#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 89 of 1
if you have an extension of fields E/F you can talk about this extension being Galois
And also exhibiting a polynomial with S_5 being its galois group but that isn’t too hard
all i need is a 70 on this exam to pass with an A
never gonna take an algebra course again
i love the people that do algebra
but not for me.
i just realized this is #groups-rings-fields my bad
Bump
what would typically come after reducing polynomials and producing finite fields of order p^n in an undergrad aa course
dropping whatever courses come after
good one
have you already talked about field extensions and algebraic closures
i don’t believe so
is that like Q(sqrt(2)) and stuff. i’ve read ab stuff like that but havnt learned about it yet
yes that's the sort of stuff
my class went through finite fields then extensions, algebraic extensions, and now we're onto separability and galois correspondence (hopefully galois theory)
but there's not much time left so we can't really do much more
we’ve basically just done ideals and integral domain definitions and then proven some simple properties of both. and then the theorems to reduce polynomials over either Q or Z and produce finite fields
i think field extensions make sense then as a next step
okay. i ask bc i’m doing it as an independent study and he just handed me notes and problems mixed in with them and proofs ect. i finished them pretty quickly, in like 3 days. he said i’m good for the next test but like we have 3 weeks left and it’s our final test before the final exam
so i was just looking for a direction into what to study next
mood but also going to take more abstract courses cause i hate myself
i would consult the syllabus/professor, but field extensions are the next step in my limited experience
i will ask him on monday. but we’ve covered the whole syllabus
if you have 3 weeks (~2 with the exam) then im sure you'll get to extensions and algebraic extensions
well we’re done. he’s told me we aren’t gonna cover any more material in the class
oh
he’s covered everything he would cover in a standard class but since it was an independent study and i was motivated we got through things quick
then if you want to continue i'd look over what i mentioned above
but i wanna learn more so i will ask ab field extensions
also, for anyone with grad school experience, would you recommend jumping straight into graduate analysis or beginning with undergrad analysis at the new program? i’ve been told to start with undergrad.
have you done UG analysis at your current school
i haven't heard much about taking UG analysis again
are you not confident in your ability to succeed in the grad version
not from reading the syllabus. a professors at the new program said it’s typical for their students to start at UG analysis again. i think i will start there but i wanted other opinions and if that is something somewhat standard to do
i've never heard of that but i am not a grad student so i can't really say what's standard
have you done grad analysis at your current uni
no just UG. i read the UG syllabus at the new school and they have stuff in there that we didn’t cover in my UG analysis so that should be enough of an indication to retake it right
i don't think it warrants a whole retake unless the syllabus is completely different. i'm guessing they'll cover similar stuff, and what is different you could review in your own time
but i have 0 experience so i'm not really qualified to suggest anything
okay. thanks your your direction regardless
can a surjective automorphism on a countable order group be not injective?
must it be an isomorphism
whoops did not mean automorphism
just meant a surjective homomorphism with domain and codomain equal
by "countable" do you mean finite ?
im working specifically over Z^2 so that might help
nah just countably infinite
if it was finite i can see it must be true, but here i can't justify it
what about something like phi(a, b) = (a, b/2) if b is even, and (a, b-1) is b is odd
definitely onto but not sure if it preserves +
Nope
maybe now
didn't see the second half
Still no...
by induction suppose F has a basis of cardinality m for every m>=n , we wish to show that it has a basis of cardinality m+1 for every m>=n , suppose for the sake of contradiction it does not: consider the basis of cardinality m {x1,x2,....,xm}. we now have 3 basis : {y1,y2,..yn} , [z1,z2,..,zn+1] and {x1,x2,...,xm}. consider now the set {x1,x2,...,xm,y1}. this has cardinality m+1 so it cant be a basis but it spans the module so we must have its linear dependant --> there exists k_i not all 0 such that sum(kix_i) = 0. but each x_i is a linear combination of y_is so we arrive at a contradiction, contradicting that {y1,y2,...ym} is linearly independant
now ik this is trash but thats all i could do
i used the hypotehsis just for the base case , like the base case works just cuz the assumption but thats it
this is for problem 12.
True for Z -> Z since every additive map on the integers is just linear
same for rational i think
anyone 😦
im stuck on your induction hypothesis. It really should be something like: let F be a free module with a basis of cardinality n >= 1. Suppose (for the induction hypothesis) that F has a basis of cardinality m' for each n <= m' <= m. (Then go on to show that F has a basis of cardinality m+1)
right, the exact statement you want to show is like
P(m) = "F has a basis of cardinality m"
and you want to show P(m) is true for all m >= n
what doesn't matter?
by induction suppose F has a basis of cardinality m for every m>=n
what you said here is just asserting the conclusion
yes
I assumed the theorem for m and want to show yhe theorem for m*1
m+1
this + base case
if F has a basis of cardinality m for every m >= n, then it's vacuously true that it has a basis of cardinality m+1, because m+1 >= n. You don't need any of your assumptions to prove this (and this is a problem)
Yea mb
This works better
The rest is trash too tho right?
Or does it work
there exists k_i not all 0 such that sum(kix_i) = 0. but each x_i is a linear combination of y_is so we arrive at a contradiction, contradicting that {y1,y2,...ym} is linearly independant
i don't think you've said enough to conclude that that {y1,y2,...ym} is linearly dependent
err
this might work actually
its much more complicated than what i would've done
i think hungerford proves in this section that F has a basis of cardinality k iff F is iso to R^k
he doesnt
Its an exercise
oh
Yea its true
But i forgot that
and i see the proof using that
But i just cant aee anything aeonf
Wrong with my proof
And i wanted to ask
Other than the missing <m u pointed out
yea, im pretty sure it does work.
it just bugs me a little bit tbh because there is an easy direct proof:
$$F \cong R^m \cong R^n \oplus R^{m-n} \cong R^{n+1} \oplus R^{m-n} \cong R^{m + 1}$$
kxrider
yeaa
I couldnt come up with tbis
It took me like 35 mins
To come up awith what i sent
Or even more lmao
sad ig
eh yea that's learning anything new for me. getting stuck for a ridiculously long time on (in hindsight) trivial things.
also that example in q13 goes hard. a lot of people don't like this about noncommutative rings, but I think it is cool they can have properties like this.
nothing to worry about. just pointing out a fact i find neat
im having such a tough time struggling with understanding the proof for the fundamental theorem of abelian groups
finite?

Hi! Can you guys give me some hint about this problem? I have to prove the following statement: if G has only one irreducible representation of dimension > 1, then the commutator subgroup of G is elementary Abelian p-group.
I can bring G' in the game knowing that the number of 1 dimensional irreps is |G/G'|
I think I might have smth? Let c(H,G) denote the number of conjugacy classes of G contained in a subset H. Then if N is normal I’m pretty sure that c(G/N,G/N) <= c(G,G)-c(N,G)+1. If this is true then write G’ as a union of conjugacy classes and observe that it must then by made of exactly 2 classes. Show that it’s thus elementary abelian
Pretty neat fact gotta say
Rep theory is so cool
Hi, guys, why these vectors form a basis?
What have you tried in showing these are linearly independent vector?
I think it's easiest just to show that $\mathbb C \cdot v_{\zeta^i} \not \cong \mathbb C \cdot v_{\zeta^j}$ as $\mathbb C[G]$-modules
potato
Though this uses more theory lol
Yeah this is presumably a vandermonde moment
Yeah you should get a vandermonde matrix
Sniped again
lel
not only is it a vandermonde matrix, isn't it just straight up the character table of C_n?
Which presumably is what we are proving lol
right ok lol 
More or less
anyway, definitely non-zero determinant!
TIL the proof every field automorphisim of R is the identity
this is true
LIke I heard that whether C admits non-trivial field automorphisms depends on foundations but never actually thought about R lol
C always admits i -> -i even without AOC
How does it depend on foundations
Oh okay
Thanks! i see
it's just that with AOC that C_2 becomes an unconstructable uncountable mess
lol
Every day I’m made to reconsider my current stance on AC
Lol
I only work with finite sets so I really don't care about AOC
Basiert
DC is clearly an easier alternative
Yeah I basically just trust that every time I employ choice I could probably just do it by hand in that specific example anyway lol
there's a C in there actually but I just take vector spaces over it and then stop caring
just choice lets me prove smth more general
¯_(ツ)_/¯
Anyway I am do Galois Theories
are there any fun questions
that i can do lol
no
understandable
tryna show x^4 + 1 reducible over Fp for all
p
Got it down to p = 3 mod 8 lol
So perhaps time to just consider p = 3 and 11 to see what happens

Why 😭
you want hints or ...?
Oh just wasn't sure what that sticker was meant to mean lol
idk either, looks cool
Nah I'll keep going but like is considering quad residues good so far to like rule out roots of 2 and -1 etc
And do you have any interesting galois theory questions
Lol
I do
I think I have a broken way to do this with alg num
Bruh
But im probably using a result that doesn’t satisfy the required hypotheses or smth as usual
@south patrol
Okay yeah I think it works
Maybe these then
||x^4+1 is the 8th cyclotomic polynomial. Look at the extension $\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_8)|\mathbb{Q}$. The galois group of this is not cyclic so no primes remain inert, thus $x^4+1$ must split into factors over $\mathbb{F}_p$ for each p||
Aah
How do you spoiler latex
,texsp spoiler

W/o ||
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
Thanks
Okay so my idea is basically like
is there any way to understand tor functors without derived functors 
You don’t really have to explicitly mention the whole derived functor machinery but in essence it’s a derived functor yeah
\texsp sps $K = F_p(\epsilon)$ w $\epsilon$ a root of $x^4 + 1$. if irred then $[F_p(\epsilon) : F_p] = 4$ so that $# F_p(\epsilon) = p^4$ and $# F_p(\epsilon)^\times = p^3(p-1)$ so $8 \mid p-1$ and $p \equiv 1 \mod 8$. But then $(2/p)=1$ and we can factor $x^4 + 1$ anyway lol
potato
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
I can't find a resource online that explains them without derived functors
I mean it’ll be explained by using the same machinery, just without using the word derived functor
Think of measuring the failure of injectivity
Well they are derived functors
You could take the properties that they satisfy on faith, but if you want to understand why they work then you might as well learn derived functors lol
Is this ok lol
like i'm doing a lagrange moment
what properties
Long exact sequence, how to compute, etc.
oh very cool

@south patrol
I know I struggled less with tor because I saw ext first
And ext feels a little more natural as a derived functor to me
ext?
But all in all it’s still pretty weird stuff imo
Derived functor of Hom

Measures « failure of exactness » of an ses if you will
how can a ses fail to be exact
of you go deep into homological algebra, you'll see they are just the natural functors to define in the derived category
Nvm me
homology
Should have said failure of exactness of the last term in a not so short exact sequence
idk homology
If you get what I mean
es kribbelt mein gehirn
you really don't need this machinery to do comm alg for now
Honestly as much as I enjoyed the homological algebra stuff I did it felt pretty unmotivated and I didn’t get a whole lot out of it so I’d also recommend skipping
It’s probably better to see that stuff after having seen (co)-homology in topology first anyways
idk how people learn hom alg without having seen homology in alg top
I just did it because it was the next thing in the book I was reading 
like i know people do it but it'd feel so random to me without it
But then I learned the topology 🙂
i more just like
don't see how you could have the willpower to learn hom alg by itself

yeah
Anyway i am do that question from you ryu like
They introduce hom algebra before homology at my uni and it’s so dumb
the irred factors of f(g(x)) one
Here they introduce them at the same time basically lol
Especially since we end up repeating a bunch of stuff in algebraic topology afterwards
they are nice problems 
Well
But wait. G’ must be abelian, so the #of conj. classes in it is the order of G’
Let $h \mid f(g(x))$ be irreducible and $\alpha$ any root of $h$ in some extension lol. Then $f(g(\alpha))=0$, so $[F(g(\alpha)) : F] = n$ and this divides $[F(\alpha):F]= \deg h$
potato
ye
in 3 assume the factors are monic btw
Lol
Ok
Ngl I am stuck seeing how normality (but not separability) comes in
but i shall think
Obviously it is needed or otherwise e.g. x^3 - 2 lol
hm
Hello. Can anyone here explain in a simple and intuitive way and in detail why in the hyperbolic plane it is generally impossible, starting with an arbitrary circle of area less than 2\pi, to construct a quadrilateral with all sides and angles congruent having the same area, and vice versa, that is, starting with an arbitrary quadrilateral with all sides and angles congruent, it is impossible in general to construct a circle having the same area?
what does this have to do with abstract algebra
It can so.
huh?
It can have to do with abstract algebra.
This question can be deleted if abstract algebraists here see no relationship between it and abstract algebra.
is basic functional analysis on-topic enough for this channel?
if so id like to ask something about proving properties of a predefined scalar product in a complex hilbert space
I think this belongs in #real-complex-analysis
ah yeah i think adv is the right one, thx!
Any hints for 3 btw? Done the rest of them except 5 I think
Yes
waiting
The answer is 42
Let G be a group and supposed [G:Z(G)] = 4. Prove G/Z(G) ismorphic to Z_2 x Z_2
my approach is this
attaching photo
yup!
Sure
is it poggers?
I'm pogging irl rn
I mean the hardest bit is the bit you already know
That if G/Z(G) is cyclic then G abelian
trying to just load up my cheat sheet
i just need an 80
never gonna algebra again
Lol
unwise....
u think ANALYSIS is RIGOROUS??? FOOL!
Dunno how you can avoid basic group theory forever
for me, up to kernel theorems im fine, but isomorphism theorems make no sense
Wdym kernel theorems
if you mean G/ker\phi \cong img \phi then that is an isomorphism theorem
but like some of these theorems are fucked
not sure about that one boss
the 2nd and third iso theorems are just special cases of the first and the first just says "if u say two things are the same if they map to the same thing in an isomorphism u still have a group"
*homomorphism
was able to do 3/5 of the questions on the practice final in like 25 minutes
so we chillin
literally a genius
α, β be roots of g(x) and h(x) respectively then there is an automorphism fixing base k sending α ↦β. Show this automorphism is enough
Alg closure
Yee sure
got it?
can i make a question or is a discussion on going ?
you can ask
galois closure may not exist as K is not knows to be a spearable ext
thanks, ok so i want to show that for a r-homomorphism f from M to N which is surjective, if exist K submodule of M such that M = kerf + K (kerf intersection K = {0}) then f splits (exist g: N -> M such that gof=id)
what i have done until now is :
from second isomorphic theorem ... K isomorphic to K/kerf
from first isomorphic theorem ... K/kerf isomorphic to N
So K isomorphic to N
And if these are correct there is a h from N to K which is r-isomorphism
how i will define my g ? probably something trivial with h but i am blind right now
sorry K/kerf? you meant M/kerf?
no i think K/kerf is isomorphic to N
no that's not correct
oh
K is isomorphic to N
is what you'll get
infact K ∩ kerf ={0}
that's what you said as well
have you seen exact sequences and splitting of exact sequences?
think a bit
btw cant we say this (K ⊕ kerf)/kerf = K/kerf ⊕ kerf/kerf ?
ker f isn't a submodule of K so K/ker f makes no sense
can anyone help me understand this question? I know that the order of an element g is the smallest integer n such that g^n = e. and one element of N is the identity matrix and the other is rotation by 180 degrees
just not sure what the order of the given element of G/N might be. is it 2?
oh yeah you are right
keep multiplying it by itself until you get N
what is "it"
(0 -1)
(1 0) N, as that's what you're trying to find the order of
it is 2 though you are right
what I don't understand is that the identity element just keeps giving (0 -1) (1 0 ) which isn't in N
yeah, that's a coset of N
but I noticed that multiplying it by (-1 0) (0 -1) twice gives the identity
if that matrix was in N you'd just have the identity of G/N straight away
can i say i have a r-isomorphism h from N to K such that h(n)=k and an φ from K to M such that φ (k) = k1 + 0 (k1 in K and 0 in kerf) such that f(k1) = n. So g from N to M is g=φοh ?
so do we just need to test out different elements of N until the product is in N? that'll give the order?
no?
I think I misunderstood you
you need to multiply that element with itself until you get the identity, the number of times you do that (+1 ;3) is the order
by definition of order
right. I think I see what you mean now. we're taking the product of sets. my bad, I kept thinking about each element of N
yeah think about elements of G/N instead
So I've been learning Galois groups. To try to explore the mechanics, I took the polynomial x^4-2 and found the roots z, -z, zi, -zi. I already know that the Galois group of these roots is D4 (square), but to see why I listed all possible permutations of those roots (which gives S4), then I started checking those permutations to see if applied to a generic splitting field element if it reproduces the splitting field. For instance, take X= {1,z,z^2,z^3,i,iz,iz^2,iz^3}, the splitting field being spanX. Acting on X by a permutation k in S4 will either give the whole field back (by which I mean k acting on X equals X), or it will destroy the field by "doubling up" some elements in X and removing others (in other words k applied to X is a proper subset of X). My hypothesis is that the permutations in S4 that preserve X are the ones in D4.
Tl;Dr the Galois group of x^4-2 is D4 and not S4. I'm trying to figure out through brute force why this is so. In other words, I'm trying to figure out what permutations in S4 will give a valid automorphism, which together compose D4. Hope it makes sense!
what
Am I barking up the wrong tree
your automorphisms are uniquely determined by what they send z or i to
I know but why is that
definition of an automorphism...?
Ok
they are generators and an automorphism is a homomorphism
write a table for all possible automorphisms using this
But why can't I show using permutations on the roots directly is my question
who says you can't
I know what you're talking about I'm asking if the way I'm going about it, though bashy, is also correct
I have no idea what you're doing there
ahh i guess is not well defined cause f isnt injective
you can
But I think you are forgetting that the automorphisms in the galois group have to keep the field you're extending fixed
Here you have like Gal(Q(4rt(2),zeta_4)/Q) so every element of this group has to keep Q fixed
Here's an example of a permutation of roots that I think does not belong, i.e., doesn't represent an automorphism
I think this is what I was trying to say
you can more easily see this by checking whether it is a homomorphism
-iz = phi(-1)phi(iz) = phi(-iz) = z
Also note that $[\mathbb{Q}[i,\sqrt[4]{2}]:\mathbb{Q}]=8$ so it can't be $S_4$
Irony Incarnate
Right I know that. I was just exploring how to derive D4 from automorphisms on the roots only and no other techniques
@wraith cargo I appreciate your help
hello! I'm quite confused if all division rings are integral domain (or are there some cases that are not?). We know that integral domain is a nonzero commutative ring. But there are noncommutative division rings such as the one shown on the screenshot
not all division rings are integral domains since, like you said there are non commutative ones like the quaternions but division rings are domains in the sense that they don't have zero divisors
this is kinda tricky because it depends on conventions and stuff
integral domains do
Domains don't

In the context I've been reading up on (normed) division algebras needn't even be associative
Lol
some authors use these interchangeably
So yeah depends on context
just like integritatsring and integritatsbereich
yes
awesome if you have two profs who both use integritätsring where for one it's necessarily commutative and for the other it isn't
🙂
Die haben keine Integrität
true
how do I do this?
Use the following result
mx + ny = 1
implies m and n are coprime
i need to show closure: gcd(a,b) = ax + by = 1
idk how to show the four axioms
I was gonna ask something
but I forgor what I was gonna ask
OH I remember again
nvm it answered itself
The group acting on the set of roots of the polynomial has a single orbit iff it is the Galois group, is that right?
uh
what restrictions are you putting on the polynomial
Yes or no question
All I needed
Suppose that GL(n,R) has a continuous representation V (a continuous homomorphism from GL(n,R) to GL(V)) Show that the stabilizer of any vector v in V is a matrix Lie group. I'm not sure where to start this besides saying that the stabilizer subgroup is a closed subgroup of GL(n,R)
it's a subgroup of GL(n,R) because it's the stabilizer
but i need a way to know that every sequence in the stabilizer converges to something in the stabilizer
maybe something about the stabilizer has to lie in a connected component of GL(n,R)?
is it true that all the matrices in the stabilizer will have determinant 1?
hm i guess not
Are you trying to show the stabilizer is closed?
what does the u represent
like for the field of fractions we have a similar relation but without the u in this case
which seems logical because then it's just what it means for two fractions to be equal
It's for zero divisors.
huh?
Do you know what a zero divisor is?
yes
Good, it's for the case that a ring has those.
how? what?
What is your question?
what does the u represent
The zero divisor.
Because there might be a zero divisor.
I don't see the connection
suppose x is a zero divisor
--> there exists y such that xy=0
but then inside the localization u would get someething like x/1 = xy/y = 0/y=0/1
not cool
They're saying "a/s = b/t if at-bs is a zero divisor", not just "a/s = b/t if at-bs=0".
idk localization yet
this is the text leading up to localization
ah
S is any multiplicatively closed subset here
the equivalence classes of the equivalence (a,s) ~ (b,x) iff u(ax-bs) =0 for some u is localizing with respect to S
ur basically inverting S
the field of fractions is when S is the whole ring except 0
so u get a field
cuz every element is now invertable
Well, not quite, only if it's a zero divisor with the other factor being in S.
In particular, the complement of a prime ideal.
why is at - bs always a zero divisor
It isn't necessarily.
Zero divisor is just a generalization of equaling 0
For random choices of a,b,s,t there's no particular reason to expect at-bs to be a zero divisor.
However, suppose we have a,b,s,t,u such that (at-bs)u = 0 and s,t,u all in S.
Then if we take a/b and s/t and multiply each of them by 1/u we get a/(bu) and s/(tu) which definitely ought to be the the same, since cross-multiplying and subtracting yields 0/(btu). But then we can't have both (a/(bu))·(u/1) = a/b and (s/(tu))·(u/1) = s/t -- unless we make sure a/b and s/t are the same from the beginning.
pretty much
do you know why it's true?
If 0 notin S and you don't have zero divisors in your ring, "(at-bs)u = 0 for some u in S" is the same as "at=bs", and in that case it's easier to think of it the latter way.
Do you see how the map GL(n, R) -> V which maps g to gv is continuous?
not really
Well as a continuous representation, you can view it as a continuous map G x V -> V
Perfect, now what is the preimage of v under this map?
the stabilizer of v and some of the orbit (which has v as image)
Oh I'm referring to this map
Once you have fixed v, consider the map G -> V that tells you what the group action does on that v. That is continuous, right?
And {v} is a closed subset of V, right?
ah yes
so the preimage is closed
this would also imply that any sequence of matrices in the stabilizer converges to a matrix in the stabilizer too then right?
(or something non-invertible)
Yes, since a closed subset is sequentially closed.
If the sequence converges at all, of course.
nice
lie theory is so weird
by continuous representation though it says that theres a cont homomorphism from GL(n,R) to GL(V)
but youre saying g*v which is an element of V, not GL(V)
i guess it's the same thing with some different wording though
like you can map g to whatever its image is in GL(V)
so if the homomorphism is p you get p(g) * v or something
thanks for the help though guys. i will think on it because i don't have it fully internalized but you got me what i needed to know
what are some local properties of rings? a+m only lists a couple of local properties for modules
All the sources on localizations I've read never really talk about those
Maybe there's something in Eisenbud
I just saw this incredibly basic proof of "G finite subgroup of K* for a field K => G cyclic" and I just want to check there isn't some subtlety I'm missing:
Let |G|=n and p a prime dividing n. Then since x^{n/p}-1 has no more than n/p roots, there exists an element b_p in G with b_p^{n/p}\neq 1. Let a_p=b_p^{n/p^k} where k is the exponent of p in n, then a_p has order p^k, since a_p^{p^k}=b_p^n=1 and a_p^{p^{k-1}}=b_p^{n/p}\neq 1. Let a=\prod_{p|n} a_p, then a has order n (x,y of coprime order and commute => ord(xy)=ord(x)ord(y)) and we're done.
Makes me wonder why textbooks typically use the classification of finite abelian groups when such an easy proof exists.
yo
yo the proof is correct if the ring has IBN right?
i’m not reading the AI proof and i think no one else should either
So, chatgpt is obviously not reliable here so don't take the stuff wholesale
But if you're just shooting the shit
If it answered incorrect then those 2 lines are underdetermined
it showed that something (called it F i wonder what did i mean by F ) was not a projective module
Because nothing specific about F was mentioned other than the fact that it's not projective
So F can be anything that is projective
I was gonna say
but yea the question was are free modules projective
Lying mf
Equivalent characterization of projective is, direct summand of a free module
😛
Yup
i am still at the beginning of the section
the diagram definition
and i can see why free implies projective easily
ig u would use the category definitino of free
and then u would have ur homomorphism from the free diagram
check this out
this was a problem i struggled with and two from here did too
maybe yyou could do it @bleak abyss
give an example of a ring that doesnt have IBN
||limit of matrix rings as dimension goes to infity||
||(embeddings are upper left corner)||
no
commie rings
will always have that
i proved why up
so i always mean
noncomm rings
hmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmm
Like if M is an R-module and R is commutative, take a maximal ideal m
yes thats how the proof goes
ur so good wow
uh you sure?
yes there is only one module over the zero ring
And the only basis is empty set
well the zero module is free of dimension n for all n if you're silly enough with your definitions
What
ig we would have to resort to our trusty chtgpt
Doesn't fly
ofc it knows the right answer
Tru it did confirm to us that free modules aren't projective
yea exactly
the free module generated by the set S is always 0
its great with algebraic topology tho , a friend of mine told me that
it computes "K theory groups" (idkw hat are those) correct
Free module of dimension n means a free module with an n-element basis
aktshwally dimension here is bad wording
0 has a basis of n elements for exactly one n, namely n=0
it should be rank
dimension when ur talking about a module over a divsion ring, a vector fiedl
cuz u would have multiple dimensions and it would suck
but rank is better
I'm using the universal property definition
which is the definitively better definition
bc it's the one I'm using 🙂
What even is that exactly
it is yea
given any module homo from X to S u can find a homo from F to S
commie diagram
I'd be fine discounting this example, but I want to mess with dami
i:X-->F the inclusion
u can miss with him but u cant miss with gpt
mess*
I mean I'm just deciding whether to reject tox's definition or not
they are all equivalent
That's the thing it's hard to mess with me when I reserve the right to simply discount what anyone's saying at any time
module has basis--> direct sum of R copies --> free object in the category --> go back
except in the zero ring ig lmfao
hmmmmmmmmmm
yo gpt is fire with combinatorics
there's more interesting examples in like Leavitt path algebras but these are pretty obscure and difficult to construct
i cant help but feel a little dirty using gpt
besides maybe like
"explain ___ in laymans terms"
you should always feel dirty using chatgpt
quick link to this, ignore
(also the fact that's it tends to be wrong lmao)
#chill 
can someone help decipher this
it has to do with the question i posted before
but i dont see how it carries over
ok i do see how it carries over obv not how
what's ur goal here? to write down a matrix expressing the tensor product of two matrices?
so, you can think of T_1 \otimes T_2 as a matrix with 4 columns
If $T = T_1 \otimes T_2$, then the matrix for $T$ is just $$[T(e_1 \otimes e_1) \quad T(e_2 \otimes e_1) \quad T(e_1 \otimes e_2) \quad T(e_2 \otimes e_2)]$$
kxrider
(the matrix which has T(e_i \otimes e_j) as columns)
So for example,
\begin{align*}
T(1,0,0,0) &= T(e_1 \otimes e_1) = T_1e_1 \otimes T_2e_1 = e_1 \otimes (3e_1 + e_2) \ &= 3 e_1 \otimes e_1 + e_1 \otimes e_2 = (3,1,0,0)
\end{align*}
kxrider
so the first column of T is (3,1,0,0)
rinse and repeat with the rest of your basis vectors
this should be a square matrix though no?
oh wait uhhh
wait no yeah that should be a square
that second equality is what i was failing to see though 
T(e1 \otimes e1) = T1e1 \otimes T2e1
i mean more that like
the tensor product is T1e1 \otimes T2e1 repeated 3 times
for corresponding vectors ofc
hmm not sure what ur getting at, T1e1 \otimes T2e1 is computed once tho?
it's okay i got that part
my only question i think then is like
hmmm let me think more and i'll phrase an actual question
Use the following definition of tensor instead:
A tensor is something that transforms like a tensor
Tensors are tbh just kind of odd. The best construction is the universal property they satisfy, but that’s lowkey just abstract nonesense. Tensors just be tensoring.
oohh tensors, my favorite
I actually dont understand the general tensor product
I only understand the tensor products between vector spaces

Can someone help me simplify (C[x]/(x^2-x))_{x-1} = C[x]_{x-1}/(x^2-x)_{x-1}? I'm trying to localize C[x]/(x^2-x) at x-1 using that localization commutes with quotients, but can't get any further with the terms C[x]_{x-1} and (x^2-x)_{x-1}.
I think that (x^2-x)_{x-1} will just be (x), but C[x]_{x-1} is mysterious
yea you could do that and again use commutativity to get that's (C[x]/(x))_{x-1}
or just directly show C[x]/(x^2-x) = C x C and then (x-1) corresponds to the idempotent (1, 0) so inverting it will just kill off the second component in the product. giving you C.
How do you use commutativity again here? If we do it first we get (C[x]/(x^2-x))_{x-1} = C[x]_{x-1}/(x^2-x)_{x-1} = C[x]_{x-1}/(x), but do we have C[x]_{x-1}/(x) = (C[x]/(x))_{x-1}?
umm i mean the principal ideal (x^2-x) in C[x]_{x-1} is the principal ideal in C[x] localized at (x-1) right. that's what you used earlier.
so (x) in C[x]_{x-1} is same as (x)_{x-1} when you think of (x) as an ideal in C[x] instead
I'm a bit confused with this haha. I think I need to read more about this on atiyah mcdonald or some other comm alg book
okie lemme say it like this
you have an exact sequence
0 --> (x^2-x)C[x] --> C[x] --> C[x]/(x^2-x) --> 0
then you invert x-1
which gives you the exact sequence
0 --> xC[x,1/(x-1)] --> C[x, 1/x-1] --> what you want --> 0
but we can get to this sequence in a different way
0 --> xC[x] --> C[x] --> C --> 0
now invert x-1
0 --> xC[x, 1/x-1] --> C[x, 1/x-1] --> C[1/-1] --> 0
so what you want shoudl be same as C
Thanks I'll try to digest this. Is the notation C[x, 1/x-1] equivalent to C[x]_{x-1}? I've seen this C[x, 1/x-1], C[x]_{x-1} and C[x][1/x-1] and wondering whether they all mean the same thing.
yep, the first and third are pretty much the same. the second can be confusing as when you localize at a prime ideal then you're actually inverting its complement
so when you localize at a multiplicative set, the common notation is S^-1A or A[S^-1] and when you localize at a prime p, it's A_p = A[(A \ p)^-1]
Anyone?
yea looks correct
there are many easy proofs lol
a second one uses that order is multiplicative when coprime thingy to say that there exists an element of order lcm(d, d') if there exists elements of order d and d'. now you have an element of maximal order d, so all elements satisfy x^d = 1, so d >= n and d is order of some element so d | n giving d <= n.
Neat.
whoever just posted and deleted that free group free product commutator subgroup thing, i was kind of attempting an answer, but it involves covering space theory
or actually F_2 * F_3 = F_5 and then you can proceed from there lol
and then if you just get a covering space you can show that commutators gives paths that don't end where they start
Lol i saw F_2 * F_3 = F_5 and was immediately like wtf
and we are not supposed to use covering space i guess
ah yes the field product
actually what I'm trying to show is that derived subgroup of PSL(2,Z) is a free group of rank 2
and it's isomorphic to free product Z_2*Z_3
oh not free groups, my bad
i misremembered
i honestly don't know how to deal with free products besides covering spaces so i can't help too much

hello ryu sama
Who’s ryu
no clue
No clue either
let Z_2 = <a> and Z_3 = <b>, then appearantly derived subgroup of PSL(2,Z) is freely generated by x=abab^2 and y=ab^2ab
sorry i forgot to delete a section

this particular thing is actually an example in hatcher page 78
you can see how looking at this thing hard enough kind of solves your problem
has anyone ever done reperesentations of compact groups
if you have a question, just ask it
i don’t have a particular question, but ik it has a lot of applications in physics, diff geo, but is it also interesting for people that go into pure algebra subjects
i don't think i know enough about reps of compact groups to answer that :(
I mean sure I've used them and many here will have
ok so the thing is there’s a whole class just abt that, but idk if it’s worth taking it if i alr know the basics of it
idk if there’s much more i need to know abt it
it's a very deep and far reaching area of study, if there's an entire class on it I'm sure they'll move past the basics
Ig it depends on what you mean by the basics ig
Anyway wew knows much more about this than me lmao
If your entire class is on some topic, surely it will go deeper than the basics right?
how many did you solve?

Hello. Can anyone here explain in a simple and intuitive way and in detail why in the hyperbolic plane it is generally impossible, starting with an arbitrary circle of area less than 2\pi, to construct (by straightedge and compass) a quadrilateral with all sides and angles congruent having the same area, and vice versa, that is, starting with an arbitrary quadrilateral with all sides and angles congruent, it is impossible in general to construct a circle having the same area?
Let $G, H$ and $K$ be groups then, $G \times K \cong H \times K \implies G \cong H$?
numbpy
I thought that this was true in general but apparently not. Can someone give a counterexample for it?
And more importantly an intuition for why this is not true in general (I think this is true for finite groups). In particular if phi is an isomorphism between (G x H) and (H x K) then why wouldn't a projection of phi, be an isomorphism between G and H?
not necessarily
something something finitely generated abelian groups
Let K= Z_p x Z_p x ... , G = Z_p, H=Z_p x Z_p
this should work
sorry, fixed it
What I'm interested in is uh
If you take K= Z
I think this is true for abelian groups but not in general
Is K an infinite product?
I think it's true for f.g. abelian groups
backpack's example is a counter example for non-finitely generated abelian groups
Is there no simpler counterexample say for non-abelian groups
wait, this might be true for finitely generated groups
No what I mean is like
The more obvious counterexamples come from taking K to be smth like that
What I mean is like
yes
"G x Z iso to H x Z => G iso to H" seems true for G,H abelian but not necessarily if they aren't abelian
Iirc this was a problem I was given
Which is kinda inch resting
I think I saw a proof in an expository paper by Conrad
Nice
My bad, it was supplementary material of some course. Turns out it is called cancellation of finite groups
I no longer believe this (drew some diagrams)
Just try to do it and check out the system of equations lol
[R. Hirshon, On Cancellation in Groups, The American Mathematical Monthly, Vol. 76, No. 9 (Nov., 1969), pp. 1037-1039] proves that finite groups are cancellable. In other words, that if G is a finite group and A and B are groups such that A×G is isomorphic to B×G, then A is in fact isomorphic to B.
Found this while searching
yeah it's trivial for finite groups, and I thought I could extend that idea to finitely generated groups by using the fact that the direct product of two groups <X|R> <Y|S> is generated by the coproduct of X and Y and then doing some diagram nonsense utilising the fact X and Y are finite
didn't get anywhere though
wait, if the coproduct of two finite sets is isomorphic then the two sets must be isomorphic (as sets) right
hold on
what does isomorphic as sets mean?
ok there's a slight wrinkle in that we need show the relators of G and H are the same but surely (I pray) that's just the subsitution test
same size
Yeah this is just counting
Since morphisms on sets are functions, an isomorphism is a function with an inverse, i.e. a bijection

As long as everything is finite
Wait, if the coproduct of two sets is isomorphic to what, exactly?
They mean if A u C = B u C then A=B
Which is true for A,B,C finite
(Not equality here, isomorphisms, and union is disjoint)
That's a blocky u, right?
Yeah okay
Nevermind, it doesn't hold for infinite sets
As a counter example, consider {1}uN vs {1, 2}uN. They're clearly bijective, but {1} isn't with {1, 2}
this isnt algebra
Also, don't cheat it's lame
yh it isnt
its physics
I feel stupid for asking, but how does p being prime imply ab>p? I know that if p is prime, then there can't exist ideals a,b>p such that ab<=p, but the negation of ab<=p is not ab>p.
I've always seen it as GX
ive seen it with the little circle arrow
I'm a little rusty on rings, what's the ordering here?
I'm so close it's unreal
bit word-salady lol
🥗
Just regular containment, lol. > means it's proper
i’m sure of that, but how interesting is it as an algebraist
or let me reformulate that: in what other fields of algebra would you need to know a deeper understanding of it
Are there any extra facts about A? I'm assuming it's not necessarily a pid
vague question. Just try learning it and see if you like it rather worrying about "t"he "d"eep "p"hilosophical "r"amifications of le funny root systems
hmm, alright
None.
someone check this lol
excuse the fact that it's appallingly written I was typing fast
no
What is A?
A prime ideal is such that if ab in P then either a in P or b in P
Since here both a and b are in P we can't have that ab is bigger than P
So hence we require that ab is in P
Also the negation of ab<=p is ab>p
Let (x) denote the ideal of Z generated by x. Then (2)(3) = (6)!<=(5), but also (5)!>(2)(3).
yeah the ideals of a ring are (not generally) a totally ordered set, just partially ordered
oops yep true
but I think that the rest of what I said still holds
(a)(b)<p => (a)<p or (b)<p by definition
So if the RHS is true the LHS also has to be
I don't believe you
?????
Okay, so we have ideals a and b, such that p is contained in a, and p is contained in b.
The ideal ab is the set {xy| x \in a, y \in b}. That means that to show p is contained in ab, we need to give sufficient argument that for z \in p, there exists x in a, and y in b, such that xy = z.
You're mistaking the contrapositive for the converse.
it's the additive group generated by that set, but yes
Ah dammit, my in my head check said they were the same :(
Wait ah yes OK I got it turned around in my head lol
I thought False => True has False truth value fuck
ok seems I am too tired for math today
that can't be possible. I feel like most of the math ever done was done by people who were really tired
is it true that for a given n, there exists only one partition of n that's equal to its transpose?
drawing out the young diagrams for n = 3, 4, 5 seems to suggest this is true, but i'm not sure how to prove it
tyty
two partitions of 9 that are transpose invariant
ahh ok..
Let's see, if you define a distance function that says how many times you have to move (in the above picture) squares to get from one partition to the other, then the distance between any partitions satisfying this will be at least two
This would definitely make it at least slightly unlikely for smaller numbers
i see
this definitely shakes up the strategy that i've been pursuing for my problem then lol
You can probably get better bounds to, since it seems like the distance would be at least three or more
I also think the number of transpose invariant permutations has something to do with even/odd conjugacy classes of S_n
yeah it feels "parity"-y
it's either #even conjugacy classes - #odd conjguacy classes or the other way around
I think
research time
right this is exactly what i'm trying to get at
so classifying the irreducibles of Sn isn't hard because the partitions of n give exactly its conjugacy classes
but it's a lot harder for An
more over they give the uhh irreducibles directly
via le funny alternating/symmetric space right?
for A_n you can restrict irreducibles of S_n and since A_n is both index 2 and normal (realised that's redundent, lol) there is a boat load of nice theory for you to use
yeah ive constructed the irreducibles already
i just need to show that they're exhaustive, so this is purely combinatorial now
but i have absolutely no combinatorial background
ah so you're finding the number of conjugacy classes?
Leave it as an exercise to the reader
well, more so trying to relate the conjugacy classes to young tableau
i guess i dont rly have a formula for the number of conjugacy classes either
doesn't clifford's theorem guarantee that all irreducibles are consituents of a restriciton?
uhh that's probably a little too advanced for me
but do u think u could point me to some literature having to do with this proposed fact?
I'd have to find where I read it from first 
i'd appreciate it a lot haha
it could be way simpler, one moment
nothing is fixed by G_p besides p so no two elements can be in the same G_p-orbit
idk what I'm missing
how uhh "accessible" is your formulation of the irreducibles? Specifically how well can you produce their dimensions
because we can use the fact that the sum of the dimensions of all the irreducibles is equal to the order of the group to show we have them all
and if that is tractable then maybe it's the way to go
hmm it's hard to say
they're all obtained by taking restrictions of the irreducibles of Sn
but sometimes those restrictions break into two irreducible summands
yeah that will happen
in that case i'm not sure what the dimensions are
when exactly that happens is clifford theory
which we want to avoid
Take an element x in the ring A. The multiplication by x map A->A is given by some integer matrix (by choosing a basis for A over the integers). Now take the characteristic polynomial of this matrix
I've found a formula for the number of conjugacy classes of A_n in terms of a generating function
old ass paper
hmm ok
yeah i really dont have much information about the dimensions
i have some information about multiplicity though
namely, every restriction of an irrep corresponding to a transpose invariant representation splits into exactly two irreducible summands
i feel that if we take N = # partitions of n a priori then no sophisticated combinatorics is required
but even counting the number of conjugacy classes of An from N is weird
this is what I'd expect, there's a vague correspondence between conjugacy classes that split and irreducibles that split
for conjugacy classes, they split when the cycle type consists of distinct odd integers
wait I was speaking complete nonsense
is that true? (12345) does split in A_5 and that has cycle type (5,1,1)
or this implication only one direction
perhaps I should have read this more in depth 
wait what?
the cycle type is 5 + 0 + 0
oh yeha DUH ahhahaha
ok I believe you now
so the number of conjugacy classes is #number of even partitions + 2*#paritions of distinct odd numbers 
well not quite
i think you're double counting there
you take the subset of even partitions that consist of distinct odd integers, multiply that by 2
I've also found this, Prop 12.17 in Reps and characters of groups by Liebeck, James:
"the conjugacy class of x in S_n only splits on restriction to A_n if x does not commute with any odd permutations in S_n"
then add the rest of the number of even partitiosn
yeah this is how this splitting is obtained to begin with
the splitting if distinct odd integers that is
right ok so it doesn't help... darn

the fact the ONLY formula I've found is a generating function does NOT bode well
oh wait lol
the splitting will be into two characters of equal dimension I think
again, by clifford's theorem
it's a sum of two conjugate (or one, in which case it's irreducible and we DO NOT CARE) characters by clifford's theorem, which have equal dimension as $\chi^g(1) := \chi(g1g^{-1}) = \chi(1)$
Wew
ok so when they split they're of equal dimension, cool
this should help you do this, if you chose to take that path
I gtg now but I wish u luck
can somebody give me a hint for this question?
do it directly
It sounds like you've got it all turned around.
Firstly a and b contain P, are not inside P.
Secondly, the negation of A<=B is not A>B, it's A\cap B^c is non-empty (here <= means \subset, not \leq).
oh wait i can just divide both sides of the equality a0 + a1x + ... anx^n by a^n oops
simplify f(1/x)
Anyone?
what does> mean here?
why can we not have both of the degrees of f(x) and g(x) less than the degree of p(x)? for instance, if p(x) is of degree n, why can't we have deg(f(x)) = n - 2 and deg(g(x)) = 2?
by the degree rule
What can we say about the ideal generated by f(x) if deg f < deg p?
because one of them is a multiple of p(x)
ohh ok thanks got it
proper containtment
but $a>p$ means $a\subset p$ no?
Croqueta
Let me check the notation they use, but unless I'm taking crazy pills it should mean $a\supset p$ and $a\neq p$.
Ocean Man
So you are asking $a\supset p$ and $b\supset p$ implies $ab\supset p$
Croqueta


