#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 95 of 1
I think I fucked something up here
I need to give an explicit isomorphism between the two group algebras at the top
I do this by chaining a bunch of isomorphisms
and the end result when I checked by hand seems wrong
X^1 has order 4 in the complex group algebra but the element I got at the end is not of order 4
I think my f(x) and g(y) are fine?
what did I do wrong man
anyone?
I have checked a bunch that f(1) = 1, f(-1) = i, g(1) = -1, and g(-1) = -i
so that's definitely right
unless I've lost all basic algebra abilities, very possible
I feel maybe the very last part where I map the chosen (f(x), g(y)) is wrong?
specifically how I map the constants
but whatever I map those to, they should cancel right?
nvm maybe I found it
yea I found it I'm a moron
$(h_1h_2^{-1})(h_1h_2^{-1})^{-1}g(h_1h_2^{-1})(h_1h_2^{-1})^{-1} = g$
blanket
they just created identities on either side
these really helped me do well in a class i expected to fail
god bless you
Yes
ignore me lol
Don't paradox yourself on a math discord
What does that mean?
How to calculate Z/mZ (X) Q
I can see that all elements have order <= m
Its just 0?
Since a x p/q = a x p/q * (m/m) = ma x p/q * 1/m = 0
am i correct
If you have a module M and a module N, and r \in R acts invertibley on N and not on M, then automatically M \otimes N = 0.
only over Z?
????
groups are Z modules
What else are you planning on tensoring a finite abelian group with Q over?
Something something extension of scalars
Irregardless of the fact that we’ve just established trying to extend the scalars of a finite abelian group to Q gives u 0
You always have a surjective map M \otimes_Z N \to M \otimes_R N anyway. So if the tensor over Z is zero then it is the same over any other ring.
What kind of example works for the last part?
f,g both injective but f x g is not
$M \otimes_{\bZ} N \rightarrow M \otimes_{\bR} N$ for the people in the back!!
Wew
This is a good exercise! Maybe you should give it a little thought. Iirc either you or sebb asked a related question recently.
Something something initial object yeah
Should try looking at Z/mZ ?
Yeah these are good exercises, the 2nd one is basically showing it’s right-exact too
Hm so i want to go from a large group to a small group
f: Z/12 -> Z/13Z and g: Z/12Z -> Z/15Z
then we get f x g : Z/12Z -> Z/Z = 0
You need f and g to be injective
f has to be the zero map there
Z/13 has only 13-torsion and Z/12 has only 4, 3, 2, 6, 12 torsion.
Alternatively look at the additive subgroups, you’d need to map the generator (which is order 12) of Z/12Z to an element of order 13, which only leaves the trivial map as 13 is prime
It is not well-defined even
nope
Do you recall what Z/mZ (x) Z/nZ is isomorphic to?
The gcd is a good way of getting a small number from two big numbers
Yeah so you’ll need maps that look like Z/mZ -> Z/kmZ for some k
So one of f or g can be the identity
At least one of the abelian groups has to be torsion.
ah
so we take m and n to be coprime
then we get a map from Z -> Z/kZ
understood
itself 
Love when Lang disguises a theorem as an excercise
That was 6-8 hours down the drain
Q won't be a module over that!
How does S (x) M become an S module?
Since s * (t (x) m) = st (x) m, should it also be t (x) sm ?
No
because the tensor product is over R
Which means only elements of R can pass from left to right and vis versa
The structure is that s*(1 \otimes m) = (s \otimes m)
i see
In general the structure of an S-module is just the structure of a map $m: S \otimes_Z M \to M$ such that both of the maps $S \otimes_Z S \otimes_Z M \to S \otimes M \to M$ (one multiplying $s_1$ by $s_2$ first then multiplying the result by $M$, and one multiplying $s_2$ by $M$ first then multiplying by $s_1$) are the same map.
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
So somehow for any abelian group $M$ $S \otimes M$ can be made "the trivial $S$-module" by defining the map $m: S \otimes_Z (S \otimes_Z M) \to S \otimes_Z M$ to just be multiplication in the first two factors.
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
Then $S \otimes_R M$ is just a quotient of this.
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
@dim widget did you finish university already?
you have more knowledge on algebra than my professor
yeah I am not in university.
Yes it is not
So how does this quotient work?
More interestingly it is not even a submodule of M
The quotient M/IM? Which quotient do you mean?
R/ I (x) M
That is $(R/I) \otimes M$
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
The parentheses matter.
It's I guess ambiguous. But that's what they mean.
Would this be false since 0.999... = 1?
Isn't f just floor(10x) - 10floor(x)?
And floor(x) can be defined as the supremum of the set {y in Z | y < x}
You're giving an interpretation of the map which is well-defined. But the whole point of questions like "is this map well-defined" is to learn that sometimes intuitive-seeming mathematical ideas can be deceptive. The way that sentence is written the map is not well defined, but it's easy to make a version of it that is by making more choices (like you did).
What additional choice did I make?
You gave a specific way to interpret "first element to the right of the decimal point" which is unambiguous.
Like for the example of .99999999999... your definition does not agree with the naive definition, so you have disambiguated the meaning of "first digit to the right of ." in a way which gives an unambiguous answer.
You could've chosen to disambiguate differently, so that all integers are mapped to 9 for instance.
Is there a definition of a decimal expansion?
@dim widget nice color
There is the usual map from subspace of sequences ${0, \dots, 9}^{\mathbb{Z}}$ which are all zero for entries indexed by $N << 0$ to $\mathbb{R}$ given by taking $(n_i) \to \sum_i n_i/10^{i}$.
There are other definitions as well.
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
But I would call any fiber of this map over a point x a decimal expansion of x.
N is an index of an element of the sequence $n_i$, and $N<<0$ just means "for $N$ sufficiently small and negative"
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
So in other words this map is only defined on sequences $n_i$ such that $n_i = 0$ for any $i$ which are less than $N$ for some $N$.
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
Topos_Theory_E-Girl 
Yes, because of the condition about the sequence vanishing it is well-defined, I have ensured that all such sequences converge
Sorry for all of these questions
That's okay! But these questions about decimal expansions would probably go better in a different # (perhaps #real-complex-analysis ), arguably even the first question that was asked about this was off topic. However I do think it's very much worth asking about
A lot of people took decimals to be the definition of real numbers for most of their childhood without really considering what that entailed.

you got that real fasrt
One last question, in $\mathbb{R}$ does $\sum_{i\in \mathbb{N}} x_i$ mean $\lim_{n\to \infty}\sum_{i=1}^n x_i$?
Parrot Tea

It depends on what you mean by $\mathbb{N}$ i.e. are you French or English speaking.
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
But yes the idea that it's defined by a limit is correct.
my prof is doing an intro to classical ag 
Whatever I want it to be at a certain point
schemes >
Tbh I never write $\sum_{i\in \mathbb N} x_i$
Croqueta
because there is no order specified
In mathematics, the Riemann series theorem (also called the Riemann rearrangement theorem), named after 19th-century German mathematician Bernhard Riemann, says that if an infinite series of real numbers is conditionally convergent, then its terms can be arranged in a permutation so that the new series converges to an arbitrary real number, or d...
and then things are dangerous
unless you prove absolute convergence and things
I do it when convergence isn't an issue
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2419674/abi-is-algebraic-over-mathbbq-iff-a-and-b-are-algebraic-over-mathb
repost from yesterday but im confused about the backwards implication here - are all finite extensions algebraic
Yes
guess its fine then
If we ignore him, then we'd ignore him saying to ignore him, meaning we don't have to ignore him
Say [K:k] = n, then 1,a,a^2,...,a^n are linearly dependant over k, for any a in K
finite => algebraic
algebraic and fg => finite
Are there stronger anologies between direct limits and "actual" limits than them just kinda feeling the same?
But if I don't paradox myself, then I don't not not paradox myself, which is the same as (not)^i paradoxing myself for all i odd, which in the limit is the same as .....(not)(not)(not) paradoxing myself, but this is the same as ...(not not)(not not) paradoxing myself which is the same as paradoxing myself. But this is itself a paradox?

Nah
Is this what the category theorists' call abstract nonsense?
Haha god knows what category theorists call abstract nonsense. This is what people call a "swindle." Sometimes it's based on doing something silly and invalid but sometimes it's genuinely correct reasoning.
Why are you assuming \sum^{\infty} log(not) is absolutely convergent?
Sorry meant to say log not
An actual limit seems more naturally like an inverse limit not a direct limit to me. Also this should be in #category-theory I guess.
so the idea here is that adjoining i to Q is a finite extension?
well a and b are just elements of Q
Oh
I mean, that depends on how you look at it, since you could argue that a direct limit's a lot like the limit of a sequence, yeah?
it's this
but dont the () mean "smallest subfield containing"
But yes adjoining i gives a finite extension
Also, I hate how in math, a lot of the time, ideas make a ton of sense, but then people go and make them more general, which makes it more confusing
OH yeah, a direct limit is the limit of a direct system. You know, instead of a damn sequence
?
People dont just make up definitions for the hell of it
Yeah, it just annoys me when stuff is made more confusing because it makes the definition more general
The reason it’s defined for a directed system is because that construction shows up in that form in other problems
So if you only defined it for a literal sequence then you wouldnt be able to apply it when necessary
I don't really understand why a direct limit is more like a limit than an inverse limit except that the notation looks the same. This is not an argument imo
Uh, because you could take a direct limit by taking a sequence of groups with homomorphisms between them, and construct the direct limit from that
You can definitely make a direct limit out of a sequence, it's just that direct systems allow for more generality.
Nothing, it just annoys me because it's more effort to understand
Welcome to math? Lol
Yeah, fuck math :(
This is again just repeating the definition, it is not an argument for why it's analogous. In what category are you thinking that the direct limit of a sequence is the limit of the sequence in say R?
Tteg i dont think they are on that topic anymore
I think they are now just complai ing about the definition of direct limit
Uh, because if you draw an anology between the sequence "looking" more and more like the direct limit itself the "farther" down into the direct system you get, that's analogous to the sequence getting closer and closer to its limit
You could say the same thing about inverse limits
Which means this isnt a good argument
I think all of these various limits are just generalizations of all procedures in math which possibly involve doing an infinite process in math, and possibly not. They're not meant to just generalize limits of sequences in any way, they were far more directly motivated by certain operations in algebra.
Well yeah, it's an argument for a subjective opinion about one thing looking like another thing
I don’t really think of limits and colimits as limits (like in analysis). I just think of the universal property.
It's not gonna be rock solid. It's not necessarily even an argument, just an explanation of my pov
In some sense i guess they are the same since direct limits and inverse limits are categorical duals
Yes in any category which you construct in which the objects are elements of R and the morphisms are such that direct limits agree with limits of sequences, I'll show you another one where the same is true but with direct replaced with inverse.
Yes i know that lol thats why i said it
Yeah I was just unpacking what you said.
Since this is a 3-person conversation where one person is just learning category theory.
What makes you think I'm just learning category theory?
This conversation?
Again, as I've said multiple times, I'm explaining my subjective perspective on the analogies I have in my head that help my understanding
How exactly is those analogies not being rigorous making you think I don't know what I'm talking about?
For one, you started with this question
Also why the fuck does conversation get shortened to convo, when it realistically should be conver or conve or something?
I didn't say you didn't know what you're talking about. Just that you might still be learning which is fine.
Which comes across as you not knowing the answer and asking for feedback from someone who might know the answer
If someone asks “can someone help me understand the definition of a group” then it certainly comes across like they are just learning abstract algebra for the first time
Also, I'm pretty sure there's a pretty natural way of describing the limits of sequences as the direct limits
Which is more natural than taking the dual of it would be
What way is that?
Attach each object to an element of the sequence, morphisms are "distance to the limit is smaller".
okay leq
That presumes you know what the limit is to begin with
This is a terrible definition, a.) it presuposes the existence of the limit in order to be well-defined, b.) then there are not necessarily morphisms $a_n \to a_{n+1}$
Fair
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
Ok i have to go to work. Tteg you can take it from here lmao
Yeah, the idea was more to take a sequence we can already describe and attach a category to it such that the limit of the sequence makes sense as the direct limit in the category
Yeah I think there are likely infinitely many ways to do this since R is not naturally a category in any way shape or form. For each one of them there will be a dual notion which looks just as natural.
Sure
Although now I want to see if I can work cauchyness into this idea, because that fixes issue a. that you pointed out
Don't take this as me arguing my point or anything btw, I'm just curious about a math idea I had at this point
I think maybe that is the way to salvage some educational mathematics from this discussion, as that's a very good basic exercise in understanding the process of "categorifying" certain classical constructions in mathematics and using the actual definitions of these concepts.
I mean maybe, but honestly it just seems like a fun exercise to me
No one said (correctly) that educational things can't be fun!
Tons of people have said that
Including me a couple times at least
but sure I agree with you
sorry to repeat but - my question here was that i was under the impression that Q(a,b,i) would mean "smallest subfield of Q containing a,b,i", but a,b,i aren't necessarily elements of Q so how can there be a subfield containing them
It isn't really a well-defined notion unless a, b, i are considered as elements of an algebraic closure or some other over-field
i definitely isn't an element of Q
As a side note, writing i in lowercase is the hardest part about math
so the () notation is just weird?
The actual definition is that $Q((a_i))$ is usually just the algebra of elements $\sum_i b_{i, j} a_i^{n_j}$ where $b_{i, j} = 0$ for all but finitely many $i, j$ and $n_i \in \mathbb{Z}$, modulo some algebraic relations that the $a_i$ are assumed to satisfy.
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
Also the $b_{i, j} \in \mathbb{Q}$
Topos_Theory_E-Girl

Polynomials in a_i, with possibly negative coefficients
But like what are a, b in your example?
Algebras are just polynomials but meaner
Okay then since all the elements lie naturally in C the definition of Q(a, b, i) is the smallest subfield of C containing {a, b, i}
It's gonna be a subfield of $f[a, b, i]$, right?
Halliday
What are a and b? Depending on what a, b are it may not be finite.
Idk if the degree of an extension is nice enough for that to help though
Do you know that Q(a), Q(b) are finite for instance?
I think that's an assumption of the problem, based on the phrasing of the picture sent
they're just arbitrary reals
That can't be true
There must be more context not in your screenshot
For instance if a = \pi Q(\pi) is not finite.
Okay this is easier.
a,b \in R 
Woah, this guy managed to say something wrong on MSE without getting murdered
that's a first
But a, b are actually in $\bar{\mathbb{Q}} \cap \mathbb{R}$ in your question which is significant.
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
Oh, wait yup
Since they're algebraic over Q, they're the root of a polynomial in Q, so Q[a] and Q[b] are finite
Anyway the actual exercise should be generalized. Suppose that a, b are algebraic over a field K, show that K(a, b) is algebraic over K.
I think the point of the exercise is to show that the algebraic closure of Q has to include complex numbers
Which is obvious if you know it already, but not if you don't
This isn’t true like C is not a subfield of \bar{Q}

x not algebraic?
It is true when x is algebraic. It is an iff
You've done a classic blunder
The arrow goes the other way, it's that \bar{Q} is a subfield of C
In that case x is transcendental, because it does not satisfy any (nonzero) polynomial by definition.
That is what it means for x to be an "indeterminate"
It satisfies the polynomial x - x
That is just 0
I don't think that is helpful.

It tells us that F[x] / (0) is the quotient we get when we associate zero with zero
That's not abstract algebra
Whatd be the best channel for this then?
It’s probably musical isomorphism
Not here, I would put this in #modeling or #advanced-analysis or #real-complex-analysis
That seems like the best fit.
So you're familiar with quotient rings and ideals, yeah? Well one way to think of the quotient ring over an ideal generated by an element is as the quotient ring you get when you set that element to zero. For example, if you take Q[x]/(x^2 - 2), you're basically taking polynomials in Q, except you're also stating that $x^2 - 2 = 0$, right?
Halliday
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
So basically what you're doing is taking the ring of polynomials over some field, and declaring that some polynomial is equal to zero
Here are answers to all of your questions: first Q(a + bi) is algebraic iff a, b are algebraic. Suppose a, b are algebraic, then you can show that if the degree of the minimal polynomial of a is n and the degree of the minimal polynomial of b is m then Q(a, b, i) has Q-rank less than 2mn because you can explicitly make a spanning set of this size. Because Q(a, b, i) is finite dimensional over Q, you know that any element satisfies a polynomial, since the first (2mn +1) powers of that element are linearly dependent. In the other direction, if Q(a + bi) is finite dimensional, then so is Q(a + bi, i) by the same argument as the above (construct an explicit basis). But Q(a + bi, i) = Q(a, b, i) so that means that a, b are algebraic.
Now about your question about Q(x) for x some element of some field L such that Q \subset L. If Q[x] = Q(x) then there exists p = \sum_i a_ix^i such that px = 0, whence x satisfies a polynomial over Q. On the other hand this logic is invertible, so this shows that this is iff.
akckchkchually x^2 + 2 \equiv 0 🤓
you can't use this to add x to the field, because x is the thing you're defining the value of
akchkckckckckckckckhualy it's x^2 - 2
touché
But yeah, basically when you do a field extension, you add in an element x to your field, and then define its value by quotienting out the ideal of the polynomial you want it to be a root of. You can't define x to equal x, because then you just get the polynomial ring back, i.e. you get Q[x]/(x - x).
There, I made it helpful just to spite you
In the statement a, b are real numbers which are algebraic. So all they're claiming is that (for a choice of complex place of $\bar{Q}$) $\bar{Q} = (\bar{Q} \cap \mathbb{R})[i]$ which is true.
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
I was replying to this. But I guess this has two interpretations. I interpreted them as saying $\mathbb{C} \subset \bar{\mathbb{Q}}$ which is false.
Oh gotcha, I meant it includes /some/ complex numbers
I mean that's not the point of the exercise anyway even if it is interpreted in the way in which it was intended, I would just ignore it.
Is catking a good thing or a bad thing? Wew keeps doing it to me
I approve of this message ^
It’s a prime ideal
Np np
What's a group?
felt this
Who gon tell ‘im
an object in Grp
A groupoid with one object
It's an integer module but more general
A model of the theory of groups
Absolutely no model theory allowed in these hallowed grounds
Wassat?
A group
Does this work for showing a^2 = pb^2 is false for any nonzero integers a and b and primes p?
This should probably be in number theory lol, but I put it here because it's in the abstract algebra book im reading (dummit)
I deserved that, but also what is it?
How much logic do you know
Divide by b^2
Are you allowed to assume that each integer has a unique prime factorization?
If so then this seems fine
Not enough to know how to answer that question
yup
Okay it basically just means a set that satisfies the group axioms lol
I can take the hard definition I promise
I'm using silence to tempt you into explaining a thing you find interesting
This is literally what it means in this case though
Wait shit
The theory of groups is just all first-order sentences which are true about groups
For example "for every element x, there is an element y such that x * y = e"
What's a first order sentence?
Oh boy
Basically one that only uses "or", "and", "not", "for all", and "there exists"
:)
Gonna handwave the details
You can find them in any intro mathematical logic textbook
We need a "CatChad" react on this server.
What's the point of that then?
A model of the theory of groups is just a set (and corresponding definition of the group operation and the identity element) such that all of the sentences in the theory of groups are satisfied
The point of what
that's what catking is for
Actually, is it that plus undefined things?
The second question is a better one I think
It's not the same though. There is a subtle difference
Like is it those "operations" or whatever they're called plus variables?
Being able to use variables is included in being able to use "for all" and "there exists"
But also yes
There can't be any free variables if it's a sentence though
They are mathematically precise
Yes
It is a well-formed formula with no free variables
Maybe let's move to #foundations
The era of abstract-algechill is at an end 🙌
just wanted to say thank you to this section for helping build my confidence with abstract algebra 
i was doing some more exercises and ive been feeling hella good about it because i compare my answers and i keep gettin em right
🫡
(same ^)
det and chmonkey are the best
🥺
and tterra
and everyone else who answers my questions lol
literally just having a community that answers is crazy to me 
its so wild and so helpful and its not being spoonfed either
will come back to this late but ty 
where did TTerra go anyways
wasn't he close to graduating
They're too good for this place
Especially #discussion 
They are probably proving the reverse direction first.
oh
Finite is not the same as "finitely generated as an A-algebra"
in this context, they mean finitely generated as an A-algebra
The A-subalgebra generated by b_1, \dots, b_n is by definition finitely generated by b_1, \dots, b_n
The A-subalgebra generated by $b_1, \dots, b_n$ is by definition finitely generated by $b_1, \dots, b_n$
ActiveChapter
yeah i understand that
but not too sure how B is generated?
Heres the full thing
if you're still interested in why we can assume those elements gen B as an algebra, the point is that the conclusions are unchanged if we consider B' = A[b1,...,bn] instead of B
i dont understand this
Okay so like
B is just a ring with multiplication defined from A also?
B' is the subalgebra generated by b1,...,bn
A-module but with multiplication with in B also
the point is like
b_i is integral over A as an element of B' iff it is integral over A as an element of B
So we may as well make our life easier by passing to B'
oh is ee
finitely generated only means that the list of generating elements is finite right
@novel parrot is becoming too powerful, we need to start giving them incorrect advice
lol
hhaa
you can give me wrong advice after my finals 😄
Yes, the list of generators "as an algebra" meaning allowing positive integer powers of those elements as well.
So to generate something as an algebra using an element a you can also use linear combinations of a, a^2, a^3, etc. over the base ring.
Another way to phrase it is that the elements b1,...,bn generate B as an A algebra iff the map A[x1,...,xn] -> A sending x_i -> b_i is a surjection, lol
Which is often useful
oh
it says that B is finitely generated as A module, this doesnt include powers of stuff in B does it?
Yes so this means that there is a finite list of elements b_1, \dots, b_n such that every element in B is a linear combination of the elements b_1, \dots, b_n with coefficients in A.
It is much stronger of course because A[x] is finitely generated as an algebra but there is no finite list of polynomials which span all polynomials (since any finite list will be missing polynomials of a high degree).
so we have two different definitions of finite algebras?
One is "finite" and one is "finitely generated"
Some people accidentally mix them up but it is really good practice to keep them straight in your head.
i see
i like this definition
"two complexes f, g : A^* -> B^* are homotopic if there is a collection of morphisms k^i : A^i -> B^i - 1 for each i such that f - g = dk + kd"
what does the f - g = dk + kd mean?
It is just equality of morphisms? Are you asking for intuition?
I don't understand the notation
Ah okay so maybe here is what is confusing:
what does the + mean? union?
call a morphism of cochain complexes a collection of maps f^i: A_i \to B_i such that df^i = f^{i+1}d'
How do you take the union of two functions lol
No the + is just addition.
Are they?

Yes it is a common abuse of notation. We think of them as tuples of morphisms.
the - is component wise?
Yes exactly
And composition is done in a funky way so that formulas make sense
Yes but what that means is a little unclear
Since d is degree-shifting
and so is k
yeah I can guess what it means sort of
Yeah you just compose in the only logical way.
what are you reading
homowogicaw awgebwa
I am trying to procrastinate my german homework so I'm reading the intro to derived functors in hartshorne 
functor up your german teacher
we are doing nature lyric
idk if that makes sense in english
like poetry about nature
from 400 years ago
goethe n schiller
thinking about indices is annoying, so it's always nicer to write something like f-g = dk+kd, and this is uwu because you can think of d as a map d : A --> A[1] or d : B[-1] --> B and k : A --> B[-1] etc 
(ofc these are not (co)chain maps)

amoenus is all i see >.<
(For the record the notation $A[j]$ means the complex $A[j]^i = A^{i+j}$)
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
Just draw the squares….
Idr if that's in hartshorne
(and some people might like to swap the sign of the differentials by (-1)^j)
perhaps a stupid question but sqrt(f) = sqrt(g) iff f = g right?
no 
Just ignore signs, they don’t affect the homology and annoying to keep track of
huhh
(non-negative reals?
)
ring elements
sqrt is radical
lol
Lol
(yee that was the joke >.<)

are you asking when the radical of the ideal generated by f is equal to the radical of the ideal generated by g?
Z(f) = Z(f^n)
What about g = f^n
That's the whole point of the radical.
Society is it was true
are f and g like irred?
Are you sure they didnt write Z(f) = Z(g) iff \sqrt(f) = \sqrt(g)?
So if B is a finite A-algebra, then all elements of B are integral over A (A is noetherian)?
there was this proposition
which apparently immediately implies this
but I cannot see how
it's:
"let f(x, y) in C[x, y] \ C without duplicate factors. then I(Z(f)) = <f>"
Catking-ing yourself is v catking energy
lol
So you can prove this by induction on the number of factors. Can you see why it's true for irreducible elements? Alternatively you can use that Z(f) = Z(g) iff rad(f) = rad(g)
show me
They wrote it above.
Notation verwirrt mich grade, sekunde
irreducible components are right after this, how would I do it without that
mich auch
like with those it's obvious
You don't need that, just that C[x, y] is a ufd.
ahh this is what I_f is
You can get around actually having a definition of irreducible components that way
<f>
ye
yeah for irreducible elements it's obvious innit
they're just x - something
and if they share the same root then they must be equal
Be careful! That's not true.
We are in the world of two dimensions
I forgor
Although yes I suppose they are all x - (x - P(x, y)) where P is irreducible
so you were not wrong 
what are the irreducibles? like I would've thought they are just x - a and y - b
or wait
That's a very good question! Can you think of why that is not true?
I see the issue
my last guess
x^a y^b + k x^c + l y^d + m
with like
if k = l = 0 then m must not be 0

What’s the ring :pack:
I forgot about stuff like x^2 + y^2
C[x, y]
I am not even really following your thought process here, some of these are definitely reducible.
Here is another good example of something irreducible y^2 = x^3 + x
that be like (x+iy)(x-iy)
yea
and in general homoegeneous poly would factor because you can like do stuff with y/x
Anyway basically the point is that every irreducible algebraic shape in the plane gives you a new irreducible polynomial
So there are lots
Fortunately to solve this problem we don't need to classify all of them
Spec(C[x, y]) 😵💫… wacky set
But any argument you make assuming they're all lines is doomed to fail
Consider the irreducible affine varieties in C^2 or something along those lines
is there a way to do it, or like you do it in R^2 and pretend that R is C 
oh you wrote consider
.<
det sweepy >.<
,ti det
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,ti topos_theory
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That's actually incorrect, i'm in cali bb
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,ti
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det slept 3 hours yesterday night >.<
det :(
Okay so can you show that two distinct irreducible factors have distinct zero sets?
I guess I'm saying the first thing is to prove it when f, g are irreducibles
isn't that true for every polynomial?
Poor thing 😦
No we just went over this. Like if f = g^n etc.
Like I mean if P, Q are irreds and P \neq \lambda*Q you have to show that Z(P) \neq Z(Q) and vis versa
is it like
f = g <=> Z(f) = Z(g)
=> is trivial
for <= we know that f and g are separable (because char 0) so they are uniquely determined by their roots?
I think this is begging the question personally. What do you mean that they are uniquely determined by their roots?
Can you phrase that in such a way that it does not mean just "Z(f) = Z(g) => f = \lambda g"
can't we wlog make f and g monic
We can yes
Might as well
Although what you mean by monic has to be carefully defined
nvm the nvm the nvm
wait nvm that again
so f and g are both irreducible
so Z(f) and Z(g) are both irreducible?
then f and g are prime so I(Z(f)) = sqrt(f) = f
and thus f = g?
I mean basically that I(Z(f)) = sqrt(f) is tantamount to what we're trying to prove. Do you have the nullstellensatz already?
oh lmao
Sorry I guess if you're german you probably write it as zero star theorem 
it immediately follows from that 🤦
why did my prof write that it follows from that one weird proposition
cuz like
we have that g | f^n and f | g^m but since they do not have any repeated factors it must be g | f and f | g => f = g
yep
why did I not realize this 40 minutes ago 
thanks for the help tho topo
wait
what do I call you 
topo is already reserved for toposphere
E-Girl
That’s not his name lol
People have been going with tteg
lol
I swear to god his name has always been toposphere
time for curves in projective space 
Ummmm the plural of topos is topoi (or also toposes???)
No I mean as a name lol
Haha there is too much unironic mansplaining it's hard to sort out
hmm
I'm projective
how does my prof's definition of irreducible algebraic set match up with the one I'm used to
He has a very ample line bundle
his is that Z(f) is irreducible if f is irreducible
but how does f generate a prime ideal
I thought it was only true in pids
Again f should be squarefree!
the definition here doesn't say that 😭
People just don’t care very much about non-reduced stuff when dealing with varieties
Ah wait there's only one f
And then just say sfuff without thinking very hard kekw
I thought it was iff
It feels like that’s suppoEd to be a definition tho
So I would agree you should worry about reducedness
"Z(f) is called irreducible if f is irreducible"
It would be better to say
"Z is called irreducible if Z = Z(f) for some f irreducible"
Ermmmm excuse me please take this conversation to #algebraic-geometry thank you 
scary place
Tbf last time @formal ermine posted there they got yelled at.
...by you
My professor put a HW which in scheme language was that given varieties Spec A, Spec B, Spec C and dominant maps, the fibered product as varieties is Spec A (x)_C B
Which is just wrong because you can pickup nilpotence
I've seen answers using rings and ideals but isn't it easier to show this by using the fact F is a field.
yeah
k[x] pid iff k field
He just figured it’s probably true and thought you can emulate the proof to show product of varieties is reduced
Illu, that doesn’t prove anything
Unless you show that irreducible elements generate maximal ideals in a PID
….
To know that you want to use that F[x] is euclidean
oh wait I confused F with F[x] oops
Or at least that is the easiest way
F[x] is not a field.
yeah i realised
Topos who is your pfp of
i'm revising and forgot definitions
Sophie Scholl
oh I see where my misunderstanding lies
at the beginning he once again said "f has no duplicate roots" lol

sorry just going though definitions again, why is F[x] not a field?
Varieties language really is unwieldy sometimes because of nilpotence
x has no inverse
so yeah sqrt(f) = { g in A | g^r = f^n for some r,n > 0 } but because f has no duplicate roots g must be f so sqrt(f) = { f } which is a prime ideal
I should start using punctuation
wait this feels really really wrong

There’s no way you can show that g is f
Write g and f in terms of irreducible components
Also that’s not the definition of the radical of an ideal
sqrt(f) = {g in A| some n so that g^n in (f)}
Write down f and g in terms of irreducible components
Ideals have to be closed under multiplication by A
yeah
And write down g^n = r•f
See that all irreducible components of f show up in g, but we can only say they show up with multiplicity 1
If f is square free, then that’s enough to see f divides g
V has to be torsion because it's finite dimensional over k
So End(V) is a finite (dim(V)^2) dimensional vector space
If there were a torsion free part then k[X] would inject into End(V)
Alternatively you could just say that X satisfies its characteristic polynomial in End(V)
So you know the map cannot be injective.
.
im not so well versed in linear algebra
but if V if finite dimensional over k
then doesnt that mean that V has to be torsion free
It is torsion free over k
But not over k[X]
The only finite dimensional (over k) modules for k[X] are the torsion ones.
Because torsion free ones contain k[X] as a sub-k-vector-space
Which is infinite dimensional
i didnt understand why V over K[X] is torsion 😄
is it because of the cayley hamilton theorem
i think this is the cayley hamilton theorem
yes
Yes \chi_A(A) = 0
and $\chi_A(X) \in K[X]$
ActiveChapter
the f_i are all non constant because other it would be a unit and then R/(f_i) = 0 and we just remove them right
yep
not quite sure on how we get that sum that dimV = sum of the degree of the f_i
V = \oplus_i k[X]/f_i, now count dimensions
$V = \oplus_i k[X]/f_i$
ActiveChapter
isn't a subring automatically an ideal?
no
actually i see a counter example I can't read definitions
an ideal is not a special type of subring
ideals don't have identities, subrings do
not all rings have identity right

some text say that identity is optional in rings
Ew
unital ring
🤮
all spaces are compact 
I dont understand the last part, how is f_i are power of an irreducible?
we can factor f_i into irreducibles
by CRT you can break each f_i into prime powers
whats CRT
chinese remainder theorem

so is $R/(f) \oplus R/(f) = R/(f^2)$ ?
ActiveChapter
it says that either one of the two is true
not at the same time
when we break into powers of f_i, we possibly lose the first condition right
but either condition makes the decomposition unique
otherwise you can have plenty of ways to combine the factors
this is how to lose the first condition by turning into powers right
MrSpeedrun's thoughts about what happened in this video: https://i.imgur.com/DXREYML.png
multiplicative identity?
does the hint even help for the proof? My problem is that what is the two groups are not even closed under multiplication.
in this case we are fine but for a general set of abelian groups how does this make any sense
Eh? Why not?
like what if the abelian group is not even closed under multipication
so an abelian group must be closed under + and x ?
No but if that abelian group is a ring R or an ideal in that ring, or the quotient of R by that ideal, then it is closed under the multiplication coming from the ring.
So x is an operation on it so it’s closed
oh i thought the hint was referring to a random abelian group and not just a ring
the hint is basically asking you to show that the standard isomorphism in the first isomorphism theorem extends to a ring homomorphism
so, if f is that isomorphism
not only do we have f(x+y) = f(x)+f(y), but we also have f(xy) = f(x)f(y)
I mean basically
The point is f is constructed such that this suffices
But there’s something you need to check
this is what you have to show
he named the isomorphism after himself
phi : g+H -> theta(g)
where theta is the homorphsim defined initially
is that right
Right, yes
So the point now is
If you have a map of rings R -> S
This is in particular a map of abelian groups, just forgetting R and S are rings right now
So we get a map f:R/ker phi -> im(phi)
This is an isomorphism of groups which means f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y)
And it’s bijective
So now all you need to do is verify f(xy) = f(x)f(y)
So then you unwind the definition of f, if = g + ker phi
which follows from the intial homomorphism phi right?
I see
so whenever we have an isomorphism between two abelian groups this is true?
No
^that's what I got from the hint so I'm asking did I not understand the hint or is it just not clear
It isn’t true in general
But it’s true here because f is defined in terms of phi basically
But you can have non-multiplicative maps between rings which are isos of their underlying abelian group
oh ok
so they just wouldn't be a ring homomorphism since it doesn't have the "multiplication-homomorphism" property?
Sure that’s one way to say it
🤣 appreciate the help
very helpful and good explanations
sorry guys watching the chat that was probably hard to watch 😅
How to prove that every linear operator over an odd dimensional subspace has a one dimensional invariant subspace?
Over the real numbers you mean
yes
So what is a one-dimensional invariant subspace?
span of an eigenvector
eigenvector, surely
that has to be the quickest honorable ive ever seen
believe it or not it's taken days for the "internal moderator debate
" for this honourable
My weekend
what has happened to my poor weekend
I was supposed to be working way harder on my revisions
welcome to the maths discord blackhole
Okay so when does a matrix have an eigenvalue?
when its shifted kernel by the eigenvalue is non trivial
Okay and can you think of a more computable way to check that?
Like something that can be computed efficiently that tells you when Ker(T - a) is nontrivial?
when its characteristic polynomala has a root
Yes, so when do polynomials over R definitely have a root?
I also ask that when I ask these questions you respond with "yes socrates it is evident"
wtf
Lmao
the notations definitely do :p
Unfortunately.
hey, i'm confused about an aspect of a proof. why does b not a unit imply that there is a prime elt p st p|b?
this is in a unique factorization domain, so i assume that causes it somehow?
OH
ok yeah nvm it's trivial
Swag
Do y'all have any intuition for the antipode of a Hopf algebra, I understand the definition and can see a few examples, but I fail to get it's place and necessity in the definition of a general Hopf algebra
In what context are you seeing them? If it's in topology you should maybe ask in #point-set-topology to get better answers.
The antipode is just the "coalgebra" version of the map which sends an element of a group to its inverse.
I would personally say category, but I'm reading through Kassels Quantum Groups so the book is more about representations from what I can tell
So my best attempt at intuition would be similar, that it's generalizing retaining the inverse maps of groups after pushing them to algebras
Okay maybe I can say something a little more precise. Hopf algebra structures show up on objects which are "dual" to group objects in certain categories (in particular contravariant functors from objects to algebras). The two key classes of examples to start with are the ring of functions on an affine algebraic group scheme over a field and the cohomology of a topological space which is a group (or even just an H-space).
In both cases the comultiplication is induced by multiplication on the group space/group scheme, the antipode is dual to the inverse map, and the counit or whatever its called is induced by the identity of the group.
So hopf algebras are algebras which are somehow associated to some "group-like" object.
Hi all, I'm trying to prove that if E is an extension field of F and F(a1, a2, ..., an) denotes the smallest subfield of E that contains F and the set {a1, a2, ..., an}, then it is equal to the intersection of all the subfields of E that contain F and the set {a1, a2, ..., an}. so i'm doing this by showing that they're subsets of each other; that is, i'm letting x in X1 \cap X2 \cap ... \cap Xn where each Xj is a subfield of E that contains F and the set {a1, a2, ... am}. My issue is that if I let x in this intersection, it need not be a1 or some element of F, because what if it's some element e in E that is not in the subfield F(a1, a2, ..., an)? what appreciate a hint plsss
right now i'm going for contradiction and assuming x is not in F(a1, a2, ... an), and since i'm letting x be arbitrary maybe i can show that that statement is not true for all x (ie i can let x equal some aj) and that will prove one side of the inclusion idk
the other inclusion is obvious
Ah okay, thank you for the detailed answer! This makes some more sense, but I'll have to think about it and go through those examples you suggested lol
are adjacent transpositions in $S_n$ reflections?
Adam
What do you mean adjacent transpositions and what do you mean reflections?
when you swapped two adjacent numbers in a permutation
i think reflections are generators for the group
I mean there are many sets of generators for the group
But the (i i+1) transpositions form a very natural set of generators from the point of view of the root system of Gln. Maybe that's your definition of a (simple) reflection?
only reason i ask this cause i saw this in my textbook
yea simple reflections sorry i forgot thats the common terminology
You can view Sn as acting on an n-dim vector space by permuting basis elements, then transposition give you so called permutation matrices which are in fact reflections
If that's sort of what you're after
that kinda helps, do you know where i could find some visuals to aid that?
my professor went over this and i didn't understand it well
I'm not so sure about visual aids, but here's a write up by Keith Conrad:
https://kconrad.math.uconn.edu/blurbs/grouptheory/gpaction.pdf
He has a lot of writing on a variety of math topics, and in my opinion he's very good at explaining them all
appreciate it, thanks!
visuals might be difficult for spaces that have more than 3 dimensions which is most of them
Lol
how do we know that F is a two-dimensional vector space over Z3? is it because we can regard {a, <x^2 + x + 2>} as a basis?
for a in Z3
It is a standard fact that if f is a degree n irreducible polynomial over k then k[x]/(f) is a field and an n dimensional k vector space with basis 1,x,..,x^(n-1)
it's clear to me that it's a vector space, just not sure of why it's 2-dimensional
oh that theorem is on the next page lmao
oh right oops
Here a basis is given by (the image of) 1 and x
Uhh I mean yeah you can use 1 and x as a basis, using the polynomial to reduce higher powers of x to smaller ones
Or use euclidean division
These are the same element in the quotient
also how does it being a vector space over Z3 imply that it's a splitting field
huh
i thought that was like
1 in Z3
vs 1 in Z3[x]/<x^2 + x + 2>
i guess isomorphically they're the same
$1 \mapsto 1 + \langle x^2 + x + 2 \rangle$ right
okeyokay
take the basis to be {1 +<x^2 + x + 2>, x + <x^2 + x + 2> }
then since x^2 + <x^2 + x + 2>= -x-2 + <x^2 + x + 2>
An element of a basis of a vector space has to be an element of the vector space...
you can reduce all higher powers to the linear term
are you talking about me wondering if 1 would be part of the basis
wait now i'm confused because i thought 1 in Z3 was included in the extension field F
so it would be a part of the vector space right
ahh ok that makes sense
ah i got it
thank uu
it contains both zeroes of the polynomial
the fact that it's a vector space over Z3 is just there to say like yeah this field is an extension over Z3
yea but wouldn't it have to be the smallest field that contains the zeroes of the polynomial and Z3
so like how does it imply that it's the smallest
like i know it contains Z3 and the zeroes
ah ok
idk why they did that then lol since it's clear that it's an extension by the construction featured earlier in the chapter
sorry fuck I got in some weird headspace cuz my prof defined splitting fields to be any field that contains all the zeroes over a polynomial so I have to get used to the usual definition
OK yeah I don't think it's hard
firstly note that it contains all zeroes
And also take note of the fact that it's two dimensional
the vector space is 2-dimensional, so the basis is of length 2
and so by definition the field would have to contain all linear combinations/multiples of the zeroes
which theare are two of them
npp
Why is a necklace a group action on the the Cyclic group?
Suppose X and Y are two 5 dimensional subspaces of R^8, show that X int Y != {0}




