#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 67 of 1
if you want a tangible example subgroups of Z probably help
so let $|a| = m, |b| = n.$ we assume that $|ab| = mn$. then assume $\gcd(m, n) = d$. then there are integers $x, y$ such that $mx + ny = d$. then $(ab)^d = (ab)^{mx + ny}$
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am i on the right track atm?
keep going and find out
i hate being obnoxious like that bc when i want an answer it's annoyinig
notice that d <= m, n
hmm okay
but it's probably for the best that you try to see things through to the end on your own first 
$(ab)^{mx + ny} = a^{mx + ny}b^{mx + ny} = a^{mx}a^{ny}b^{mx}b^{ny} = a^{ny}b^{mx}$
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atp i dont really know what to do with it
Well, the approach I'd take is
|a|=n, |b|=m, gcd(m, n)=d -> m = xd, n=yd yes?
I mean, it's a divisor so divide
ok done with that other pf 
i hope
also sharp how are you new to the server but already have emeritus lol
it's supposed to be a role for people who were active/very active but are no longer so lol
I've been here before lol
so for integers $x, y$, then $m = xd$ and $n = yd$ right?
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positive natural x, y even
notice, mn = xyd^2
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(ab)^mn = e clearly
right
(ab)^mn = (ab)^(xyd^2) = ((ab)^xyd)^d yes?
$(ab)^{xyd} = a^{xyd}b^{xyd} = a^{xm}b^{ny} = e$
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d is not 1
but xyd < mn
oh right we assumed that first
xyd^2 is mn yeah
Not gcd = 1 -> gcd =/= 1 -> gcd = d =/= 1
which then leads to |ab| =/= |a||b|
since |ab|<=xyd
now go the other way around
ah aight
this isn't constructive though I think
how do you mean?
since it's like a contradiction I think
is proof by contrapositive not good?
unrelated, but does the last paragraph here look sufficient 
nah it's fine unless you're looking for constructive results
ah
oh wait yeah i get what you mean
i did see somewhat of a constructive proof dealing with lcm?
but
"Intuitively" would get be run outta town, so I'd want to show that
there was a definition that lcm$(m,n) = \frac{mn}{\gcd(m,n)}$ which i hadnt seen before
yeah i deleted that word lol
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It seems sufficient as long as you have that k has a natural interpretation as a vector space on R
What’s the question
oh it's to prove the Claim
Feels like not worded properly
the claim?
i agree that it should probably explicitly state like "R-module R" or something like that
but this is what i was given 
No the proof
Then why’s there a QED 
Use sully for QED
I'd rather say
Suppose a is a zero divisor
then xa = 0 for some a
Then what happens to x multiplying against any element in R
im guessing it sends every r to 0?
Well, what happens to using {a} as a basis?
oh it's no longer linearly independent right
multiplying that by x such that ax = 0 has an issue
I don't know the precise definitions y'all use for the rank and all but I mean
that looks mighty problematic
Conversely, suppose a has no such zero divisor
is it not this?
I've seen a few different definitions for it, use the definition from your course/text
This should be close to it though
Now, for a non-zd, what about the map R -> aR defined by λr.ar
ok just to be sure is the following sequence of implications correct:
a generates Ra by definition -> assume a is a zero divisor -> there exists x such that xa = 0 (by definition) -> then we have that xa \cdot r = 0 (in other words, there's a nonzero r such that r times the basis element is 0) -> contradicts linear independence of {a}
I don't know why you have that r in there
it'd be more like, x and ar are nonzero and x \cdot ar = 0
oh uhhh
i meant that as this
aight
ar in aR
So suppose there is no such zero divisor
clearly we have the obvious map R -> aR too
ok but it's true that a generates Ra and is therefore a basis of Ra right?
It generates Ra, but whether you consider it a basis or not is different
R generates R but clearly isn't a basis
hmm true
ok this is where im at rn
i appreciate your patience btw
im quite tired and probably not thinking at 100% rn
nonzero x in R and nonzero ar in aR

xar is meaningless
it's associative
comm. ring too
owned
but that's not enough right
for that direction
like i've shown that {a} cant be a basis but not why it's a contradiction
Well idk the exact definition for your rank but consider
bc i was assuming {a} had to be a basis but that was wrong
P -> Q and -P -> -Q
but wait -P -> -Q is just Q -> P contrapositive yes?
So if we show a is zero divisor -> not rank 1, and a not zd -> rank 1, we get iff, yes?
i know my logical implication truth tables
so yeah i agree
but then is what i have enough to show it's not rank = 1?
we have a few defn's of it
what's the definition of rank 1
of free generators
max # of linearly independent elements
if M \cong R^n, rank(M) = n
well any collection of elements S has xy = 0 for y in S
this proof is flawed, correct?
Here's the question (attachment didn't upload correctly);
that uses commutativity
right
groups aren't necessarily abelian
ye
in the third like you should have (ba)^n on the right
since you're multiplying by the inverse on the left
oh okay
This seems to be the way to show aR is not rank 1
Now, if a is not a zero div, then what can we say about it
Personally, I'd ||go with definition 3 here, I think. R->aR has (x-y) |-> a(x-y) = ax-ay =/= 0 if x-y =/= 0||
well i wrote it out
we also know that it is equal to e since you can take the inverse of both sides in the equality (ab)^n = e
but when i wrote it out, for say n = 5 i got b^-1a^-1b^-1a^-1b^-1a^-1b^-1a^-1b^-1a^-1
and so i tried some things with associativity
didnt get anywhere
still working on it
maybe i can work backwards
with like (ba)^n = e
sorry i got frustrated and went and did a different problem again lol

taking a smol break brb
Well you can get (ab)^n-1 = (ab)^-1 yes?
= b^-1 a^-1, so might be possible to do a lil shuffling in there with that?
how did you get that
ab^n = e
multiply by ab^-1
oop
parenthesis as necessary
what exactly is the question it's asking btw?
reading this back i feel like this is too handwavey
but fck it we ball
I don't know I don't have the question
oh my bad
i thought you were like trying to get me to understand a deeper point or smt about the question
Ok here it is:
Let $a$ and $b$ be elements of a group $G$. Show that if $ab$ has finite order $n$, then $ba$ also has order $n$.
okeyokay
idk maybe we could do something like let x in G

I meant
about thinking I was asking a deeper question
so if we need (ba)^n = e we just need a^-1b^-1 = (ba)^n-1 hmm
yup
maybe we should consider the cyclic subgroup generated by (ab)?
so we know that it's finite
and since it's a finite cyclic group of order n
it's isomorphic to Zn
which we know is abelian
so would that work?
Let $H = \langle ab \rangle$, the cyclic group generated by $ab$. Observe that $H$ is of order $n$ since $(ab)^n = e$. Then, by Theorem 6.6, $H \simeq \mathbb{Z}_n$. Since $\mathbb{Z}_n$ is a abelian group, we see that $H$ is also an abelian group; thus, for $ab \in H$, $ab = ba$ so $(ab)^n = (ba)^n = e$ and $ba$ has order $n$.
okeyokay
theorem 6.6 just says that any finite cyclic group is isomorphic to Z_n under addition btw
wait but since it's a subgroup doesn't it have to have a and b
ah
they don't have 1/2 despite 1 = 1/2+1/2
wait but i define H to be the cyclic group generated by ab
nowhere in the proof do i use a in H or b in H separately
but you commute a and b
but it's commutative for a, b in H
i thought any group isomorphic to an abelian group is abelian
hm ok
well
um
hm
this might seem a little bit stupid or hand-wavy and i'm sure there's a million counter examples as to why we can't
but can we define a, b to be in H?
not by that definition of H
ok i'll think about it a little more
still havent gone back to original question but
im gonna guess that basis of M is union of basis of N and M/N?
Not necessarily basis tho
yes but can't just take their "union"
[m] ∈ M/N then take a lift of these and then take their union
lift = preimage of natural projection map?
yes
stuck here atm 
take a representative from preimage of each element of B?
got a suggestion from google but this is what i arrived at
end feels a bit scuffed tho
I mean, is p^-1(B) finite tho
that looks suspicious
Eso
@novel parrot yes, basically you can cofactor expand along any row. the formula even works for any column. in practice we try to expand on rows/cols with many 0s
Any tips for the character table of SL_2(Z/3)? I figured out the 4 rows that lift from A_4 and that the remaining three irreps of dimension 2 map {{0,-1},{1,0}} to some sort of symplectic unit matrix (e.g. itself)
is it fine the way I tried proving identity?:
G is a group so for any g there must also exist an inverse g1. Same applies for H.
Take arbitrary g1, h1 and the inverses g-1, h-1 then
(g1, h1)(g-1,h-1) = (gg-1, hh-1) = (eG, eH)
thus both identities are contained in this group composition
Assume G is finite and cyclic and V is finite dimensional
I feel like this boils down to choosing the right basis and considering the dual basis of that
But I haven't been able to find one
what have you tried so far?
I've tried most tricks I know (considering v + gv + g^2v + ... g^{k-1}v which is g-invariant)
I suppose that I_A is maximal
If A empyt, then I_A is whole ring
if A had two elements, say A = {a,b} then I_A is contained in I_{a}
not maximal
So A only have 1 element
This works for one way right?
it's certainly convinced me
yeah that's good for the forward direction
sarcasm or its actually corect ?
it's actually correct
nice
let me tell u my other way
for other direction
i use contraposoitve
I_A not maximal => A not single element
Essentially same argument works
do you agree ?
i see solution and its very different to what i come up with
yeah my solution was also different
is mine correct ?
both direction
my only problem is, how do you know there's not some other ideal that isn't of the form I_A that contains I_{a}
if you've shown that then it works I think
ok
although this could be a problem regardless
this is backwards right
i mean
you aggree with Maximal => singleton right?
Just my singleton => maximal you are asking about
Yes
So for Single => maximal
i prove instead not maximal => not singleton
So I_A <= J and J not = R
oof
yeah
i see
it doesnt work for this case
Yeah, there’s an easier way to do it
What else do you know about maximal ideals
so for all f in I_{a}
f(x) = (x-a)g(x)
since root
a
so like
R/I_{a} = R/(x-a)
and x-a is irreducible/prime => maximal
?
you dont have polynomials here
iso theorem
R/I_{a}
but R/I_{a} = R/(x-a) anyway?
i use little x 😄
and we already have the notation I_{a}
ok so we need to show R/I_{a} is field
what does the iso theorem say
R / ker = image
you mean first iso them right
like consturction a map from R -> R with kernel I_{a}
that is surjective
well depends on what you mean with the letter R here
the first one is the ring in question but the second should preferably be a field
well that's the question. well or one of the questions
okay so, for function that isnt 0 on a, we need to find inverse
so I_{a} = {f in R: f(a)=0} and we want that this looks like a kernel {f in R: phi(f)=0} for some homomorphism phi
reposting this because it got buried
dont get it 😅
i have no idea what the image field could be
do you know a famous homomorphism on a ring of functions
no
fix a value from real number, then f -> f(t) ?
yes
oh
evaluation homomorphism
yes
Yeah so evaluation homomorphism on a, is surjective with kernel of I_a
so R/I_a is isomorphic to R (field)
so I_a maximal
i see
@north sand you meant this correct?
the solution had a different solution
I often find using iso theorem nicer than "manually" showing an ideal is maximal
but doing it manually is of course still doable
I assume that's what they did?
yes
but i dont understand why their i is inside I_{a}
well what is i(a)
re-reposting because it got buried again
Why did we require that f has to be continous function ?
doesnt seem like we need continous condition ?
yeah I don't think we do unless I'm missing a detail rn
it was to show identity is contained but I figured it out now
I need to prove these. I am trying to do part 1 but I am stuck.
I am trying to do this by induction so:
g^n = gog.....og (n times)
what we can do is take n=2 then g^2 = gog = g^(1+1) which holds.
same for n=3 (g^3 = g^2og = g^(2+1))
do I now say assume true for 0<=i<=n-1 and g^mg^(n-1) = g^(m+n-1)?
i really don't think you need induction here
each part should be pretty immediate just by writing out what you have on both sides
so like (gog....og) m times and (go....og) n times?
yes
yeah then id have gog....og m+n times and I think this is sufficient?
gog
gawg
yes
the point of this theorem is to show that exponents behave how you'd expect them to
then for 2 id just do (gog...og m times)o(gog....og m times)o....(gogo.....og m times) n times so ignoring the brackets its g^(m*n)
for 3 ill think about it
ye
$g^{-m} = (g^{-1})^{m}$
Tubular Cat
then you do the same thing
ok and instead of gog...og id write it as g^-1
yeah, but you can kind of just abuse notation and say it's just -m times
alright thanks!
For 3 I rewrote h^-1g^-1 as (hg)^-1 and then from there i can get (hg)^n using property 2
if we are asked to show that either G is cyclic or ab != ba, does it suffice to show that G is cyclic if and only if G is abelian?
because if G is cyclic, then !(ab != ba) => (ab = ba) and if ab != ba, then G is not cyclic
.
abelian does not imply cyclic
Presumably you know more about the group, but if exactly one of those cases are true (non abelian vs cyclic) then yes
yeah its a group of order 6 with some a,b in G s.t. o(a) = 3 and o(b) = 2
you're right, so then would it suffice to show that if G is cyclic then G is abelian?
Then yeah showing cyclic iff abelian suffices
Other way around
Cyclic is obviously abelian, you just need abelian -> cyclic
so the if and only if works with the given information about the group
yes
but in this case it is necessary to show both conditions
okay fair, thank you both
though as sharp said previously, cyclic => abelian is obvious
so there isn't really anything to show per say for that direction
i might just explain something brief
well regardless, it's like a one-liner for that direction lol
okay, thanks y'all
what have you tried thus far?
maybe you don't have to
can you express a in terms of b or vise versa?
yeah but through algebraic manipulation
the rule is (a^2)(x^3)(b^2) = x^2 for all x right?
Do you have anything like identities or inverses?
well then (a^2)(x^3) = (x^2)(b^2)^(-1) right?
Are a, b fixed for all x, or are they dependent on x
i think for a given x there are some a and b that satisfy the rule
so they probably depend on x
I don’t have the problem statement so I can’t help you on whether a, b are dependent or not
But probably yeah

I think semigroup has identity?
it does not
nah just closure and assoc.
no reason to, barely anyone uses anything other than monoids and groups
foreal, like who cares what a magma is
semigroup but the operation need not be associative
yeah just closure is satisfied
realistically you just add parenthesis to the symbol list & guarantee they close
so you can kind of think of a semigroup as an associative magma, and a monoid as a semigroup with identity, and a group as a monoid with inverses
so you can't say a2x3 = x2b^(-2) ?
there might not be an inverse
No
darn
semigroups aren't even cancellable in general - we've got basically nothing to work with 
Yeah that’s an odd statement to prove
we can shuffle around the a, x, b as much as we want at least
$x^2=a^2 x^3 b^2 = x^2 x a^2 b^2$ yes?
Sharp
yeah that's what im trying to use
an abelian semi group huh
and you're sure "semi" didn't get added when translating? lol
yeah, but we don't know if it's cancellative - if we did then that would actually be useful
if we write down all 210 orderings, surely we'll get somewhere
But then you can x2 -> x3 a2 b2 hmmm
Yeah idk I’m not immediately seeing a solution
if cancellation is allowed then it would be easy to prove
true
if x = xab does that imply that x = x in this case ?
uh x = x?
im trying some backward resoning
start with x3 = x2 and try to work it backwards
clearly x = x lol
yeah lol
nvm im dumb it's not getting me anywhere
It’s not cancellative as far as I know, and you’re not getting x^3 alone there unless you do x x^2
if there were cancellation, this problem would be very easy lol
this statement is really weird for me
because the property is the same as to say that for any x there is a with a^2x^3 = x^2
and the assumption of at least 2 elements adds basically nothing
could you give us the exact problem?
no, show me it
are you sure they don't mean that there are elements a, b in A such that for all x in A the equation a^2x^3b^2 = x^2 holds
oh, I see I guess
Maybe could follow a^2, b^2 along that to reduce terms?
I've solved it 🤔
Let c = ab, c^2x^3 = x^2
Then c^5 = c^2, and putting cx instead of x we get c^2x^3 = c^2x^2. Then x^2 = c^2x^3 = (c^2x^2)x = x^3
@south arrow
but yeah, the two assumptions weren't useful anywhere and its odd they included them
How to show that every finitely generated ideal is principle ?
no idea where to start
By induction etc it suffices to assume you have an ideal generated by two elements and then have a think about that
ok
so we need to show that (f_1, f_2) = (f)
for some f: Z -> R
@south patrol what should i do ?
(x_1f_1 + x_2f_2)(a) = x in real
okay so this last paragraph loses me. this is the proof for the third part of sylow's theorem.
i don't see how what comes before implies this.
i see that Q*Q is obviously an orbit of size 1, and i see we proved that if |P*Q|=1, then P=Q. but then how does that translate to conjugation partitioning S? or is that something separate?
and conjugation partitions the set, we know that.
but then i also don't see how partitioning and there only being one orbit of size one implies n_p=1 mod p.
wait is it counting the orbits like
1 orbit of size 1
some number a_p of orbits of size p
some number a_p^2 of orbits of size p^2
etc.
so |S|=1+a_p*p+a_p^2 p^2+... = 1 mod p?
as in |S| mod p is just the number of orbits of size 1, since the number or orbits of size p^k are divisible by p so they go away?
real quick, does this proof suffice ?
Yes, that's good
The <- direction can be simplified though
Well
Have you shown that all those 6 words are distinct
Like what is ruling out, say, a^2b=1
how could a^2b be equal to 1?
So for example, if o(a)=4 and b = a^2 then o(b)=2
And a^2b = 1
You need to use the orders being 3 and 2
You may be confusing this w group presentations or smth idk

4.3 made me think of something interesting
Ye
nvm it isnt as interesting as i thought
im still not sure as to why the words are not implicitly distinct by my imposed definition of them
well that works for the example, but does the fact i supposed o(a) = 3 and o(b) = 2 not suffice?
i was thinking if a and b are infinitely cyclic its still possible for ab to be cyclic (assuming ab=1)
An element isn't cyclic in itself
I'm not sure what you mean
Groups are cyclic (sometimes)
oh no i was talking about a cyclic group generated from a and b
Sure
why is this the case?
Every group of prime order is cyclic
there's an overkill solution to 4.3 lol
lol
i just used least common multiple stuff
ah i see
Hm how
||conjugation is an automorphism||
That doesn't seem relevant to me
let a and b have order c and d respectively
Illum how is that overkill, isn't that the intended solution basically
That's how i'd have done it
last time I recommended that solution I was yelled at by boyjtije 
telling me it's too overkill
lol
I would never yell smh

cuz if a word is irreducible and satisfies the supposition that a^3 = e and b^2 = e, then two words x,y in G are equal if and only if (ab)^k = (ab)^j for some integers k,j, implies k = j (mod |G|)
I just worry cat bread that you're about to appeal to a group being abelian
I wouldn't call it overkill, I think it's the best solution
then for (ab)^n=1 we would need to have that (a^n)(b^n)=1
why?
I don't get what you mean
but for someone who doesn't know what conjugation is, it's overkill
well the trick is proving that 
idk im dumb
Yeah lol you appealed to abelian ness
(ab)^n needn't be a^n b^n
In general
:(
well i don't immediately see an explanation as to why the words are distinct, other than the fact that they certainly feel distinct
i wanna think through it a bit more first
see if i can't take the intuition and formalize it
Yeah sure
Gl!
This is important stuff to have intuition for so probably worth thinking about owo but feel free to like @ me if you need any more help or anything
!
Okay so like let's be a meme and like
Start with the basics
If ab = 1, why is ba = 1
because b is an inverse of a
bababa ba ba bababa
So true...
I am speaking facts and nothing but facts
this, albeit
; however,
nevertheless
okay here goes, let x,y be in G. Then x = (ab)^k and y = (ab)^j for some integers k,j.
so x = y <=> (ab)^k = (ab)^j if and only if i = k (mod |G|). thus for any x,y in G, if i != k (mod |G|), then x and y are distinct. if i = k (mod |G|) then x = y.
Okay, so you are assumign ab has order |G|, right?
Which is what you want to prove
like
do we have to work with words or can we just structure theorem it
How do you know that if (ab)^k = (ab)^i then i = k mod |G|
There is no need for words or structure theorem
Anyway, so
well ab = ba, and (ab)^6 = e
That doesn't mean that, say, (ab)^3 isn't e
oh right you're given the orders
That's what you have to do
so o(a)o(b) = o(ab) because gcd(o(a),o(b)) = 1
lol
Just immediate that ab has order 6
Yeah I was gonna just lead you to proving this
its just given to me with 2.4.3 but
well i shouldn't use it because the theorem is introduced after the exercise
but im looking at the proof for it and there's no way i could've come up with it
Anyway, so hint is that you wanna show that if (ab)^i = 1 then 6| i
And think about how to do that
What is another way to write "(ab)^i =1"?
yur it's like a specific case of the theorem
Yes sorry, some say e and some say 1
idk how to explain this
okay so if (ab)^i = e, then a^i b^i = e, thus because o(a) = 3 and o(b) = 2, 3 | i and 2 | i, thus 6|i because gcd(2,3) = 1
?
hint, lagrange's theorem
i dont even know what it is
not the whole thing no, but meh might as well go overboard
Like why does a^i b^i = 1 imply a^i = b^i = 1
hold up
but basically we can say that if (ab)^i=(ab)^k then we can also say that (ab)^k=((ab)^(k-|G|))(ab)^|G|
what's the problem
but then (ab)^|G|=1 and we can just repeat this until we end up with k-n|G| and this is basically just
k mod |G|
licking your abelian groups
My brain hurties
you're tellin me lol
we are assuming ab has an order |G| wew
That is
if that means anything to you
the most cursed way to state Lagrange
then sure :pack:
idk if cat bread knows |G/H| 
nope
Fair nuff

Basically the key ting is that like
not on quotients yet
oh no no no
if u have a subgroup H of a group G (needn't be normal or anything cringe)
Then
#H divides #G
okay im stuck, idk how to answer this
Where the # symbol is a twitter reference
Okay, so rewriting
a^i = b^-i
how does this help with the problem though
In fact, I claim that is a^i = b^j for ANY j and i then both sides are just equal to 1
Have a think about that
but how did you think to write it like that
Hint: what is the order of a^i? what is the order of b^j?
Oh I mean like
idk exepreicne probably
Like kinda the key thing is you're comparing a with b and this lets u do that
o(g) = |<g>| which is a subgroup of G
whats o(g)
order of g
oh
i never used that convention before
Yeah i avoid using o(g) lol
f(x) = x^2 + o(g) :trollshiro:
unaware
Am I impersonating wew correctly
skinwalker energy
ok so where do i go with this information
I thought you were finished with your proof lol
oh no i have to prove that if a and b are elements of group G then the order of ab is the same as order of ba
wtf...
Lol
perhaps writing out (ab)^n = e as aba....bab = e will help here
u know what I don't come here for this type of vile chitchat to be hurled at me
like if you can show why abab = 1 => baba =1 then you're cone
does this come with any implicit assumptions about a or b, or is this just a general statement?
This is where you use the fact o(a)=2 and o(b)=3
(or the other way round lol i can't remember)
yeah other way, but okay let me think about that
Hi sebbb
god im so dumb, i've lost sight of what we still need to show
Ripped mathematicians be like lol my abs aren't merely abstract
Nah shook ur good dw
It is confusing cause as you said this is kinda intuitively true
me af
BY CLASSIFICATION OF GROUPS OF ORDER 6 THE RESULT HOLDS!!!!!
Stfu wew
we need to show that every word constructed from a and b is distinct, correct?
he's not wrong
Yes but uh
Well
All we really need to show is that ab has order 6
And then we'll be done (agreed?)
yes
im curious about this
And to do that, suppose (ab)^i = 1 for some i < 6 and show i = 0
bros...
Now I've claimed that in fact a^i = b^j => a^i = b^j = 1
finite groups are classified
like we know all of them
And that clearly implies this as we've discussed
So like
this is ABSOLUTELY not true
spreading lies and slander on the line
oh am i misremembering the thing
what's the thing
Finite simple groups
i thought this problem was trivial
finite simple groups
what?

a wee bit of trolling
Anyway the point is that

One can write a list of all of the groups of order 6
you basically did it lol, I don't really know what potato's talking about
unless 6 divides 0 now
Seeing as there are only two, we are done
No I mean like wew
The point was they said they hadn't proven taht result yet right
Well
There was a gap
well no they proved a specific case though
but he brought up an interesting point that how do we know (a^i = e and b^i = e) if (a^i b^i = e)
like i don't have an answer for that
unless it's trivial and im just re
if it wasn't the case then b^i would be equal to a^-i which contradicts our statement about their orders
I think
a very abstract way of "If you have a tree and decorate its nodes by elements of your relevant type of objects you can in fact lift it to a tree decorated by these objects" 
i think that makes sense
if this was an exam question i would be screwed
there's no way i can spend this long on one problem
Yes that's what I was helping them through wew 😭
Bruh aha
i cant see where to go
the group not being abelian is severely throwing me off
Bleak
I am an armstrong away from vomiting answers

Okay so
let's do the abab thing
sps abab=1
why is baba=1
think about dat and then it should generalise
owo
HINT!!! conjugation....
that's overkilll
what
do we know if the group is cyclic or not?
cyclic implies abelian
hahaha
the group isn't abelian
I think it’s pretty much not overkill here
It was a joke lol
you get faster
||o(a) = 2, o(b) = 3, (ab)^i = a^ib^i = 1 => a^i = 1, b^i = 1 => 6|i|| is made up of implications I would accept on the spot
reference to a prior part fo this convo
guys i ewas just pretending to be satupid hugyhdugsyguysg
Lol
i think the implication you've omitted a proof of it the core to the problem though
I am very much so still slow
uh dur durr hurr left as an exercise to ur mum
Okay
im slow and not just in terms of speed
btw i don't actually hate wew this is just funny to berate him
catbread!!! Dont u... forget about me....
likewise
rough out here smh
i dont think i covered conjugates
have u covered the definition of a group yet
yes
ok that's a good start
conjugation is just when you do the ol x -> g^-1xg it ain't no thang
wait thats true?
the conjugate of x is g^-1xg for any g in G (i believe)
im gonna interject w a quick thing of my own
If x reduces to e, what can you say about g^-1 x g
Don't don't don't don'ttttt
Banger
wdym “reduces to e”
is it enough to just mash the bases together
Yep
yes unless your direct sum is disgusting and then I'll have to think about it
Reduces is just silly brain separating the word from the final group element
im choosing to remain ignorant as to my precise definition of direct sum
holy shit i think i got it
thern yeah BASH EM TOGEHTER
Inject each module into the sum for finite sums
$X_n \to \bigoplus_i^N X_i$
me to my friend when my mom says we can start a guinea pig fighting ring
$\to$ :(
\rightarrow cmon now people
grrrr
holy crap the conjugate made the problem 100x easier
$X_n \hookrightarrow \bigotimes_{i=\text{I DON'T CARE}}^{\text{I. DON'T. CARE.} X_i$
Wew Lads Tbh
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
lol
(it actually solved it)
yeah almost like that's how you're supposed to solve it lol
That's what I said too lol
there is no evidence of this fact
i had 0 idea what a conjugate was
then sharp explained it to me what it was and boom
problem immediately made trivial
I like to narrow my PhD research topic to "conjugation"
Note that for infinite direct sums I’m assuming it’s the coproduct, so you still inject in, but that’s not quite finite ofc
im just showing M \oplus N is free
for M,N free
I got spooked by hamal basis vs the other one
Gröbner?
googling it
Starts with sch
basically the other one is a regular basis but can be uncountable
oh none of that
That’s just a basis?
it's time to learn about direct integrals my boy 
Just horrible
im good thanks

:weed: notation
The real nasty ones are bases where you have like countably many but you have convergence 
I’ve never actually learned what this means
I've never learnt them because I just work with finite objects 
- don't know measure theory
learn a tiny bit of metric spaces first and you're good
as in, get comfortable with the definition of a metric space lol
i wanna use axler for it
(it has a cat on page 44)
axler should throw more pics of his cats in his textbook
What’s the definition of direct integrals anyway
a dumpster fire
What can I use to prove that projective modules are free over the integral group ring Z[C_2 X C_2] ?
I know that projectives are free over principal ideal rings, local rings, and fields. But I'm not sure that any of these apply in this case
Seems like a tough and interesting question
Do you have a characterisation of the ideals of the ring?
how mcuh justification do you think i need of this
i know that's subjectivee
but i never know with things that seem obvious
can we not write Z[C_2 x C_2] as iso to Z^4 by the standard decomposition of the regular representation? Could help
Ah, but this is Z
should still hold
Oh right bc the reps of C_2 are nice
Well, just show something like R^n (+) R^m ~= R^(n+m) maybe?
Yeah I think that's a good idea
the space of characters is a Z-lattice spanned by the irreducibles, so the bashing of the regular character into irreps should be the same over Z as C
I think...
This is pretty weird though, considering this would make Z projective and not free...
hmm
I think there might be something subtle that doesn't work with Z
could be
Well projective modules are supposedly free by the problem statement
Of course
How is it isomorphic? I'm not familiar with that
I'm fairly sure that they are
Have you done any rep theory in the past?
I have
ok back to doing 4.4
OK well you should know that if a field k is big enough, then k[C_2 x C_2] as a module over itself decomposes as a certain sum of irreducible submodules
in this case, there are 4 irreducible submodules, all of dimension 1, so the ring is iso to k^4, where each copy of k has a different module structure ofc
Wew's idea is that this extends to Z, and I'm inclined to agree
We can try and identify the central idempotents that would give us this decomposition
I mean, all of the character values of C_2xC_2 are in Z so it should work, but you're right in that Z poses a problem
Yeah actually, I think that the sum may not be direct
because the central idempotent that produces the ideals would be (I think) 1/2(0,1) + 1/2(0,0)
or one of them
I hope I'm making sense
major oopsie if true




