
(it is the case that a2 = 2a, but you need to show that)
use 2 = 1 + 1
Maybe it would help if you noted each property you use when simplifying?
Just make sure you arent skipping steps :p
a(1+1) = (1+1)a
Ok but multiplication isn't necessarily commutative...
R isnt necessarily a commutative ring
can u give a counter example?
No you're right in that 2a = a2 in this case
should be true yes?>
But this step is incorrect logic
oh okay
^^ and make sure you are using the axioms of rings in each one
Yw
If you want to type everything out here it shouldnt take too long and I can check
Hola
2a = a2
What do they mean by $F(\alpha_1)$ is algebraic over $F$? Do they mean that it's an algebraic extension of F?
okeyokay
wouldn't that imply that F is algebraically closed as well since $F \leq F(a)$
okeyokay
every element of F(alpha_1) is algebraic over F
No, how so?
every element of F(alpha_1) is algebraic over F right
and F lives in F(alpha_1)
therefore every element of F is algebraic over F
and my book defines a field F as being algebraically closed if every nonconstant polynomial in F[x] has a zero in F
every element of F is already algebraic over F (1 for example is a root to x-1)
Your definitions are right but I think you're confusing the logic
oh i think i see what you mean
how does every element of F being algebraic over F (which is true for every field F) imply that it's then algebraically closed?
for example take F to be Q
here's the definition: A field $F$ is algebraically closed if every nonconstant polynomial in $F[x]$ has a zero in $F$.
Q is algebraic over Q, Q(sqrt(2)) is algebraic over Q, but neither of those fields are algebraically closed (for example they don't have a cube root of 2, so x^3 - 2 has no root)
okeyokay
yes this is correct
doesn't being algebraic over F imply that it's the zero of some polynomial with coefficients in F?
oh wait
Yes, but just because each element is the solution to some nonzero polynomial doesn't mean that all nonzero polynomials have roots in F
I'm thinking about the converse
that every single element of F is a zero of some nonconstant polynomial in F, but I can just take x - c for c in F
duh
Yeah, in F(alpha_1) => root of a nonzero polynomial in F[x] but not the other way around
just to clear things up, the sentence: Let $\overline{\mathbb{Z}_p}$ be an algebraic closure of $\mathbb{Z}_p$. is saying that $\overline{\mathbb{Z}_p}$ is a maximal algebraic extension of $\mathbb{Z}_p$? I know an equivalent definition is that it contains all zeros of $\overline{\mathbb{Z}_p}[x]$
okeyokay
yes equivalent
whut u try so far
prove the commutativity + associativity + distributivity + identity element
what is the inverse?
for part a, what i tried so far
yea so you need tell the additive inverse of (n, a).
yep!
And multiplicative inverse should be
so you've shown it's a commutative ring 
(1, a) and (-1, a)



hey guys
we can reduce this by mod 5 right
to check whether or not this poly is reducible
no it's not conclusive, also what coefficient
i worked it out
0 is a root of this polynomial mod 5
reduce mod 5
prove that the reduced poly has no real rooot
then by definition the main poly is also irreducible
ya 0 is a root for the reduced poly
otherwise irreducible
As Knight watch said, the reduced polynomial, f, can be written as X^2(X^2+2)
Well, reducing mod 5 doesn't do anything for you
Also to tell a degree 4 and above polynomial, f in k[x] is irreducible, takes more work than just saying f has no roots in k
For example (x^2+1)^2 in Q[X]
Ok, reducing mod 2 gives you the answer
But remember to show that your reduced polynomial cannot be split into quadratic factors
oh i did that
but for mod 5 i forgot that 0 is a root
lol
sweet thanks
Can I get a hint for the following problem?
If S contains the identity then S is a subgroup so we're done, but I don't know how to approach the general case
Maybe you can biject S to a subgroup in some way?
A set S with this property may not be a subgroup of G in general.
Hint: what other kind of subset of a group has the property that |S| divides |G|?
Your idea is a good one
Oh, I think I've got it - thanks!
Why does this tell me that $M \otimes_{R} A$ is an A module?
Kerr
It's a right A-module because we can define the multiplication on simple tensors as (m x a) . b = m x ab
using ascii notation here, forgive me
the isomorphism has nothing to do with it
How does one check if it distributes over sums of simple tensors?
We simply define it as such
You then need only check that it respects the defining relations of the tensor product, i.e. bilinearity.
Check it for simple tensors?
No
I'm stating that you need to check well-definedness
I don't know if you've seen the definition of the tensor product as a quotient of the free module
if you've seen that, then I'm asking that you show that this definition stabilises the module that we quotient by
What do you mean by stabilizes? Like in the group action sense?
Let M be an R-module and let N be a submodule of N. Let phi : M -> M be any map. When I say here that "phi stabilises N", I mean that phi(N) is a subset of N
The point is that we need zero to be sent to zero in the tensor product for well-definedness, and that's the same as the module that we quotient by being stabilised
So in this case verifying that for all b and elements (n,m) in N, that (n,mb) lies in N?
cani ask a question regarding a particular group theory proof i have a solution to i wanna know if im on right track
let G be group of order n >2 show there does not exists a subgrou H with order n-1 (without use of LaGrane). Here is what I have thus far:
Suppose there exists such a subgrou and G has order at least 3 and H has order at least 2 but order 1 less and let g \in G \ H and let h \in H \ {e} which exists as H is of order at least 2
then if gh \in H then ghh^-1 \in H which implies g \in H so gh \in G \ H and thus gh = g forcing h = e which is a contradiction by our choice of h done. does this argument hold
yee that works
cool thanks det 🙂
Is this a question from ch. 1 of dummit and foote?
feels like it's basically the same length just to prove lagrange's theorem lol
hm are there any nice tricks to check whether elements of k[x_1,...,x_n] are irreducible lol
Well I mean
atm the main thing i know is just to consider it as an element of e.g. k[x_1,...,x_{n-1}][x_n]
lol
if k = frac(D) for some UFD D, we have tricks like Eisenstein
so like y^2 - x^2 - x^3 is irreducible in k[x,y] = k[x][y] since no square root of x^2 + x^3 lol
But mroe generally seems a bit of a pain
I will try Whitneying and inducting, thanks Tterra
hope that helps 👍
yes but only if you're aware of the fact that 0 is not linear
What
WHAT!

How did this simple and intuitive thing come about
I was away from this server for a while
some guy who kept asking questions with words such as "simple" and "intuitive" bolded. the questions were often neither simple nor intuitive
on the occasion that there was a simple and intuitive answer it usually involved the bare minimum of thinking
Oh yes, that guy
Well, you see... You take your element and just draw the higher-dimensional algebraic set produced by that particular element and see if it is a variety or not /s
no he kept posting the same question for like 7 days straight
in the abstract algebra channel
and it had like nothing to do with algebra lol
this isn't when it started
yeah but that wasn't the first time/question
It had been happening for a while
simple and intuitive lore
it was the first time that I had seen that so I thought that would be the beginning lol
Lmao
yes this is the one
why is this guy
Was it resolved at the end lol?
within a few minutes of the same time each day, bro had a schedule
"simple and intuitive" is what you say to ChatGPT
Lol
Should have sent a chatgpt solution
Jesus, first instance of them posting the same question was in may
hi det
4 months of simple and intuitve problem statements
sat is usually off
"the determinant is very tired, he is eppy"
eppy? 
for the past 4 days my days have been:
- wake up at 3-4 pm
- play the new zelda till like 8 or 9 pm
- do math
- sleep
oh wow fancy discord formatting
having a little school break is nice
I fell off a bike today though lol
hey don't do that
I only have a few injuries but my phone is damaged 
The two ways of life: gaming and math addiction
Could be interesting!
it's these stupid train grooves' fault
how do you do that fancy formatting
- a
-cringe
-based
-bluepiled
- a
A friend of mine was very seriously injured by clipping his bike wheel in tram tracks. They're a serious danger
ah tram tracks
that's what they're called
yeah I have a big wound on my leg but I'm still sad about my phone
there are so many splitters
oh damn
Honestly I think you came off lucky
the display is half broken
I'm glad you're not injured
would have rather gone to the hospital but with an intact phone 👍
My friend had broken bones lol
anyway time for some algebra
my prof wrote:
$$\bC[x_{i, j}, y : 1 \leq i, j \leq n]/(\det(x_{i, j})\cdot y - 1) \iso \bC[x_{i, j}, \operatorname{det}^{-1} : 1 \leq i, j \leq n]$$
what does the det^-1 here mean?
bonus points if your explanation is simple and intuitive
inverse
👍
inverse in \bC(x)?
tbh i don't get your notation
don't blame me
localization
no it is that
Inverse of
is
?
what order does
have
Zanzan in aa 
But it's 11:53pm D:
What you need to find is those values of c for which x^2 - x + c has no roots
Oh wait part d, not part c
i'm not either of those things and also it's not morning here
Well we know x^2 - x = - c, so note that x(x - 1) = -c
So maybe you can think about what the value of x^-1 is in terms of c.
(what was your answer to (c)?)
i dont get this
why is x^-1 in term of c?
x(x - 1) = -c, so what is x^-1?
Is that what you get from that equation? I don't like to see guesses
wrong, it's 1 am
actually it's midnight tomorrow
you live in the wrong timezone
what is the definition of x^-1?
inverse
yes but what is the definition of an inverse
reciprocal?
Gonna give you a HUGE hint here
let's assume that c is nonzero
then c has an inverse in Z_13
so x(x-1)/(-c) = 1
Think now about what x^-1 is
I'm not going to respond to random guesses
Okay you may want to look up what inverses are
isnt it just x-1?
nu
I suggest you stop fishing for answers and instead describe your thought process
If you don't have a reason why, then your answer is incomplete anyway.
We cannot help you with any misunderstandings if you just guess.
To prove that the polynomial X^4+1 is irreducible over Q, can we use Eisenstein's criteria even tho we only have 2 coeffs?
Well Eisenstein will not be helpful here, since 1 is not divisible by any prime.
But yes, the number of nonzero coefficients does not really matter (it matters a bit, but hey ho)
i checked the working for x^-1
You may find it helpful, instead of showing that f(x) = x^4 + 1 is irreducible, to show that f(x+1) is :)
just a guess tho
why r u insulted smh
Why?
Try it and see
Lmao
Is there a theorem or smth
This is a very well known polynomial
Well, it is one of a family of polynomials known as the cyclotomic polynomials, all of which are irreducible
Oh yeah I've seen that on the lecture, we still didn't do it but I get it yes
You can also just see there are no roots and try a factorisation as a product of two quadratics
Its where we use the roots of unity right?
Or factor it over R lol
So I just start by supposing that it can be reducible then find a contradiction
Yes, given $n \ge 1$ we define $\Phi(x) = \prod_{\mathrm{\omega} \text { a primitive nth root of unity}} (x-\omega)$
potato
Like it has a factorisation over R but not Q
Yes
Basically it's like
Each irreducible factor (in Q[x]) is a product of irreducible factors in R[x]
owo
Please don't ask ChatGPT for problems like these; you'll likely get misinformation. Especially don't post screenshots from ChatGPT here because you'll likely spread misinformation.
Thus not irreducible in Q
Not having a root in Q is not sufficient
it could split as a product of two degree-2 polynomials with no root!
You must rule out that case
Well there might be a shortcut!
I second this suggestion ^
Use Eisenstein's criterion on (x+1)^4 + 1 and then argue that if that polynomial is irreducible, x^4 + 1 must be too
Ok ill be a hot and cool girl and try it then
(For example, x^4+4 has no rational root, but is still reducible in Q[x]).
Well if f(x) = g(x) * h(x), then the same happens for f(x+1) right?
if f(x+1) = g(x)h(x) then f(x) = g(x-1)h(x-1).
yeah, what tropo said
Yes that was so obv somehow
the only thing left to do is to rule out the possibility of the latter factorisation being trivial
but this isn't hard
ChatGPT and its consequences have been a disaster for the human race
Hmm, no, exactly what I said proves the wrong direction ...
It can only get better from here
haha good point
Fun story
This is my last undergrad semester
We had a small research thesis
Just to practice for grad
I had a classmate who used it to make his thesis
He was too lazy
Like WAY TOO lazy , even to check
"as a large language model"
In his acknowledgment part
Thesis paragraph 3:
“As I am a large language model”
FUCK
that was in his thesis, wasn't it?
suck shit monke
how does it feel
sit down.... oh wait YOU ARE THE CHAIR
He thanked a person working in a place
In another country
As if he was ruled in that internship
In china
doesn’t the mod 2 irreducibility test work on x^4 + 1?
Yeah we did eisenstein
Yeah i asked about that but it gives me the heebie jeebies cause it doesnt have other coeffs in between 0 and 4
oooh spooky zeroes
Eisenstein is slick and fast here, but I think "x^4+1 factors in R[x] and neither factor is in Q[x]" feels more instructive.
How do you factor x^4 +1 in R[x]?
(x^2 + sqrt(2)x + 1)(x^2 - sqrt(2)x + 1) if I'm not mistaken
no, not quite
oh no that does actually work
Totally forgot you could do that
that was my approach when i did this problem for the first time
just ruling out all the cases
Every real polynomial splits into factors of degree at most 2 over R -- just combine every pair of complex conjugate roots into one irreducible quadratic.
.
if f(x) is reducible (in Z), then it will still be reducible modulo 2
Work In mod 2 on the poly
therefore, if it is irreducible mod 2, then it is irreducible (in Z)
Why mod 2 specifically
It's worth noting that a polynomial is irreducible in Z[x] iff it is irreducible in Q[x], which is known as Gauss' lemma
z mod 2 would be the easiest to check since there’s only 2 elements to verify your irreducibility
is mod 2 irreducability an application of Hensel's lemma?
Hmm? There are fairly few candidate factors to check modulo 2, but why not at least 3?
x+1, x²+1, and x²+x+1
Laziness
you don't want to worry about orientations
oops wrong channel
yup
You guys saved me idk why the teacher never talked about it
Wasn't there a criterion involving the formal derivative of f? Kinda weird to use f' here as notation
They used it as a second polynomial
Instead of f becoming g or h after the mod operation
I think it’s more standard to put a bar over f
Hats are also popular in fashion, or tildes
$D_xf(x)$ is what’s used in algebra for@derivative
MyMathYourMath
its just notation, anything sensible will do after defining it 
i’m sorry what did you say?
(x + 1)(x^3 + x^2 + x + 1) = x^4 + 1 in Z2, does this mean it’s reducible mod 2?
well normally you’d check for roots in Z2, unless i’m misunderstanding your question
There’s only 2 roots to check for in z2 to show its irreducible
1^4 + 1 = 1 + 1 = 0, so it seems like 1 is a root?
how do I show this last statement?
Because if this holds, strong induction lets us do the rest
You’re saying the product of the first n-1 elements plus the n element have only the trivial ideal in common
I mean they are said to be pairwise coprime for any i not equal to j
and if this holds then
$\mathfrak{\alpha}n \cap \mathfrak{\beta} = \displaystyle \prod{i = 1}^{n} \mathfrak{\alpha}i = \bigcap{i = 1}^{n} \mathfrak{\alpha}_i$
rikusp2002
but how do I show that
I basically have to show that there exists elements in alpha_n and beta such that x + y = 1 when x belongs in alpha_n and y belongs in beta
problem is
y is of form $\displaystyle \prod_{i = 1}^{n - 1}x_i$ where $x_i \in \mathfrak{\alpha}_i, i = 1, 2,3... $
rikusp2002
how is this equivalent to 1 modulo alpha_n
For a finite group G, all elements with odd orders forms a subgroup, can I get a counter-example?
this is true for abelian group
anyone? 🥲
no, A3 is cyclic
yeah
I meant A3 was the group
from S3, if you take the odd order elements
Tbh I don't know about counter example here, because I remember showing even some group with order 2^n * k is not simple if the Sylow 2-subgroup is cyclic
The resulting normal subgroup only has elements of odd order
so I guess you can try breaking those conditions and try to find something?
In case of any group of order 10, exactly 4 elements have order 5
D_10 also has a cyclic sylow 5 subgroup...
okay so not these either
wait
what about D_12
@torn warren
only elements of odd order is e, r^2, r^ 4
fuck this also forms a subgroup
😭
@torn warren S5
yes
45 elements of odd order (calculate the conjugacy classes of 3 cycles and 5 cycles, every other representattive has even order, which gives us 20 + 24. get the identity. 45.)
group order is 120
45 does not divide 120
no subgroups exist of order 45
right, thank you so much!
For 3cycle, I did $\binom{5}{3}\cdot 3! /3=20$, is this correct? I mean is there a general way to compute this?
Witness
Yes
I mean it's like you're filling places so
So that's how you do it I think
In case of 5 cycles
5C5 * 5! / 5 = 120/5 = 24
yes, I did it in this way, but I don't know the name, conjugacy classes
Oh it's just like the set of elements that we can get from the element a
Let's say we have (123)
now (12)(123)(12)^-1 = (132)
So (132) belongs in the conjucacy class of (123)
Like this you'll see, for S_n, you'll always have the same cycle type for all elements in one such set
The action is called Conjugation, (this bab^-1 thing) and it defines an equivalence class on the set of the group
So the group gets divided into disjoint sets according to those, each of which are named conjugacy classes, and each element of that class can be generated through one representative element
Like in case of 3-cycles, (123) is the representative
For n cycles, it's (12....n)
For cycles like (ab)(cd), (12)(34) is the one
So like that
S5 has uh... 7 such classes
Identity (generated by identity itself, only one element here, all elements in this class has odd order, 1)
Transpositions (generated by (12), all elements have order 2)
3 cycles (generated by (123), all elements have order 3)
4 cycles (generated by (1234), all elements of order 4)
2-2 cycles (generated by (12)(34), all elements have order 2)
3-2 cycles (generated by (123)(45), all elements have order 6)
5 cycles (generated by (12345), all elements have order 5)
Fun fact, 7 is the number of unordered positive integer partitions of the integer 5, also called partition number of 5. π(5)
It has a recurrence relation for generating it, which I frankly forgot
💀
RIGHT
i now remember
Index of Centralizer of an element a, equals the cardinality of the conjucacy class represented by a.
C(a) is a subgroup of G if a in G, so that's covered
If you want I can try to derive the general formula, I haven't done it in a long time so I gotta think
I see, so for $S_n$, for a single k-cycle case, there are $\binom{n}{k}(k-1)!$, right?
For $k, n-k$ cylce, where $n\neq 2k$, we have $\binom{n}{k}(k-1)!(n-k-1)!$
For $n/2, n/2$ cycle, we have $\frac{1}2\binom{n}{n/2}(\frac{n}2-1)!^2$
Witness
If we have a degree n irreducible polynomial and we have a root B of that polynomial and they ask u to find the other roots, we always have to find n roots?
Yeah kinda like this
I see, so for $S_n$, for a single k-cycle case, there are $\binom{n}{k}(k-1)!$
For $k, n-k$ cylce, where $n\neq 2k$, we have $\binom{n}{k}(k-1)!(n-k-1)!$
For $n/2, n/2$ cycle, we have $\frac{1}2\binom{n}{n/2}(\frac{n}2-1)!^2$
is this right counting? @boreal inlet
I mean that's probably what they are asking
Witness
I would do it like
Uh lemme write this might take time
I only found 4
Lemme show u the polynomial
$\frac{n!}{\displaystyle \prod_{j}(j)^{a_j} (a_j !)}$
rikusp2002
Here a_j is the type of cycle in the cycle type L
Let's say you have a k cycle
It's actually an k-1-1-1....-1 (n-k) times partition.
For that your a_1 = k, and rest of your a_j = 1
Spread the profuct
I don't get it, what is $a_j$, I think the most easy mistake is when like the 2-2 cycle, and we need to divide a factor 2
Witness
in this case, it should be $\binom{n}{k}(k-1)!$ ?
Witness
I'll be providing examples in a bit
@torn warren this
Yours was missing the (n - k)!
2-2-1 cycle in n = 5 is same as 2-2 cycle
And so on
wait, it shouldn't have this factor (n-k)!
if you check the 3-cycle in S_5
$\frac{5!}{1^22! 3^1 1!}=\binom{5}{3}\frac{3!}{3}=\binom{5}{3}(3-1)!$
Witness
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
How does the 3 cycle look like in S5?
It's of form (123)(4)(5)
So it would be of form
Oh yeah my bad
Yeah (n-k)! Is already in the denominator which cancels the next (n-k)! Part, so it doesn't need to be there @torn warren
My bad, calculation erros
but I think this way is too complicated, is there a shortcut to get this?
The concept of localization got introduced on a practice sheet.
Ultimately I want to show that $ Z/pZ \cong Z_{(p)} / pZ_{(p)}$. Where $Z_{(p)}$ is the localization at p.
I showed that $pZ_{(p)} = Z_{(p)} \setminus (Z_{(p)})^{\times}$ is the unique maximum ideal. All elements $(a/b) \in Z_{(p)}$ with $ p \vert a $ are non-units.
E.g. for Z/3Z, I get the structure and which elements are equal. What are the elements in $Z_{(3)} / 3Z_{(3)}$?
-3,0,3,6,9...
3/2, 6/2, 9/2...
etc.
These should get mapped to zero.
Am I approaching this the wrong way and/or how should I think about this conceptually?
As for the proof I think consider the map $ Z \rightarrow Z_{(p)} \rightarrow Z_{(p)} / pZ_{(p)} $ and since pZ is the kernel and the map is surjective (this I have to show), it follows from the homomorphism theorem that $Z/pZ \cong Z_{(p)} / pZ_{(p)}$
aabb
I'd think abt it through the first isomorphism theorem as you mentioned at the bottom
If all you're after is "odd-order elements do not necessarily form a subgroup", then just observe (123)(124) = (13)(24).
oh or are you asking how should you think abt the quotient Z_(p)/pZ_(p)
the ideal generated by p or the point p?
Well the ring is local so the latter
but aren't they the same thing
you usually say you localize at some prime ideal
Yep, mostly this.
With one you are adding everything not in the ideal (p) as denominators i.e. with the complement of (p), when localizing at a point p your elements look like x/p^n
ahh then it's the former
I think so too
The elements are 0+3Z_(3), 1/b+3Z_(3) and 2/b + 3Z_(3) but you can show that in the quotient both of those latter two are equivalent to 1/1 and 2/1, so your elements are 0,1,2
(at least when you're talking abt Z_(3)/3Z_(3))
Suppose you have 1/a in Z_(p) where a is not a multiple of p. Then a is invertible modulo p, so there is b in Z such that ba=kp+1.
But then 1/a - b = (1-ab)/a = -kp/a which is in pZ_(p), so 1/a equals b in the quotient ring, and then it's easy to see that the quotient is at most Z/pZ.
But the quotient can't be trivial either because 1 is not in pZ_(p).
Thank you
Thank you too
My professor is saying that in Q[sqrt(-1)], 3 is a prime. But the norm of 3 is 9 right? Which is not a rational prime? So how is 3 a quadratic prime
(assuming that if N(x) is not a rational prime, then x is not a quadratic prime. which could be wrong, but that is what my professor was using. i thought textbook only said that if N(x) is a prime, then x is a prime, and not the other way around, so i was confused about that too.)
Idk what a quadratic or rational prime is, but the only direction you have is N(x) prime => x prime, not the other way around
i know, i was confused why my professor was using it backwards
The definition of prime I’m thinking of involves taking the ring of integers and asking if it’s an actual prime there. In this case you look at Z[i], and some extra work gets you that a prime p in Z becomes not prime iff it is equal to 1 mod 4
wait why does it become not prime?
yeah
I don’t get this proof outline though using though
but if a prime p is in Z, b = 0 right?
i meant p defined in Q[sqrt(-1)] itself
What does that mean
I meant a prime number in Z
You can say exactly when it becomes not prime
Adjoining i
In this case p = 3 which is not 1 mod 4
But so even ignoring that this uses a not true statement
Idk what this proof is supposed to get
It seems like you’re asking why 3 is a quadratic prime or whatever, but the conclusion of this is that an x isn’t a quadratic prime?
well.. yes, if the theorem was only used based on the correct definition there isn't an issue because N(x) not being prime would not imply that x is not prime
the thing is i'm confused whether the theorem is an iff or an if statement, because i saw it being used both ways
but if that is wrong then it makes sense
It is only true that
N(x) prime => x prime
This is equivalent to x not prime => N(x) not prime
yes, ok
Cool
thank you!

i always thought chmonkey only lives in AG channel >.<
No
Kekw
I have more messages here I think
Yeah like 5x more
AG channel didn’t use to exist

Drink water and eat food
I'm not sure if this already counts as geometry but
if $$f(x, y) = \sum_{i + \mu j = v} c_{i, j} x^i y^j$$
and if f is irreducible
if you have to write a formula it probably isnt geometry
then how do we know that x^v and y^(v/mu) appear in f
well it is connected to the newton polygon of f
give me a good reason i should care about the newton polygon
solving algebraic curves
how do i solve a curve
that's what I still have to learn
v + \mu * 0 = v
yeah but why shouldn't c_v,0 be 0
probably irreducibility
you get a summand of x^v with some coefficient
if the support of f lies on a straight line x + mu y = v
then we call f quasi homogeneous wrt mu and v
we somehow gotta use irreducibility though
bruh
If j = 0 then i = v, so the only summand with no y factor is x^v
You can't have the sum of two squares ever equalling 3, so there simply is no number of norm 3.
🤦
yeah ok lmao
and y^v/mu has to appear for the same reason right
yes
not norm 3, norm of 3
also is your reference using a v or a nu
,, \nu
I can't tell the difference
ok
No, norm 3. If 3 wasn't prime you need two numbers a and b, neither of which a unit, so that ab=3. But then a and b must have norm 3.
oh i understand now, yeah that makes sense
😂
german superior mathematics
its funny how germans became the french, math culturewise
every german i know does algebra and cant understand a single piece of visual reasoning
spill the tea
lol
ahahaha
omg he finally explains wtf we are actually doing and how it works
chad
Lol
hi potato
nvm I still don't know what's going on 
the quasi homogeneous case I understand
but if it's not he splits it up into multiple quasi hom parts and then does an approximation????
Hiii
ah wait
so
we do approximation
infinitely many often
(the chad way)
then write it as a series
and get a puiseux series or whatever that's supposed to be?
How to prove that S_6 has no subgroups of order 40?
GOOD question
If you have a subgroup H of order 40, then it has a 5-Sylow subgroup isomorphic to Z/5 which is necessarily characteristic in H, hence normal in S_6
But S_6 definitely has distinct 5-Sylow subgroups
Actually yeah, I quite like that
didn't quite get it
Oh
Well like, the groups generated by (1 2 3 4 5) and (2 3 4 5 6) are distinct 5-Sylow subgroups
But all 5-Sylow subgroups are conjugate, so none of them can be normal
oh okay
6 doesnt divide 40 so does the problem reduce to proving S5 has no subgroup of order 40, also
um no lol
yeah this approach doesnt work immediately
Maybe you can say something like if you had a subgroup of order 40 then it would be conjugate to something contained in a copy of S_5 inside S_6
Either way, I would use this argument for the same question about S_5 lol
I like your argument because it would take me ages to come up with that, if ever
Very smart
I liek group theory
I like det, very cute 
i have a few more questions about group theory ahaha
tubu kawaii 
If you post them here, someone will usually get around to answering it
Why being char subgroup of H should imply it's normal in S_6?
Oh wait
oh H needs to be normal
Yes you're right
yeah
Good question
I'd have to look at it
I may have a think lol
Or maybe you could look at like normal core or something
This is too big a group lol
This works for S_5
The index is sufficiently small, the normal core has order 40 or 20
GOOD point
So then can we use your earlier point of reducing this to a problem about S_5
6-cycles arent there, 3+3 cycles arent there…
Is normal core something one usually learns in group theory class?
no you just google
Yeah I just did
H definitely has a 5-cycle, conjugate so that it contains (12345). It’ll also contain a 2-cycle, but can that 2-cycle contain 6?
I'm just wondering since I'm trying to gauge how much group theory I am expected to know when I study for quals 
Seems like you’ll get all the 5-cycles of S_6 if it does lol
Does anyone have an example of a scalar triple product or vector triple product for complex vectors?
I can't find anything
I'm assuming this operation is well defined for complex vectors, but not useful?
well both are kinda geometrically motivated things right so makes more sense for R I suppose
and the scalar triple product is basically just the determinant
Oh lmao
I completely forgot about this, I can use that for testing
Thanks!
Uhm...
Is... there something equivalent to the vector triple product too?
well i have one more question about S_6... how to figure out how many exist subgroups of H such that H is a subgroup of order 36 of group S_6, and for the action on the set {1, 2, . . . , 6} H has more than one orbit?
Just extend C-linearly but yeah I'd just call it the complex vector triple product
What's a good reference for learning the basics of semisimplicity and Wedderburn stuff (enough to understand CSAs, crossed products, and Brauer groups). This is one of those topics I never learned properly that's a stumbling block for me.
In $\mathbb{Z}[t]$, how can I show that $t \not\in (4,2t,t^2)$?
ImHackingXD
find a nice description (or at least a nice property) of the elements of that ideal, and show that t doesn't have that property
Maybe you can give a good guess at a property that might be helpful
Hint: look at the coefficient of t in elements of the ideal
This is the kernel of a specific map you can find, too, which gives another nice description
||Z[t] -> Z/4Z; t |-> 2||
Oh I see, the coefficient of t must be even, thanks!
I'm supposed to find a 2-generator group containing an isomorphic copy of every countable abelian group. I know that we can embed a countable abelian group into a divisible group which is direct sum of isomorphic copies of Q and prufer groups of type p^/infty. Then if i take direct sum of infinitely many copies of Q and prufer groups for every p, it contains isomorphic copy of every countable abelian group. Then as it's countable, we can embed it to a group generated by two elements of infinite order
Am i making sense?
is it usual for algebra books to list lagrange and the first isomorphism theorem as corollaries? i suppose technically they are corollaries if you establish some results about counting before lagrange and other things before the first isomorphism theorem, but they seem to be too powerful to be referred to as corollaries
iirc fraleigh really placed emphasis on them whereas hungerford lists them as corollaries doesn't even give proofs in some parts, which is justified by the previous theorem but idk seems pretty casual to me (maybe because it's a graduate level text?)
whoaaa this is so cool!
thanks for posting
LA MER QUI MONTE!!!!!!
french
nlab
thik e ache
grothendieck j'aime trop ta métaphore mais sauve-moi, je vais me noyer
je deteste la langue francais
🚨⚠️ HIGH LEVELS OF FRANCE-ACTIVITY DETECTED ⚠️ 🚨
ja wir sollten auf deutsch wechseln.
this is not an improvement
du bist kein improvement
tut mir leid herr terra
PSL(2, 7) is simple
I find it rather complicated actually
just the orbifold fundamental group of H^2 modded out by the (2, 3, 7) von Dyke group
easy
I swear newton polygons aren't meant to make sense
I don't know a single person that understands them
You know maybe youre right
istg at this point I question whether my prof even understands them well
Lol I'm trying to get into some of this stuff actually
Discrete subgroups of modular group
yeah thats good stuff but i know very little
Fair enough, seems like a pretty big area
Yeah idk, I really liked the topology and group theory/rep theory interactions I saw
There are a lot of directions to branch into, it's just hard to commit to any one thing lol
i get that a lot
You should do a write up on newton polygons when you become the first person you know who understands them
ideally one should learn one topic every five years
then move into something entirely different
I swear I'm already planning on doing that
it will be the first entry on my blog
do you not understand/know them either?
i have come across the concept before in relation to pusieaux series but never looked deeper.
however one spells pusieaux
puiseaux?
i have been looking at newton polytopes of junk a lot lately
which is related but different i think
YES that thing
yeah we will cover those too later I think
this is a course on newton okounkov theory
so far we've only done algebraic curves, newton polygons, and right now we're doing classical ag
as in varieties over C
sounds cool, id like to hear/read bite sized info on what the main ideas are
newton polytopes appear in mirror symmetry which is why im encountering them, but so far not in a serious way lol
you're not the first
(Landau Ginzburg A branes) toric variety -> fan polytope <- polynomials (Landau Ginzburg B model)
whatever all of this means
I remember hearing something about toric varieties
F






