#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 61 of 1
anyway Q is still definitely torsion free as a Z-module
sebb
all we're saying is that Q doens't have order 2 elements as an abelian group
because 2a = 0
means a = 0
and this implies that any subring won’t either
but that other inifnite direct sum does have order 2 elements
does treating them as Z modules change anything
no right
bc if underlying group isnt iso then module cant be
abelian groups are just Z modules anyway
and also torsion is inherent to module structure ig
do you have the solutions lol
i do not
wtf...
i don't understand half the stuff wew says 🙈
erm moderators these users are off topic please ban them immediately
idk how much of an insult wanker actually is
very mild
what does it even mean 
he who wanks

i dont know either det 
british english sounds hard
like imagine learning it
you write something
but read something else
extra letter in a bunch of words too
sometimes you just mis-spell things
and sometimes you don't write half the letters
like
gotta catch 'em all
where my "th"
I think you're confusing british english with me just not being able to operate a keyboard

silly det, its easy peasy
you just have to avoid interacting with non-british englishers 
and no, dont teach det bad words silly billies
frick
oooh
the word "silly" sounds cute

the word silly is silly
Siwwy
sully
what does sully mean anyway?
it's the funny blue dude "
"
oh its name?
doesn't look funny to me, serious business
Could someone help me understand this proof here? Especially the part where the left-inverse for phi is implying that the sequence splits. How I understood this was that we should have been required to show that N is isomorphic to M \oplus coker(phi), but it seems that they are showing that it's actually isomorphic to M \oplus ker(phi)?
Ah sorry the pictures came in the wrong order...
that's ker(psi)
which is easily seen to be coker(phi)
because the sequence then is 0 --> M --> M⊕ker(psi) --> ker(psi) --> 0
Wouldn't the map M \oplus coker(phi) with (m, [c]) \mapsto phi(m) + c work as the isomorphism just as well?
I.e. taking the representative of the equivalence class in coker(phi)
is that well defined 
Not sure haha
hehe :p
Is it not?
yea it's not :p
because if you pick a different representative then phi(m) + c would definitely change
and other reason is that you never used that phi has a retract
and not every SES splits
This ker(psi) = coker(phi) equality wasn't quite clear to me so I was a bit confused with this kernel consideration
yea also another thing
maybe you have seen thsi before
if you have a map p : M --> M such that p^2 = p
then you can write M = (im p) ⊕(ker p)
so p projects onto im p
which is why if you do it twice, nothign happens
i think it might be useful to digest this first
If for psi we have that psi \circ phi = id_M, then do we also get that psi is surjective? This would mean that coker(psi) = 0 which then of course agrees with ker(phi)?
because that phi-psi can be confusing :p
yep, if the composite is surjective, then the second map is surjective. similarly if a composite is injective the first map would be injective.
Oh no I'm confusing psi and phi again
How do you get the equality ker(psi) = coker(phi) then?
oh because you the two exact sequences
0 --> M --> N --> coker phi --> 0
and
0 --> M --> M⊕(ker psi) --> ker psi --> 0
are isomorphic
aluffi defines isomorphisms of exact sequences before doing this lemma right?
(not fully sure)
this follows from that fact that the map phi is identified with the inclusion into the first factor like they say
He does yeah, but I didn't really see how those two exact sequences are isomorphic?
ig that's left in "all necessary verifications" lol
all i can do is elaborate this if you wish 
the map phi "looks like" i : M --> M⊕(ker psi)
did you understand this?
because after that we're just saying coker phi is isomorphic to coker i
and coker i is clearly ker psi
I kinda understood this so that 0 --> M --> N --> coker phi --> 0 splits if we can show that N = M ⊕ coker(phi). And yeah I see that phi kinda acts as an "embedding" and the map from N --> coker(phi) as a projection so that it would make sense to say N = M ⊕ coker(phi).
We don't always have this N = M ⊕ coker(phi) condition even if we have a SES right?
if 0 --> A --> B --> C --> 0 is an SES then A --> B is like an "embedding" and B --> C is like a "projection"
yea that's correct.
it depends on how you think about projection basically
if for you projection means any quotient map, M --> M/N, then that would be true for any SES and not just the split ones
Yeah this is what I meant. So now the difference is that the given SES splits if it's isomorphic to 0 --> M --> M ⊕ coker(phi) --> coker phi --> 0, but then they seem to show that it's isomorphic to 0 --> M --> M ⊕ ker(psi) --> coker phi --> 0 instead
yea but ker psi is coker phi right
Right, that's my issue I didn't see this. Should this be some known fact which I have missed or something?
wait so before that
how do you see the third object in the second exact sequence is coker phi?
Which one of them?
0 --> M --> M ⊕ ker(psi) --> coker phi --> 0
Oh yeah I don't. My only objective was to show that 0 --> M --> N --> coker phi --> 0 and 0 --> M --> M ⊕ coker(phi) --> coker phi --> 0 are isomorphic and for the first and last maps I just took the identities, but couldn't find a map N --> M ⊕ coker(phi) or M ⊕ coker(phi) --> N.
det
fancy diagram
f(n) = (psi(n), n - phi(psi(n)))
i is the inclusion into the first facto
i(m) = (m, 0)
do you see that the left square commutes?
and f is an iso?
this is what they mean by this
just that i drew f in the opposite direction :p
but that should be fine for you i hope
i'll change it, wait
det
g(m, k) = phi(m) + k
i(m) = (m, 0) again
see that the rows are exact
and the left square commutes
and that 1 and g are isos
from this you get an induced map ker psi --> coker phi
and that would also be forced to be iso
Perhaps I'm bad at explaining myself haha. I can see how this plays out, but the biggest issue was that I couldn't figure this diagram out. I was staring at $$[\begin{tikzcd}
0 & M & N & {\mathrm{coker}(\varphi)} & 0 \
0 & M & {M \oplus \mathrm{coker}(\varphi)} & {\mathrm{coker}(\varphi)} & 0
\arrow[from=1-1, to=1-2]
\arrow["\varphi", from=1-2, to=1-3]
\arrow[from=1-3, to=1-4]
\arrow[from=1-4, to=1-5]
\arrow[from=1-2, to=2-2]
\arrow[from=1-3, to=2-3]
\arrow[from=2-3, to=2-4]
\arrow[from=2-4, to=2-5]
\arrow[from=2-1, to=2-2]
\arrow[from=2-2, to=2-3]
\arrow[from=1-4, to=2-4]
\end{tikzcd}]$$
So I wasn't reading the proof I was trying to come up with it myself haha
or maybe not
by your definition of split-nes isn't this exactly what we want
johannesu
Compile Error! Click the
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(You may edit your message to recompile.)
the definition here is allowed to have M1' and M2'
it doesn't need to be exactly M1 and M2
Right so the groups in the below SES could be anything and not neccessarily M and coker(phi)
because they're isomorphic
and this is exactly what we have here
below SES can be anything
i already said this, so since this is an iso, you can always replace ker psi with coker phi
but lets not confuse ourselves
Perhaps I'll take another read of the chapter. I feel like I'm wasting your time here haha
yee but i think, this diagram should answer most of your confusions
Oh good to know 🙂
I'll see if I can find the motivation to come up with this myself. Currently I don't yet see where this SES below is originating from, but perhaps with a bit more thought it'll come clear...
originating in the sense "why is it an SES" or "why should you think about that in this proof"
The latter
hmm i see
give this a try as well... since there is a single map, this is a little less confusing
and this implies your other case lol
you can let p = phi o psi
p^2 = phi o (psi o phi) o psi = phi o 1 o psi = p
Wouldn't the splitting lemma imply this directly as phi has a left-inverse?
what you asking that for
yea ig both imply each other
p^2 = p can be phrased like p o (1-p) = 0
why are free modules called that
cause you don't need to pay anything
:O
anyway, if X is a set and M is an R-module then defining a R-module homomorphism F^R(X) --> M is equivalent to giving a set function X --> M
so it's free in the sense of freedom
no relations whatsoever
wha
yeah it's the no relations part
im not sure i see that
cause if u had to obey something stupid like a^2 = b then that's just not free enough for these all american modules
wew confuse me again
it's free in the sense that the generators aren't bound by any rules/relations, sebbb
F^R(X) has a basis given by the canonical inclusion X --> F^R(X)
and is this equivalent to having a basis?
so the (image of) X satisfies no relations
like that's the defn of a basis right
yeah a module is free iff it has a basis
embrace just repeating everything
By analogy with free groups, etc: they are the modules in the image of the free functor Set -> RMod.
could anyone help me with this question? I need to determine all elements m of Z_42 such that (30,m) is a proper ideal of Z_42
An ideal is proper iff it does not contain 1. Can you think of a criteria to determine when 1 is in the ideal (30, m)?
Perhaps first find a more intuition-friendly way to describe (30).
fuck intuition machine code is all that matters in reality
Good luck writing any of that without intuition,
Here's a fun free group fact: subgroups of free groups are free. More specifically, if F_n is the free group on n generators and G is a subgroup of F_n of index k, then G is free on (n-1)k + 1 generators
isnt there a nice topological proof of that
im trying to learn enough topology to understand it
There is indeed
wait im really curious about that how much topology do i need to learn it
You should probably be comfortable with covering space theory and it's connection with the fundamental group
I have not seen the topological proof of nielsen-schreier 
this was how it was proved in my combinatorial group theory class
graph memes
it looks far neater than it is, lemma 2.5 is a multipage mess of random words
how does the topological proof go?
The wedge of n circles has fundamental group F_n. A subgroup G of F_n corresponds to a connected cover of the wedge of n circles, and this cover will have fundamental group G. A connected cover of a wedge of circles is a graph, any graph is homotopy equivalent to a wedge of circles, so the fundamental group of the cover is free.
no I believe it dw
If you quotient out by a contractible subspace then you preserve the homotopy type
I can "visualise it" which as we all know is completely rigorous
if 30 and m are coprime?
yes, that's right
Wait why wouldn’t it be 30,m, and 42 are all coprime?
Oh, perhaps you're right.
it seems this is not correct, so maybe it is 30, m, 42
well I think gcd only requires one integer to be nonzero
yes, 30 is not a unit in Z_42, so that (30,0)=(30) is a proper ideal
Ok yes, I see the issue. I should've phrased this as an ideal is proper iff it does not contain a unit. We can characterize when (30, m) does not contain a unit of Z/42Z
unless I am mistaken, the only units I included are 5 and 25 since 5x17=1 and 25x37=1 but it seems that removing those is also not correct
There is one more
Or rather, there is one other element m such that (30, m) contains a unit
do you have another hint? I don't really follow
So (30, m) will contain a unit if gcd(30, m) is a unit in Z/42Z, right?
but k = gcd(30, m) is a unit in Z/42Z iff gcd(k, 42) = 1
That sounds wrong. Won't (30,7) be the whole Z/42Z?
Right, but gcd(30, 7) = 1, which is a unit, no? And gcd(1, 42) = 1
Ah, I somehow misread your last condition as being about gcd(m, 42).
So now you should be able to use this to determine something about the prime factors of m to ensure that (30, m) does not contain any units
Guys
Ik this is basic
But im revisiting modular arithmetic and In confused about Z/nZ
Like i get the idea and hoe to construct those sets, but how about negative n? How about negative integers? Why arent they part of the set?
Whaa
Okay I think the confusion is coming from the fact that there are a couple of ways to construct Z/nZ
Ohhhhhh
so in Z/4Z
In a basic course, one often introduces Z/nZ as the set {0,1,...,n-1} with some addition etc, but it's easier / better in the long run to think of them as equivalence classes of integers
-4, 4, and 0 are all in the same equivalence class
in which case yes, one can deal with negative n and classes of negative integers &c.
So are -2,2
By what equivalence map/ relation tho?
-10, -6, -2, 2, 6, 10, etc are all in one class
In Z / nZ, x = y if and only if n | x - y (as integers)
might help to see the case of Z/2Z since you are probably already familiar with even+odd=odd and even*odd = even etc (this is literally what we're doing)
This is the equivalence relation?
even and odd numbers are sets of numbers, which are the equivalence classes for Z/2Z
I mean right
It just seemed a but weird to me how it was first defined
So every element of Z/nZ is a symbol of an equivalence class under m ≈ g (mod n)
Where n | g-m
yea
It's just that these things are basically numbers so we treat them as such (i.e. we don't use notation for equivalence classes)
and write them as such
so if you don't keep the structure in mind, it can look confusing
Fax
At first i thought it was a matter of definition
But there is a deeper meaning to it
What does it mean for the Killing form to be positive definite?
are you asking for the definition of "positive definite"? or for the consequences of that in this case
the definition
I've seen positive definite in the context of metric before but I don't know if it's the same thing
it's what you think it is. a bilinear form B is positive definite if B(v, v) > 0 whenever v is non-zero
Oh I thought it's B(u, v) > 0 except for when u=v
Does anyone know if there is any hints or solutions for dummit&foote? I am using it as supplement but I find the problems in it often confusing. I am also the only person in my college doing abstract algebra, so I don't have any peer group.
yo
is 2 prime in Z[sqrt(5)]
no right
cuz (3+sqrt(5))(3-sqrt(5)) is in (2) but neither of those is in (2)
?
but 2 is irreudicble tho
so Z[sqrt(5)] cant be a unique factorization domain
true ?
yep
cool af
how do you see 2 is irred btw?
suppose 2 = ab for a,b nonunits in Z[sqrt(5)]
write everything out
and then i just noticed that none of this shit can actually work
unless one side is trivial
lol
or ie a unit
one quick was is to use a norm argument
there is another cool argument
no way
so you know that if D is a UFD, and F is its field of fractions then D is integrally close in F?

1 more bad question
Hi det
Hewwo

now this is poorly worded right
cuz not all textbooks
have the same definiton for a norm
some just require euclidean algorithm
while other have this N(a)<=N(ab)
i can do it with the second propoerty
but can this be done using only first
question c and d.
i would guess so
because you can "wlog" assume the second property
why
in the sense that if you have a delta satisfying the first
u can imply second?
then you can find a delta' satisfying both
Ohhh
delta'(a) = min_{a | b, b non-zero} delta(b)
okay so basically i ca just assume this in my answering?
i still dont have any reference for these exams
you need the second property
like the prof did not give me any textbooks to follow
she just told me okay i am going to examin you in this here is a sample
so i picked up df and in df this second property does not exist
ah
N(0) = 0?
norm where
what i thought is we can just spam euclidean algorithm given a is a unit
to show that the second propeprty holds but not form assumption
not a nice def
by just applying first property
trash ass def
like u see these inequalities
from the algorithm
i thought maybe we can just do some random ass magic
but turns out no cuz this is strict while the other is not
so no way
ig
yea but that's not a proof
so now for c) : suppose u is a unit --> exists v ssuch that u.v = 1 ---> N(u) <= N(uv) = N(1) but from second property this norm must be increasing (?? xd) so N(u) is min{min(x) | .. }
is that correct
yea just directly say that N(u) <= N(u(vx)) = N(x)
yea i don't hate it, but it doesn't tell the full thing :p
okay
you still have to show that N(1) <= N(x)
but like you say that's because it's increasing wrt |
i would really want deg : k[x] --> N to be a nice valuation.
and deg 0 is not 0
fuck df
to see why you need the second property
consider any function d : k* --> N
this is a euclidean valuation on the field k
because remainder is always 0
so never need to know what the actual function is
but ofc the second property can fail here
by that we know all units would have same d-value
but i can easily find functions for which that is not true
yea
yea makes sense
cool
i thought the exam was super hard cuz of this
yo for d)
suppose a = ub for some unit u --> N(a) = N(ub) <= N(u * v * b) = N(b)
uv=1
and then N(b) = N(av) <=N(avu) = N(a)
so done?
yup
col

now for e) ig in Z[i] we have 5+2i and 5-2i are of same norm
but cant be associates ?
under a^2+b^2
cool af
how about square summable sequences?
l^2 is a hilbert space right
and you have the right-shift operator
Some more hints for this problem? I guess we want to find g(x) such that g(x) = f(x)h(x) and that all the monomials of g have prime exponents, but they are hinting to consider the quotient, but g(x) = 0 in k[x]/(f(x)) so I think we are not supposed to consider g in the quotient space?
being a multiple of f is captured by being 0 in the quotient
so you wanna show a linear combination of certain monomials is 0
How does that give information about the exponents being prime?
start with the exponents being prime
So like g(x) = x^{p_1} + ... + x^{p_n}?
well not immediately in a sum
you want to show that for the monomials x^2, x^3, x^5, ... eventually there is a linear combination of them which equals 0
I think it would be essential to have some notion about the degree of f here?
the degree isn't that important. I would focus more on the linear algebra point of view
I somehow tried to suppose that if f has degree n and I take n+1 primes, then I would get some condition on linear dependence, but are you suggesting there is another way to look at this?
yes that's also what I would do but I wouldn't be that specific. clearly the degree is finite, there are infinitely many primes etc
are free modules just a flavor of direct sum of R-modules
in my defn it has an index set X but im not sure what it does
is it just there to say how many elts are in a basis
Yes
hausdorff
a is in R, and so is b, so b/a in K is obviously clear. if b/a is in R, let b/a = r, so b = ra. what goes wrong?
Guys how can I find the order of 5 belonging to Z_12
I have this theorem then it would be 12
you could try using the definition ?
because b doesn't lie in (a)
yeah the theorem works to show it's 12
for the second thing, use that A is contained in P1, so bA is contained in P1P2...Pr which means bA is contained in (a) = aR.
If of course n is the modulo 12 then n=12
12 and 5 are coprime so 12/1 =12 then the order of the 5 belonging to Z_12 is 12
thanks
5
a=5 ?
the theorem tells you how to find out the order of a^k if you know the order of a
yeah 5 is generator of Z_12
but you don't know the order of 5
I think I'm a little confused
if you want to apply the theorem to find out the order of 5
then you need to find some a and k such that 5 = a^k (I'm using the multiplicative notation because that is what is used in the statement of the theorem) and such that you know the order of a
but if you know the order of 5 already then you don't need to apply the theorem
or maybe you can go back to all the definitions
then what would be the order of 5
because I am told to find the order of 5 belonging to Z_12
well to get the order of 5 do you want to apply the theorem somehow or do you want to use the definitions
I'm just a little confused
one is the order of an element and the other is the order of a group.
5 is an element of the group Z/12Z yeah
This definition tells me the order of an element I suppose and the theorem above is the order of a group, right?
thank you!

both tell you about the order of elements
here it says that the element a in G has order n
then 5 which belongs to Z_12, if a=5 and belongs to group Z_12 then it has order 12
This is what I have just interpreted
Now the above definition as it would be applicable
why do you think that's true
this is very easy to verify
5 * 5 = 25 = 1 mod 12
12 and 5 are coprime so 12/1 =12 then the order of the 5 belonging to Z_12 is 12
have you looked at what is the least positive integer n such that n*5 = 0 in (Z_12,+)
you should compute 1*5, 2*5, 3*5, and so on until you get 0
(I'm using the additive notation here because it makes more sense)
so you should compute 5, 5+5, 5+5+5, and so on
n = 0 
Parameterize the following affine plane curves, projecting from the point (0,0) onto the line Y=1 and onto the line X=1
What does this mean?
One of those curves is X^2+Y^2-2X
it means you parametrize those lines
then you use that to parametrize the curve by sending a point on the curve to a point on the line
or rather from a point of the line send it to a point of the curve
so the line y=1 for example
is parametrized by the x coordinate
so then you have to find a parametrization (X(x),Y(x)) of the curve
so that (x,1) is the projection of (X(x),Y(x)) from (0,0) onto the line y=1
if you choose functions X and Y correctly this will give you almost a bijection
and an algebraic one at that
Im not exactly sure what this means
(x,1) is the intersection of (the line going through (X(x),Y(x)) and (0,0)) and (the line y=1)
ah
you should get that x is a rational function of X and Y, and also that X and Y are rational functions of x
you mean in the example X^2+Y^2-2X ?
yeah
oh so
you just consider the line going through (0,0) and (x,1) and calculate the intersection with the curve?
yeah
yeah
Some of the curves involve cubic terms, I guess stuff will factor lol
hopefully (0,0) is a singular point of the cubics
you should do the computation inside Z_12
and check for the first one that results in 0 in that group
Now, they ask if we would obtain a parameterization projecting from other points @hot lake
So the exercise only makes sense because the equations you obtain only have two solutions in terms of x (in the case where you project from (0,0) onto Y=1), one of them being, of course, x=0
well for the degree 2 curves, any point on the curve would do
if its not on the curve, then no because some lines will intersect the curve at more than one point, right?
yeah
can somebody help me prove this
where R is a ring and a is an element of r
also there should be parenthesis around the x in the top right of the fraction
Find an appropriate map and use the first isomorphism theorem
Hint: the map should be from R[x] into some other ring
i guess im struggling on all of this notation in general
like what even is R[x]/(x,a)
is that just all polynomials in R[x] divided by x+a ? and then you take the remainder?
R[x] quotiented out by the ideal (x, a). I like to think of it using modular arithmetic: y is congruent to 0 iff y is in (x, a)
you "set everything that is in (x, a) to 0"
e.g. R[x]/(x^2 + 1) would be the complex numbers, C, because we set x^2 + 1 = 0, so "x = i"
okay so i can see how everything in (5) and everything in (x) is also in (5,x)
Maybe you should go back and look at the definition of a quotient ring
the set of all congruence classes of R modulo I for some ring R and ideal I
along with some operation definitions
oh okay i think i am getting it
uh so is this "isopmorphism" in any way close to what i want?
the easiest way is to use the first isomorphism theorem, like boytjie already said
I can see above that you wrote Z[x]/Z = Z
this isn't true
Z isn't even an ideal of Z[x]
If by '=' you mean that they are isomorphic, yes
can someone verify this rq pls
so here i'm asked to express this permutation as a product of disjoint cycles. but would it only be possible to express this as only one cycle?
Yup
oh so product can be just one cycle
Yup
bump 
You say "order doesn't matter since R is commutative" but I don't see why that's relevant.
The proof is fine
yup
i only said so bc i put the alpha before/after sometimese
but ig that's obv
is the bijection obv enough to omit? i have a hard time gauging that kinda stuff
No, that's kinda the main part of the proof
oh 
ok yeah turns out the bijection might be a bit annoying to show 
is that last equality true?
You have no guarantee that IM contains N, hence IM/N is meaningless
ahhh ok that did feel too easy
Lol I saw I(M/N) and just assumed it was nakayama
who
Nakayama's lemming
Yo mama
Lmao

Yo mama so finitely generated
wouldnt if be worse is she had an infinite set of generators
Lol
shitposting aside is there anything i can use on IM/N
that no make sense like boytjie said
I mean these are always a first iso thm thing
since it no contain N
ohhhh the earlier equality was the wrong one
The fundamental theorem of commutative algebra
i(m + n) and (x + n), where x = im + n...?
finite sums of those, but sure
so it's (i1m1+...+ikmk + n) + n
yeah i just mean like
coseets of N
so better said it's i(m + N) and (i1m1+...+ikmk + n) + N
maybe im being silly but im not sure i see why
oh so I is an ideal, M/N is an R-module
I(M/N) would be a submodule of M/N
which is generated by products i * (m+N)
that's the definition right
ok in general, how do ideals "interact" w modules
i know an ideal of R is itself an R-module
(any subring of R should be i think)
(it's the other way around whoops)
Look at your last chain of equalities
You rewrote a guy into something you can use 2nd iso on
Well, sort of one step is dicey
A guy
not necessarily contained tho
Distinguished gentleman
a man
But I(M/N) = IM+N/N is true
look at this man
Evil
Anyway I did evil and probably derailed det help
Sorry det


issokie 
Det is uwu
And they owe me for helping with étaleness so they can never be mad at me
Kekw
I'll be mad at you on his behalf
yee so sebb, the only input in proving I(M/N) = IM+N/N is the definition of multiplication of ideal with a module
another way sort of to think about that could be using the map M --> M/N. image of IM is exactly I(M/N)... if you can verify this by hand, then you're done. but it's not any "better" than doing the whole thing using elements.
Don't 2nd and 3rd iso theorems pretty much follow immediately from first iso anyway?
everything follows from the definitions...
"we start by consider the peano axioms..."
I’m trying to show that if K is normal in G then HK = KH, I should just show that HK and KH are contained in each other right?
yeah, thats what it means to be equal for sets
I'd write HK as a union hK for h in H
and then, for singleton, show that hK = Kh
and now this sum is exactly KH
id have to try it. I think the idea is that since there exists an element k’ in K such that hk=k’h, we can show that the sets are equal.
i know that’s essentially rewording the proof with the definition of normal but the idea makes sense intuitively to me at least
reword it as you wish if it makes it easier to understand
as long as it makes sense of course
also, to show that HK is normal in G if H and K are both normal in G, i could just show that (gHg’)(gKg’)=gHKg’ and then i’m done, right?
HK = (gHg')(gKg') = gHKg' you mean?
yes
Please provide adequate context so we can help
send the entire page
Also, I have a nagging sensation this might not fit in #groups-rings-fields
What subject is this
I was gonna say like the fact I don't even know whether this is algebra kinda stops any ability to help lol
can someone help me understand why the left hand side of (**) is symmetric in the indices? it switches the order of the product of the two groups in the quotient
probably missing some obvious deduction that they lead to the same group but not getting there rn
the product of the two groups in the quotient commutes
I know that's what I'm supposed to be deducing but I still don't understand why that is
is it obvious?
you've essentially shown that those subgroups are normal in G_1 cap G_2 at the start of the proof of the lemma
normal subgroups commute with each other
they don't have to be normal in whole of G but that isn't important
oh normal subgroups commute? okay that makes a lot of sense now that I think about it
thanks
yeah you can look here
H is any set whatsoever
oh lol that's quite a coincidence
iirc Zassenhaus lemma contains a lot of isomorphism theorems as a corollary
it's also called butterfly lemma sometimes
because when you draw it, it should resemble a butterfly
yeah I saw the butterfly on wikipedia
wanna learn about lattices of groups (and lattices in general) one day they seem powerful but I suck at imagining them
I don't know if lattices, on their own, are "powerful" as you say. A lot of theorems only begin to hold with some assumptions like distributivity
There's also a version of Zassenhaus lemma for semigroups, and analogue of its corollary
though in spirit its a little different I suppose
well, speaking from experience, I've seen them pop up here and there all over the math spectrum so I'd at least guess they are powerful in a sense that they can provide intuition and unite common properties of different fields together (sort of like categories do)
for my gain I don't think they need to be good at proving nontrivial theorems to be of use really
they are surely significant enough to be recognized by pioneers of universal algebra
like Birkhoff

sigma is signature right
and F is the set of function symbols
As and Bs are a family of algebras of some kind?
sigma algebras? 
I think he means it as in (big) Sigma algebras
to refer to the signature
I'll be honest, I've never seen algebras defined this way. A Sigma-algebra here seems to be a family of of algebras A_s for each s in S, where A_s has signature (F, ar)
correct?
I've never seen sort before
wikipedia seems to call the definition I've seen as single-sorted signatures, with single-sorted in brackets
yeah
({IN}, {+,*}, ar) where ar(+) = ar(*) = 2 I think you mean
um. The operation + and * are binary operations
meaning their arity is 2
associativity doesn't play a role here
okay so from what I see, what you're dealing with is that we can have A_1 x A_2 map to A_3 for example
and here S can have 1 x 2 -> 3 as an element for example, meaning that there will be an operation like that (I think?)
ar is a map from F to S
so it tells us how each function will behave for a Sigma-algebra
here h = (h_s)_{s in S} is a homomorphism of Sigma-algebras?
h_s are just functions I think
and we define what relations does those functions have to satisfy for h to be consider a homomorphism
you want to think as h to be a morphism from A = (A_s) to B = (B_s)
and h is this family of maps
Isn't f_A just operation on A corresponding to the function symbol f
so, presumably, h has to preserve all operations of A
blitz 
Which means that if $f_A:A_{s_1}\times ...\times A_{s_n}\to A_s$ then $$h_s(f_A(a_{s_1}, ..., a_{s_n})) = f_B(h_{s_1}(a_{s_1}), ..., h_{s_n}(a_{s_n}))$$ for $a_{n_i}\in A_{n_i}$
what's the new pfp
Blitz
well yes. I was being neglectful and denoted both just by f
h_s is not an operation
h_s is a function from A_s to B_s
yes thats it
we don't require anything else from h_s
but we do require things from h = (h_s) which means that the maps h_s have to satisfy some relations between themselves
and h here is the homomorphism
the homomorphisms will be families of functions between those underlying sets in those algebras
oh wait
I think I'm wrong
S is not just a set of indices but it contains much more
okay no I'm correct
just ar isn't a function from F to S
but from F to symbols made from S and x, -> called relational and functional symbols
what do you mean
does ar(f) only output you function symbols?
so there's no relations?
in your definition
since we're talking about Sigma-algebras that makes complete sense that no relations are included
okay
so ar(f) = (s_1, ..., s_n, s) means that f_A should be a function from A_s_1 x ... A_s_n to A_s
nothing else to it
because F is just a set of symbols
you need to know what each element f of F will do to your Sigma-algebra A = (A_s)
no
they're not functions, just symbols
sorts are your indices
they signify the amount of stuff you have in your Sigma-algebra
we have a set A_s for every sort s in S
lower index
something you denote it by
A_1, A_2, A_3, A_4, ... could be like this
or could be A_a, A_b, A_c, A_d
for S = {a, b, c, d}
no, S is the set of sorts
so a is a sort
element of S
it's not important what S is
we could have two sorts for example right
and we would probably just go S = {1, 2}
ignore this, linking myself to convo
and Sigma-algebra here would consist, among other things, of sets A_1 and A_2
sure why not
quick interruption: are ideals of a ring in direct correspondence with the submodules of an R-module
let R be the R-module
you don't see it with multi-sorted algebras
but if S has just one element, we call the algebra one-sorted
and here we could for example model the natural numbers as a set N with addition and multiplication
- would be a function symbol
why function symbols and not functions?
because you will consider many different Sigma-algebras with the same function symbols
the function itself is not as important
idk what you mean by the same thing
S is the number of your sorts which tells you how many of those A_1, A_2, A_3, ... have have basically
and F is the function symbols which tell you what sort of operations can you expect on your Sigma-algebra
S is a set yes
well sure. But it'd be pretty bad notation
If someone wanted to consider algebras with 3 sorts, they'd most likely just say S = {1, 2, 3}
or, if this is in some sort of context, they would name elements of S according to that context
I kind of hate this but in principle yes
in normal kind of universal algebra you consider just one set and operations on them
here S just means you have multiple sets and its more complicated
you have a whole structure of sets
and they can act between each other
according to your functions corresponding to your function symbols
I think it's the easier to understand the rest by looking just at the single-sorted algebras
because we don't really lose anything important to the intuition
an algebra must consists of family of sets A = (A_s) and a function f_A for every function symbol f
and this function f_A has a specified domain and codomain
and this information is contained in ar(f)
you can't write ar(f_A)
that doesn't make sense
ar is only defined on function symbols
ar(f) tells us what the domain and codomain of f_A or f_B or f_C should be
no matter if its algebra A, algebra B, algebra C, it should work the same for all of them, as long as they all have the same signature
A_+?
+_A you mean
+_A will be a function from A_1 x A_1 to A_2 then
and +_B will be a function from B_1 x B_1 to B_2
I don't see why not
those can be any sets
we need h_s because the structure of an algebra doesn't consist of just one set
it consists of a set A_s for each sort s
h_s is not a homomorphism
h_s is just a function
I need to draw you this
you can think of it as A consisting of those two parts
A_1 and A_2
1
and B also consists of two parts B_1 and B_2
the function h is a function from A to B
and it needs to map each part to its corresponding part in B
what is
nowhere
we take two Sigma-algebras
you take a family of functions
h
and now you define what it means for this family of functions h to be a homomorphism from one Sigma-algebra to another Sigma-algebra
using the sort
A_1 has sort 1
A_2 has sort 2
but actually like
A = (A_s) as a tuple
so its like, even though A_1 is not related to its sort 1
even it can happen that A_1 = A_2
but A = (A_s) is a tuple so that it tells you, the set in algebra A with sort 1 is A_1
and the set in algebra A with sort 2 is A_2
I just denoted it like this
Formally we would probably distinguish between bold A and A
bold A containing all the structure, that is function for each function symbol and A
and A = (A_s)
but its a simplification I can live with
just how group is not just a set but we treat it like one
?
give me a different question
A = (A_s)
it means that A is a tuple consisting of set A_s for each sort s in S
$$\mathbb{A} = (A, \mathcal{F}\mathbb{A}),\ A = (A_s){s\in S}$$ where each $A_s$ is a set and $\mathcal{F}_\mathbb{A}$ is the set of operations on $\mathbb{A}$
Blitz
If $\Sigma = (S, \mathcal{F}, \text{ar})$ is a signature, a $\Sigma$-algebra is a tuple $$\mathbb{A} = (A, \mathcal{F}\mathbb{A}),\ A = (A_s){s\in S}$$ where each $A_s$ is a set and $\mathcal{F}\mathbb{A} = {f\mathbb{A} : f\in \mathcal{F}}$ is the set of operations on $\mathbb{A}$, that is if $\text{ar}(f) = (s_1, s_2, ..., s_n, s)$ then $$f_\mathbb{A}:A_{s_1}\times A_{s_2}\times ... \times A_{s_n}\to A_s$$
Blitz
everything is a set in mathematics. Unless its a proper class
because I say so
well I'm using a tuple in the more general sense of the word
it doesn't have to be finite
Just treat A as a function which after inputting s outputs A_s
I'm tired
you keep on repeating the same questions
Ass
thats not how you're going to understand this
you can only understand this by analyzing every part it consists of
and understanding what works where
how to interpret what
tell me what you don't understand about this definition and I'll answer you
you should know what a signature is already
because the latter doesn't contain the information about which set corresponds to which sort
heck, what if A_1 = A_2 = ... then the latter set becomes very degenerate
by writing A_2 for example
you already know that it means the set corresponding to sort 2 but thats only because you put 2 in the lower index
so...
Maybe the notation A = (A_s) is just confusing
but its standard
I didn't define S as a set of numbers
that was an example to help you see what S could be
when I wrote this
I meant it regardless of what I said before
we spend at least an hour on this definition can we just move on
it felt like an hour for me
so a homomorphism of $\Sigma$-algebras $h:\mathbb{A}\to\mathbb{B}$ is a tuple $h = (h_s){s\in S}$ of functions $h_s:A_s\to B_s$ such that for each function symbol $f\in\mathcal{F}$ with $\text{ar}(f) = (s_1, ..., s_n, s)$ and for each $(a_1, ..., a_n)\in A{s_1}\times ...\times A_{s_n}$ we have $$h_s(f_\mathbb{A}(a_1, ..., a_n) = f_\mathbb{B}(h_{s_1}(a_1), ..., h_{s_n}(a_n))$$
Blitz
that is, h commutes with every operation f
ommiting the lower indexes we could write this as
$$h_s(f(a_1, ..., a_n) = f(h_{s_1}(a_1), ..., h_{s_n}(a_n))$$
Blitz
and now its clear that it just sorts of commutes with f
?
arity is for function symbols
it means a function which commutes with all the operations
and here we have multiple sorts so we need a function for each sort
be precise in your question
I never wrote n
oh I wrote n
n depends on f and is part of the data of arity of f
n is not fixed, no
each f can have different n
okay okay
formally you should probably write
Blitz
this should be part of the definition of signature
I mean this abuse of the language is also fine imo
this is just like, a group homomorphism
same thing
did i do these right?
yeah looks fine although you should probably clean up how the argument is presented
probably in the <- direction right
something like since gag’ = a is the definition of the centralizer in G of a, we’re done maybe
i’m bad with wording
your argument is fine
and I can follow your wording, but it can be confusing to say your prof
so for <= what I'll do is
let a in Z(G). let g in G
then by definition of Z(G) ga=ag so gag' = a
Wdym? Not all submodules of R are ideals
and then blah blah blah qed
also why was that homework not typeset in LaTeX

Submodule of what
R is its own R-submodule sure
but then an ideal I of R is also and R module
idk there was a remark abt it in my notes
studying for exam tm
Yeah its an R-module with r•x = rx
I see what you mean. I was wrong I think
yeah if M is a submodule of R then that means M is closed under subtraction and r•x is in M for r in R and x in M
Since here r•x = rx is multiplication in R this is precisely the definition of an ideal
Assuming R is commutative of course
if i have a sequence of normal subgroups $$G_0 \trianglerighteq G_1 \trianglerighteq G_2 \trianglerighteq \dots$$ where $G_i \trianglelefteq G_0$, does this mean $G_i \trianglelefteq G_j, i < j$?
maximo
we defined normal series as the sequence above where every subgp is normal to the initial group, does that imply every subgp is normal to every subgp before it?
ok now i see that it is trivial
when is the cokernel and its universal property relevant
what do you mean when
one example is in homological algebra
i guess that is vague
there's a brief section on it in my notes but it doesnt come up again i dont think
was just wondering
I can't think of any module theory specific example atm
all goood
apart from proving some random exercises
Do you like quotients
should i

If so, you have used the univ property of a cokernel
:O
what is meant by "every integral domain can be embedded in a field"? that every integral domain is a subset of some field?
something something injection map i believe
maximo are you also studying for something
i have an exam tuesday
,ti
The current time for stμ₂dying is 12:20 AM (EST) on Mon, 20/02/2023.
exam in 10 hours
oh man. good luck
having a hard time understanding this question
$cR/aR$ is cosets of $\ang{a}$ by $\ang{c}$...?
sebbb
every integral domain is a subring of a field, namely its field of fraction
walter 
is this right
for this, you know what R/aR is. Now you're just looking at the elements of the form cr + aR where r is in R
right
ok gonna try and write something up then
ok something something first iso
i just proved this actually
so im gonna assume $\ang{\frac{c}{a}}$ is the annihilator of $cR/aR$
sebbb
better than assuming it, can you prove it?
i'll try rn
just talking out thots and ideas
oh wait
so first of all since c | a, there exists an element b such that cb = a, b = a/c (not sure if this is necessarily well-defined?)
b is well-defined because multiplication by c is cancellative, because R is an integral domain.


