#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 86 of 1
Don't really have anything to compare to either, since this class used to be taught by someone else who (as far as I can tell) didn't have as strict requirements
Hmm
Have you looked into Mason Stothers? A bit number theoretical
Perhaps you could look into some of galois' papers? Surely his papers have English translations
True but I'm not sure how often you'd find direct translations of original papers
Great ideas guys, ill send him an email about both... though I expect him to reject Galois if he rejected Noether
More analysis than algebra but Ramanujan has an interesting story
Why did he reject Noether?
Noether is a great choice imo
Well... not exactly reject but "How about doing the easier theorem https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Primary_decomposition in the special case of polynomial rings, having a look at the fascinating life of Lasker (the life of Noether is equally fascinating but there are many more books about Noether, Lasker is hardly known among mathematicians even though he was the World Chess Champion). "
In mathematics, the Lasker–Noether theorem states that every Noetherian ring is a Lasker ring, which means that every ideal can be decomposed as an intersection, called primary decomposition, of finitely many primary ideals (which are related to, but not quite the same as, powers of prime ideals). The theorem was first proven by Emanuel Lasker ...
Mason-Stothers seems good though because I could even go into the history of the real abc conjecture, and the guy who tried to prove it in 10,000 pages and a new theory, and so on
@rustic crown sorry to bother, i don't see how to do the inclusion ker phi into (f)
so you know e + f = 1 and ef = 0
(that's how you should picture idempotents, like e = (1, 0) and f = (0, 1))
ah that makes sense
and this is the prototypical example, as any (non-trivial) idempotent can be used to decompose the ring as a product of two smaller rings
anyway, so the second equation tells you that that (f) is contained in the kernel of phi. and the first tells you that if x is in the kernel, then fx = x, so x is in (f)
If you wanted, I think another potential topic is Kurt hensel via the resources listed here: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/844756/history-of-p-adic-numbers
is there a name for the injection from Z[x] to Z_p[x]?
sorry
i meant the homomorphism from Z[x] to Z_p[x]
where coefficients are just reduced mod p
natural projection might be what ur thinking of
probably, thanks
it would be an injection if Z_p were the p-adic integers lol
lol good to know
also, i'm showing a quartic p(x) in Z[x] is irreducible, and what i was shown is to assume p(x) = (x-a)q(x), deg(q) = 3
we showed earlier that in Z_2[x], p(x) reduced to a polynomial r(x)^2, deg(r) = 2. how is this a contradiction when i take the image under the projection? is it that we have a linear factor still even though we're not supposed to
there's also another step where we assume p(x) = q(x)r(x), each of degree 2, and do the same projecting to Z_3[x] (it should become x * s(x), deg(s) = 3), so we know it can't reduce in the end
also, an unrelated question to a different problem.
if i want to find a generator of (Z/pZ)*, does it suffice to find an element that is coprime to p-1? it makes sense to me but i haven't shown/tried to show it
i was thinking additively, never mind
yeah, if it's linear in Z it'll be linear in Z/pZ
but there was no linear term in Z/pZ
for p=2 I mean
great thank you
sorry for the spam i'm studying for an exam and i'm very worried about how much i know abt the material 
mero 
you're welcome, don't worry about it, I think most people monitor these channels like sharks just waiting for questions so they can think about and help with math lol
me last week (i most likely failed
)
got a 75 on my first abstract 2 exam
, trying to pick up the slack now so i can get an A
literally same but i couldnt pick up the slack
though even if i do well on this exam, the final will be galois theory which im not sure i'll be able to do well on lol
so im banking everything on the inal


me too im just gaslighting mysel into believing it until i do
I think you might be surprised
i've heard people say it makes stuff easier but i'm not banking on it
just doing my best and hoping the curve gifts me the A
i did this like 2 weeks ago and got x^2 + 2
and so did my classmates. were we all wrong the whole time
omg i reduced the wrong thing
great, extra practice for me
What are you trying to do here?
.
i was actually meant to reduce x^4 + x^2 + 1 though, and the answer was x + 2
Sorry, for some reason I thought you were trying to show that x^4+x^2+1 is irred in Q[x]
yeah
im reducing the polynomial in E = Z_3[x]/(p(x)), where p(x) = x^3 + x^2 + 2x + 1
man i hate algebra
i liked groups
What you wrote looks correct to me
this thing
ye
i'm glad that's right but i wasn't meant to reduce x^4 + 2x^2 + 1
it was supposed to be x^4 + x^2 + 1 lol
i figured it out though, thank you regardless
i do have a question though
in the field i mentioned above, E = Z_3[x]/(p(x)), what are the roots of p(x)
i naively said everything is a root, but now i realize that's incorrect
right
The other ones are gonna be harder to get, or might just not be in E
Well you could brute force it, it's only 27 elements
there's most certainly a trick to it
because i doubt my prof wants us to brute force 27 elements lol
also he's a putnam nut so most of his questions resort to tricky solutions haha
pretty sure he's a two time putnam fellow
I think the group of automorphisms of F_27 over Z_3 is cyclic generated by phi, which sends a to a^3
i think there's another intended solution since this was before we dove into field automorphisms
but please continue
And these automorphisms should send roots of a polynomial in Z_3[x] to another root of that polynomial
so try x^3
x^3 is a root indeed from the frobenius homomorphism
ah right
thanks a ton
that's actually a really neat solution
i think i'm getting acclimated to these polynomial rings
real
kinda annoying when you think about it but whatever
I'm reading some stuff on them rn
i wanted to do an alg. geometry independent study because of that
(they aren't annoying)
but idk if my schedule permits
yeaaaa alg geo is the big thing
i'd have to drop some pretty important courses to do so which sucks
I'm in alg geo rn and hate it
but that's prolly cause of my prof
not the material
I'm sure if I was actually being taught the material I'd like it
yeah i'd have a really great prof leading the independent study so i'm sure i would end up enjoying it
algebraic complexity theory (field of CS) uses a ton of polynomial stuff
and that stuff is cool
and what little algebraic combinatorics I've looked at seems to leverage alot of algebraic geometry as well
im not touching combinatorics for as long as my work permits
rip
i don't like it at all tbh
im hoping i don't see it anytime soon, but i know it's inevitable
fair enough but why
i don't like what's talked about. don't really care about the topics
though generating functions sound cool
they are
how did they arrive at s = n?
it looks like eisenstein
oooo yea
such a bad proof 
yea this is awful
reduce mod p
I don't think we can say $a_n = b_0 c_n = b_r c_s (\text{mod }p) \implies s = n$? idk
im confused, did they just take x = x + 1? (underined in blue)
Spamakin🎷
Spamakin🎷
ah i see thx
im confused, if f(x) is irreducible then are they saying that it can be only factored into a unit times some polynomial g(x)
ya
sometimes i feel like when im doing algebra problems, im just messing around with what is given, without much direction, until something i want pops out; is it normal or am i somehow not understanding the intuition behind what is going on
perhaps this is too general of a statement to make
i’m trying to show that (r+s)^2 = r^2 + s^2 for all r,s in a boolean ring
i’ve already shown that r+r = 0. i’ve got r^2 + rs+sr+s^2. can i rewrite the r’s in the cross terms as r^2 and factor it out to give s+s, or is that not okay since they’re being multiplied on different sides of s
Not allowed probsbly; since you are trying to show commutative by assuming commutative
that’s what i figured. where should i go next then?
Not quite sure hold on
try using the idempotent property x^2 =x on (r+s)^2
Yep
so (r+s)^2 = r+s, i ended with rs+sr = 0 after using the boolean property on r^2 and s^2. since i’ve shown r+r = 0 for all r, i’m done right
since sr and rs are back in the ring
no wait they would have to be the same element for that to work
i'm given R is an integral domain with a subring F (a field), and we define the usual VS over F where addition is addition of elements in R, multiplication is multiplication by elements in F
i want to show that if dim_FR is finite, then R is a field
i don't know how to construct the multiplicative inverses from this alone
Given an element a in R, there is some polynomial f in F[x] that a is the root of (else dim_F(R) is not finite). Argue that there exists such an f in F[x] where f(0) is not 0, and then you should be on your way constructing an inverse for a
The reason why R has to be an ID is really subtle in this proof, but it is good to think about
huh? how is it easy to determine the minimal polynomial
how did they get the polynomial
also shouldnt the basis of Q(sqrt(3) + sqrt(5)) be {1, sqrt(3), sqrt(5)}?
no
how would you represent √15 in terms of 1,√3 and √5?
also since it is deg 4 extension, cardinality of basis have to be 4
Also for small dimensions, it's not hard to determine the minimal polynomial by hand
how did they get that the cardinality of [Q(sqrt(3) + sqrt(5):Q] = 4?
also Q(sqrt(3) + sqrt(5)) = {a + b(sqrt(3) + sqrt(5))} so why would 15 have to be represented?
try squaring and adjusting
because it's a ring so if √3 and √5 are there, so should be their product
thank you, i was really lost and didn’t think to use polynomials
right..
yeah i got the polynomial now thanks
for the second example what would the splitting field be then?
i thought u find splitting field by looking at the roots. So in first example u get sqrt(2) and u get 2i from x^2 + 4 thus Q(sqrt(2), i)
ℚ (³√3, ω)
first one makes sense, why is it also omega?
Cause you need to include the complex roots of x^3-3 too, which are of the form cbrt(3)omega with omega being a third root of unity
ahh alright thanks!
true or false? if g^p = 1 for every element g in group G (where p is some prime), then G is abelian
In the area of modern algebra known as group theory, a Tarski monster group, named for Alfred Tarski, is an infinite group G, such that every proper subgroup H of G, other than the identity subgroup, is a cyclic group of order a fixed prime number p. A Tarski monster group is necessarily simple. It was shown by Alexander Yu. Olshanskii in 1979 t...
idk if it's abelian

it's not
it's simple
I'm sure there are easier counterexamples than using this tho 
yeah i tried coming up w p^3 counterexamples for a bit, can anyone think of one?
How does one show that the order of all elements in such a group is p?
I was thinking about Frobenius group but didn't wanna calculate what's A³
Ye idk
y^p ≠ e
The heisenberg group over a finite field of order p has exponent p but is non abelian
Ah never mind should have scrolled down
why is the answer 4? is it not isomorphic to Z1xZ3xZ2?
because my G = {(0,0,0) + <h>, (0,1,0) + <h>, (0,0,1)+<h>, (0,2,1) + <h>} right?
or are both correct?
That's not a convenient way to write them, you are obfuscating the group law
Also that last one shouldn't be (0,2,1)+H
can smn give a hint how i should go about proving this?
Use the fact that C(a) is a subgroup
if I am given GF(2^4) am i expected to come with the isomorphic thing myself?
how would i do that?
something to do with this?
yes
you're quotienting Z_2[x] by an ideal generated by an irreducible 4th degree polynomial, which gives you a field 4 times larger than Z_2, F_16
they're isomorphic almost by definition, which is why they don't bother constructing an isomorphism
why is it irreducible to 4th degree? im assuming i need to do the splitting field of x^16-x right? (the theorem)
try and factor it lol

What ?
uhh what does ":" mean here
You do not know this mathematical symbol?
I have literally never heard of this
uh whats a way to factor this. i get x(x^15-1) and so i need to factor x^15-1) further
I mean try to factor x^4+x+1 to show it's irreducible 
ohh this i agree is irreducible, but how would i get to x^4+x+1 in the first place given just that field F16
like how would i come up with the quotient myself is my question
tensorial product lol
also how did they get thos egenerators
you can take it as a given that the multiplicative group of a finite field is cyclic - I hope,
so call the generator alpha and then use the fact that you're quotienting out by (x^4+x+1) to determine all the possible powers of alpha - and thus in turn also determining all elements of F_16 as alpha is a generator
could u show me an example of how one of them got generated?
I literally can't other than just rewriting what they've written
the only one that's requires any thought is a^4 = a+1, which is true because we know a^4+a+1 = 0 (we've quotiented out by (x^4+x+1)), and so a^4 = -(a+1) = a+1 (we're in characteristic 2)
what do u mean by the use the fact that you're quotiening out by x^4 + x + 1? how do i determine using that
i know that the factor contains the remainders
yeah but he's asking why that is
I have also explained that
ok tbf I didn't mention you get a field because any ideal generated by an irreducible polynomial in F[x] with F a field is maximal but w/e
some handwaving did occour
what is the problem?
tensorial is a very funny word
Ok i got it now. thanks!
btw this stems from writing x^16-x as the product of irreducible polynomials over F_2[x]
Then you can get three irreducible quartics and you can quotient F_2[x] by the ideal generated by any of them to get F_16
And the quotient will be unique up to isomorphism
sorry for the ping, would you be able to elaborate on why if a in R, then there is a polynomial f in F[x] such that f(a) = 0? it makes sense to me, just can't justify it
this is open to anyone else as well. if R is an integer domain, F a subring that is also a field, then if dim_F(R) is finite, why does that imply every a in R has a polynomial f in F[x] such that f(a) = 0
maybe i should say what the vector space is. it's addition from elements in R, multiplication by elements in F
There are a couple of ways to do this basically like
One way is to note that there being a polynomial annihilating a (with coefficients in F) is equivalent to {1,a,a^2,...} being linearly dependent over F
Which one
any root of f is expressed as a linear combination of {1,a,…}
because that’s a basis for R over F
What does it mean if {1,a,a^2,...} are linearly dependent over F
if it’s a root for some polynomial?
So do you understand both directions of this now
i think so let me take a minute to think about it
ok i confused you saying dependent with independent
i understand that if the set is linearly dependent then there is some polynomial in F[x] with a as a root
and i guess the other direction is more of the same
ok what i don’t quite get is why {1,a,a^2,…} is necessarily dependent
Assume there is no such polynomial, this then implies that for any polynomial of arbitrarily high degree in $F[x]$, we have that $p(a) \neq 0$. From this we can see that ${1,a,a^2,a^3,..., a^n}$ is linearly independent for any $n$ and hence $\dim_F(R) = \infty$.
Irony Incarnate
ok i see that makes sense
so an easy way to see this is that
$${1,a,a^2,…,a^{\dim_FR}}$$
must be linearly dependent, so a is the root of some polynomial with coeffs in F
maximo
uh idk it's easy but sure
a set with more elements than a basis would permit
it makes sense to me haha
ok thank you potato and irony
i wish i could go back to spending time in #point-set-topology instead
I have an action of the orthogonal group on the skew-symmetric matrices by $A^T X A$ where $A$ is orthogonal and $X$ is skew-symmetric. I know the result is skew-symmetric, however it looks like $G(HX)$ is different than $(GH)X$, am i doing something wrong?
*-algebra
$G(HX) = G^TH^TXHG$ but $(GH)X = (GH)^T X GH = H^TG^T X GH$
*-algebra
this action is just conjugation by A isn't it?
defining it backwards seems to work
G*(H*X) = G*(HXH^T) = G(HXH^T)G^T = (GH)X(GH)^T = (GH)*(X)
that is odd
yeah this is a right group action but ur writing it from the left
if you define it as $A \cdot X = AXA^T$ then it's a left group action
Irony Incarnate
In your case you can write $(X\cdot G)\cdot H = (G^TXG)\cdot H = H^T G^T X G H = (GH)^TXGH = X\cdot(GH)$
Irony Incarnate
ok i think i got the idea for the proof. if someone could check i'd appreciate it: \
let $a\in R$ be nonzero. let $g(x) \in F[x]$ such that $g(0) \ne 0$. and let $f(x) = (x-a) \cdot g(x)$.\
then $f(0) = -a\cdot g(0)$, which is nonzero as we are in an ID and neither $-a$ nor $g(0)$ are $0$\
note that $g(0) \in F$, thus $1 = a \cdot -\frac{g(0)}{f(0)} \implies -\frac{g(0)}{f(0)} = a^{-1}$
ugh wait i flipped something here incorrectly
aaaa it's wrong. ok i've realized this doesn't work because (x-a) is not in F[x]
More specifically, it's saying that taking the torsion submodule is a left-exact functor
And (f) is asking you to show that it is not right-exact
Yes
It should preserve an extra term as well, but yes, that's the idea
cool af
yo 1 more trhing
problem c
let A be a Z_6-module
does this work as a counterexample?
ie 3 and 2 are torsion elements but not 3+2?
cuz their annihilators multiplied would be 0
so its not closed?
That sounds right
cool af
I've seen you ask about derived functors before, so I'll make a brief comment. If we have a short exact sequence 0 -> A -> B -> C -> 0 and a left exact functor F, then 0 -> F(A) -> F(B) -> F(C) is exact. You might ask if we can "measure" how far this is from being right exact, and that's what right derived functors R^i F let us do. They let us extend this to a long exact sequence 0 -> F(A) -> F(B) -> F(C) -> R^1 F(A) -> R^1 F(B) -> R^1 F(C) -> ...
okayyy
i guess exact functors are p important
so this sequence is exact iff F is also a right exact functor?
thats the point?
No, but if R^1 F(A) = 0, then the sequence is also right exact
oh so its like cohmology haha
like if its trivial then its gucci
okay so
what would R^1 Tor(A) be
like
or is that outside my sciope
oh lol I just had to submit this same q in my last assignment
torsion has a nice interpretation in terms of left derived functors
Yeah, this specific example is a bit weird
which one
my question?
eh ig i will just leave it for later as its probably outside my scope
kinda weird tho that the problems are easier yet the definitions/intuition feel deep
the problms are literally definition unfolding
I guess unfolding it should be relatively doable, it's just maybe outside of the current scope to see why this operation (right deriving torsion) is useful or why it shows up in nature
anything category theory
yea thats the main problem
why this is useful
gotcha
well ig ik what type of math i can only succeed at lmfao
Oh this specific example of taking the torsion submodule is really weird lol
here's an important comment to make, the two main derived functors that you take in practice are Ext (right derived functors of Hom) and Tor (left derived functors of tensor product)
some like it some don't 🤷♂️
if we want to understand this torsion example better, we should try to relate this functor to Hom or tensor
Hom is still 2 or 3 sections later
i will come back later , im productive today so ig will go there by today or tmrw
sadly i have a web programming lecture tmrw and wireless so hopoefully i can finish quickly
and indeed it is related: if \mathcal{I} is the set of nonzero ideals in a domain R ordered by inclusion then you have like
$T(A)=\varinjlim_{I\in\mathcal{I}}\mathrm{Hom}_R(R/I,A)$
nGroupoid
so now if you want to right derive this torsion functor T, you just have to understand how right derived functors interact with direct limits, and then you can relate this to some Ext groups
oh god ir emember this limit thing
colimit*
idk what that is i just know the regular "direct systeM"
but yeah funnily enough this torsion functor is more related to Ext rather than Tor
like a pair of abelian groups and homomoprhisms such that something something
but yeah e.g. this is how you get something called local cohomology that shows up a lot in algebraic geometry
$H^i_I(A)=\varinjlim_n\mathrm{Ext}^i_R(R/I^n,A)$
nGroupoid
(same thing but you're just looking at I-torsion rather than all torsion, and then right deriving this resulting I-torsion functor T_I)
looks like something out of a grothendeick documentary lmfaao
what does _R mean
derived?
there are ext groups for different ringies
Hey I saw something on Wikipedia that seems wrong. It said the Laurent polynomials in one variable are obtained by the polynomial ring in one variable by localizing by negative powers of the variable... That sounds wrong cause doesn't the multiplicative set S of the localization of R supposed to be a subset of R? (That is S is a subset of R).
So wouldn't the Laurent polynomials in one variable be obtained by localizing the ring of polynomials in one variable by the multiplicative set of powers of the formal variable.
Does this sound right?
could someone provide a hint for proving that $\mathbb Z \oplus \mathbb Z$ is not cyclic?
blanket
im thinking of doing it by contradiction
you're localizing at the multiplicative set of R[x] consisting of non-negative powers of x
what contradiction do you have in mind
suppose that it is generated by some x, then come up with an element that it doesnt map to?
havent worked out the ideas yet but thats what im thinkin so far
Ahhh I must have missed the NON-negative part lol. Thank you
like if x = (a, b), then it certainly cant map to (b, a)
you should split it into cases where your generator has different a and b, and when it has a = b
but that works
I remember seeing a really silly way to do this lol
I would just say Z not iso Z ⊕Z
||End_Z(Z (+) Z) is isomorphisc to M2(Z), which is not abelian, whereas End_Z of a cyclic group is always abelian lol||
Thats kinda funny
otherway might be showing that no matter what element you pick , you can always give an element that cannot be a multiple of the choosen element, basically the way you are trying rn
indeed
lol
Consider for example that ||if (a,b) is a generator then we can write (1,0) and (0,1) as multiples of (a,b)||
ah yeah, that's what i have so far
uhhh
lemme type it out
Cool beans
prolly the most concise
I like how quickly you clicked on that lol
a cyclic group is either isomorphic to Z/nZ or Z. Then by cardinality, if Z^2 is cyclic it must be isomorphic to Z which it is not
as for instance they have different ranks
suppose F is a finite field. show F is not algebraically closed
can i just use x^{p^n} + 1
for p=/=2
oh it's way easier
nvm
Ye 1 + product of le (x-a)
ye
me when x^p + x + 1
Is that the weird poly w like
this reminded me lmao
f(x-1) = f(x) or smth

I love how many ppl didn't get the joke in the comments lmao
omg i was so confused
polynomials are not functions 
everything is an arrow
or not necessarily at least
you can't escape it
is c basically the same way u would find the span of a set?
remark c
proving that if F is an R-module with X being a basis then F is the direct sum of copies of R
or copies of R-modules each iso to R
so the proof is to say F is iso to sum(Rx) as x varies over X
and Rx is iso to R (each)
and the other waay around is to consider theta_x = (0,0,0,0,...,1_R_x,0,0...)
where htis is the x index
and this is your basis for F
When does irreducible in Z[x] imply irreducible in Q[x]?
all kernels of ring homomorphisms are ideals, correct
yes
Always
what about the field with one element tho
read about gauss's lemma
Ok thanks
is Zp a simple additive group where p is a prime?
what are you asking?
are the integers modulo p where p is a prime under addition a simple group, meaning that it has no nontrivial proper subgroups
yes
Yes, by lagrande’s only subgroup are trival groups
Also, simple means having no non-trivial normal subgroups, there might be nontrivial subgroups
oh right oops
if a is in M, would the set be trivial since that's essentially the same as (r + M)(0 + M) = 0 + M = M which is the identity of R/M
that is a weird proof
fraleigh has lots of weird proofs
it's two sentences with correspondence
Is pi^(3k) for all k in N in Q(pi^3)?
I'm trying to show pi^2-1 is algebraic over Q(pi^3)
And it'll be helpful if I had pi^6 as a coefficient in some polynomial
It's a ring, so yes
Ok I see how this field extension stuff works now
Is it a fact that we'd say that [Q(pi^3):Q] is infinity
Yes
I see I see
pi^3 doesn't satisfy a polynomial over Q
Therefore
Though idk how to prove that even pi doesn't lol
Well it means pi^3, pi^6, pi^9,... are all linearly independent
Yeah
And I was going tobsay that must mean that if x is transcendental over Q then [Q(x):Q] is infinity
Yes
If y is algebraic over Q then is [Q(y):Q] the degree of the minimal polynomial?
Yes
Aha
Try to see why
I think I solved this question using the help provided a while back but I would like some confirmation if I am right.
so theta(x*x) = 0. Thus,
the kernel of phi is the ideal generated by <x^2> in Z_2[x]. This is not a maximal ideal because it is contained in a larger ideal generated by <x>
Why does theta(x^2)=0 imply it is generated by x^2
because kernel contains{x^2, x^4, x^8, ...} if i do phi(x^4) = phi(x^2 * x^2) = phi(x^2) * phi(x^2) = 0 + 0 and the same holds for the rest
and it would also hold for phi(x^2 + x^2)
while if i do for example phi(x^2+x) this would not give 0.
A is commutative ring (non-unital) , and J is an ideal. How to prove the closure of addition… im thinking some trick with binomial theorem.. but couldn’t figure out
Just because the kernel contains x^2 doesn't mean it is generated by it
should i try other additive combinations?
phi(x^2+2) could work as well
same for phi(x^2+2x). then is it correct to say the generator is <x^2,2x,2>?
2 = 0
thats what i was initially thinking. then what am i missing?
You can show exactly what the kernel is like
The only things you need to check are 1, x , 1 + x
because we know that x^2 and hence x^3 etc are sent to 0
would i do multiplication or addition? like phi(1+x) = phi(1)+phi(x) right?
ye
none of them give 0. so its from x^2 onwards that gives 0. Eitherway <x^2> is the wrong generator (only generates even numbers). I guess its <x^2,x>?
but no cause this includes x nvm
oh... <x^2, x^3> should be it?
@agile burrow I ended up writing stuff up now and I actually figured out more interesting things, perhaps it is also new for you
I think this is the clearest way to put what we discussed. I did not send proofs, because 1) we did parts of them, 2) the others are trivial. however, I can send any proof if you're interested
new in the sense of remark 2.4 and prop 2.5
If you raise x+y to a high enough power you'll have that x^k is in J and y^{n-k} is in J such that all the terms in the binomial expansion turn out to be in J
Z/pZ where p is a prime treated as a field
why is the answer not a^6 + 20a^3b^3 + b^6? i expanded it out using the binomial theorem and cancelled out all coefficients that were multiples of 3
Ohhh so it’s similar to computing mod 3?
yes
char should be that every a in the ring is so that 3a = 0
so just setting any multiples of 3 to be 0
yep
this is neat stuff, very cool
thanks for sharing
Yeah, so from what I've seen we like for the cocycles to be normalized (that is, f(g, e) = f(e, g) = 1) because at least in the context of the correspondence between H^2(G, A) and extensions of G by A, these yield to normalized sections from G to the extension. It doesn't change the cohomology computation at all, which sort of makes sense because you can always normalize a section with an appropriate translation
question: if i do long division and get (1/2)x + 1/4 as quotient and 7/4 as remainder what do i do?
its in Z_3 so i cant use fractions
do i just multiply them all by 4 and rewrite it as 2x+1 (quotient) and 7 (remainder)?
How did you get the fractions 1/2 and 1/4 in the first place?
(Assuming that Z_3 are the integers modulo 3, and not the 3-adic integers).
long division 2x+1 as divisor and x^2+x+2 as dividend
trying to get 1 = q*f(x) +z*g(x) form
But 1/2 is not even an element of Z_3. You shouldn't be able to get that when you do the arithmetic parts of polynomial division.
If you want a multiple of 2x+1 that is quadratic with a first term of x^2, then that would be 2x(2x+1) = x²+2x.
And how do i get it in the form 1=qf(x)+zg(x)?? Do i keep doing this?
Yes. (Assuming we mean the same thing by "this").
This is my definition of this😂
Then i get 1= ...
(-x+2) = (-x+1)·2 + 1 is not true ...
Woopsie.. i think i screwed up in g
Note that in Z_3 you have 2 = -1, so having both 2's and minuses around makes things look more complicated than they are.
Thats good to know
Ill rewrite it
Hey guys, I have a possibly stupid group theory question. Let G=(Z2)^n and H=Z3 and let x be such that <x>=H. I am interested in the wreath product H wr G. What is the order of this for a given natural number n? Also what else can we say about the structure of this group?
The wreath product is a semidirect product of Z3^(Z2^n) with Z2^n so computing the order ought to be straightforward. Pretty big.
So is it just 3^(2^n) * 2^n?
Yes.
Okay makes sense, sorry for the stupid question I guess
Getting this but need my g out. Any idea?
I'll admit I don't understand what you're doing there. It doesn't look like any division procedure I'm familiar with.
How would u do this?
Does the f=2xg + 2(x+1) make sense?
I'm a bit loath to just do what appears to be your homework here.
How does an ordinary integer long division in base 10 look for you?
It has solutions which is x+2 but no explanations
In general how id do it?
This for example
That's a polynomial long division, but okay.
A polynomial one yes
Okay, now I've actually read the original problem 😅. I thought you were just trying to do polynomial division over Z3.
So you're trying to apply the extended Euclidean algorithm? Ngl, that one always confuses me unless I spend twenty minutes getting things straight.
Yes im trying that
Im assuming i start with f(x) = x^2+x+2 and g(x)= 2x+1
Then f(x) = q(x)*(2x+1) + r(x)
But how do i do long division Z3 on this for example?
Okay, from
f = 2xg + 2x+2
I would write
f = 2xg + g + 1 = (2x+1)g + 1
sorry to burst in, i have a short question
let F\subseteq E, E algebraically closed, and let K be the relative algebraic closure of F in E
suppose p(x) in K[x], then p(x) has a root, a, in E. how do we know a is algebraic over F? is it because E is an algebraic closure of F so in general E may not be the algebraic closure of F, right? since E may not be algebraic over F. so it must be for some other reason
So i just rewrite to@not get fractions when doing long division?
Well in Z3, 1 divided by 2 is 2, so your first coefficient should be 2 rather than "½".
and then 1 = f - (2x+1)g which is the same as 1 = f + (1x+2)g
How do u determine that 1/2 is 2 in Z3?
I can see it for -1 and 4 etc
Because 2·2 == 4 == 1 (mod 3)
But nit fractions
2*2=4=1 mod 3
It's not a fraction -- it's a division.
Why do u write 1/2 by 2*2?
I don't.
1/2 means the element that we can multiply by 2 and get 1. The element 2 is such an element because 2·2 == 1 (mod 3)
Ohhh i see
So if it was Z4 1/3 would be 3 right?
Yes. (But beware Z_4 is not a field, so not all divisions are possible there).
Ok i got 2x+1 as quotient and 1 as remaindr
Z4 is my favorite field!
Let L be the extension of F generated adjoining the coefficients of p one by one, and then a. Each of the extensions is finite, so the final L has finite dimension over F. Therefore, {1, a, a², a³, ...} must be linearly dependent over F, and a linear relation among them is a polynomial in F[x] that has a as a root.
Ok got this!
So now we've done one step of the Euclid's algorithm, and already reached a remainder of 1.
Ok and then f(x) - (2x+1)g = 1 i can rewrite it as f(x) + 2(2x+1)g whixh gives the inverse x+2
Cz thats just f(x) + (x+2)g
Thank u!!!
Yes.
so if p(x) = c_0 + c_1x + c_2x^2 + ... + c_nx^n
then by adjoining are we considering L = F(c_0, ..., c_n) and then L(a)?
I was saying L = F(c0, ..., cn)(a),but sure.
(I'm adding a separately at the end because that makes it easier for me to convince myself that [L:F] is finite. It might not be strictly necessary).
ok this is all trying to build up to showing relative algebraic closures are algebraically closed.
i have a polynomial p(x) in K[x], K being the rel. alg. closure of F in E.
we know p(x) has a root in E, and just showed the root is in F as well, so the root must be in K? do i need to consider the irreducible factors of p(x), or are we done, since p(x) was arbitrary
oh i just realized K is a subset of E but F might not be a subset of K right
ok i might have overcomplicated
we take some p(x) in K[x]. then p(x) has a root in E since E is algebraically closed and K[x] is a subset of E[x]
then that root, a, is in F as well. now since a is E-algebraic over F, a must also be in K by the def. of relative algebraic closure. so the root a of p(x) in K[x] is in K
does that make sense
let K be the relative algebraic closure of F in E
Since any f in F is a root of the polynomial 1X-f which has coefficients in F, f is in K too.
The root of p is not necessarily itself in F, but we have shown it is also root of some polynomial in F[x]. That's enough to say that root is (by definition) in K.
ah alright yes
since p(x) was arbitrary, we can say p(x) = x - k for some k in K, and get that k is the root of a polynomial in F[x] as well right? so we get that K is an algebraic closure of F for free
No -- if you want to prove that K is algebraically closed, you don't get to choose which polynomials p you're dealing with. "Arbitrary" here means you need an argument that works for all of them.
well we've shown it's algebraically closed, so we'd just need to show K is an algebraic extension
so we just want to show every k in K is a root of some polynomial in F[x] right?
Yes, but that was how K was defined in the first place.
how good is artin algebra to begin with abstract algebra
i'm sorry i'm not following.
we know K = { a in E | p(a) = 0 for some p(x) in F[x] }
we then showed for every p(x) in K[x], each root of p(x) is a root of some q(x) in F[x]
doesn't it suffice to take x - k in K[x] to show every k in K is a root of somy polynomial in F[x]
are you saying it's simpler than that, or that the logic there is wrong
Oh, right. But I was saying that K = { a in E | p(a) = 0 for some p(x) in F[x] } already tells you that such a p exists for every a in K.
Just found this, thought the answer was surprising
ah right lol, so it was just simpler
thanks a lot for the help tropo!!
Okay so quick q
I gotta show that if F is a field such that x^n - 1 splits for all n [not necessarily into distinct things - could be char p] and K = F(γ) is an extension w γ^p in F (for some p) but γ not in F, then x^p - γ^p is irreducible
Is the easiest way just to say that (if $\epsilon$ a prim pth root of unity) then $x^p - \gamma^p = \prod_{i=0}^{p-1}(x - \gamma \epsilon^i)}$, so any factor of $x^p - γ^p$ in $F[x]$ would have constant term $γ^{k}$ times something in $F$, so $\gamma^k \in F$ and so $p \mid k$ (since otherwise we could find $\gamma \in F$)
potato
Compile Error! Click the
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Because this feels slightly hacky lol maybe there is a more general way to look at this
what is gamma allowed to be? just a little bit confused on that. if gamma is in F, then this claim is false
oh i just can’t read
that makes sense
What are some interesting examples of a Commutative (non-unitary) ring without any maximal ideal?
bad notations but as you said say $f$ is a factor of $\prod (x- \gamma \xi_n^i)$ then it contains some but not all the $(x-\gamma \xi_n^i$. Now look at coefficient of $x$. It's some thing times $\gamma$ but that something is invertible giving us $\gamma \in F$
There's one, take (Q, +) and define product to be the 0 product, i.e. xy=0 for all x,y. Idk why would anyone study that
try arguing why it can't have a maximal ideal
it needs to be mapped to (1 0
0 1 ) right? and index is size/
Yeah i saw that one , i also found a really cool example in a mse post
$$C_{0}(\Bbb{R})/C_{c}(\Bbb{R})$$
Susilian
Maybe its not interesting but I'm curious to see why being non unitary stops us from finding maximal ideals
That is the identity on the rhs, yes. Assuming you mean 1 (mod 2)
there arent infinite pos. right? since i guess index means size
A&M also mentions that since prime ideals are important (in comm alg), and maximal ideals are prime , then we guarantee there exists a sufficient supply of them , so that also justifies why we only deal with rings with 1
oh sure like it's a polynomial in the roots of unity of too low a degree (or of the right degree but wrong other coefficients) so it doesn't vanish?
But yeah I guess that's very similar
yee can't claim that coeff of γ is not zero but your argument is fine
The index of a subgroup in a group is the number of cosets.
ahh this is useful. I think I would need to apply first isomorphism theorem in this question right?
Suppose I have n rectangles $R_1,\dots, R_n$, each with sides $a_i,b_i$, and thus with area $a_i \times b_i$, that fit together to form a rectangle of size $a \times b$. How can I show that $a \otimes b = \sum_{i=1}^{n} a_i \otimes b_i$ in $\mathbb{R} \otimes_{\mathbb{Q}} \mathbb{R}$?
ImHackingXD

could i get examples of ideals generated by basis elements of the form b-b’ and b’’ of a K-algebra with multiplicative basis
wdym "of the form b-b'" etc here
What's an example of an irreducible polynomial that isn't minimal?
basically the ideal is generated by basis elements of the K-algebra such that every element in the ideal can be written as sum_i a_i (b_i-b’_i) + sum_j a’_j b’’_j
what do you mean by this
Idk like lol
What you mean basically
Well
Like what sort of examples you want lol
But like isn't this every ideal lol
since the b_i'' form a basis
it doesnt include all b’s
Yeah okay this is just too vague lol
ye i think i needa sort my mind cuz thats messing with me
Nevermind
an interesting q is like
find an irreducible polynomial f over some ring such that (f) isn't a maximal ideal
idk if that is what you meant or smth
is the answer for this 6? Because SL2(Z)/ker(phi) is isomorphic to SL2(Z2)?
I think the hint is there. What commutes with an elementary matrix?
So I guess, you write out AE=EA for some elementary matrix E. As an explicit equation, this will introduce a single constraint, for every elementary matrix.
Then the question is, what is required to satisfy all such constraints simultaneously.
its a true or false question but i dont really get what its saying
any hints on what i should be htinking about? is it like 1, 2 and 3 all get mapped to 2 in Z3? and since its a ring im assuming in my function i have 1*nr = 2 and 1+nr=2? and same for elements 2 and 3?
That’s correct
Also n=0 is also valid
wait is that the only one?
also i dont think n=0 is valid because the matrix isnt invertible so therefore not in GLn(R)
Choose B so you get useful information about A
i was thinking of row/column operators
or rather, the ring of matrices is highly noncommutative.
that's the right approach.
.
the bilinearity of the tensor product directly corresponds to gluing together two rectangles with a common side length
idt the fact that you’re treating them as Q-vector spaces is relevant. they could also be real vector spaces and the same thing would be true
So, you don't have to use any universal property arguments?
i have the following remark from my class:
a field F is algebraically closed iff for every extension E/F, the algebraic closure of F is F itself
is that correct?
algebraically closed means no finite extensions
is that so even for finite extensions? that seems wrong to me for some reason
but Q is not algebraically closed
||non-trivial ones||
oh just read this again
uh
this needs another line lol
that's all i wrote down haha
algebraic closure of F in E in right
oh
yep
is that correct with that in mind?
i can't wrap my head around it
oh
ok it just hit me why
hm. so we're saying every polynomial has some root, so can we say every polynomial is of the form (x-f_1)(x-f_2)...(x-f_n) where f_i in F?
every polynomial splits in an algebraically closed field, yes
ok then it would make sense that any nontrivial extension introduces new elements that aren't roots of the polynomials in F[x]
yeah and thus non finite ones
as ones with just roots would be subsets of splitting fields
which are always finite
cuz it's a condition to be an algebraic element
ok that's actually pretty interesting
thanks for the help illuminator and potato
here's another question that i kind of half understand
suppose E/F is a field extension, a in E algebraic over F and of odd degree. prove F(a) = F(a^2 + 2023)
we basically said, let b = a^2 + 2023, then [F(a) : F(b)] <= 2, so [F(a) : F] = [F(a) : F(b)][F(b) : F] is odd, so [F(a) : F(b)] must be 1
ok writing it out helped me understand what was happening, sorry for the spam
Don't think so
May I ask for help in the direction?
I only reached that order of H is of the form p^(alpha) * k where p does not divide k
which problem? 1 or 2
can we show that all Sylow subgroups of G are sylow subgroups of H
1
that's the goal
Are Pillow group of H also Pillow group of G?
Sorry, didn't understand one thing: is it relevant or irrelevant?
That should be
H is a subgroup of G
I presume you mean Sylow by Pillow
the opposite is not so obvious if it's true
P-syllow yes
remeber all pillow groups are conjugate and H is normal
just chase the definition
oh wait so we can define an conjugacy action
whose kernel is the maximal normal subgroup?
you know the core subgroup
Thinking about it again, I'm confused about why this is true, do you have any references I can look into?
you're overthinking
🥲
gHg' ⊂ H
yes
and for any 2 pillow group P,Q there is g s.t. gPg'=Q
can you see where this is going
yes because they're conjugate
hint: || P ⊂ H ⟹ gPg' ⊂ gHg'=H ||
hmm so if P is a sylow-p subgroup of H, gPg' = Q is a subgroup of gHg' = H hence a subgroup of G as H is normal
varying g can capture all the sylow p subgroups
but won't that say G contains all the sylow-p subgroups of H, and not the other way around?
I am asked to determine if $A$ is an ideal in ring $R$. I am given that $R = Z_7[x]$ and $A$ is the set of polynomials with vanishing constant term.
Just a bit confused on the language, does that just mean that an element in $A$ is of the form
$a_1x+a_2x^2+\cdots+a_mx^m$
That is, the constant term is 0?
JacobHofer
Okay, was just a bit confused on the wording of "vanishing constant term"
Also, A would be an ideal in this case correct? The informal argument being that the constant term of ra is r_0 * 0 = 0
yup exactly
(also gotta check addition etc but that's obvious)
Or, use the fact that A is the kernel of a ring hom out of R
irrelevant
which part
How does bilinearity correspond to gluing two rectangles with a common side length?
a ⨂ b + a ⨂ c = a ⨂ (b + c) is analogous to gluing together rectangles of size a x b and a x c along one of their common sides of length a
@agile burrow remember we discussed that we can lift proj. reps to linear reps iff H^2{G,C^{x})=0. The direction that H^2=0 => we can lift is straightforward. how does the other direction work?
It's not a two way implication
ah
If the cocycle is trivial then you should be able to lift to a linear rep
And if H^2 = 0 then certainly the cocycle is trivial, but the other direction need not hold
the sketch for H^2=0 => linear is as follows I think: suppose H^2=0. Then, every cocycle is cohomologous to the trivial cocycle. But for the trivial cocycle, we immediately get that the lift is a linear representation. Now, every other lift must satisfy that it's a scalar multiple of the lift for the trivial cocycle. Thus, we are done
is this how ti should be argued?
in particular, we can simply cancel out the scalar(as it's nonzero)
Oh sure, that sounds right
Right because if you're cohomologous then you differ by a choice of scalar in the lift
Ok cool
yes
This stuff is soooo cool
in particular, this follows from this theorem
yesss
do you know a counterexample perhaps?
suppose H^2 neq 0. yet all projective representations are linear representations
I am currently learning from a book called 'mathematical introduction to conformal field theory' from Martin Schottenloher
it's written for mathematicians mostly
Oh nice
I think this comes back to the question of whether every cocycle is realized by some projective representation. I haven't thought about it much, but my intuition says the answer ought to be yes since the same idea holds for group extensions
Oh I misread your original message
Then yeah, I think it is an iff
Every projective lifts to a linear rep iff H^2 vanishes
do you have an idea how to prove the fact that if proj lift to linear, then H^2 vanishes?
let us assume that the lift (T,\alpha). is a normal representation, i.e. a group homomorphism. In this case, the cocycle alpha associated to this is trivial. how to conclude that the whole cohomology group is trivial?
or is this not a two-way implication?
I mean my my thought is that every element of H^2 should correspond to a projective rep
So if there's a non trivial element of H^2, then there's a projective rep which doesn't lift to a linear rep
ah I see
i'll try to think on how to prove this
so basically the proof reduces to showing that H^2(G,C^{x}) iso {proj reps}?
Yeah
has anybody heard of this lol
Lmao
first page
☠️
could someone give a hint as to why every abelian group of order 15 is cyclic?
try contradiction, take an element, what order can it be? how many elements of that order can there be?
by lagrange's theorem, an element can have order 3 or 5 (discounting 1 bcs i dont want identity, and 15 would mean its cyclic)
how does one see this? This is my trial
it doesn't seem to hold unless lambda(g_1) lambda(g_2)=lambda(g_1 circ g_2)- and i don't see why this should hold
can they all be order 3, or all be order 5? or do you need at least one of each?
phi(3) = 2, so 1 + 2k can be 15, but phi(5) = 4, so 1 + 4k cannot be 15
so they could all be order 3
If g is of order 3 then what is the order of g^2 ?
3
so elements of order three come in pairs
this doesnt work, because gh also has order 3
and you can show these are distinct and come as triple of 6 elements
so you need 1+6k
oh hmm yea I didn't consider products between them
hmm maybe thats too complicated
yeah it gets yucky now
im not actually sure that works
also sadly, i cant use sylow theorems or cauchy's theorem on abelian groups
:/
i have access to lagrange's theorem
there should be a nice way to force ana element of order 5
possibly taking quotient
we havent gone into factor groups neither :/
ok so
yeah
gh
consider subgroup
g^ih^j
clearly a subgroup
order 9
contradiction
therefore there is only g order 3, no h order 3
take element that isn't order 3, product is order 15

ya a bit tricky. but i think the way the problem is set up suggests you should consider products, order of products, and subgroups of products
in general, order pq should set off alarm bells in your head
only slightly more complex than order p
so this shows at most one element is of order 3 in the group, but why does the conclusion follow
oh right
what part isn't clear?
why g order 3, h order 5 -> gh order 15 is a contradiction/finishes
(gh)^n=1 implies g^n=1 and h^n=1
because we already know g^-1 has order 3 as does h^-1 have order 5
You can just use this instead right
and it doesn't use the fact that G is abelian
element of order 15 is a proof
like the result still holds if the group isn't abelian
hmm i think to avoid using abelian you need sylow
but you can prove abelian if it isn't given
order 15 implies abelian
pq is abelian for p,q (need not be distinct) prime
this is a proof of |G| = 15 -> G is cyclic:
Proceed by contradiction so assume G is not cyclic.
Suppose G has an element of order 3; then we proved (without abelianity) that the only other element of order 3 is g^2. Now let k be an element of order 5. gk has order 15, contradiction.
Now suppose G is only elements of order 5. <Finish proof>
everything is sound up until the end right?
yes
Finish:
Let g be an element of the group. Then g, g^2, g^3, g^4 are distinct and of order 5. Now let h be another element (not included in that list) of the group. Then g^i h^j generates a subgroup of order 25, contradiction.
seems good
yeah sylow was just a really cool guy
im not gonna dignify that with a response
was he not
can we always divide by the content of a polynomial in Z[x] to get a primitive (and so apply Gauss's lemma)?
i can't see why not, but i'm also not sure why the property of being primitive matters if we can just do that
also, by the isomorphism extension property,\
is the extension of \emph{any} homomorphism $$\sigma : F\to \overline{F}$$$F$ a field, $\overline{F}$ an algebraic closure of it to any other algebraic closure $\tilde{F}$ $$\tau : \tilde{F} \to \overline{F}$$ an isomorphism? or do we need some more conditions
maximo
another question (sorry for the wall of text)\
an exercise asked to show $x^2 - 3$ is irreducible over $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[3]{2})$\
we concluded that $$[\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[3]{2}, \sqrt{3}) : \mathbb{Q}] = 6, [\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[3]{2}, \sqrt{3}) : \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2})] = 3$$how does this tell us that $x^2 - 3$ is irreducible
maximo
If it was reducible, sqrt(3) is the root of a degree one polynomial in Q(cuberoot(2)), i.e. sqrt(3) is in Q(cuberoot(2)), thus [Q(cuberoot (2),sqrt(3)):Q] = [Q(cuberoot(2)):Q] = 3
i see that makes sense thanks
It is really important to learn the division algorithm in this topic of abstract algebra.
i need to show that every finite order element of the free product of groups $G * H$ is conjugate to a finite order element of $G$ or $H$
Tubular Cat
i've been stuck on this one for a while, could someone give a hint for it?
proving it directly seems like it'd be hard so i tried looking at the contrapositive, but im not really sure where to go with that either
though actually i think maybe it wasn't so bad going by contrapositive, or i screwed it up
does anyone know a concise statement of which groups have linear representations?
i mean faithful representations of course, they all have representations :)
I think contrapositive is the correct way to go
You can use the fact that if w = g_1...g_n is a word in normal form then w has infinite order if syllables, g_1 and g_n belong to different groups
let g=g_1 g_2....g_n be a word in normal form and consider g^(g_n)^-1. And conjugation is an inner automorphism, so it also has finite order
Nice
Normal closure of S
I think that follows from the defn of pi?
you choose the relations that define the presentation
These relations involve a set of free generators
wait maybe I misthought 
Can't you just take S to be the kernel itself
Whats the defn of 'a set of free generators'
Oh ok nvm, I misread. Y has nothing to do with S.
Happy to help
For field F is the field extension F(c+d)=F(c,d) when c and d are LI over F?
Nevermind
take the algebraic closure of any finite char 3 field
whats one finite field of char 3 thats algebraically closed? I know C is one example of an algebraically closed field but thats infinite
was thinking of taking {0, 1, i} but i also need 1+i so it wont be char 3
what does that have to do with what I said
take the algebraic closure of Z/3Z
it's char 3 and not finite
order of a field is its size yes?
fields with infinite orders of finite characteristic exist.
Check out the field of rational functions in indeterminate x over Z/3Z i.e. F_3[T]
@formal ermine if something is incorrect with what I have said, please correct me.
I am replying directly to this query
"it is correct because it is correct"
If you pay attention to their response to your answer, they are not aware of it, clearly, so stating that does not help either unless you explain what on earth the "algebraic closure" of such is
They didnt seem to think that was an explicit example.
As implied by what illum wrote, the algebraic closure of any char 3 field is infinite (or char p, hence any char, for that matter)
Im not sure you have the right idea of what characteristic is from what you wrote here
You start with F3 = {0, 1, 2} and add stuff to it
All char 3 fields must contain this subfield
No need to go that far, just append an indeterminate
Consider the field of rational functions with coefficients in a field of order 3
ohhh i see. yeah i did not hve the right idea
alright thanks! I will revisit some terminology
Also proving the alg closure of a finite field is infinite is not totally trivial
it is a one liner
Ok
That doesn't matter
It's nontrivial to someone who's asking a question at this level
Its a good exercise for them to try, for sure. Within reach straight from defns, just need to come up with the right idea.
