#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 57 of 1
Could someone help me with this? It's probably really simple, but I'm not being able to get anywhere with it.
Suppose not. Then I will contain both something in J\K and something in K\J. Add those somethings.
Im confused about normal extensions because if we have E = Q(2^(1/4)), K = Q(2^(1/2)), how is E a normal extension of K? x^4 - 2 is irreducible in F while also having a root in K but does not split into linear factors in K?
or am i blind
what's F
It’s minimal polynomial over K is x^2 - sqrt(2), which clearly splits
It = qtrt(2)
but the statement in the screenshot confuses me
is it not irreducible in K?
i meant K
yea, that's not irred over K. it factors as (x^2 - sqrt2)(x^2+sqrt2)
Clearly they don’t this theorem

It was mentioned here before so I mentioned it again as a remainder

Also the proof of this should be very similar
also to myself
how do you show p(x)= (x-1)(x-2) \cdot ... \cdot (x-n) -1 is irreducible over Z i know if its reducible and it equals a(x)b(x) where a(x),b(x) are non units, then for k between and equaling 1,n that p(k)=-1=a(k)b(k) so one needs to be 1, and the other -1.
so a and b are polynomials of degree < n
at most n/2?
one is at most n/2
can't say for both
it could be degree 1 times degree n-1 for all you know
ah
think about the constant term
(anyway, use that a polynomial of degree d is determined by d+1 values uwu)
wut
oh nvm me
o wait no, constant term works
o wait no it doesnt

oh wait it maybe does with a little more thought
Hello everyone, I have a question about the group center,
If we have a homomorphism between two groups let's say H and G, would the homomorphism send the center of H to the center of G?
have you tried to prove it?
see what happens first if f is surjective
Yeah, but I got stuck
I am physics student taking a category theory course
where did you get stuck?
there isnt much to show tbf. follow your nose through the definitions
what stopped you from proving it, and do you think that says anything about the original question?
Okay I will try that
I will try to prove it again
but before I continue would it help me answer this:
Is there are functor from the category of all groups to the category of Abelian
groups, which take group G to its center Z(G)?
My idea is if I can show that the homomorphism don't send centers to centers then there is no functor from the category of groups to the category of ab groups such F takes G to Z(G)
You also need to specify how the functor behaves on morphisms
you need to give an example. try looking at C_2 and S_3
S_3 is a set of premutation, right? what about C_2?
Ohhh that's true
Okay I think I got it now
This is actually sorta general ring theory - what do you know about the ideal (π)
ferb 
I'd suppose for the sake of contradiction it factors as p=x^2+2y^2 and ||try to boil it down to a statement of quadratic reciprocity...||
hopefully that's not too explicit of a hint
spoilered the second half I guess for good measure
(ferb wanted something for second part of (i))
unless someone else has a different approach in mind
oh
I didn't check and assumed this was problem 1 and not 14 😭 lol

why is det's emoji so cute 
AI generated it specifically to maximize cuteness levels









the polynomials over any field are never a field because there is not always an multiplicative inverse right?
yee, positive degree stuff can't be inverted
so im trying to prove "If F is a field, the ring F[x] is not a field."
i guess how do i just say that it doesnt exist
oh so i can just say the inverse and say it isnt an element of the ring?
well u cant just assert that
for all you know x^-1 = x^3
or something
tbh I have some misgivings about the Q
hmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmm
ok nvm im being silly =...=
But you do want to prove basically x^-1 cannot be equal to any polynomial
.
so use the property that when you multiply two polynomials of nonzero degree m and n the resulting polynomial is degree m+n ?
yh
Uh okay but i dont see how to show i cant be equal to any polynomial
like clearly to get an inverse for a degree m polynomial i need a degree -m polynomial
yee and degree of any non-zero polynomial is a non-negative integer
and 0 is clearly not an inverse
so like suppose you could have an inverse for x in F[x], you can write it out as a polynomial in F[x] and reach a contradiction
makes sense
to be clear use the definition of inverse
x . x^-1 = 1
deg(x) + deg(x^-1) = deg(1) = 0
1 + deg(x^-1) = 0
that makes sense
And remember this result is proven by observing the leading term
(the 'difficulty' is proving the coefficient isn't 0)
are fields integral domains
ohh sick
half those you won't use
wait but if its a degree n polynomial the nth degree term has to have a nonzero coefficient
yes, but theres no guarantee thats the case for the product
crux of the issue
you will have say abx^(n+m)
and you need to check ab is non-zero
Say F was a ring, not a field, and you had like Z_6[x]
you could have (2x + 1) . (3x + 1) = 0x^2 + ...
question
oh damn
in showing the image of R \to R3 via t \to (t,t^2,t^3) is an algebraic set
we want a zero set out of it
yep
you have two subsets of R^3. so yep to show they're equal, you would need to verify both containments
and is my subset of R^3[x,y,z] going to be the functions y-x^2 and z-x^3
that im taking the zero set of
what branch is this, looks interesting
what does that mean? 
like algebraic set is defined as
classical alg geo
right
and im saying is that subset
so what's the ring here
R^3
that's your space 
the points (t,t^2,t^3) correspond bijectively to the points (x,y,z) where x^3=z and x^2=y
so this affine variety is given by V(z-x^3,y-x^2)
so which containment is troubling you?
{(t, t^2, t^3) | t in R} * V(y-x^2, z-x^3)
let me work it out
let a \in the first one
then a is of the form (t,t^2,t^3) for t \in R
then i need to verify this point satisfies zeros of those equations?
yep
but that seems trivial no?
it is trivial!
yea lol, that how you constructed the polynomials :p
the bacmwards containment seems trickier?
they're both trivial
let a \in V(y-x^2,z-x^3)
you really should not be overthinking this
then a is a zero for both
im just making sure i get every step lol
and since its a zero for both
we get that x=x , y=x^2, z=x^3
yes
oh i dont have time rn but ill try it later
so sending [s:t] to [s^3:s^2t:st^2:t^3]
yee
yeah
oof
I'll say the answer since it's kinda surprising
lines through the origin
you need three polynomials to cut out this curve
if [x:y:z:w] are homogeneous coordinates for P^3 then you can take uhhh
xw-yz is one
this is a bit beyond my scope of knowlegge i breifly have covered projective dpaces
xz=y^2
yw=z^2
xw=yz
this is the twisted cubic in P^3, it's an example of a projective variety that isn't a complete intersection
in a course on riemann surfaces
(so it's not cut out by the expected number of polynomials)
ahh
now i see it
welp i gtg guys, gotta blow off some steam from hw and grading
thanks for all your help!
asl always!
why does that happen tho?
det hasn't seen much actual AG
and you show it's not done by 2 or fewer by some cohomology calculations?
if you use only two polynomials the resulting ideal isn't radical
e.g. you would get that like (yw-z^2)^2 is in the ideal but yw-z^2 isn't
Its strange because it’s set-wise a complete intersection, but not as a variety
early examples in AG that make you go "huh, AG is kinda hard"
lol after doing so much sheaf theory, i just wanna see some actual stuff :p
how would i go about showing the free module on a finite set X has standard basis (like standard vector basis)
how did you define "the free module on a finite set X"?
i was asked to show that the map p: SU(2) x SU(2) -> SO(4) given by p(A,B)(x) = AxB^{-1} is surjective, where x is in R^4 described as the set of 2x2 matrices of the form (a & -b* \ b & a*), a and b complex
every proof of this i've found online makes use of lie algebras, clifford algebras, or some other topic we did not discuss in my class. is there some simpler way to show this? this came from a hw set on covering spaces for an AT course
am I crazy or is this statement wrong? like for example if p=2, then there's no z in the group such that z^3 = -1
z = -1?
Np lol
Okay never mind
maybe cause it seems weird to think of the map z |-> z^3 as an isomorphism of the group
what's the inverse?
Well, write 1/3 as a 2-adic number…
Im sorry i ruined it :c
it's cool either way lol
I didnt realize you were asking sn actual question, I thought it was rhetorical
And i was trying to be silly, acting like “oh of course this is so obvious its not strange at all” but while goving a strange answer
I was playing innocent to lure them into the trap
You played me too haha
Ok bed time now gn
Okay figured it out, it was just some elementary number theory lol
I can't believe I had a crisis about how to find the cube root of -1
solving cubics is no joke
I was thinking about this
But I think it led me to miss the obvious argument lol
oh lol whoops
well, once someone tells you -1, you can always "guess and check" and evaluate (-1)^3 to see if it does become -1
hahahaha
I'm guessing you did the x^3+1 =(x+1)(x^2-x+1) factorization then? heh
or some kinda thing else, idk I gotta sleep too, past my bedtime
Let $R$ be a ring. Let $S = {1, 2, \dots, n}$. let $R \langle S \rangle$ be the all mappings from $2^S$ to $R$. let $a, b \in R \langle S \rangle$. We defines $(a \otimes b)(C) = \sum_{A \subseteq S, B \subseteq S, A \cup B = C} a(A) b(B)$.
Let $a \in R \langle S \rangle$. consider a multi-variable formal power sierie ring $R_1 = R[[x_1,x_2,\dots,x_n]]/(x_i^2-x_i)$. Because $R[[x]]/(x^2-x) \simeq R^2$, so $R[[x_1,x_2,\dots,x_n]] \simeq R^{2^n}$.
let $\phi : R \langle S \rangle \to R1$ which $\phi(a) = \sum{X \subseteq S} a(X) \prod_{e \in X} x_e$. Then we have proved $R \langle S \rangle \simeq R^{2^n}$.(Addition is add each other, Multi is $\otimes$)
Is it right and how to transform from $R \langle S \rangle$ to $R^{2^n}$?
1048576Prog
1048576Prog
$R^(2^n)$.
1048576Prog
$R^{(2^n)}$.
1048576Prog
so ur trying to show that the set of all functions on R from R to itself is isomorphic to the ring of formal power series?
dont think this is true
1048576Prog
then $R \langle S \rangle$ is a mapping from (the power set of $S$) to $R$.
1048576Prog
$R \to R$
idk man take R = Z
let f be in an element in R<S>
suppose f is invertible
then f must be 1 or -1
cuz those are the only units in Z
but let sum(a_nx^n) where a_n is in Z be an element in Z[[x]]
oh so
any unit would have f^2 = 1
but not every unit in Z[[x]] would have this multiplicative property
so they arent isomormorphic?
does this work as a counterexample lmao
so take S={1}
hopefully this works as counterexample sorry i couldnt follow ur proof
but yea ig ik what u were thinking cuz like
its easy to think of them the same but as in like element-wise
waitt i multiplied wrong
i thought Z[[x]] would have the normal multiplication
not what u defined lmfao
yea literally nvm everything i said
what is X ? when evaluating phi(a)?
a hint would be nice
i was told to check n = ((p-1)/2)!, but idk where it's coming from and seems like cheating
It comes from Wilson’s theorem if you’ve seen it
ik wilson's theorem states that p is prime iff (p-1)! is congruent to -1 mod p
but (p-1)! may not be a perfect square
But if p = 1 mod 4… then consider ||the products of the first (p-1)/2 and second (p-1)/2||
They're trying to show that the adjoint representation matrix is given in terms of the structure constants. But how did they go from the first line to the second line?
what's the context of this
If $g \in G$ for a Lie group $G$ and $T_a$ are the generators for the corresponding Lie algebra, then the matrix elements of the adjoint representation d(g) is given by
$$gT_ag^{-1} = T_b d^b_a(g)$$
Abrar
So they apply this for a group element very close to the identity so that $g \approx 1 + i \epsilon^aT_a$
Abrar
So my question is how does one get $d^c_b(1 + i \epsilon^aT_a) = \delta_b^c + i \epsilon^a d^c_b(T_a)$ ?
Abrar
A factorial cannot be a perfect power of an integer
proof? 
Bertrand’s postulate + consider prime factorisation
,w bertrand's postulate
sad i thought it was gonna be summing like that
Yeah, Bertrand's postulate
Also, a nice paper extending this result further:
No product of consecutive integers is a perfect power
$\sum_{X \subseteq S} a(X) \sum_{e \in X} x_e$
1048576Prog
Counterexample: 1! = 1³
lol
Another counterexample: 3! = 6^1
I think "perfect power" usually means with an exponent of at least 2.
knew it also
integer usually means not 1
for (a) and (b) its not possible right?
(c) For this one can I say that for any word x over S, if y is the inverse of it its gonna cancel out (so for example x=abc then y=c^-1b^-1a^-1
I think (b) is possible
how ?
i got cb
also is there a trick in doing this?
cz im bruteforcing it sortof
and am i heading in the right direction with (c)?
Yes, i would just be clear by what you mean by “inverse”.
Youre basically asked to prove that every element has an inverse
So saying “yes, the inverse of an element is its inverse” isnt really a proof that inverses exist
ah i see
But you are correct in writing down the inverse of abc, so i would just try to do that in more generality
For (b), there are two words in R which are just straight up inside your given word; remove them
The fact that bc^(-1) is in R means that you can replace every b with c, or vice versa
Use that to reduce to only two symbols; it should be easier to see then
thanks! will give that a second try. just one more question about c
because i am not entirely sure how i would write it in words. an inverse of ab would be b^-1a^-1 right? not a^-1b^-1. So saying inverse implies that
Im suggesting that you should avoid using the word “inverse” in your proof
And instead describe in general how to find the “inverse” of a given word
And then prove that the concatenation can be reduced to the empty word
in the Note he said that a can be thought of as a reflection and b as a rotation. So if we can view it geometrically then any transformation can be undone
That note was only for that one example
so then my proof would be something like, given the words in x, let the words in y be the reverse process of x. By concatenating the two we would get an empty word
I still think that’s lacking
Idk what “reverse process” means. These are words, there is no process or action in them
Write it explicitly. Let $s_1^{\sigma_1} s_2^{\sigma_2} \cdots s_n^{\sigma_n}$ be a word. What will the “inverse” word be?
Buncho Bananas
then Y: sn^(sigman), sn-1^(sigman-1), ...., s1^(sigmna1). and for every si in X and s(n-i) in y, sigmai != sigman-i. By concatenating x and y we get an empty set
right idea but bad notation
X is not a set
also, $\sigma_i$ is a definite element of {1, -1}
Buncho Bananas
it's not a variable
like, maybe $s_1 = a$, $s_2 = b$, $\sigma_1 = 1$, and $\sigma_2 = -1$
then $x = ab^{-1}$
so then your y would be $ba^{-1}$, or $s_2^{-\sigma_2} s_1^{-\sigma_1}$
Buncho Bananas
are u saying that sigma = 1 always? so then we use -sigma as thats -1?
no, sigma can be 1 or -1
oh ok i see
but if $\sigma_1 = 1$ then $-\sigma_1 = -1$
Buncho Bananas
but how would i mention that the sigmas have to be different signs for s if i cant use for an arbitrary si in X?
I do agree x isnt a set
like this
the "inverse" of $s_1^{\sigma_1} s_2^{\sigma_2}$ is $s_2^{-\sigma_2} s_1^{-\sigma_1}$
Buncho Bananas
but x can have a finite number of s. so i should be more general right?
yes
so is saying let y be s1(sigma1)s2(sigma2)....si(sigmai) is si(-sigmai)....s1(-sigma1) sufficient?
where 0<i<n
they used n here
okay, then you should use n as well; the i is not necessary
oh alright. I was using i instead of n to imply that the word doesnt need to contain n letters
but n already implies that
also just one more question about a separate exercise. was just wondering if i understood the question.
Exercise 1.4.4 Show that addition and multiplication mod n are well defined operations. That is, show that the operations do not depend on the choice of the representative from the equivalence classes mod n.
Are they saying that no matter which elements we take in the equivalence class, we would still get the same remainder?
yes. more precisely, if a = b mod n, and if c = d mod n, then a + c = b + d mod n, and ac = bd mod n
u mean a congruent b and c congruent d then a+c is congruent to b+d right?
how ios that different from what i wrote
was asking
I thought it was apparent that perfect power means exponent≥2
i dont have a triple bar equals sign on my key board
yeah got it. was just wondering if i understood it right
ok thanks!
And base ≥2
ok np haha sorry i was just confused for a sec
i managed to reduce it to cb and then to cc but dont see a pattern from here
what steps did you take to get to that point
first i got rid of baa and bc-1 and we remain with cbca then i get cc-1 at the end so (cbcacc-1) this gets rid of ac and thus (cbcc-1) and then cb
from cbca you can use bc^-1 to switch b to c and vice versa
and you get bcba which is an element of R
like i said earlier my strategy is to recognize that since bc^{-1} is in R we can freely interchange b and c
so let's just rewrite all c's as b's so we only have two lettesr
now our word is bbaabbabb^{-1} which we just reduce to bbaabba. now our new set R is {ab, baa, bbba}. now I also recognize that since ab is in R, we can replace a with b^{-1} and b with a^{-1}, so this lets us convert everything down to a single letter
bbaabba becomes a^(-1)a^(-1)aaa^(-1)a^(-1)a which just simplifies to a, and then we feel like we get stuck... but looking back at R our two remaining relations (elements of R) are a^{-1}aa and a^{-1}a^{-1}a^{-1}a, which just simplify to a and aa
therefore we can replace a with e and we are done
(e = empyt word)
i am confused on how u got bcba. I dont see where i can add the empty words to get there (i think the only empty words we can add are bb^-1 cc^-1 etc right?)
or wait. we can actually add any word in R
this is why i was confused
thanks! this makes sense now
but how would we realize if its not possible to get an empty word?
it's hard
like, proven that there is no algorithm which can answer this question for a general word with a general set R
ther eare some cases you can do by hand though
like for part (a)
recognize that no matter what substitution you do, you will always keep the same parity of number of a's
like, if you start with an even number of a's then no matter what you do you will always have an even number of a's
so if you start with an odd number of a's, it's impossible to get it down to 0
if P and Q are two sylow subgroups of G of different orders, is PQ a subgroup of G? is it a normal subgroup of G? id like to say yes but im not confident
P and Q would have trivial intersection, but you would also need P and Q to commute for PQ to form a subgroup
im trying to show that a group of order 385 is not necessarily abelian. my idea was to use the sylow subgroups P_5 and P_11
if (P_5)(P_11) do not commute, then we're done. if they do, then (P_5)(P_11) is a subgroup of order 5*11. since 11 \equiv 1 mod 5, then there are 2 isomoprhism classes, one of which is a non-abelian group (showed this in class)
so there necessarily exist noncommutative elements
im pretty weak when it comes to sylow subgroups so any pointers would be appreciated
sure, so 385 = 5 * 7 * 11. Can you count the number of Sylow subgroups?
3
well
the 7 and 11 subgroups are unique
i haven't said anything about the 5 subgroups yet
Right, P_7 and P_11 are unique. This implies they are normal, right?
yes
So in particular, the product P_7 P_11 is a normal subgroup of G, call it N
makes sense
Now let P_5 be any 5-Sylow subgroup. By order considerations, P_5 has trivial intersection with N
Furthermore, P_5 N = G
So we can deduce that G is a semidirect product of P_5 and N
haha i think this may be beyond what im asked to do. i don't recall going over semidirect products
yeah i actually found a proof of this online using semidirect products
Ok I'll think about a different way to show it then. This is a fun problem though
does my "proof" above make sense?
taking the "if |G| = pq, p = 1 mod q, then there is 2 isomorphism classes" statement for granted
ah i see
That seems correct to me
Cool proof
Really the semidirect product proof is the same underlying idea - it comes down to the fact that there'll be a non-trivial homomorphism from Z/5 -> Aut(Z/11) = Z/10
But if you haven't learned semidirect products then there's no need to worry
i do recall going over automorphisms and i imagine we'll talk about semidirect products soon enough
thank you anyways!
when is the algebraic closure of a field equal to its separable closure
The separable closure is the subfield of the algebraic closure containing the separable elements. We say a field is perfect if every algebraic element over the field is separable
Fields of characteristic 0 and finite fields are perfect
I don't see the connection between a perfect field and this
The separable closure is algebraically closed when the field is perfect
a field is perfect if every algebraic extension is separable by definition. this is equivalent to "char= 0" or "char=p and frobenius being an iso"
hey im supposed to show the coordinate axis in R3 form an algebraic set
what are the coordinate axis in R3 is is (x,0,0),(0,y,0),(0,0,z)
ig
can u check it using subgroup criteria
I said yes cuz the identity exists, inverses always exist because the inverse of the identity is the identity, and I don’t think you can make a non-identity permutation out of identity permutations but I’m second guessing
there is a tiny bit more to being a subgroup than containing the identity and inverses
you're missing one condition to check
theirs closure
(you're trying to prove P or not P, which is always true
)
you cant make a non-identity permutation just operating with identity permutations
so it should be closed
right?
david i think you misunderstand what the set is. If you view S_n as the group of permutations of {1, .., n}, this is asking you to consider the set of permutations that fix n, the element in the set. It's not asking about the permutations that fix every element of {1, .., n}, in which case you'd be correct that the only element is the identity
what's an example of a non algebraically closed field with char p where frobenius isn't an iso?
Happy to help, I can see why you might have been confused
standard example is F_p(x)
youre right reading the problem again its those n that get fixed not all n
Thanks for your support
walter said finite fields are perfect though? or am I misunderstanding
that's not finite
but the set that fixes every. n is also a subgroup
oh lmao I didn't see the (x)

how does frobenius fail to be an iso here? well definedness or bijectivity?
is it ${(x,0,0),(0,y,0),(0,0,z): x,y,z \in \Bbb{R}}$
the set of points in R^3 which are in one of the coordinate axes
the image would be F_p(x^p)
MyMathYourMath
yus
ok cool
thats what i thought just wanted to make sure i have the right definition before attemtping the problem lol
cuz x doesn't necessarily have a pth root
necessarily
Hey all, I'm trying to understand the futurama theorem through an exercise. However, I am unsure about my proof in c because I did not use the fact that all cycles can be written as product of disjoint cycles, which is given as a hint in the exercise. Could someone check out my solution and perhaps point out where this fact should be used?
\subsection*{(c)}
Define $\tau := (yz)\rho$. This gives $$\tau\pi^* = id,$$ as $$\tau\pi^* = \begin{bmatrix}
1 & \ldots & k & \ldots & n & y &z\
1 & \ldots & k & \ldots & n & y &z\
\end{bmatrix}$$ Note that, $(yz)$ is a distinct transposition and that the transpositions used to define $\rho$ are also all distinct. Furthermore, all transpositions in $\tau$ either contain $x$ or $z$. Hence, we have proven the theorem.
can you say "look at xyz=0"
FrankF
the futurama thm?? what
See the screenshot attached, it contains a description of the theorem
it's a tv series
in one of the episodes the scientist does some group theory on a blackboard
for this
the x axis is the zero set V(y,z), for y axis its thezero set V(x,z) and for z axis its V(x,y) right
yes
so by coordinate axis they mean the subspace of R3:
MyMathYourMath
bad set builder notation but yes
the union of the x-axis, the y-axis, and the z-axis
how would you set build that
ah
${(x,0,0): x \in \Bbb{R}} \cup {(0,y,0): y\in \Bbb{R}} \cup {(0,0,z): z \in \Bbb{R}}$
MyMathYourMath
is the algebraic set of the union the union of the algebraic sets? lol
is $V(\bigcup_{i=1}^n S_i)= \bigcup_{i=1}^n V(S_i)$
MyMathYourMath
nope
elements in the left are sent to zero by every single element of each S_i, but elements in the right are only sent to zero by every single element in one of the S_i's
the correct equation is V(union S_i) = intersection V(S_i) (and this holds for arbitrarily many S_i)
the finite union of algebraic sets V(S_i) is indeed another algebraic set, but i think you should think a bit more on how to show that this is the case
(it might be helpful to assume that the S_i's are ideals in the polynomial ring)
ahhhhhhh
If you have more restrictions, would you expect more points to satisfy them?
no
Well this is what the formula says!
something something inclusion reversing
so V(union)=intersection(V)
as i wrote
Watch how to say and pronounce "nullstellensatz"!
Listen our video to compare your pronunciation!
The video is produced by yeta.io.
possibly relevant
I hate these text-to-speech 'how to pronounce' videos, they're too often wrong
i fucking love this video
lmao
no it's 120% accurate
I can confirm
its pronounced the N theorem
how would i compute $V(y,z) \cap V(x,z) \cap V(x,y)$ is it all sums of all variables
MyMathYourMath
I'd visualize it
@uneven folio do u also pronounce it nullstullensutz
he'd better not
i bet he would.
let R be a ring with an infinite sequence of ideals I_1, I_2, I_3,... where each I_k \subseteq I_{k+1}. show the union of all I_k is an ideal of R
is this as trivial as it looks?
if you're struggling with visualising maybe try writing out the actual definition of each variety using set notation
but I'm pretty sure it's the origin lol
tldr me how V(...) is defined
is this a new question or your original problem?
V(y, z) = {points st y = 0, z = 0} ?
V(I) = {x \in C^n such that f(x) = 0 for all f in I}
yes
I'm assuming we're over C here
sick
all points in R3
then yh surely x=y=z=0 is intersection?
same problem showing coordinate axis form algebraic set
then you've definitely gone wrong somewhere
so im bascially computing the intersection of the V(S)
im given a union
and im taking V of that union
.
V(y, z) cup V(x, z) cup V(x, y)
yes yes
cause each of those is the axis
and the coordinate axis is thier union
your right
as in the ideal w 0 only
lol
I was always taught by convention to denote the trivial ideal as (0)
hmm hmm
ok, looks like it usually is one
there are so many ifs and donts in ring thry tho
if you contain 1 youre the whole ring
just because rng commutativity or not
thank you both
well it could have been a counterexample for one of my hw problems
or can u
ideals are subrings
but there was another condition that took care of it
do u get the whole ring
another not strictly alebgra question.
does the union of intervals (1/n, 1] for n in N equal [0,1] or (0,1]?
stronger than subbrings they absorb everything from the ring
it must be (0,1] right?
(0, 1]
(0, 1]
thank you
(0,1]
(0,1] because 0 is not in any of those intervals.
yes
Which interval would 0 be in?
isnt it equiv to subring if u consider rng or something silly
good point, i think so since you have no 1 in a rng
so if we say $B_i \subseteq B_{i+1}$, and A = $\bigcup_{n\in\mathbb{N}} B_n$, then $A=B_n$ for some $n\in\mathbb{N}$, right?
maximo
this seems a lot like the ACC condition
oh wait no thats a single one gets stablized
not the union
you're right i don't think it's true
let me rephrase
if x in A, then we can find a B_n such that x in B_n
Yes
sure.
great, thank you
unsure what they want in part b. is saying f(a, b) = a-b enough?
suppose
(f o g) o h \neq f o (g o h)
in general
then figure out how f^n could be defined
defined such that these 2 arent equal right?
because if id plug in f(a, b) lets say or f(b, a) id get same output
no?
where do you see it being stated f is a function taking in 2 parameters
f : X -> X
f^n is well defined because function composition is associative
(f o f) o f = f o (f o f)
in general it doesnt matter how we bracket f o f o ... o f
it will be the same function
i see
If they werent, f^n wouldnt be well defined because we wouldnt know what bracketing is meant
in which case you would need to specify
What's an example of a local ring that is not a DVR? Surprisingly, not much comes up when googling.
elements x with |x|<=1 of the algebraic closure of Q_p
local, but no longer discrete valuation
Null shtell en zatz
So if we take this as an example and we would instead define f: C->D g: B->C and h: D->B
(fog)oh would be defined as B->B
fo(goh) would be defined as D->D
right?
but for the exercise its just f and X->X so im not sure how that would be defined in this case. I would still get X->X when composing
Z_p is totally a DVR
Oh
Alg closure

Oog
forget function composition and take real exponentiation
tldr, it wants you to decide what 3^^3 is for example
3^(3^3) vs (3^3)^3
it wants you to come up with a definition that leaves no room for ambiguity
for 3^^n = 3^...^3 n times
You define possible ways on how the bracketing should happen
we can be a bit sharper and only looking at only infinitely many ramified extensions, and also I think this kind of trick in general will work for any local field, like complete on the X-adic topology on R[[X]] by adding all the nth roots of X
ahh i see.. so if we were to number the functions so lets say f1of2of3o...ofn (so first function, second, third, up until nth) we can say that we can place the brackets such that f1(f2(f3(...(fn))) or (f1o(f2o(f3o(o(...(fn)))))
so in this case the exp example would always be 3^(3^(3..(.^3)))
This is not abstract algebra
it belongs in help channels at best possibly
but without having taking economics u cant answer these
k
Maybe an economics question ought to be asked in an economics server, not a math server.
Prove that a cyclic group with only one generator can have at most 2 elements
No! You can't make me!
Sorry I'm busy proving that if it has two generators, then it has 3 elements xoxox
maybe even 4
I got 6, what am I doing wrong?
more research is needed
I'm supposing G has 3 elements, e a b, and hope to find a contradiction
what
I don't think that'll get you very far
Oh you think it's easier to do it directly with cases
your question is missing context
No, the question is complete
ah lol I misread the question
Well clearly obviously G has at least 1 element because all groups do
I thought it meant like "G is cyclic and generated by 1 element, prove that it has order 2" Lol
Ohhh haha, lol.
im positively confused
look at the multiplicative group of Z/nZ
oh nvm figured it
i couldnt stop thinking this
Is Z/nZ just Z_n?
yes
its the other way round really lol
Z_n is usually defined to be Z/nZ
Theres a special function that counts the number of generators a cyclic group has, but im guessing u havent seen
this is overkill

Oh yeah, I'm just using bare basics no theorems developed yet really
Well I mean Z/2Z has 2 elements, Z/3Z has 3 elements, so I guess Z would have 1 element but that's obviously not right
Take Z/8Z, list us the generators it has
Okay thats easy, I can do that hang on
Then do the same for Z/6Z
And see if you can guess why most cyclics have more than 1
anyway, then ||notice that it consists of all elements coprime to n|| after that ||you can just use the fact that any number > 2 will have 2 numbers coprime to it|| so ||n has to be 2||
||proof of the fact: for n > 2 we have that -1 \neq 1 in Z/nZ but (-1)^2 = 1 therefore -1 is an element of order 2 in Z/nZ^\times, by lagrange |Z/nZ^\times| = phi(n) will therefore be even. thus we get that phi(n) can't be 1||
The second of those spoiler blocks is basically the fact to be proved.
The generators of Z/8Z are 1,2,3,5 and 7
2 isn't a generator
2
Oh yeah, it's not
so back to #groups-rings-fields message
how is $V(y,z) \cup V(x,z) \cup V(x,y)=V((x^2+y^2)(y^2+z^2)(x^2+z^2))$
MyMathYourMath
both are 0
oh thats cool
but how do you go from both are zero to discovering to write it at x^2+y^2
cool way to do union and intersects
What I'm seeing is that 1 and n-1 seem to always be generators for Z/nZ
^ its a 'trick'
thinking how to and/or equations
into a single equation
to or, you multiply and use zero product property
Yes.
to and, you do the squaring and sum trick
dont write n-1
think of it as -1
(because it is, and its simpler)
can you prove this fact?
In the context of cyclic groups I'd say, think of it as g^-1.
By induction maybe?
no, consider their order
think this
if order(g) = n
what is order(g^-1)
I mean, if I could prove g and g^-1 are always generators for any group of order n>=3 then I think the result would follow immediately
this generalises for all n
But G = {e} has only one generator
it actually has none
depending on your definition of generator though
in any case e^-1 would also be a generator, if u take e to be one
===
I suppose e is a generator yes, just checked
Anyways, to show what you want, you should consider this
What is order(g)? Like ... for Z/6Z the order(2) = 3 because 2 generates the set {0, 2, 4} ?
whats tour question
order of 2 in Z_6 plus is 3 yes
also in Z_6 times
but z is cyclic
and has 1 generator
and has infinite number of elements..
Is -1 a generator too under addition?
In any case I guess this is only for finite groups
It should say that though in the statement of the problem
say order(g) = n, what does that actually mean?
Well like we showed for Z/6Z order(2) is just the order of the subgroup generated by 2 which is {0, 2, 4} so order(2) = 3
it has 2 generators
what the other people are hinting at is what happens if you take g^n
Take it where, out to dinner?
^
its not this
thats not the definition.
non-generator elements also have an 'order'
well <a>=<-a> so in general if we have another one like <b>=<a> then we know b=a^n
but also we know that every element of <a> is an integer power of b
so b^q=a^2
and b^p=a^3
so we have a^pn=a^2 and a^qn=a^3
so we know that p=2 and n=1 or p=1 and n=2
but then if n=2 then q isnt an integer
so therefore n≠2
giving us that n=1
ig i did forget about the negative options
which would allow for the other option
which is n=-1
how would i begin here? i know that if m|n, then m generates a cyclic subgroup containing n/m elements, but im not entirely sure where to start on proving that x^m = e has exactly m solutions. does it have something to do with the cardinality of <m>?
wdym <m>
m is an integer
begin with experimenting
look at Z_whatever
and do stuff
@white oxide
nvm I got it
okay gj
is a group action of G onto itself by conjugation transitive if and only if G is simple?
it seems to me that there can't be a normal subgroup
the action is transitive iff G is trivial
is it because of the identity element?
ah okay
yeah i was wondering because conjugation of the identity element always yields the identity so i didn't see how it was possible. but now i see that that if it's trivial of course it works
thank you @agile burrow 🙂
happy to help 🙂
Can someone explain the Euclidean algorithm to me? Maybe I'm just tired, or maybe I'm stupid. I don't understand where the numbers are coming from.
How do you get q?
Finding the gcd of two positive integers
The objective of the Euclidean algorithm is finding the gcd, yeah
But where did they get 5 from?
this mod that
Where does q come from?
I don't know modular arithmetic
I just got an abstract algebra textbook and started reading it
I'm on page 5
So... assume I know nothing
I have a question about the adjoint representation of simple Lie groups. Suppose you have a simple Lie group and two fixed generators x and y. Is it always possible to a group element g such that g^-1 x g = y?
Not always possible
the set of all group elements that conjugate x to y is not necessarily non-empty . there may not exist a g that satisfies the equation g^-1 x g = y
,
under what conditions is it possible to find a g?
we obviously can't have x and y belong to different sub-algebras, but what else?
- x and y are part of a Cartan subalgebra of the Lie algebra of the group.
- x and y are part of a set of root vectors of the Lie algebra.
For pt 1, it’s cus the elements of a cartan subalgebra are simultaneously diagonalizable, and hence can be put in a common diagonal form by conjugation
For pt 2, it’s cus the elements of a root space are connected by the action of the weyl group, which is a discrete group of symmetries of the Lie algebra
ah right this is a good point. we clearly need x and y to be similar
but I don't understand how points 1 and 2 aren't contradictory. the cartan elements have zero weight, but in part two you are saying they have non-zero weight?
maybe there is a difference in terminology - I study physics not math so I apologize in advance
Just giving 2 conditions , not connected
It depends on the structure of the Lie algebra and the choice of generators
Cus there r other conditions / techniques that apply to specific Lie groups or Lie algebras
when you say x and y are part of the set of root vectors of the Lie algebra, presumably you don't mean non-zero root, right?
that is what is confusing me. cartan elements have zero root vector
Yes u r right
ok, maybe I should ask my direct question
I am studying the conformal group, and I am curious if it possible to conjugate a dilation into a translation
if D = dilation and P = translation, can we find a g such that g D g^-1 = P
No
As a dilation scales distances and angles and a translation preserves distances and angles, not possible to conjugate a dilation into a translation by an element of the Euclidean group
But
dilation preserves angles i believe
it is possible to conjugate a dilation into a translation by an element of a larger group such as the group of affine transformations or the group of projective transformations
That’s why they asked for the conformal group
I think there is a miscommunication
yeah I'm not talking about the Euclidean group but the conformal group
no problem
how can we see that it is possible to find a conjugation in the conformal group?
I'm new to this and your ability to just know this is magic to me hehe
also I should clarify
here, D and P are generators, not the group elements
and I want to find a group element g such that g D g^-1 = P
I don’t think this is true? You have 2x2 matrices mod scaling. Dilations will look like lambda & 0 \ 0 & 1 while translations will look like 1 & mu \ 0 & 1. Unless lambda = 1 first has distinct eigenvalues while second has the same eigenvalues (and this is preserved under conjugation). When lambda = 1 then clearly you can only make it work with mu = 0 but that’s just saying the identity is both a dilation and translation
Or am I being dumb
D and P are differential operators acting on functions
how do you know it is possible?
Yeah I am being dumb anyways even in my interpretation of the question I mixed up the projective linear and conformal group
We consider the following dilation and translation transformations:
Dilation: D(z) = kz, where k is a positive real number and z is a complex number
Translation: T(w) = w + a, where a is a complex number
To conjugate the dilation D(z) by the translation T(w), we can apply the conjugation formula
T^-1 D T(z) = T^-1(D(T(z))) = T^-1(k(T(z))) = T^-1(kz + ka) = (kz + ka - a)/(k^2) ,
where I have used the fact that the inverse of a translation T(w) is given by T^-1(w) = w - a
This transformation is the composition of a scaling by k^(-2) and a translation by the complex number -ka/(k^2)
Thus I have conjugated the dilation by the translation to obtain a composite transformation that includes both a scaling and a translation
Since the conformal group includes both dilations and translations as special cases of conformal transformations, it is possible to conjugate a dilation into a translation by an element of the conformal group.
This may result in other conformal transformations such as rotations and inversions
Why are you conjugating by a translation
this isn't what I'm asking
I'm saying D and P are GENERATORS
D = x partial_x
P(a) = partial_x
the exponentials of these are the dilation and translation group elements
exp(a D) f(x) = f((1+a) x)
exp(a P) f(x) = f(x + a)
I am asking if it is possible to find a group element g in the conformal group that takes D to P
g^-1 D g = P
my question is if it is possible to find such a g
So I don’t know much about Lie groups (nothing in fact) and I might be saying something dumb but don’t g and D live in completely different objects?
Like isn’t D an element of a Lie algebra and g an element of the group?
What does it mean to conjugate them
Aight if it makes sense I’ll leave it to people who actually know about the subject then
this is a standard notion in Lie groups. It is called the adjoint representation of the group
the Lie group acting on its own Lie algebra through conjugation
you may prove that this takes the Lie algebra to itself, is linear, and preserves group structure
therefore it is a representation
the adjoint rep
sadge, i feel like this entire discussion was just miscommunication
I think you communicated fine on your end but though I can’t speak for the other person we probably just don’t know enough about Lie groups to help
So yeah just wait for someone else or ask in #diff-geo-diff-top
oh really? is that an appropriate channel?
I think so
Shouldn't the union of conjugacy classes of G be G itself? What am I missing here?
it doesnt say the union of all the conjugacy classes
just that H is the union of some of the conjugacy classes
So according to the theorem arbitrary union of conjugacy classes would also form a normal subgroup?
well not necessarily, such a union doesnt have to be a subgroup
the theorem says if a subgroup is such a union then its normal
But the theorem says iff
right but H is a subgroup of G is assumed above right
Ohh I see
So if H is a subgroup and it can be written as a union of conjugacy classes then it's normal
Is that right?
yep
Thanks a lot
If by trivial you mean the singleton set containing the identity element in G, then the both claims of yours are correct if you replace equality with isomorphism.
G/0=G
why sully
1 is standard notation for the trivial group
because fractions
Nope

you can be the first one
(please don't)
Do not do this
why 
This is often used for set minus
yes is there any other reason
Does there need to be? 

I'm calling the police
,, R = R + 0
bahaha


Do not advertise your question in irrelevant channels
omg did they spam like 10 channels
🤷 I didn't bother to check
hausdorff
the ideal generated by p and i-a would have elements of the form (c+id)p + (i-a)(m+in)
the real part is pc - n - am, and the imaginary part is pd + m - an
pd + m - an = 0 says naught
or am i hallucinating lol
$G_{1}$ , $G_{2}$, T are finite groups. Does $G_{1} \oplus T \cong G_{2} \oplus T$ imply $G_{1} \cong G_{2}$ ?
Cogwheels of the mind
can't u construct the isomorphism explicitly
G_1 times T to G_2 times T not necessarily maps T to T
When they are not restricted to be finite groups, counterexample can be easily constructed that’s why I am curious about finite group case
ahh, injectivity might fail
surjectivity won't
but can u choose the map in such a way that injectivity doesn't fail
is seven asking for the cardinality of the cyclic subgroup generated by tao^2?
hmm
pd+m-an=0-> m=an mod p-> am=a^2n=-n mod p, pc-n-am=0 mod p, answering his question
so for finite groups oplus is equivalent to cartesian product
what if we like
take two groups a,b with the same order but different structure
and a third group c, such that the resulting group is always cyclic
why are you working mod p
nvm what I thought of here wouldn't work
I was thinking like

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