#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 102 of 1
Potitov06
This is basically the same as C (x)_R C
aham
Im sorry, but what is R here
here
Wait guys guys I don't think you want R[s]/(s - t^2)... that's just R since t^2 is in R
You want s^2 - t^2
Which looks weird because t is not in R.
yes
But that's the point.
yes, minor confusion
s squared = t^2
Thanks haha
But right so R = k[t^2] and the algebra is k[t]
Which we wrote as R[s]/(s^2-t^2)
In the case of the field R, and the field C
C = R[s]/(s^2 + 1)
s “=“ i
Because it’s a square root of -1
^yes
And we know (or at least I do) that C (x)_R C = C^2, and maybe you know how to do that computation as well
Ah so R is real numbers okkk
So if you know how to do this computation, you can try to apply it to this new setup, because they look very similar
ok
Does that make sense?
i dont really know where does the (x) come form
Both are “tensoring adjoining a square root with itself”
That’s the tensor product
I'm trying k[t]\otimes k[t]
(x) = \otimes
OK
Okay I gtg
NOW IT GET IT
But this is the key
Potitov06
thinking about that
Lmfaooo
thank you, i will now proceed trying it
Cool
can someone please explain the characteristic polynomial of an element in a field extension in a simple and intuitive way?
no but seriously, what's an intuition behind it?
It is a way of generating an algebraic relation that an element satisfies using linear algebra.
why do we care
Because you can extract the norm, trace, etc. from the char poly and because you can find the degree of the extension which that element generates by checking for repeated roots.
It's also much simpler to calculate than the min poly
Since it's just linear algebra
wdym with the last part?
As long as you know a basis for the extension you can calculate it
if a is your element in an extension E/F, then the char poly is just m_a(x)^[E:F(a)]
So by seeing how many times a root repeats you can deduce the degree of F(a)/F
do y'all have an linear algebra books that you'd recommend
for proofs-based linear algebra
the one by friedberg, insel, and spence is good
axler's book is great as long as you supplement it with some material on systems of equations and determinants
axler's got a weird philosophy about the whole subject that results in a really strange treatment of some of the most important stuff
I'd also vouch for hoffman & kunze and halmos
of these suggestions, are there any in particular that are good for self-study?
halmos and axler wrote their books with functional analysis in mind, while h&k is more algebraic
probably not, but as someone who self-studied linalg using more than 1 resource helped me personally, so my advice would be to not confine yourself to just one of these resources
but everyone learns differently
okay those are good points
and btw is this the channel to ask about proof-based linalg q's or is there a better one for that
I think generally #linear-algebra is the better place
sweet, thanks
did my test today y’all, went well 
hoping for a good score but i lw demolished it feelin good rn
is there any relation between M and R
if not i dont understand
btw is this wrong channel for this
this is the right channel
it's the right channel for the first question and possibly the wrong channel for the second
M and R are related in the sense that you have the existence of the bilinear scalar multiplication map R x M -> M
M not necessarily subgroup of R?
nope
oh ok
what about this
yeah as objects M and R need not be related in such a way
go through the axioms and find out which one fails
^
it should be straightforward
ok
theres no identity right

the napkin is a nice text you're in good hands
orz
If I have a base field F, and quadratic extensions K and L, and through black magic I got that K x K is isomorphic to L x L, is K isomorphic to L? I feel like the answer to this is no (we cannot have nice things) but I am struggling to come up with a counter example, does anyone have any insight? Thanks!
Can someone help me out with 2?
I believe you want to show that there are infinitely many intermediary sub fields
And show that this contradicts being a primitive extension
yo this might be too general/off-topic, but a few days ago i emailed my professor asking for research opportunities over the paper and she responded that she didn't have any projects for undergrads to work on, but i could possibly read a few papers. she asked me what my interest is - how specific should i be? i've really enjoyed algebra as a whole, and i suppose field theory is very interesting (i haven't even learned any galois theory yet lmfao) but i don't know if that's specific enough orrr
its best to give as much information as you can. I did the same to one of my prof and we just ended up doing a reading course instead of research which is fine right
you dont wanna end up in a project where you cant contribute oof
yeah true but tbh like i know of no ongoing projects that are like accessible to someone who is like my level of math lol
which is pretty low
like in textbooks all i see are oh we're still working on the classification of nonabelian groups
and all of these open problems
that obviously i can't work on
right, so maybe the priority is like, building up the knowledge
and doing reading courses with profs are usually also good for networking+ grad apps
yea that's the reason i emailed in the first place LOL
as in like classes?
ye
i'm taking a graduate level algebra class next sem
i see, right you could still do a reading course with em but maybe after the grad algebra sequence? idk if thats viable bc that depends on the year. You could do the reading course now too
yeah i'm a second year, would prefer to do it maybe over the summer cuz imma apply to some research shit this fall
right i see, yeah REUs have like dedicated projects accessible to ugs so thats good
yeah i was gonna do a REU
so I would say do the grad algebra sequence next year, maybe the 2nd semester of next year do the reading course side by side
but ofcourse your professor will be able to tell you better what to do here, so tell her the details you just told me
that you are a 2nd year right now, and that you are taking grad algebra next year, and etc
and maybe she will tell you "ok finish this first than you can read this with me" etc
ah yeah i suppose that's true, but this was the first algebra class i'm taking and she's saying that i can do some reading i suppose so i'm hoping to get to work with her asap
what are like some examples of reading that profs will have undergrads do?
like i'm a little confused
as in to specialized research topics or just
"advanced" material
the latter in my experience
like yall will choose some topic and some source on the topic and read it and meet weekly etc
maybe she will involve a few other students (I usually prefer this as I am a social learner)
oh yeah maybe
can i just say like
i'm interested in galois theory?
or is that too general
sure
but i suspect she will tell you to do the grad algebra sequence first which will undoubtedly teach it
but after that you can go into more depths of it
Undergrads usually cannot narrow down further than this so this is fine btw
oh yeah that's totally fine
i'll also be studying some grad level algebra over the summer
ok ok thx
thank you!
mhm
Lol, both questions from Lang
well ill need to prove that
how can i prove that (X^2 - 7) is a maximal ideal?
showing that (X^2 - 7, f(X)) = Z[X] or (X^2 - 7) ?
I didn't do it this way. I think you can show that [k(x,y) : k(x^(1/p),y^(1/p)] = p^2, and that for any a in k(x^(1/p),y^(1/p)), [k(a) : k(x^(1/p),y^(1/p)] leq p.
Ok, so you know (X^2-7) is not Z[X]
Do you have Eisenstein?
Consider an element f not in (X^2-7), then you get remainder of f is in new ideal generated by f along with X^2-7
yeah that's equivalent to prime here
the remainder would be a deg 1 polynomial
so someting like (X^2 - 7, aX + b)
A geometric group theory question ig: I am given a set of non-trivial words $A = { g_{1}, ... , g_{n}) }$ of F(X) with the property that for $\epsilon_1, \epsilon_{2} \in {-1,1}$, that $| g^{\epsilon_{1}}{i} g^{\epsilon{2}}{j} | > max(| g^{\epsilon{1}}{i} |, | g^{\epsilon{2}}{j} |)$ holds whenever i is not equal to j or if i=j and eps1=eps2. The bars denote the reduced word length. I am supposed to show that these elements generate a subgroup isomorphic to $F{n}$. My idea was to use the ping-pong lemma using the set consisting out of reduced words obtained from finite sequences of elements in A such that two neighbouring words aren't inverses of each other. Then one forms $M^{\pm}{i}$ as the subset of reduced words whose equivalence class is the same as the sequences that start with $g^{\pm}{i}$ as the first word in the sequence. I don't know how to show that these sets would actually be disjoint from each other and if they aren't, what other idea to try.
Kerr
we would want to show that this is Z[X] or (X^2 - 7)
I don't think this would work for Z[x]
but its not (X^2 - 7)
What is a condition that given some ideal A of a ring R, that R/A is a domain?
Right, and Z[X] is factorial so prime elements and irreducible elements are the same.
but i wanted to learn the other method that @carmine fossil was showing
nvm that method won't work
I was assuming (X^2-7,aX+b) would give you (1)
Doesn't always happen
(X^2 - 7) isnt maximal right?
Yeah it's not
Did you assume Z[X] was a PID for that argument?
Z[X] isnt euclidean right
Well I thought Z was Q( that is I assumed all elements in Z are units)
Biggest mistake
Ah, just a localization away its probably fine
how would i show that (X^2 - 11) is a maximal ideal? in Z[X]
by showing that (X^2 - 11, aX + b) = (1) ?
If it was Z would be a field, so no.
whoops, meant to be a ">" instead
suppose that it is not , it is contained in some other ideal ( not necessairly principal ) and then arrive at a contradiction
During a proof, I saw a reasoning that went: "If K (the residue field of a local ring A) is a free A-module, then A must be a field" and I'm having trouble seeing why that is the case, or finding such a result online
how exactly?
are u sure it is even maximal
if its contained in some bigger ideal, say I, then I contains an element not in (X^2-11). Try using that to show I has to be the whole ring basically.
idc about principal
the ideals that would contain (x^2-11) would be ideals of Z[sqrt(11)]
so if an ideal contains I
actually yeah disregard what i said
oh
I forgot bezout doesnt work in Z[x] lol
A better way to check if it's maximal is to see if Z[X]/(X^2-11) is a field
the question says to prove this
yes ^
Does it ask to check if it's a field or to prove it's a field?
It says "Is Z[X](X^2 - 11) a field?"
😄
lmao
it is not
oh ..
do you see why
yes
or could showing that the ideal is not maximal could be easier?
do you see how this is the same as Z[sqrt(11)]?
finding a non unit is easier
its a root
yes and you can just use the natural map to find ur isomorphism
oh
now can u find an element that cant be inverted
in Z[sqrt(11)]
if u can then thats ur proof
that it is not a field.
ill try this
hence (x^2-11) is not maximal in Z[x]
maximal ideals in Z[x] always have the form (p,f(x)) where f(x) is irreducible mod p
with p prime
the element that maps to sqrt(11) is not unit right
Prove it!
prove that sqrt(11) doesn't have an inverse (this isn't too difficult)
?
just suppose it does
suppose there exists an element b in Z[sqrt(11)) such that sqrt(11)*b = 1
Write 1=(a+b sqrt(11)) sqrt(11)
and show that a + b sqrt(11) isn't in Z[sqrt(11)]
^
Hm, why is it?
The kernel of the evaluation map isn't necessarily principal here
mapping X to sqrt(11) gives isomorphism
with kernel (X^2 - 11)
$\sqrt(11) * (a + b\sqrt(11)) = 11b +a\sqrt(11)$
ActiveChapter
and that cant be 1
I think this is a restriction of the isomorphism b/w Q[x]/(X^2 - 11) and Q(sqrt(11))
whats an example of a principal ideal in Z[X] that is maximal?
Ah, that makes sense then.
(2)?
(57)?
its as momen said, the maximal ideals are (f(x),p) where f(x) is irreducible mod p
try showing that these are maximal idea.
this would just give us Z which is a PID not a field so this doesn't work
i se
I guess you could just add x to my and parrot's example though, (2,x) and (57,x) containing (2) and (57) properly.
yeah
(2,x) is not prinicipal sadly
is there principal ideals that are maximal?
no
none?
yeah
right
A constant?
F[x]/(p(x)) is a field iff p(x) is irreducible
given F is a field
Z is not a field
but you can do this
and now consider this counterexample
p(x) = x^2+1
and Z[x]
(x^2+1) cant be maximal otherwise Z[i] would be a field which is not
same argument
as 11
and as any element
reallyh
interesting
harder problems are like
asking if Z[sqrt(11)] is euclidean
or a pid
i dont know how to do those ";D
probably we do it the same asd we do Z[i]
by approximating +-1/2
you can actually tell when Z[sqrt(d)] is a UFD or not. But the answer is its often not
so you work with the "ring of integers" of Q[sqrt(d)] instead which are UFD
I think there are some nice results for Z[sqrt(-prime)]
But I didn't really care
And forgot them
algebra is pretty
we could show that there are non principal ideals
There aren't really
wdym
by definitoin any element can be a principal ideal
just (it)
u were asking if those can be maximal
yeah even finding class number for like, imaginary quadratic fields are hard
if we want to show Z[sqrt(D)] is not euclidean
too hard for me
same
it is for D = 11
yeah
and D =-1
Z[\sqrt(11)] is euclidean?
yes
what are we trying to solve right now
and Z[i] obv
idk if the same argument for Z[i] can be used to prove Z[sqrt(D)] for D squarefree
like approximating and shit but idk tbh
I was thinking about Z[i]/wZ[i], for w in Z[i]
its an open problem when the ring of integers of Q(sqrt(d)) is a UFD for d>0 i believe
we know the answer for sqrt(-d), these are the heegner numbers
and euclidean is a much stronger condition than UFD right
The usual argument about approximating lattice points can show that for n = -11, -7, -3, -2, -1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 7, 11, ... some list ending at... 73 the ring of integers of Q(sqrt(n)) is euclidean with the norm as the norm function.
But we know more generally under GRH that rings of integers which are PIDs are euclidean wrt some euclidean function.
Sorry for spreading missinformation
But the euclidean function will not be the norm.
Yeah it is a weird result as well.
People know some unconditional things as well. But I think beyond the cases like Z[i] where the lattice is so regular that it's really easy to prove that division works, it's useful to just give up on proving convergence of euclid's algorithm and use more fancy geometry of numbers.
right
if R is euclidean then R/I is also euclidean for any ideal right
any element of R/I can be sent back to R
this would imply Z[sqrt(D)]] is always euclidean
so we can do the division and send it back?
oof
yeah its not true in general
You want to perform euclidean division on representatives?
yeah
but quotients of PID are PID which is the important result
euclidean exists as a tool to figure out when something is PID
Someone up to speed with their geometric group theory? I'd have a question about nielsen-reduced sets or rather sets that are almost nielsen-reduced
Given some U such that N0 and N1 hold, supposedly it forms the basis of a free subgroup with U as its basis.
The arguments about that I can find is that using N2 one can write any u as l(u)m(u)r(u) where l is the longest segmenet cancelled on the left in any product and r is the longest segment cancelled on the right, that m must have non-zero length. But apparently one can still show that claim with only N0 and N1?
free object in the category of groups
if you know the categorical definitoin for free modules
then its the same but for groups
idk category
The free group over a generating set S is defined by its universal property, a popular representative is the group of "words"
a generating set that uniquely generates
wdym unique
a free group ,F(S),generated by a set S satsifies the property that given any function f from S to any other group G, there exists a unique homomorphism from F(S) to G such that the diagram in mind commutes
Free modules have finite combinations of elements, so they isomorphic to the direct sum of cyclic modules generated by each basis element.
Free group can sometimes be constructed as free product of groups. Free products and direct sums differ in general
Also usually not abelian either.
hmyes
if was have homomorphism from R[X] -> R such that X -> r and a |-> a
how do i show that the kernel is (X - r)
i can see that (X -r ) subsets Ker
but how to show the reverse inclusion?
any f(X) in the kernel |-> f(r) = 0
but does that mean that (X -r) divides f(X) ?
even if R is not field/R[X] is not euclidean?
Yes even then
how?
easiest way? 🙂
It depends on what generality you want to prove this in.
hm
If R is noetherian it's also easy
general ring
Ugh
Well so there is a map R[x] \to R sending x to r
there is also the map R[x] \to R by quotienting by x-r
Clearly the second map factors the first.
So if I is the kernel of the first map then I mod (x-r) is contained in R
But then I must have a generating set ((x-r), r_1, \dots) where the r_i \in R.
But if r_i \in R then you can verify by hand that r_i cannot be in the kernel of the map sending x to r.
Because that map is the identity on R.
i c
if $X \mapsto T^2$ and $Y \mapsto T^3$ is a homomorphism from Q[X,Y] to Q[T] how do i show that the kernel is (X^3 - Y^2)
idk how to show reverse inclusion
ActiveChapter
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A good method in this case is double inclusion. Look at an arbitrary element of the kernel and try to reduce it down to something more manageable via elements of (X^3 - Y^2)
but then what?
yes
so think about that now
f(X) + g(X)Y = X^nY or X^n right
No
Maybe it's better to think inside of k[t]
because you know in k[t] t doesn't satisfy any polynomial relations
So if P(X, Y) = 0 and we substitute X = t^3 Y = t^2 we see that after this substitution P must be identically 0
right
Since monomials of different degrees are linearly independent, we see that the relevant question is for what values of a, b, c, d is t^{2a}t^{3b} = t^{2c}t^{3d}
This is just asking when is 2a + 3b = 2c + 3d for a, b, c, d natural numbers.
Now this is just like some kind of very simple algebra about the semigroup of integers under addition.
i dont understand how that helps
because we want to show that f(X) is a multiple of (X^3 - Y^2)
so if we can write f(X) + g(X,Y)(X^3 - Y^2) = terms with only Y^1 or Y^0 right
it isn't, it's just that there exists an isomorphism that does fix K - which is nice for le galois theory
They are trying to give a criterion for "how unique" the algebraic closure of K is.
If something is unique up to automorphisms which fix K it is also unique up to automorphisms which don't necessarily fix K
But the minimal thing you can say is that it is unique up to the action of the isomorphisms which fix K.
It's the same mathematical reason why someone might say Prop: Z is a ring and not Prop: Z is an abelian group with a binary multiplication operation.
Because the former is more specific/more precise.
Beware, though: It is not unique up to unique isomorphism.
It is if K = \bar{K}
Or in general if K = K^{\text{sep}}
Sure, because then "fixing K" directly says it has to be the identity?
tfw no universal property
yeah exakt
I have a doubt about afine spaces
AGAIN
Let there be three skew lines in afine 3D space
that is, three lines which do not intersect nor are parallel to each other
let's say that they are all parallel to a given plane
prove that any straight line which intersects all three will be parallel to a certain plane, and determine that plane
How tf am I supposed to do that???
It doesn't even feel intuitive
but it's meant to be solved analytically through afine spaces
like, a set of points associated to a vector space
that's why i thought it'd be more appropriate in algebra
What have you tried?
What is $[\Q(i, \sqrt[3]{2}) : \Q]$
not sebbb not stμ₂dying
can i use tower here
Q(i, cube root) / Q(cube root) / Q
idk what [Q(i, cube root) : Q(cube root)] would be though
fuck wrong polynomial
lol
i'm literally so at a loss that i don't even know how to start
i've tried research and contacting peers, but everyone is equally at a loss
Have you tried writing out three skew lines just to see why its true for an example?
i'm supposed to pick a point and a vector, right?
for each
Yes and you should make sure that the vectors only lie in a given plane.
lie in a given plane?
yeah
didn't the question just say parallel to one?
it must obviously be <= 2
can it be 1?
The lines are parallel to one, which means the vector lies in that plane.
if you write the line as P + xV
then u add on the point and they move out
I think a useful thing is to reduce to the case that the plane is just z = 0 and one of the three lines lies on that plane.
yeah
to be clear, it cant be 1 bc i is lin independent from cube root 2 right
Also because the large field contains a subfield of degree 2
but lin ind. is enough right
That is enough but what I said proves that they are independent.
it's cute

and yes use tower law innit
related but - showing that $x^2 - 3$ is irreducible in $\Q(i)$
not sebbb not stμ₂dying
You can do it just by checking there are no roots
Which is clear
Since indeed we know what the roots are in C
or instead show x^2+1 is irred over Q(sqrt(3)) which is even easier :p
lol ye
hm I was trying to show like if R[t,t^-1] is Noetherian then R[t] is
Is the argument just like, well if R[t] isn't Noetherian, then R isn't, so R[t,t^-1] isn't
what does this imply
Cause we can just take an ascending chain in R and push it through to S:= R[t,t^-1], since given an ideal I of R, IS is just the Laurent polynomials with coefficients in I
it implies [Q(i, sqrt3):Q(sqrt3)] = 2, so [Q(i, sqrt3):Q] = 4, which finally gives you [Q(i, sqrt3):Q(i)] = 2
i see that but what's the relationship between index and irreducibility
potato
where hopefully the notation is self explanatory lol
why don't you just say ev_1 : R[t, t^-1] --> R is surjective so R noe, so R[t] noe
uwu 
Yes that is true, I think I confused it w something else lol
That is what I would do yes
I basically showed that and crossed it out, why, gr
Thank
is $R^n \otimes_R M \iso M^n$?
having a brain fart here
can't we just use basically the same proof as the one for n = 1
Looks right. I think you can prove in general that tensoring distributes over direct sums.
det 
walter and det uwu

would pZ x pZ be sufficient? (for p a prime)
Have you proved it's maximal?
nah i was about to try
Maybe there's some quick test you could do that shows it's maximal :)
well i know you can quotient it out right
to see if it's a field
but idk how to show it's a field lol
And what is the quotient?
It does have unity.
Its unit is (1,1)
right
Are you saying that the quotient is Z/pZ x Z/pZ?
oh nah (Z x Z)/(pZ x pZ)
Well I'll just spoil this. That is isomorphic to Z/pZ x Z/pZ.
Maybe you should try proving that
What does that tell you about the ideal being maximal?
wdym
well if it's iso to Z/pZ x Z/pZ
and that's not a field then it's not maximal
hm
this leads me to believe that there are no proper nontrivial maximal ideals
idk i'm prob wrong tho
oh i haven't read zorn yet
Details.
I will tell you this: for any n,m the set nZ x mZ is an ideal of Z x Z, and its quotient is Z/nZ x Z/mZ. This generalises, btw.
hm maybe Z x pZ
ah ok
oh wait
i think this wokrs
cuz thats iso to {0} x Zp by what you just said
wait i'm stupid
that's not even a field
nvm
i suppose i should try to get Z/pZ cuz that's iso to Zp
Yes
What is Z x Z / Z x pZ
i'll try proving this yeah
The general statement is that if R, S are rings then:
(1) Every ideal of R x S is of the form I x J for an ideal I of R and J of S, and
(2) (R x S)/(I x J) is isomorphic to (R/I) x (S/J).
okeyokay
Is this fine? for (1)
The argument about subrings doesn't make sense to me.
Ideals are not merely sub-rngs.
Furthermore, I think your conclusion that every subring of R x S is of that form is simply not true.
i just wanted to show existence of such an ideal of R x S
ignore this, linkinn to old convo
Take, for example, the subring of R x R given by {(r,r) | r in R}
wait but wouldn't that satisfy my argument
cuz R is a subring of R
You claim "it is clear that any subring of R x S must be of the form I x J" but this subring is not of that form.
So no, it does not satisfy your argument.
i'm confused though, isn't {(r, r) | r in R} = R x R
No
how tho
Is the element (1, 2) in {(z, z) | z in \mathbb Z}?
ohh i see you're requiring them to be the same
That's right
Try again. I suggest you use the first isomorphism theorem to prove (2).
bringing this back but i dont see how this relates to transitivity
ah ok that makes sense thx
not sebbb not stμ₂dying
that's the question
Didn't this already get answered
we talked about it yeah
.
but we got off topiic
unless i missed somethiing
So for Q(\alpha_i) Q(\alpha_j) you should build an isomorphism between them
Using some presentation of these algebras in terms of polynomials
Then use Zorn's lemma (that's the standard way) to show that there exists an automorphism of \bar{Q} which does this isomorphism on these subfields
hadnt even thought about the lemon
Zorn's lemma on the set of (L, \alpha) where L is a subfield of \bar{Q} containing Q(\alpha_i, \alpha_j) and \alpha is an automorphism inducing that isomorphism
are you using Q interchangeably with an arbitrary field
if R is a finite commutative ring with unity and N is a prime ideal in R, then N is maximal since R/N is a finite integral domain iff R/N is a field iff N is maximal correct?
yes
Yes :chad:

theyre the same as F[x]/(m(x))
where that m is the minimal polynomial of a given root
but that's the same f in the question since it's irreducible
ok i see that much but you lose me at the lemon
(yes i know what the lemon does)
The lemon is just a way of taking this isomorphism and extending it to an automorphism of the alg closure one step at a time
Like we can see a way (I claim) to extend from automorphism of L to automorphism of L(x) for some x
So we use the lemon
oh when you said "does this isomorphism"
that literally is transitivity right
Uh I just mean that we have an identification of these subfields
but we want to show it comes from some automorphism
if we show that since i, j are arbitrary we get transitivity yes
wdym alpha is an automorphism
isn't it a root 
ah
so zorn gives us an automorphism of a subfield of Fbar which can be extended to a transitive automorphism of Fbar
No just one that takes \alpha_i to \alpha_j
But since i, j are arbitrary we can send \alpha_i to any \alpha_j with some automorphism
so the action of all automorphisms is transitive
ok rephrased: zorn gives us a specific automorphism of a subfield of Fbar sending a_i to a_j which can be extended to an Fbar automorphism and this can be done for all i,j
Okay let's do this a different way
You start with a field L = F(\alpha_i)
You have \alpha: L \to Fbar with \alpha(F) = F and \alpha(\alpha_i) = \alpha_j
You then use Zorn to extend this from F(\alpha_i) to Fbar.
At the end you get \bar{\alpha}: Fbar \to Fbar
Sending \alpha_i to \alpha_j
What's the idea of a grupoid? Why does the fundamental group qualifies as one?
@prisma ibex
the fundamental group is a group, it depends on a basepoint. It's natural to get rid of the dependence on basepoint by considering the whole fundamental groupoid
if you think of groups as categories with one object where all morphisms are invertible, then groupoids are like groups with more than one object
Ok, I think I got (2): Define $\varphi: R \times S \to (R/I) \times (S/J)$ by $\varphi\bigl((r, s)\bigl) = \bigl((r + I), (s + J)\bigl)$. We check that $\varphi$ is well-defined. We know that the canonical homomorphism $\gamma: R \to R/I$ is well-defined; that is, if $r = r_1$, then $r + I = r_1 + I$. Similarly, since $\psi: S \to S/J$ is well-defined, $s = s_1 \implies s + J = s_1 + J$. Hence, if $(r, s) = (r_1, s_1)$, then $\varphi\bigl((r, s)\bigl) = \bigl((r + I), (s + J)\bigl) = \bigl((r_1 + I), (s_1 + J)\bigl) = \varphi\bigl((r_1, s_1)\bigl)$. It is clear that $\varphi$ is onto $(R/I) \times (S/J)$. It follows that Ker($\varphi$) = $I \times J$, for if $(i, j) \in I \times J$, $\varphi\bigl((i, j)\bigl) = \bigl((i + J), (j + J)\bigl) = (I, J)$ which is the identity in $(R/I) \times (S/J)$. Hence, it follows that $(R \times S)/(I \times J) \simeq (R/I) \times (S/J)$ by the first isomorphism theorem.
okeyokay
I only have some idea of categories but what would it be a counterexample where a group can't be a groupoid, and by objects you mean sub classification characterized by whatever parameter of these groups?
every group is a groupoid in a natural way
roughly speaking a category consists of a collection of objects and a collection of maps between them, which you can compose
Like the category of all sets and all functions between them
if you have a category with only one object then the only additional data is the maps from the object to itself, which you can compose with each other
this naturally forms a monoid. If you demand these maps are invertible then this naturally forms a group
I mentioned the above comment because it seems that the fundamental group characterizes a space to find its genus. I'm not sure although I believe this conclusion is a bit too ambicious, maybe this is a misunterstanding from what i believe the professor was going for.
I mean yes there are several things wrong with this
That is a very neat way of forming a monoid
if you're talking about topological surfaces then yeah you can recover the genus from the fundamental group
in general there are many spaces which are not homotopy equivalent but which have the same fundamental group
genus isn't really a thing that makes sense in general
the other subtlety is even in the case of surfaces, you should add the word "connected" otherwise the fundamental group can't tell the difference between different connected components
like if you had a space X which is the disjoint union of a genus 1 surface and a genus 2 surface let's say
each connected component will have a different fundamental group
if you talk about the fundamental groupoid then this is okay, you just have a fundamental groupoid with two connected components so to speak
I see thanks for clarifying my foggy introduction for this subject
no problem!
what does "let p_0, ..., p_n, q in P^n such that no n + 1 points lie within a hyper plane" mean
does it just mean
"let blabla in P^n such that they don't all lie on a hyper plane"
It means let p_0, ..., p_n, q in P^n are points such that no n + 1 points lie within a hyper plane
who hurt you
A hyperplane is the zeroes of a single linear homogenous polynomial
the definition I know is that a hyperplane is a subset of the form pi(V \ { 0 }) with dim V = n
where pi is the quotient mapping
Yeah that's the same
I don't think you can buy those anymore
I still don't understand the original sentence
A linear homogenous equation is \sum_i a_i X_i = 0
So they're asking that for every hyperplane and every n+1 tuple of those points at least one point is not on the hyperplane.
It's the same as when people say 5 points with no 4 coplanar or something.
It just means that the points are generic in some sense.
wtf does coplanar mean 
Lying on a plane
So 2 points determine a line
If you have a set of 3 points they're "generic" if not all 3 lie on a line
Similarly if you have 4 points they're generic if not all 4 of them lie on a plane.
Etc.
"tuple of those points"?
No selection of n+1 of them
Ahhhh my dude
you are killing me
You took n+2 points in projective space
of dimension n
Yes
You are now asking that if you take any cardinality n+1 subset of those n+2 points
That they don't lie on an n-1 dimensional linear subvariety of the original thing.
Alternatively they don't live inside of a P^{n-1} which lives inside of P^n
A group G is solvable if you keep recursively finding commutator subgroups and eventually get the trivial subgroup. I know a polynomial is solvable in radicals if the automorphism group of its splitting field is solvable, but I don't really see how the two concepts are connected.
let's say the polynomial is irreducible and F/Q is the corresponding Galois extension, then Gal(F/Q) is solvable precisely if the polynomial is solvable in radicals, each time you take an n-th root this corresponds to having a cyclic group Z/nZ as a composition factor
the sentence starting with similar arguments refers to these groups as subgroups of H, right?
oh
well the two ones starting with K* would be subgroups of K right
K*(H intersect K) and K*(H* intersect K)
oops
you know what i mean
name of book?
oh yeah my bad forgot to get back to you
fraleigh a first course in abstract algebra
this is section 35, series of groups
so the quadratic residues mod 17 form a multiplicative group, right? is it possible for it to be cyclic? can the group of quadratic residues ever be cyclic?
i think 2 might be a generator but I'm not sure
or... i suppose any element of order (p-1)/2 would be a generator... isn't there a theorem about what orders are guaranteed in a group?
what group do you get for multiplication mod p?
how might that restrict what possible subgroups you might get
oh right. U(p) is cyclic so its subgroups are cyclic
Knowing that j is a cubic root of 1 in complex numbers C
I want to find the irreducible minimal polynomial of j over Q
Knowing also that j^2+j+1=0
I did this
You observe that j is a root of f(x) = x^2 + x + 1, and that f only has complex roots, specifically j and j^2 so it must be irreducible over Q
Yes so I just say that theyre not in Q?
Yeah, that's enough for degree 2/3 polynomials
Okay
Reason being if they are reducible, you can factor out a linear factor which will just be x-a where a is a root of f(X), not in Q, a contradiction.
Can anyone tell me how they get the statement circled in blue?
I just know that for any $\bar{r(x)}\in\mathbb{Q}[x]/(x^2)$, it is related to the form of $f(x)=q(x)x^2+r(x)$, but why there exists such $\bar{x}$?
Trenton
x^2=0 rather trivially
Remember that the elements of Q[x]/(x^2) are of the form a + (x^2) for some element a of Q[x]. You should very easily be able to see that since x^2 is in (x^2), we have x^2 + (x^2) = 0 + (x^2).
What is the rank of a group of Lie type?
Got it! Thanks!
What do you mean by a group of lie type?
Do you mean a Lie group? or are you talking about "finite groups of lie type?"
finite groups of lie type
i'm thinking about those appearing in the classification of finite simple groups
Finite groups of lie type come from reducing some algebraic groups modulo primes, so they are the F_p points of some algebraic groups. The rank of these groups is the dimension of a maximal torus in that group either as an algebraic group over that field, or the dimension of a maximal torus of the complex points of an associated group in char 0.
So for instance Gl_n(F_p) has rank n
The better way to define this is to use root systems to classify the finite groups of lie type over an algebraically closed field, then the rank of a group of lie type comes from the rank of the associated root system
thank u
R is always free
But ideals in R may or may not be free
Can you think of some free submodules of R?
principal ideals?
Yes great
Since R is integral those are free modules of rank 1
What do non-principal ideals look like?
two or more generators
That's possible too if you don't assume R is noetherian
But suppose $I \cong R^\alpha$ for some $\alpha$, where $R^\alpha$ is some direct sum of $R$'s
What happens when you pass to the fraction field?
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
showing this is injective would show its free, right
Yes but showing that it's not injective doesn't necessarily show that it's not free
if it was injective
You have to show that any choice of such a surjection is not injective.
oh
So okay if S is any multiplicative set then if M \to N is injective so is S^{-1}M \to S^{-1}N
are we sending I to R's fraction field?
We are taking M = I, N = R and S = R - {0} in the above proposition
See if you can figure out why I cannot be free of rank > 1
what does rank mean again?
Rank is the number of R's in the free module
so R^n is rank n
Every free module is R^I for I some set
where this means \oplus_{i \in I} R
which is somewhat bad notation because it looks like a product.
mapping from R to I, r -> ra
thats a surjection
when I in principal
and injection?
It's an injection because R is a domain
Which is why some people choose to notate it $R^{\oplus I}$ which is slightly better
ShiN
yea, its also surjection???
Obviously yes
so R is isomorphic to principal ideals?
By the definition of (r) that is a surjection
Yes as a module
as Rings too??
Obviously nontrivial principal ideals don't have a unit so not as a ring or anything.
but i thought R is a ring iff R is an R module ??
💀


I don't even know what that is supposed to mean.
"Is an R-module" doesn't even make sense unless R is a ring.
The really interesting exercise (from Atiyah and Macdonald) is that even if R is not a domain there is no injection R^n \to R^k for k < n.
Which is surprisingly hard.
When you can localize to the fraction field though, this reduces to linear algebra.
You should think about why!
I tried to give you a hint above.
No
There is an injection R \to R with image (a)
But this doesn't mean that (a) = R as submodules of R
necessarily
okay
comm alg is so evil in this aspect
Think about the integers: even integers are an ideal, there is an injection Z \to Z by n \to 2n. However not every integer is even.
easy and intuitive looking statements can get so hard to prove
I agree, I think the surprising thing is that that exercise is doable. It's easy to imagine a universe in which it's a completely intractable problem for arbitrary rings.
okay so all principal ideals are free of rank 1
I resent your assumption that rings need be unital
and for any other ideal, there cannot be any isomorphism from R^n to I ?
average non-commuter
is there any intuition/motivation behind splitting fields
Preach shin
When do they polynomials have all they roots
I and nearing my goal to finish Abstract Algebra using Judson but I don't feel very confident in my abilities to do abstract algebra. What should I do to improve it? Should I just I solve more problems using a tougher book say Herstein or something else?
Yeah I would second that, try doing some random schools alg quals or whatever
wew fr can you elaborate a bit pls
Idk if that’s the level you are aiming for
can you explain this part again?
But being able to do them is a good indicator. I
Couldnt I be free with infinitely many elements
No. That’s my intuition - if a polynomial splits over a field then all of its roots are in that field
oh okay that one is at least comprehensible 
I am not sure if I wanna do analysus or algebra later plus a lot of higher maths is intertwined so I wanna sure I am good with basics
plus there's also the target of competitive exams
Yeah for sure you want to have enough knowledge to pass quals of e.g. your school maybe
Galois theory deals with automorphism of the field, so wouldn't it be nice if all the embeddings of K in it's algebraic closure actually give an automorphism? In that sense, you will have "enough" automorphism to separate the roots.
So I’d suggest looking into that probs
this is what im reading
thanks! 
feels like a bit much lol
Yeah it’s the smallest field required for the polynomial to split - so examining that polynomial in larger fields doesn’t reveal anything else
This is basically just saying it's the smallest field s.t. all the roots of your polynomial are contained
sniped

it's ok you sniped me
the food chain is long
can you write I as a direct sum of R's?
polynomial in the larger field right?
that is essentially the question
but wouldnt this work for any finitely generated ideals?
We should probably make some threads as there are multiple convos happening here
I = (a, b) I is not free here?
the splitting field of a polynomial P(x) in F[x] is just F(a_1,...a_n) where the a_i are exactly the roots of P
but like
OK so this ideal can be written as aR + bR
Now if there's no intersection between these two then it's free (and we replace the + with a \oplus)
If the intersection is non-zero it's not free
oh ...
without referencing an algebraic closure or something, it doesn't make sense to talk about the roots of P a priori
which is why you want to define it as the "smallest field such that bla bla bla"
it's the smallest field containing all the roots of a polynomial
So like idk that feels like motivation enough lol
yeah it takes a while to get used to free modules
overall, how would you answer this question?
we know principal ideals are free
and those finitely generated ideals such that intersection are 0, are also free
what about non finitely generated ideals?
"How would you answer this question?"
"I would say: "I would say: "I would say: "I wou[NO CARRIER]
There's the rub; is the intersection ever just 0?
?
not sure haha
r/woosh
For the sake of simplicity (and to make my point valid), consider the case of an integral domain
El momento de reddit 
for this question, R is an integral domain
Non sono capace ma è quasi uguale a italiano

Oh perfect, sorry I haven't read any of the context and just jumped in at your last message lol
je suis dans ta mere
فعلن
since domain, r and y are forced be 0
Well you're operating under the assumption that the principal ideals (a) and (b) have trivial intersection. Why should that be the case?
Then what is this message about?
me gusta tu madre
if we had (a) cap (b) = (0) then (a,b) would be free of rank 2, yes?
Yes, if they had zero intersection then that would be true
As long as ra = 0 implies r = 0.
but you are saying that they can never have 0 intersection?
and similarly for b.
Oh, good point topos
because ab is in the intersection. In your case R is an integral domain so ab is nonzero.
Yes, I'm claiming that if a and b are non zero then (a) cap (b) is nonzero
For the reason topos pointed out
In general: R^2 \to (a, b) is injective when restricted to (r, 0) and (0, r) iff ra = 0 = r'b implies that both r = 0 and r' = 0. In this case ab is nonzero, which implies that (b, -a) is in the kernel.
So ideals which require at least two generators in any ring are never free.
The domain assumptions just make the argument simpler.
Oh, I suppose if your ideal were free then your generators would necessarily be non zero divisors to preserve linear independence
this also covers when I has infinite generators aswell?
If R^{\oplus \infty} \to I is an isomorphism then there is a J \subset I which is generated by 2 elements and also free.
I certainly hope infinity is at least two
If $R^{\oplus \infty} \to I$ is an isomorphism then there is a $J \subset I$ which is generated by 2 elements and also free.
ReL
ActiveChapter
i cN aGrE
Yes, they wanted you to prove it a different way
I tried to explain it to you but you didn't focus on the explanation I tried to give.
I like our solution better anyway 
i didnt understand 🙁



