#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 90 of 1
if p is a prime integer, then a and b are 1 
isnt that fake tho
like take b=a
and consider a=(x,y) in k[x,y]
then x in a, but x not in (x,y)(x,y) I think
and x is prime
Just so you know, Isaacs uses the weird notation <, and to this day I still don't even know what it meant
and it's not proper inclusion like subset
I think in Isaacs $a<b$ meant $a\not\supset b$
Croqueta
crazy af
No, I'm asking why $\forall a,b(a,b>p\implies ab>p)$ implies $p$ is prime.
ahh ok
Ocean Man
I seriously doubt it, I read a lot of Isaacs and I'm pretty sure it's what I said.
Let me check
tbh I dont remember, I just remember I had trouble with that notation xD
ah yes yes
still fake I think
take p=4
then the translation is $\forall a,b, (a\mid 4, ,b\mid 4\land a\neq 4,b\neq 4\implies ab\mid 4)\implies 4$ prime
Croqueta
the first condition is satisfied
because a and b is either 2 or 1
ah wait
nono
ok
it should be implies ab | 4 and ab!=4
so the condition is not satisfied
ah ok so yes that's in Isaacs
ew non-integral domain
if they were they could be written as a direct sum of copies of Z6
^
why cant be not?
ig its obvious if i think about it
but i cant write it down why
haha
there's a theorem that states any principle ideal is a free module if and only if it's generated by a non-zero divisor
since Z3 and Z2 are finite let's claim they can be written as a finite direct sum of Z6's
Then look at the cardinality of both sides
but I cannot remember the proof for the life of me, it's something to do with there not being a unique linear combination of some element
completely unrelated to the question at this point because a simple cardinality argument does work yeah
but now this is annoying me
oh yeah obviously
mb
thank you so much
can someone give any motivation
for projective modules?
and their dual injective modules?
i understand the definition by now and can prove some basic stuff
like that every sequence of the form A-->B-->P-->0 is exact split
given P is projective
but the definition seems magic
it's like free but only surjective/injective maps 👍
G is simple, if \rho(g) was scalar then g would be a non-trivial element in the centre of G
contradicting the fact that G is simple
I'm going off of what the proof says, it explicitly says that Z(p(G)) \cong Z(G)
although, no
let f be any homomorphism and z in the centre of it's domain, then f(gz) = f(g)f(z) = f(zg) = f(z)f(g) so f(z) is in the centre
now it's very possible for g to be in the kernel of rho, that is true
ah, we're taking \chi to be non-trivial
so there has to exist at least one element not in the kernel of chi
If you're interested in homological stuff, a module P is projective iff Hom(P, -) is an exact functor
Similarly, Q is injective iff Hom(-, Q) is exact
It's nice to characterize when functors are exact, so projective/injective already arise kind of naturally from this perspective
i am , it feels cool
what does - mean
- stands for any module?
Yes
ah, got it - the rep has to be faithful, the kernel of a rep is a normal subgroup - G is simple
yeah it took me a lot of thinking 
But yeah, projectives and injectives are fundamental to homological algebra
who up resolving they projectives
That's a short resolution
homological algebra is the coolest math i did so far
after i finish this test , will love to pick up a text specifically for this field
or subfield
sadly its too topological motivated and idk much topology
😦
rip, was about to bring up vector bundles
u can bring up differential forms
i have an idea about those from lee
and tu
and de rham cohmology
hopefully homological alggebra has interesting problems
ive been really wanting to learn homological algebra too. there's something about the black magic we do in alg top i find very fascinating. hoping to get into weibel after i graduate
yea i think iam the other way around
idk much alg top
but would love to know homological algebra on its own
I also find homological algebra pretty interesting independently of topology/geometry
Idk, I managed to learn homological algebra before any topology just because I really liked algebra at first and I still find many of the constructions in homological algebra to be interesting in their own right
But it also nice to have motivation from other areas
does homological algebra do anything to analysis?
im learning functional analysis now
and would be very cool if there is any connection
if you're into some pretty high-brow operator theory, sort of maybe
this proof doesnt use the direct sum universal property right?
this is just saying P_i is projective so there is a map to A but then the map can be smalled down to the sum by using the projection?
like f:P_i --> A
then u would have fbar:sum(Pi) --> A ; fbar=f(pi(.)))
wouldnt this wokr?
work*
why is he using the inclusion
It does use the universal property of the direct sum
how please
You have a map from each summand, so the universal property yields a map from the direct sum
I managed to learn homological algebra before any topology
...wtf
I'm glad I helped you achieve this revelation
the direct sum is unique in the sense that if u have maps from each summand to the sum then they are "isomorphic compose-wise lmfao" to thee projections
right?
kinda like the product
I suppose if you know what a "continuous map" is you don't need much else explicitly for simplicial homology
Dual to the product
so its the other way around
it's the coproduct yeah
like if u have inclusions from the summands to the ddirect sum
?
if u can draw a diagram here i would really appreciate it
using tikz ig or whatever the namee
Yes, the direct sum comes equipped with maps from each summand into the direct sum
it's actually both for finite sums isn't it?
The product and coproduct coincide for a finite number of modules, yeah
I didn't even know what simplicial homology was lol
did you literally just start with a general chain complex
All I knew was "chain complex go brrr"
holy based
Yes lol
galois
I have no idea what you mean by this
\phi_i could literally be the trivial map
so does the proof go that the projectivity of one summand would induce a "fake map" to A so by universal property of the sum i must have the map to A?
by fake map i mean here the phi_i for example.
why are you calling it fake
Very strange choice of terminology
^
its my intuition for it
Then I have some doubts about your intuition
😦
No
its like trying to be inclusion but its not
But it isn't trying to be inclusion, it's just a map
my intuition is
[\begin{tikzcd}
& {A_1\oplus A_2} \
{A_1} && {A_2} \
& M
\arrow["{i_1}", from=2-1, to=1-2]
\arrow["{i_2}"', from=2-3, to=1-2]
\arrow["{\phi_1}"', from=2-1, to=3-2]
\arrow["{\phi_2}", from=2-3, to=3-2]
\end{tikzcd}] given this set up
that the direct sum with it's inclusions/projections are unique up to composition
Wew
[\begin{tikzcd}
& {A_1\oplus A_2} \
{A_1} && {A_2} \
& M
\arrow["{i_1}", from=2-1, to=1-2]
\arrow["{i_2}"', from=2-3, to=1-2]
\arrow["{\phi_1}"', from=2-1, to=3-2]
\arrow["{\phi_2}", from=2-3, to=3-2]
\arrow["{\exists! \phi}"{description}, dashed, from=1-2, to=3-2]
\end{tikzcd}] there is a unique map induced
Wew
that is if u can find other inclusions from each summand then u can find a function that maps the real one to the fake one
nice one texit you fraud
Regarding this, you need each summand to be projective to induce a section from the direct sum. The universal property of the direct sum begins with the data of a map from each summand A_i to M and then induces a map from the direct sum to M such that the triangle commutes for each i
it's just telling you that you can draw an extra arrow on ur funny diagram, and that arrow is the only one that makes the diagram commute
yea so the projectivity gives us the phi_i
the phi_i you could say are like "pieces" of phi in the sense that phi restricts to phi_i on each summand
you have the same formal setup for disjoint unions
why cant there be a transitive subgroup of S_4 of order 6?
there are no projective objects in that image , but I think I know what you mean
orb-stab
I think
how does it follow from that though
if the subgroup is transitive then the action on 4 elements will have a single orbit of size 4
4 does not divide 6
I'm assuming that's the action you're talking about, tbf
I'm too tired atm sorry boss
tyty
can anyone help me find the order of this element?
i don't really understand the line about choosing representatives and how that shows that p(alpha) = 0, can somebody help me?
like what happened to the alpha on the second page
they didn't plug it in
also how does that show <p(x)> = 0 lol
did they just take p(x) as the representative?
or what representative did they choose rather
keep multiplying x+(x^2+1) by itself until you get 1+(x^2+1)
thanks I’ll try this
the underlined bit doesn't really make sense, right? or am i being stupid?
I Abhor Hatcher
i feel very eepy can someone check this for me
Fr obviously stands for the coproduct
old question - should this not have been e1 \otimes e2, e2 \otimes e1 in the 2nd and third col's instead
should it not matter?
actually i guess not
basis vector ordering doesnt really matter
generally i think people will pick some kind of lexographical ordering of the indices for their basis, but idt it matters that much as long as you make your arbitrary choices clear
yeah, if your basis is ordered like e1e1, e1e2, e2e1, e2e2
also, i just realized i was being inconsistent with the ordering of my basis here my bad
i didnt pick up on that, that did seem to be the first col
its the first column for your choice of basis, not mine
nice
$\alpha^{-2}=\begin{pmatrix}
1 & 2 & 3 & 4 & 5 \
2 & 5 & 3 & 1 & 4
\end{pmatrix}=\alpha$
Awuita Fria
chicos ¿es esto correcto?
guys is this correct?
not enough context
how do you take inverses of elements of the symmetric group
my own question but: is $\C \otimes_\Z \C$ isomorphic to $\C$?
not sebbb not stμ₂dying
I was guided by this so I came to the conclusion of the first image I sent.
nope
how about showing $\mathbb{C}\otimes_\mathbb{R}\mathbb{C}\simeq\mathbb{C}\times\mathbb{C}$
nGroupoid
by 0 they mean the additive identity element in E right? namely <x^2 + 1>
since x^2 + 1 + <x^2 + 1> = <x^2 + 1>
okie thank u
how did they get from the part underlined in blue to beta = b0 + b1alpha + ...
i included the theorem and the proof leading up to it for context
does the \otimes_R vs \otimes_Z matter that much
yeah loads
oh then maybe that changes things
bc my questions is about Z-modules specifically
did that first part already
I'm trying to prove exercise 54 here. So far I got that: proceed by induction on number of prime factors. assuming G is not abelian, by exercise 53 it is not simple, then there exists a maximal normal subgroup $N$. Let $|N| = p_{\alpha_1} \cdots p {\alpha_n} = k$. By proposition 16 in the text, the automorphism group is isomorphic to $(\mathbb{Z} / k\mathbb{Z})^{\times}$ and $|(\mathbb{Z} / k\mathbb{Z})^{\times}| = k - 1$. By induction hypothesis every subgroup is cyclic and hence abelian. So $C_G(N) \geq N$, so by maximality (and since $C_G(N)$ is normal) it is either $G$ or $N$. If $C_G(N) = G$ then $C_G(N) \leq Z(G)$ and so $|G / Z(G)| \leq |G / N|$ so by the inductive hypothesis $G / Z(G)$ is cyclic so $G$ is abelian, a contradiction. I'm trying to rule out the case where $C_G(N) = N$. If so then $G/N \sim N_G(N)/C_G(N)$ so is a subgroup of the automorphism group of N. Then $p{\beta_1} \cdots p_{\beta_m} \mid (p_{\alpha_1} \cdots p_{\alpha_n} - 1)$. So does this divisibility contradict the stated properties of the primes (that $p_i$ does not divide $p_j - 1$ for all i and j) or am I on the wrong path?
Darylgolden
<@&286206848099549185>
They showed that every power of alpha higher than n-1 can be written as a linear combination of lower powers
So any element of F(alpha) is of this general form
Since otherwise there could be higher power terms but we ruled them out
(figured it out, $|(\mathbb{Z} / k\mathbb{Z})^{\times}| \neq k - 1$ but $\varphi(n) = (p_{\alpha_1} - 1) \ldots (p_{\alpha_n} - 1)$. Then $p_{\beta_1} \cdots p_{\beta_m} \mid (p_{\alpha_1} - 1) \ldots (p_{\alpha_n} - 1)$ means $p_{\beta_1} | (p_{\alpha_1} - 1) \ldots (p_{\alpha_n} - 1)$ and by Euclid's lemma $p_{\beta_1}$ divides one of them, a contradiction.)
Darylgolden
If I’m given a representation of G1 and a representation of G2, then the tensor product of the representations will be a representation of G1 xG2, right?
Also, is it true that every representation of the direct product is the tensor product of the corresponding representations?
Hey, can anyone help me out? I just don't see why the highlighted bit is true
I don’t even see the highlighted part
it's trivial
Would you guys consider dummit and foote an entirely undergrad book or a undergrad book with some graduate level topics? 
i know weird question, but can you let me know the firt letter of your name?
im also reading the same book, same topic
and i know someone who doesn't like Hatcher... made me think its not coincidence at all
maybe we are taking the same class :d
Lmao
It's Y
But I reckon any half decent mathematician can recognize the problems with that abhorrent book
Oh
Please do
next one is i
there's this wonderful thing call direct messaging, where you can sort this out.. but this is entertaining so please continue 
No, please keep such chatter out of the topic channels to the extent possible.
For the application of the first isomorphism theorem I noticed that in solutions of problem it is sufficient to show that the homomorphism given is surjective to a set to conclude that that set is the image of the homomorphism. Why is this the case? Can't you have that the image is a set that is bigger than the set which surjective the homomorphism is surjective to?
The image is the largest set that a function is surjective onto - you’re right in that you can take subsets of the image and the function would still be surjective onto that set
I think that’s what you were saying anyway
Am I missing anything in (2c) where it's concluded that the image of f is the same as the set that f is surjective to?
If I want to apply first isomorphism theorem correctly, how do I actually show that a set is the largest set that a function is surjective to.
well the codomain of f is Z x Z/2Z, so its image isn't going to be larger than that
if it's also surjective, then its image is therefore exactly that
I assumed they were asking how you proved it was surjective lol
Ah I see
Yeah, that's what I meant. I understand it now, thanks.
Is there any use in considering the infemum of the set of upper bounds instead of supremums or the supremum of the set of lower bounds of the set of upper bounds etc. in an ordered set?
if n is an integer then write 2a-b = n for some integers a and b (which is always possible). Then it’s possible to pick a to be even or odd as 2a will be even regardless, which fixes the parity of b (in order to ensure that 2a-b = n still) thus we can find elements that map to (n, 0) and (n, 1), so it’s surjective
In case the supremum doesn't exist, it may provide a useful generalization
You should try to prove that these dont really give you anything interesting. Let S be a subset of a totally ordered set X and let U be the set of upper bounds of S. Then sup U is the maximal element of X, if one exists, or is otherwise undefined. The supremum of the set of lower bounds of U is equal to sup S, which is equal to inf U
So if sup S doesnt exist, then neither do those other things
yea you can prove sup A is the inf of set of all upper bounds of A
and vice versa (also wrong channel lol)
how to solve it?
whut have you tried so far uwu?
have you managed to prove it's reflexive and symmetric?
those are much easier than transitivity
reflexive and symmetric is trivial :p
I agree 
anyway when I see a quotient by an intersection my mind jumps to the 2nd isomorphism theorem
What channel should this be in? I thought posets were an algebraic structure
the upper 4 thingies are finite, can you show bottom 2 are also finite?
oh finitely generated is a little different from finite 

Bit confused so decided to ask here. Is a representation ring a Grothendieck group?
you are right
Yes, it's the Grothendieck ring of the category of finitely generated modules over the group algebra
Or actually
Hmm maybe I'm not entirely sure about what I'm saying, but if char F doesn't divide |G| then the category is semisimple so every module is projective
In which case I think the representation ring agrees with the Grothendieck ring?
Ahhh alright. My book states The Grothendieck group of the finite generated k[G]-modules is called representation ring and thought it mean that a representation ring is a group which means it has a weird name lol
former
Former means first right?
yeah this is weird phrasing, the set of f.g. k[G]-modules form a semiring under direct sum+tensor product and then I'd say we take the grothendieck completion of that semiring
and yes former means first
if they meant Z/5Z they're write Z/5Z
the Z_n notation for cyclic groups and it's consequences have been a disaster for the human race
Hahahah that is why I asked. I thought about Z_n and the possibility of there being a typo
what is the difference between a generic and a separable polynomial
is a generic polynomial not just like
non zero discriminant
my prof said they're different
but like
they feel like they're the same
yeah they do feel like the same lol
How can I show that $(x-1)$ is a maximal ideal of $\mathbb{R}[x,y]/(xy)$? I've tried to show that their quotient is a field by trying to find a map from $\mathbb{R}[x,y]/(xy)$ to $\mathbb{R}$ with kernel $(x-1)$, but I couldn't do it
ImHackingXD
I'd just prove directly that if you append any other element of R[x,y]/(xy) to (x-1) you'll end up with the entire ring
use correspondence/third iso whatever the name is
ah that's another good idea
you just want to show that R[x,y]/(xy,x-1) is a field
I've thought of that, but it doesn't seem obvious to me what the inverse image of $(x-1)$ through the projection would be
ImHackingXD
you are thinking about it the wrong way
x and y are algebraically independent over R, and of each other
and now you introduce two relations
x-1=0
xy=0
so x=1
but then xy=y=0
so you are just left with R
So, $(\mathbb{R}[x,y]/(xy))/(x-1) \cong \mathbb{R}[x,y]/(xy,x-1)$ because of the third isomorphism theorem right?
ImHackingXD
yes
ok
it doesn't matter the order in which you quotient
ok, thank you very much
Hello. Can anyone here explain in a simple and intuitive way and in detail why in the hyperbolic plane it is generally impossible, starting with an arbitrary circle of area less than 2\pi, to construct (with straightedge and compass) a quadrilateral with all sides and angles congruent having the same area, and vice versa, that is, starting with an arbitrary quadrilateral with all sides and angles congruent, it is impossible in general to construct a circle having the same area?
nope
if [F(a) : F] is an odd number, how do you show that F[a] = F[a²]?
Hint: try le tower law
Looking for help on part of a proof. Prove that for any prime $p>3$ then $ab^p - ba^p$ is divisible by $6p$.
ElHefe
I need help on proving divisibility of 3. I can get 2 and p, but I need 3 so we can say 2x3xp is also divisible and therefore 6p.
Proof by exhaustion works
Consider the cases where a = 0, 1, -1 mod 3 and where b = 0, 1, -1 mod 3 with every pair of combinations
@quiet pelican Is there another way that's more elegant? 2 and p are neatly done by even odd definitions, and some algebra. I can do it by exhaustion still though
Actually, note that it’s trivial if 3 divides one of a, b, otherwise a^2 = b^2 = 1 mod 3, and p > 3 implies p is odd, so a^p = a, b^p = b mod 3
Do you mind explaining why a^2 = b^2 = 1mod3? Thank you for the help!
Fermat’s little theorem for p = 3
or just 1^2 = 1, 2^2 = 4 = 1
what exactly is a groupoid? I have read the definition as a group with a partial function replacing the binary operation, and also as a category in which every morphism is invertible.
i can repeat the definition, but i still don't really know what groupid means on an intuitive level
im also not sure if this belongs in the category thr channel
I'm by no way good at category theory, but I like to think of it in this way: a group is a one-object category in which all morphisms are isomorphisms, a groupoid is any category in which all morphisms are isomorphisms. so it's kind of a "generalization"
I feel like the category theoretic definition follows more naturally from a group. You can encode the data of a group into a category of one object, with one isomorphism on that object for each element of the group. A groupoid is just this but with more objects
u know what illuminator I'm getting u banned for cyberbullying me AGAIN
suppose B-->Pi_J_i is the map that we want to find but for J_i
call it h
cant we define hbar:B-->J_i by just pi_i(h(b))?
why wouldnt this work
pi_i would be the projection map
@formal ermine @delicate orchid the thing is, im not sure what is meant by "a group is a category with one object". does this mean that the group G is the object? if so what are the morphisms? if not, does it mean that there is some object on which G acts? if this is the case, is it similar to the notion of group actions and what exactly is the object?
something has yet to click with this concept
Well
The group is the category
Maybe I can give some motivation lol
So like for example you can think of GL(n) as the category with one object R^n and all the maps R^n -> R^n being incertible linear maps
The morphisms are the elements.
But in general we can just abstract away the object
The object is the things the group acts on, e.g. the underlying group as a set.
ohhh so each object in a group in a sense "permutes" every other object in the underlying set?
Element of the group. There is only one object. Basically yeah.
element** yes
The automorphisms needn't be trivial. In a group they just need to be invertible
Permutations are a decent picture to have in mind.
my attempt to define: let (G,.) be a group. then fix some a in G. define p_a : G -> G as the morphism given by a. then for any g in G, p_a(g) = a.g
?
and you can do that for any a in G
the category is the object?
One potential picture is G as a set, concretizing the homomorphism G --> S_|G|, in general it can be any G action, possibly an entirely abstract one.
The category is the group, the object is abstract.
i guess what i am getting hung up on is how can the object not matter? is it not necessary to define what the elements of G (morphisms) are acting on?
or is it defined this way so that the object can be anything
Because there can be multiple examples of the object, and the category acts the same.
What is important is the morphisms and they behave.
okay fair enough
this does make a bit more sense now though. thank you all 🙂
yo anyone ?
πr²
<@&268886789983436800>
I would maybe say to use the universal property of the direct product
That's a first idea at least
Is that illegal?
Lets not troll pls
now we know that the product is injective
K sorry
so given 0-->A-->B exact there exists an R-module homo B-->product call it h such that g(h) = f
g is the map A-->B
and f is the map A-->product
cool?
Hmmmmm
I was thinking of maybe using the fact that 0 -> I -> A -> B -> 0 splits when I is injective
then you get some homomorphism of SES
I mean isn't that an equivalent definition lol
But OK let's use your definition
cool?
Actually that might work lol
now why cant i just define the map from B to each J_i
by just projecting the image at product
to each J_i
why wouldnt that work
why do i need universal property of produc
t
So OK by your definition
there is a unique map B -> prod J_i
such that the diagram commutes
I mean I think the proj_i \circ h should work no?
yes
thats what i did
but i got lost in what the fuck commutativity means
like which ocmposte that
i always switch them
its so annoying
Your diagram would look like
0-> A -> B
| /
ΠJ
|
J_i
OK so the vertical map is proj_i \circ g
ye ye
forget about homomorphism
which this compose that
would prove the diagram
is commutative
..
OK so
here's the idea
let's call your new homomorphisms
f_i = proj_i f
h_i = proj_i h
And g stays the same because that's the map A->B
We need to show that
f_i = h_i \circ g
yea
wait let me draw it and tel lme if its right
now i want to show that this hwole diagram commutes with J_i being the new module cuz thats what i want to prove
so this long left vertical line would accumlate to pi_i o f right
?
and i would then want to show that my new map call it h bar satisfies , g o h bar = pi_i o f
?
that would say the diagram is commutative?
The LHS should be flipped!
yess
wdym 
u sure?
okeww
how do u not get confused
?
do u jus follow the money
follow the elements*
and choose what makes sense?
Idk I usually imagine diagrams in my head lol
I did a lot of category theory so I kinda got used to diagrams
But that's a skill you def learn over time
lol but once you learn it it's great
okay so it follows directly right?
h bar o g = pi_i o h o g = pi_i o f ( by commutativityy of first diagram )
and thats it?
road haog
yep yep
np
ig now the other implication
would need the universal propeprty
ie showing each J_i is injective then the product is
uhhh I would say so yes
npnp
So, I'm working on this problem, and I've gotten to the final part. Is it enough to essentially say "if F were a splitting field, x^3-2 would be factorable into linear factors, but it isn't as the cube roots of unity are not in F"?
the "any polynomial" part is what's a little confusing
My justification for that is that F / Q is an algebraic extension
doesn't sound right.. at least your argument is insufficient. F being a splitting field doesn't mean it should split x³-2
try to give more justification
hmmm
It seems circular to say that if it is normal then the orders would be equal
It also seems that any splitting field which contains F would actually be larger than F
I'll discuss the problem with my professor
oh nvm I got confused with splitting and separable, your argument seems fine
It's almost correct but show there's no cube root of unity in F
can someone give an example of a module such that the direct product is not projective
let me think if that's actually correct lol
i would really appreciate if we could walktrhough the proof from the definitions
this kind of stuff really helps me understand more
examples.
yeah it's true, it relies on the fact that submodule of a free module over PID is free
also the module ∏Z is not free over Z (check MSE for explanation). But projectives are submodule of a free module so ∏Z can't be free
sadly still didnt cover modules over PIDS
keep this example in mind then
both the statements aren't trivial to prove but you can try
I imagine it's a direct generalisation of the nielsen-schreier theorem?
oh no wait it'll be way easier than that as you just ||need n-s theorem for abelian groups||
what's NS theorem?
time to use some lateral thinking to solve this mystery
or wait is that logical thinking
hmmmm
mysteries induce mysteries
believe it's from here - unless you're confused about something else?
it's just decomposing v into the basis B_{S^nV} I believe
yeah cause it's orthonormal
if you have any orthonormal basis you can do this
you can write any vector $v \in V$ as $v = \sum_{u \in \mathbb{B}} \langle v, u \rangle u$ if $\mathbb{B}$ is an orthonormal basis of $V$
Wew
Translation: A [representantensysteem] for the left coset of $H$ in $G$ is a subset $S\subset G$ that contains exactly one element from every left coset of $H$ in $G$. If $S$ is such a [reresentantensysteem], then $|S|$ = $[G:H]$, and $G$ is the disjunct union of the subset $sH$
Kroros
Does anyone know the English term for representantensysteem?
I'd call it a transversal
a left transversal specifically
also coproduct for disjoint union... I approve
Yes I finally found something about it
Thank you very much
It's almost impossible to google maths stuff in Dutch
no worries
can i get a hint to show that 1 is the only element with a multiplicative inverse in a ring where r^2 = r
well if r is a unit and r^2 = r...
Use contradiction
lol no need for contradiction
unit means it has a multiplicative inverse right
@south patrol maybe you can try this one. My solution wasn't elementary, see if you can find one easy argument for this.
Show that the only integral element ℚ (t, √(t³-t)) over ℚ are ℚ itself. also this is not a purely transcendental extension
indeed
so we have some r^-1 such that r^-1r = rr^-1 = 1, and also the fact that r^2 = r
and now with their powers combined how can you conclude r = 1
is it true that only ring satisfying that property are ∏Z/2?
maybe r^-1*r^2 = r^(-1+2) = r = 1
idk if that’s how the powers work in rings
Hom_k(V,W) is the set of G-equivariant maps?
yeah that's it
and how did we know r was invertible
what would be the point if r wasn't invertible
we're showing 1 is the only invertible element with r = r^2
oh duh
You can bypass that with associativity either way
Or rather, it does work like that, as a consequence of associativity
how could you show that using associativity
r^(-1)r^2 = (r^(-1)r)r
oh right
Man that was brutal to type out on mobile lol
Oo
What's an integral element?
Also my field theory is super rusty. Q(x) is just Q[x]/x right?
no
Q(x) is Q adjoin x
{a+bx | a,b in Q}
That is just Q
No
😦
Q[x] is polynomials over Q
Oh right, it's Q(f(x)) is Q with the roots of f stitched in
Q(x) is rational functions over Q, the field of fractions of Q[x]
That it?
Idk what you mean
Okay. I think I'm following

damn i got mega confused now
Bleak
Hi Joe
~~joe who? ~~
What's an integral element then?
element that is a root of a monic polynomial in Z[x]
wouldnt this suppose that x is trasncendtal
That is what the notation Q(x) typically means
i thought yours was the more special
Consider x a placeholder for a polynomial
For the sake of convenience
if x is algebraic then Q(x)=Q[x] anyway
yea true
I mean like
If someone asks what Q(x) means im gonna say the rational functions over Q lol
Without further context
haha ig i would ask whats x
Q evaluated at x
that would be x(Q) 🤓
iirc there's a book that uses this function notation lmao
absolutely horrible
some rep theory book uses that too
reps and chars of finite groups by liebeck and whatshisface uses xf for f(x)
unless it's a character
then they use f(x)
or a rep
pls help
I think the radical <x^3,y^2,z> is <x,y,z> which is maximial. What about the other ideals?
!help
Please read #❓how-to-get-help
ehh?
I dunno how to tell you this
@molten silo ur good boss
K any field?
do you mean prime ideal by primary ideal?
Nah, I had to look it up but it's close
because that first ideal is definitely not prime I don't think
Primary is xy in p implies x^n or y^n in p
right ok now I believe it's primary
yur yur
Isn't that second polynomial irreducible?
certainly looks like it
I mean the first one is just intuitavely primary and it's annoying me I can't formalise it 
Let xy in ideal. Then three cases, one of them divides
the only problematic things are x*x^2 and y*y which cause it to not be prime but still allow it to be primary
In each case we good
i think the radical is maximal
It is
i think it is
two to go
Second one,.the polynomial is probably irreducible
i think so
the 2nd one is maximal ri- yeah
Did you recently cover the generalized Eisenstein criterion?
last year
That's what Google said to use for multivariates
I don't wanna deal with it, but I bet it works
i cant remember what is says, but i do think its irreducible
Could also argue by contradiction that it can't have a linear factor
could argue by "grrr it's obviously irreducible"
no cross terms so how can factor 
Wait what's the analogue for the ftoa for multivariables?
uhhh nullstellenstatz?..... ???
nullstelensatz?
Is it max degree linear factors, or sum degrees or is there not one?
Ooh I just sinned
plz repent
And mistook irreducible with prime but it's okay cause it was right
i dont understand what you mean?
Okay, the guaranteed way to show it's irreducible is that it's linear in x, reducing in y would give a sqrt(x), and reducing in z you can't get three linear factors
i see
I was thinking that because the poly is irreducible the ideal must be prime, but that just means the ideal is irreducible
okay that makes sense
Third ideal isn't primary, because it's not maximal but it's its own radical, right?
what is its radical?
k[x,y,z]/(x-y^3-z^2), we have x = y^3-z^2, y^3 = x-z^2 and z^2 = x-y^3 => y^3 = y^3-2z^2 => z = 0 => x = y^3, so this is iso to K[y] but I can't get it to be a field (skill issue)
Itself I think
not sure why I replied to that post
yeah third ideal is it's own radical, all of the generators are linear
Then it's not primary, since it's not maximal
so if they are all linear then they are equal to its own radical
but how do you show its not maximal?
the noetherian implication is only one way
Forget what I just said I'm stupid
Nah it's both I think
I might be misremembering wikipedia let me double check

I misremembered lmao
i think its one way
Yeah the if if was a different property
also, is it? how is x+1 in there lol
Oh speaking of my misremembering, k[y] has no zero divsiors
wait is the radical prime?
I thought it worked like x + x^2 okay?
true, so it's prime at least
which implies irreducible because I said so
Nah that proves that the ideal is primary
yurrrr
yes
god there are a lot of things for me to keep track of here 
Well also that
we want an implication going the other way don't we
In mathematics, specifically commutative algebra, a proper ideal Q of a commutative ring A is said to be primary if whenever xy is an element of Q then x or yn is also an element of Q, for some n > 0. For example, in the ring of integers Z, (pn) is a primary ideal if p is a prime number.
The notion of primary ideals is important in commutative r...
if not the contradiction works
Second thing in properties
wait I'm skill issuing hard on number 3
K[x,y,z]/(x+1, y-1, z+1) is clearly iso to K so the ideal is maximal
Oh wait yeah lmao
i think that works
Now go write it up real pretty
yeah, an ideal generated by only linear polynomials is obviously maximal
apologies fellas
thank you boys.
I wonder why
I was on the 10 min cooldown for when you join the server 
I wonder why
nice "honorable" role stinky
lang is a notorious aids denier it is evident in his algebra book
True he never once mentions aids in it
As far as I know I'm only like 100 pages in
Help
You took a break too? 
Yes, Lang just wrote books for himself. Good luck with it.
🚬 
Thanks I took like a year break so I should get back to it
My two days here have revealed to me that I need to freshen up on ring shit
(Entire rings are also called integral domains. However, linguistically, I feel the need for an adjective. "Integral" would do, except that in English, "integral" has been used for "integral over a ring" as in Chapter VII, §1. In French, as in English, two words exist with similar roots: "integral" and "entire". The French have used both words. Why not do the same in English? There is a slight psychological impediment, in that it would have been better if the use of "integral" and "entire" were reversed to fit the long-standing French use. I don't know what to do about this.
Although the aids stuff is probably horrible
But I love his algebra book
Well as much of it as I have read
Also if you got through groups it might be a bit easier for a bit
Let $A$ be a ring with unit and $S$ subset of $A$ such that $1_A\in S$ and for all $s,t\in S$, we have that $st\in S$. I'm going to define two equivalence relations. Let $(a,s),(b,t)\in A\times S$, i claim that if $(a,s)\sim_1(b,t)$ then $(a,s)\sim_2(b,t)$ and conversely. \bigskip
First relation :
\begin{center}
$(a,s)\sim_1(b,t)$ if there $\exists u,v\in A$ such that : $au=bv\in A$ and $su=tv\in S$.
\end{center}
Second relation :
\begin{center}
$(a,s)\sim_2(b,t)$ if there $\exists u,v\in A$ such that : $au=bv$ and $su=tv\in S$.
\end{center}
Since $A$ is a ring and $a,b,u,v\in A$ it is always true that $au\in A$ and $bv\in A$ so writing $\in A$ or not does not change anything. But my teacher insists that my equivalence relation isn't right (the first one). I can accept that he wants to use the second since he decides what he wants my project to look like, but to me they are equivalent so i don't understand why he insists, am-i wrong that they are equivalent ?
Overfull hbox, badness 1000
Aren’t these literally the same thing?
Hey guys, I am rather unsure of this question, because I know the answer intuitively, but I am struggling to make the proof rigorous
The question is asking that if we have a set X, and the set of all functions that map X to X, then this set of functions form a semi-group under functional composition.
I know that functional composition is associative, but I honestly have no clue how to show that other than "This is basic knowledge, lel"
show the image of each x \in X under (ab)c is equal to the image of the same x under a(bc)
is how I'd do it
||(ab)c(x) = ab(c(x)) = a(b(c(x)) = a(bc(x)) = a(bc)(x)|| solution to check after you've tried it
I'm sorry, but how
right ok this group is S_3
we're not, my mistake
which automorphism is it
ignore me for now
a = Id b = (123) c = (132) d = (12) e = (13) f = (23)
u = Id v = (12), x = (13), y = (23), z = (132), w = (123)
i don't understand, unfortunately
yeah ok, so what this is is a relabelling of the table followed by some reordering of the rows/columns that's what's going on here
what are those (123) (132) ...
yeah I said ignore me
but now unignore me
I was just translating that awful cayley table into an actual group
the choice of whatever d,e (or v, x) are determines what everything else is (this is because those two elements are generators of the group)
I knew they had to be order 2 by looking at the table (d*d = a, e*e = a)
just as a question, is this an example of a group isomorphism you've been given?
ah then this is a good exercise! See if you can show that this is indeed a group isomorphism
you've got the fact that it's bijective for free
right I see
ok, I'll try
one mo
if we do a little re-arranging it becomes much clearer what your map should be
every isomorphism will be some rearrangement like this followed by a "relabelling"
Guys any ideas?
what ring is x/y in here, K[x,y]/(x^2-y^3) also?
I'm pretty sure K[x,y]/blah is iso to a subring of the localisation so it actually makes sense to ask if an element is integral over it in that case
is it not a root to f(a) = xa-y^2
fair warning it's 2am here
how do you find the commutator subgroup of a thing
my brain
xa-y^2 isn't monic
prime math hours
how is x/y in k[x,y}/blah
what's the group
r \in R then showing that r is integral over R would just be showing that it satisfies x - r which is trivial
but also wanna know in general
i know what abelianization is
but is there a general way of doing it
x/y naturally lives in the fraction field of k[x, y]/x^2 - y^3
fuck yes you have a presentation I don't have to actually THINK
god forbid
do you just want the abelianisation
or do you need the derived subgroup explicitly
because one of these answers will be great and the other will make me go to bed
If you want the answer it's just that since x^2 = y^3 then x/y satisfies Z^2 - y trivially. But you should think about what is going on geometrically
im not sure i understand.
yeah this thingy
but i assumed i needed to do the commutator subgroup man thing first
So like if you have an integral domain R (like say the integers Z), you can form its total field of fractions (for Z it is Q, the rational numbers)
shove [a, b] as an extra relator, this is the presentation of the abelainisation
This is the set of elements a/b where a, b \in R and b is not zero, modulo the obvious relations
you can then use this to simplify the other relators down
Ab(pi_1(X)) = <a, b : a^2b^3, aba^-1b^-5, [a,b]> = <a, b : a^2b^3, b^-4, [a,b]> = <a, b : ba^{-1} = a, b^4, [a,b]> yes - this smells like Z[i]
im not sure i understand
i think i understand now. for k[x,y]/<x^2-y^3> are all the polynomials that satisfy x^2-y^2 =0
No, not exactly...
k[x, y] is all polynomials
<x^2 - y^3> is imposing the relation x^2 = y^3
this is the full question lol
ok how does this imply x/y is in the set?
This belongs probably more in the algebraic topology sub. You could do it with just algebra but it's more convenient to do it with graph theory.
or just bash out that presentation into a smith-normal form which I'm not doing at 2:15am
ok
x/y is the ratio of two such functions.
There isn't a Smith normal form for noncommutative groups, a, b don't commute.
[a, b] is a realtor I took the abelianisation
realtor
As that’s what sebbb was asking
it is for alg top lol
If ur gonna pull me up on each typo ur gonna type a novel by the time this convo is done
It's fine, I guess the thing to observe is that now you are quotienting out by aba^{-1}b^{-1}, aba^{-1}b^{-5}, a^2b^3
oh thank god
so combining the first two relations we see that b^4 is trivial
then a^2b^{-1} is trivial because a^2b^3 and b^4 are
So that implies that a^2 = b.
So the group is just generated by a which satisfies a^8 = 1
But probably it would be more entertaining to draw some pretty pictures.
(so the answer is Z/8 for the record).
maybe a silly question
^Shoot
dont we get that b^-4 = id? not b^4
Same thing
I hate math problems that have big annoying equations
Take inverses of both sides
mmm yes
Why can't all math just be nice simple to look at things that make your brain scream?
just look at it lmao
Yeah but long bs equatoins are annoying
Honestly numbers are the worst part of math
Wait that's not true cause analysis exists
Based based based
Number theory moment bruh
Non-rigorous 1570-2023
At least number theory is cool in theory
it becomes ring theory???????
ideals are just a generalization of divisibility
What are rings a generalisation of
Tru!
Congruence can suck my dick i do not care when a congruence can be solved modulo 2^2^k
Oh, yeah. Z
My last semester of my masters I had to do a class on number theory, and the analytic shit was brutal
Me when pi(x) > log(log(x))
I don't think we got to that one, but we did prove the prime number theorem with the sieve of some guy
Not erastosthenes, it was way worse
Oh right the selbert sieve
Initial object in Ring for a reason buddy :blazing8s: :blazed2the9s:
blazed2the9s
Just hop between advanced channels ig
just post in the relevant channel
Oh I wanted problems to try and solve
Or rather, ask people details of and then get no where on
look up qualifying exams 
Nah I'll just torture myself with lang I guess
wtf
