#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 50 of 1
Im not sure there's a notation everyone agrees with tho. From my experience that was the case at least (that people didn't agree)
yeah I am surprised
I've also seen $\mathcal M^A_B(T)$ and things like this
Boytjie
I have also seen $\text{Rep}_{A,B}(T)$, which I guess is pretty explicit
Croqueta
det
me like this
What's a good abstract algebra book?
Awesome thank you
bet none of u seen this beautiful notation
if ur mathematics isn't basis independent u suck ngl
I wish I could go back to a time where I didn't know this was a thing
truly the evil of mankind is unending
lol it actually grew on me, definitely looks hideous at first though
I now think this is the best for me
which book is this? terrible
knapp - basic algebra
and as I said I personally like it, makes some important results look simpler imo
why do you need notation for that >.<
you don't need notation to express matrices w.r.t. bases?
nope
because base changing is a common thing in Linear algebra
you can use words
good luck with that
^
you can do a lot of stuff basis free
so no need to worry about base change
a matrix is just a linear map k^n --> k^m with standard basis
good luck teaching linear algebra without it. just try.
I think applied ppl would literally punch you in the face rn if they could
LOL
.<
I wouldn't tho

or would I
arigato

anyway, i was trying to say to think more diagramatically instead of notationally
for example if you have a matrix A : k^n --> k^m and you decide to change basis, on both left and right via the invertible matrices P : k^n --> k^n and Q : k^m --> k^m, then the new matrix would be Q^-1 A P, and you don't need to remember where that inverse will go you if you have the diagram in your head
everyone knows in linear algebra and diff geo you eventually transition to basis-free and category theory for the theoretical stuff
but that means nothing when teaching someone before that
and when you need to actually calculate things you have to specify a basis
saying just have a diagram in your head is unhelpful when visualizing that diagram is like one of the major roadblocks to someone learning this stuff
I struggled a lot with change of basis stuff when I was first learning linalg and using better notation unironically helped me a lot
yep, good notation ensures correctness and tells you how to calculate correctly for students
Tv_k for k-th column, that kind of thing
i got overpowerd >.<
can't be having that, shoot back
okie lemme say my perspective a little differently... this "notational calculus" can be useful to some, but i've always sort of forgotten the details whenever i worked with weird notations. what you call [v]_V, i would just think of as the preimage of v under the map k^n --> your vector space with which sends the standard basis to V. ofc that notation is good, but just the notation without a diagram is far less useful
the equation you wrote would be replaced by this diagram
det
as long as you instinctively know what I mean without explanation that's good enough
does the second isomorphism theorem for groups allow for some kind of "unique factorization"
like you can chop off quotients in any order, or something
Maybe try to more precisely say what you mean?
I think you use the 2nd isomorphism theorem to prove Jordan Holder which is maybe in some really really creative way a statement about “unique factorization”
But it’s hard for me to see what you really mean by that
isn't the whole "chopping off quotients" thing the 4th isomorphism theorem?
In group theory, the correspondence theorem (also the lattice theorem, and variously and ambiguously the third and fourth isomorphism theorem) states that if
N
{\displaystyle N}
is a normal subgroup of a group
G
{\displaystyle G}
, then there exists a bijection ...
If we have a ring R, when is a principal ideal (a) for a in R, the whole ring R ((a)=R) ?
recall the defn of (a)
Is it only then the case, when a = 1?
no
(a) = {ax | x in R} right?
when ax= x for all x in R?
(a) in R and R in (a), showing both inclusions
ah wait, if a is a unite, then it should also hold orght?
so we need necessary and sufficient conditions for R subset (a)
thats better
so try to prove a is a unit is equivalent to this
I was thinking in terms of a mapping, you want to justify an injection from R to (a)
since u already know (a) subset R
let x be in R, than ax in (a), for a unity, this means that there exists an a' s.t. a'a = 1, so we get that x = a'ax which is contained in (a), because a' is in R and ax is in (a). So it just follows by definition of ideal
I don't know if it's right, but I'd do it like this
u show this
a is a unit <=> 1 in (a) <=> (a) = R
that makes a lot of sense now, thanks a lot

is Z2 an integral domain?
how do I show that f is a bijection, does it suffice to show it is an injection and surjection?
i.e. $f(x) = f(y) \implies \frac{1}{x} = \frac{1}{y}$ and if we multiply by $xy$ we get $x = y$
isomorphism
err we can't use that notation
but notice it is injective due to closure and existence of inverses
wdym?
you know how bijectivity works yeah
ok then injectivity follows from a property of inverses
what about surjectivity
which one?
surjectivity is even easier
yup
(xy)^-1 = y^-1 x^-1?
uniqueness of inverses
yep
but how does injectivity follow from that
you know how to prove injectivity?
not sure
I recommend reviewing the definition
f(x) = f(y) implies x = y
yup
isomorphism
can I multiply the equation by $x$ on the right and then $y$ on the left
isomorphism
think about it carefully
the inverse of x is x
and the inverse of y is y
hence x = y
right?
your left and right multiplication also works was what I meant but yeah
gotcah
what about surjectivity
I'm going to leave that one to you since I am walking rn 
ok tyvm
why not
because its just not good practice
yes
.
stick to one notation which is ^-1
Z/kZ is a field/integral domain iff k is prime
to denote inverse
-x 
1/x is ex^-1
where e is identity
there is no / operation basically
in a group there is only one operation defined
why was this sullied
-x is the common notation for inverses in abelian groups
$x^{-1} x = y^{-1} x \implies 1 = y^{-1} x$
isomorphism
then $y1 = y y^{-1} x$
isomorphism
right? @tender wharf
this is the approach yes
xx^-1y = xy^-1y
f ∘ f= id
I’m trying to do this question, but I’m confused on how to define an action of D_12 on the units mod53
is D_12 order 12 or 24 here
You don't need to actually know the action to answer the question
But yeah "the action" is bad writing if you don't say what it is
actually yeah, it doesn't matter, lol
It has order 24
Hmm okay. Do you have a hint for how to approach this question then?
orbit-stabiliser
h
does anyone know when singular value decompositions of matrices over noncommutative rings exist?

I can also require skew fields instead of rings if that helps
ALright lez do this
Sloth King Daminark
That's an example
Rank of the system is the size of I, a gallery is a sequence of adjacent chambers (no consecutive repetition)
Subgallery is a subsequence of consecutive elements
The gallery has type i_1,...,i_n if c_{k-1} is i_k-adjacent to c_k
And if each i_k \in J, we say it's a J-gallery
Finally, we say C is J-connected if any two chambers can be joined by a J-gallery
J-residues are connected components
Panels are rank 1 residues
Meaning we're taking a bunch of chambers which are i-connected for some i (and are the i-connected component)
So let's look at our example for a sec
Sloth King Daminark
I thought chambers were the elements of C = G
C = G/B in this case
ah silly me
All good
So, thing to note about this example is
If gB is i-adjacent to hB is i-adjacent to kB
Well gB is i-adjacent to kB
So if we can find an i-gallery starting from gB and ending at kB, then they're just i-adjacent
isn't that always the case since each i determines a partition of C
Oh wait tru
So yeah in that case in general, i-panels are just parts of the partition
Good catch
and you can talk about panels for any subset of I ?
Well those are called resides
Also my internet on my computer died sadge
Back
So i-panels in the G/B example are what? gB and hB are equivalent if gP_i = hP_i. So we index equivalence classes by cosets of P_i
Now let's consider higher rank
What's an {i,j}-residue?
Yeah okay so wait I think the same logic from earlier should be able to say that if x and y are connected by a type J gallery, they are connected by a type J gallery of length |J|?
At least let's see for |J| = 2
So let's say we have a gallery c_0 ... c_n
Actually yeah this logic doesn't work
All I can really say is that if I have a path of shit that's all i-adjacent I can compress it
Good to know
Dogshit internet
I'm actually gonna take potato and throw him at the WiFi if they don't get this shit taken care of
any hints for this?
"order" makes me think that Z_4 x Z_8 mod <(0 2)> is a group
idk if the notation is universal, but i think its the set of all left cosets of <(0,2)> by elements in z4 x z8
Yes, it is a group. Is it unclear that this is the case?
Are you in the context of modules? Every module is, in particular, an Abelian group.
Right. Well, it does indeed turn out that when you mod by certain subgroups, you get groups.
If you have not seen quotient groups yet, this question really shouldn't have been posed to you
oh we did touch on quotient groups actually
So in fact it should be clear that this is a group.
oh i see
does it make sense to talk about order of an element if the set isnt a group?
No.
That is one element of the quotient group.
I strongly suggest you go back to your notes and read about quotient groups.
yh i will, our lecturer told us we didnt need anything to do with normal groups so thats why i thought i could do it
There is a good reason that you don't need to worry about normal subgroups. Maybe you should think about why.
Also, there is no such thing as a normal group – only a normal subgroup of a group.
ahhh ok i need ot look back through my notes
slightly unrelated question, if i want to partition a group G into left cosets of H (supbg of G)
say i manage to do it with k left cosets
must k divide |G| ?
Do you recall the statement of the Theorem of Lagrange?
yeahh i was playing around with the idea of cosets. lagrange says |H| divides |G|
oh?
Lagrange in full states that $|H|\cdot[G \colon H] = |G|$, where $[G \colon H]$ is the number of cosets of $H$ in $G$, aka the index of $H$ in $G$.
Boytjie
we didnt do this but i think i get why
It should be clear if you inspect the proof.
yeah if we partition G into a union of k left cosets (they are distinct because they are each an equivalence class) ?
then look at |G|, and get in the end |G| = k|H|
and observe k is [G:H]
I am a bit confused on how to show $A \cong \oplus_{i=1}^n S_i$ as a left $A$-module, where A is a ring of $n\times n$ matrices over a field $k$, and $S_i$ is the i-th column vector of A.
Eso
Try 2x2 case
how would one think of the vectors as being direct
the notation is kinda weird... A is a ring and not a matrix
S_i are just k^n as vector spaces over k
Being direct? Wdym
ig i see the problem now
r * [s1 ... sn] = [r*s1 ... r*sn] which is why it's direct
you can write the elements of the direct sum as tuples with the column vectors i suppose?
yep, more "internally", given a matrix M, you can write it as a sum of matrices M_i where the i-th cloumn of M_i is same as M, but rest other columns are 0
so different i's don't interact with each other
why do they need to introduce the part in blue? i don't see how it plays in the proof of case II
so in words they're saying that a^some integer s is equal to a^the remainder of s when it is divided by n
im still confused about how that applies
also why is a^0 = e, a, a^2, a^3? is it becuase they're all less than n so they have to equal a^0? but that doesn't make any sense, because how can, say, a^2 and a^3 be distinct if they both equal a^0
a^2 = a^0 = a^3
therefore a^2 and a^3 cannot be distinct
this means
(a^0 = e), a, a^2, a^3
so like
we have a^0, a^1, a^2, a^3
but we know that a^0 = e
this doesn't say anything about a^1, a^2, a^3, ..., etc tho
wait how does it not say anything about them?
because if we have a^0 = e, a, a^2 ... a^n-1
then if a^0 = e
we have a^0 = a^2 = e
because a^0 = e
ohhhhh that's what you mean
the notation they used was kind of confusing
okay that makes sense
this is common notation
but why did they introduce the part in blue?
no idea lol (no idea as in I cba reading all of it)
this proof looks more complicated than it actually is
Hi any math wizards here
what's up
So I thought I chose a Basic math class. I was wrong. Now i'm stuck
are you talking about abstract algebra or hs algebra
bro thought abstract algebra was algebra
well what topic are you having difficulties with
or rather what is your question about?
Erm equations and relation with x and y
that's #prealg-and-algebra
this is for uni level algebra (groups, ring, modules, fields) lol
Yea i had to choose another class in computer science and i chose math
No computer science
can you like state your exact question and I can tell you where it belongs
okay
Consider the equation x^2+(y-2)^2=1 and the relation “(x, y) R (0, 2)”, where R is read as “has distance 1 of”.
For example, “(0, 3) R (0, 2)”, that is, “(0, 3) has distance 1 of (0, 2)”. This relation can also be read as “the point (x, y) is on the circle of radius 1 with center (0, 2)”. In other words: “(x, y) satisfies this equation x^2+(y-2)^2=1 , if and only if, (x, y) R (0, 2)”.
Does this equation determine a relation between x and y? Can the variable x can be seen as a function of y, like x=g(y)? Can the variable y be expressed as a function of x, like y= h(x)? If these are possible, then what will be the domains for these two functions? What are the graphs of these two functions?
Are there points of the coordinate axes that relate to (0, 2) by means of R?
lol I thought you meant like "solve for y in y - 2 = x"
I think this belongs in #proofs-and-logic
oh okay
it kinda reminds me of discrete math
Do you get it?
#proofs-and-logic and #discrete-math share a lot of topics, so it can go in either
i believe its just showing that for any integer you choose for the exponent of a, it will always lie between 0 and n-1, because one can just apply the division algorithm to this number, s, finding the multiples, say m, of the divisor n and a remainder r, which lies between 0 and n-1. Then since s can be written as mn+r the mn part vanishes in the exponent (its an exponent of the identity).
How "big" should an algebraically closed field be in order to accommodate transcendental extensions, i.e. if you have a field K and an algebraically closed field C containing it, are there any conditions on C that would imply it contains all extensions of K? E.g. as far as I can tell, all extensions of Q (not just algebraic ones) embed into C.
it can't
you can make a field as large as you want
for example take X to be a set of variables such that |X| = |P(C)| the cardinality of power set of C. then K(X) has cardinality larger than that of C, so no way you could embed it into C
I need to find a
partition of Z into 10 infinite sets, and for each partition, what is the
corresponding equivalence relation?
so I know there's a theorem that states let P be a partition of a nonempty set A. Then there exists an equivalence relation R on A such that P is the set of equivalence classes determined by R
My guess is, make the partition of the set that is 10k and another set 10k+1,...,10k+9 for an integer k.
how can I find this corresponding relation?
when are two integers going to be in the same partition?
If you have a partition P of a set A, you therefore have a function f : A -> P sending each element to its part. Then this partition is defined uniquely by the equivalence relation a ~ b iff f(a) = f(b) 
This is half a joke. If you want to 'find the equivalence relation,' you're going to have to be more specific. If you just want a nice description of it, you're going to have to be creative.
Anyway, I am going to become the joker.

if those integers are either 10k, 10k+1 ... or 10k+9 for integer k
See, I was right
hm?
Because I'm annoyed that this isn't algebra-y enough, I'll mention that this is basically the first isomorphism theorem for sets. If you substitute sets for algebras with a particular signature, this (with some interpretation) is exactly the 1st iso
interesting, but I don't know what any of that means at this point ;P
unfortunately.
I vaguely know what an isomorphism is tho
I am saying this for other people
What I am replying to is relevant to your question
so my understanding of what you said is given a partition of a set A there exists a mapping from A to P (partition) and it is uniquely defined by some equivalence relation aRb iff f(a)=f(b)
I didn't get the very last part
aRb iff f(a)=f(b)
If you have a more specific question than 'I don't get it' I might be able to help
basically what @rustic crown said?
If not I suggest you try and prove what I say here
why does the equivalence relation have to be f(a)=f(b)
do you know of any elementary examples so i can imagine it better?
An equivalence relation is a set.
Yeah
I can possibly describe it in several different ways, but as a set, these ways will all be 'equal' in that sense.
So indeed, the equvalence relation 'has to be f(a) = (b)'
Ok
what did det say
But as I said here...
you said this
So true det
Ok gotcha
oh okie
@coral spindle so is there not a way where we can define a partition on a nonempty set A and from then on deduce a unqiue relation R on a nonempy set A?
so like boytjie says, you ofc told me the equivalence relation, but you have to be a little creative to write it "nicely"
to be very specific, it is the set R = {(a,b) in A^2 | f(a) = f(b)}
So you are asking "what is the equivalence relation" but what you really mean to ask is "what is a nice description of this equivalence relation"
And I am replying
"be creative"
Ok I get it now ;P
that's not a polynomial >.<
Doesn't look like a polynomial to me...
silly ferb
That's better
Hey here's a funny hint
We call such functions 'even'; those functions such that f(x) = f(-x)
okie, and if it was an ideal then x^2 * g would also be in the set for any g in Z[x]
Nvm det's idea is more straightforward
whats so funny about this hint, seems like your jokes are worst than your explanations
It's not funny haha, it's funny hmmm
It’s a subgroup tho 🗿
you could show abstractly that every ideal in Z[i] is principal, and then it would be just a consequence of that
or you can compute the generator
gcd
if (1+5i, 5+i) = (d) then d divides both 1+5i and 5+i
Euclid's algorithm, what a banger
so d divides gcd(1+5i, 5+i)
have you seen how to calculate gcd's so far?
that works
yee looks like it
There is no algorithm in general that will give you an example given a ring
You're going to have to be creative!
lol
Hint: x and y don't mix nicely
I'm a stuck record the joker
Shit, I knew this would be the answer even as I typed it out...
Thanks
okie so you're trying to give me an ideal which isn't generated by a single element
so the description of it should involve at least 2 generators
else it's principal already
what are the two nicest elements in R[x, y] which might give you a nice ideal
but that's still a single polynomial
you need to give to polynomials that don't mix properly
F
it's already 1:41 am
how time so quick

Show that nonzero primes in a PID are maximal
Then exhibit a nonzero non-maximal prime ideal
because this would give an example of an ideal whcih isn't principal >.<

assume it is principal
What does it mean for two lie algebra to be orthogonal?
(idk, maybe [u, v] = 0 for u in one and v in other? this assumes both are sub-lie-algs of a single thing)
idk, i shouldn't >.<
what can d be
can it be x
can it be y
what can it be
in order for b_1 and b_2 to exist
xyb_1=x
What is b_1
There’s no y^(-1) in R[x,y]
it not polynomial
Positive powers only
it a rational function
(non-negative
)
you have the same problem
sowwy
okie maybe i'll give one hint and leave
show that if f divides g then x-degree of f is smaller or equal to that of g
and same for y-degree
no it must contain x and y
x-degree of f := largest power of x appearing in f
good luck uwu

is sum of two integers an integer?
🙈
well think about what we need to show
.<
no
i don't have a solid background on category.
Is it semantly wrong to call the field of rationals initial?
i have seen a demonstration that it's initial in the fields of characteristic 0.
you don’t know I is an ideal yet
yea, it's not initial in the category Fld, but it is initial in the subcategory Fld_0
nvm I misread
thank you
(if Q was initial, then you would need to have a map Q --> F_2)
thats what i thought
the category of fields is weird, you never have maps between two fields of different chars
why it's so boring to revisit analysis after you get in love with algebra 👀
hehe 
yep, that's because J was a subset and I is an ideal, so closed under addition, and that sum of integers is an integer
you could look into more algbraic versions of it also
last time i asked to recomendations for books here people were kinda rude with me
if it doesn't bother you can you pls send me a dm any names of good books like that?
which give the same J
i dont know if I know any books specifically for that, except lawvere's which I havent read
but ive been looking stuff up online recently about smooth topoi and the like
lawvere is on the recomendations of a national book im reading
sorry for interrupting you guys, have fun.
okie i think you should spend more time with getting comfortable with the definitions... think about these for a few days >.<
i shouldn't answer to you more >.<
he wrote a lot of stuff about trying to make categorical style physics, it seems
wait what
altho i don't agree it's necessary, the book im reading tries to contextualize polynomials and completeness (of real line) as a motivation to dedekind results
couldnt that just mean they need to pick a better form of arrow?
yee
i feel more confortable that way
that won't be called the category of fields then... we want it as the full subcategory of CRing
(det is tired, det will go, bai bai)
CRing(e)
that's me
Guys, could someone guide me in this exercise?
Hint 0: ||Try to find it for n=3,4,5, and notice a pattern||
Hint 1: ||try to prove n-1 is such a k||
Step 1: ||(n-1)^2 = n^2 - 2n + 1 = 1 mod n. So if n-1 is a unit, we are done.||
Step 2: ||n-1 is coprime to n. so it's invertible|| (do you know why?)
so we are done.
the pattern with respect to U(n)?
a pattern of elements that have order 2 (you just need to find one of them for each Z_n)
then, if you picked the right ones with the right pattern, you have units and are done
(don't overthink it - brute forcing the n=3,4,5 examples should give you a somewhat obvious way to find the k)
I was looking at U(n) and I should have looked at the Z first ok I got it I found the pattern
answering your question in step 2 no, I don't know.
ahh, ok
so, do you see why if they're not coprime, it's not a unit (as in, the converse)?
nop

❤️
let's try some examples
first, the converse is easier
namely, show that not coprime -> not invertible
example: 3 in Z_6
since 3*2=0, 3 cannot be invertible (why?)
(that last why is a ring property)
Ok, Ok I understand
if k is not coprime with n, you can find an m ≠ 1 so that n=ma and k=mb for some a, b. then ka=bn=0 mod n. but then a is strictly less than n and so you can find it in the ring Z_n and so k*a=0 so k is not invertible
now, let's go backwards. try to reverse that argument
okay okay I understand, but I don't know much about abstract algebra I'm just getting started.
How exactly do I do this? Find all the elements of the subgroup ⟨(1, 2)(3, 4)(5, 6), (1, 3)(2, 5)(4, 6)⟩ of Sym(6)
if it's not invertible, then there exists a in Z_n such that ka = 0 mod n so there exists a b such that ka=bn. so, since both k and a are strictly less than n, ka < n*n so b is less than n. so then n's factors are either in k or in a. To not be coprime, the non-1 factors must all be in a, but that implies a=n which contradicts, so n shares a non-1 factor with k and we have that they are not coprime
so, we proved that in Z_n, invertible aka being a unit is equivalent to being coprime with n
oh, wait
How do I show that n-1 such k?
I can think of something about U(n) over the mcd(n-1,n).
n-1 is coprime with n and squaring gets only a term of 1 that's not a multiple of n
my head is going to explode from so much I have to study, I understand what you are going to I remember my previous course of modulo number theory and it makes me think a little about what you are explaining but it is difficult I have just been studying analysis in several variables and I have a lot to digest, I will tell you that I understand but not at that level, I can only say that I know the basics.
now well I am studying algebra to change the subject hehe
I don't want to disappoint you because you have explained me very well 😄
lemme quickly come up with why there must be an a such that ka=0 mod n.
at what level?
i haven't looked all that much into algebra
yes, lots to digest. best thing to do is to somehow find the time to digest
well you know you have to be studying, finding out a lot and simplifying your doubts and problems until you get it, maybe I still have a long way to go, but I will remember every word you tell me because everything is useful to me.
Awuita i would say another tip would be to look for it in other domains. What about Z? Eventually you might stumble upon that (-1) satisfies this, so maybe it also will in Z_n
that's equivalent to looking at n-1
yep
injectivity of the map that sends x to kx implies 0k != ky for all nonzero y. then k must be a zero divisor. likewise if k is not a zero divisor then it must be injective as otherwise kx=ky without x=y implies k(x-y)=0 but then k is a zero divisor which contradicts. so injectivity of this map is equivalent to being a non-zero divisor
suppose k is a zero divisor, then kx = 0 for a non-zero x, but if k has an inverse then x=0 so k is not invertible
now, suppose k is not invertible, then the map that sends x to kx is not surjective nor injective, but then we have zero divisor

sorry
now, we do know invertible <-> not zero divisor
so we know is a unit <-> coprime
so we know the first line of this is true, and the rest follows
sorry for the ring around the rosie
i appear to have forgotten about subtraction, which is really why i took so long
thanks bro
❤️
Let $\Gamma$ be a quiver, $k$ a field, and a two-sided ideal $I \subseteq k\Gamma$ such that $\exists m \geq 2 \colon R_{\Gamma}^m \subseteq I \subseteq R_{\Gamma}^2$ where $R_{\Gamma}$ is the arrow ideal of $k\Gamma$. Let M be a $k\Gamma/I$-module and assume it's simple.
Choosing a maximal path $p$ such that $pm \neq 0$ for some $m \in M$, and a vertex $i \in \Gamma_0$ such that $e_im \neq 0$, where $m_i := e_im$ I get stuck with trying to show that the subset ${am_i | a \in k}$ of $M$ is a $k\Gamma/I$-module.
Eso
(to show submodule^ of M) And thus this would imply the dimension would have to be 1 as its non-empty and a submodule of a simple.
my head almost exploded reading this
a bit of a silly question, but say if we have a bijective function f from A to B. are we allowed to write f(A) = B?
what do you think?
yes
yes. why?
because the whole set A gets mapped to the whole set B, or in particular each element in A is mapped to a unique element in B
i'm not so sure of the reason for the notation behind it though
it makes sense
i can see sets mapping to sets
the reason i ask is because
well let me post it
f(A) means the set of all things in B that get mapped to by f. bijections are, in particular, surjections, so everything in B is mapped to by something in A. so B = f(A)
also, this has nothing to do with abstract algebra
right
let me get to the reason
so im trying to prove 42, and my whole idea was since phi is an isomorphism it is clearly bijective
so we have f(G) = (G')
since G is cyclic there exists a in G such that <a> = G
or in other words, for an integer n, a^n = G
no
no?
that's not what <a> = G means
think about how that is the same thing as what i wrote
oh wait ur right
ok so that method doesnt work
maybe i could take some arbitrary g in G
and since it is equal to a^n for some n
do smoething with that
the only issue is how i would express something of the sort like
a^-n
because my whole idea was take some arbitrary g in G
you assume that G is cyclic and that you have an isomorphism of G with another group G'. then you need to show that G' is cyclic. i think you need to carefully review all of the definitions
Alright let's make some more progress
I did figure out the whole thing about J-residues of G/B
So let's continue
So let me give one more example which I thought about on my own a bit but didn't quite explain here
The chambers/singletons here are the faces of the octahedron
I'll draw it why not
1-panels are {a,b}, {c,d}, {e,f}, {g,h}
2-panels are {a,d}, {b,c}, {e,h}, {g,f}
3-panels are {a,e}, {b,f}, {c,g}, {d,h}
{1,2}-residues are {a,b,c,d} and {e,f,g,h}
{1,3}-residues are {a,b,e,f} and {d,h,c,g}
{2,3}-residues are {a,d,e,h} and {b,c,g,f}
And the whole thing is connected
Now the thing is
The panels just correspond to edges. 1-panels are the edges labeled with a 1
The {i,j}-residues are vertices
So using the face terminology
This makes sense
That cleared shit up for me a good bit
New lemma just dropped
Okay what does that mean?
So R is some residue of cotype J. So yeah starting from c in R, R is just anything you can get to be a sequence where everything is I\J-adjacent
Well, relax the condition to I\K
You'll still get a residue, it'll be of cotype I\K
And obv shit being i-adjacent for i in I\K is less restrictive than for i in I\J since K subset J
So this includes R
Keep getting distracted....
But yeah uniqueness is because we're fixing a residue and we have established which elements it contains. Well in particular, if S_1 and S_2 are faces of R of cotypes K_1 and K_2
Then S_1 and S_2 have the same face of cotype K_1 cap K_2
This is just thinking about uniqueness a bit
What is this all about? 
There's only one face of R of cotype K_1 cap K_2. Well, S_1 has a (unique) face of that cotype, so that'll be it. So does S_2. gg
Croqueta: chamber systems and buildings, eventually those built from p-adic groups
So let's look at the octahedron for a sec
Let's say R = {a,b}, which is of cotype {2,3}. Now let's say K = {3}. Look at faces of cotype {3}, meaning type {1,2}. They're {a,b,c,d} and {e,f,g,h}. The one which contains R is {a,b,c,d}
Reset notation, let R = {b}, which is an empty-residue (aka a chamber). S_1 = {a,b}, cotype {2,3}. S_2 = {b,c}, cotype {1,3}. They have the same face of cotype {3}, namely {a,b,c,d}
Last thing I'll do for now before going to sleep
Intuitively a simplicial complex is, you have a bunch of vertices, you put a bunch together as simplices
Vertices are simplices, and if you give me a simplex, every subset of the vertices is another simplex
Sloth King Daminark
Which sends the right vertices to the right places
And yeah I'm out of steam good night
Can someone explain to me, why there exist only p-1 automotphism on Zp?
as an additive group
because any map of abelian groups Z/pZ --> Z/pZ is given by multiplication by some element in Z/pZ
now when is this going to be invertible?
when x^-1 is in Zp I guess?
yep
but this should be the multiplicative inverse right?
If I define f(a)= x*a for a in Zp arbitrary
right, so which elements in Z/p have a multiplicative inverse?
all except 0 I guess(?)
okay that makes sense
but why are the only possible automorphisms defined by multiplication with an element?
couldn't there be something more
all homomorphisms are like that
if f : Z/n --> Z/n is a map of abelian groups, then it's given by multiplication with f(1)
because f(m) = f(1 + 1 + ... + 1) = f(1) + ... + f(1) = m * f(1)
allright, that makes much more sense, I get it, thanks det
sorry, was kinda easy as a question hahaha
the same reasoning shows that Aut(Z/nZ) = U(n) the group of units in Z/nZ
issokie uwu
im still wondering about this
what's e_i?
e_i is the trivial path on vertex i. So multiplying by e_i from the left on any arrow/path which ends at vertex i will be the same path
oh okie
okie i have a question
sup
@pliant forge so you know that the arrow ideal in kGamma/I is R_Gamma/I which is nilpotent by assumption, so it has to lie in the jacobson radical, so if M is a simple kGamma/I module then it's also a simple (kGamma/I)/(R_Gamma/I) module
but this is just a direct sum of k for each vertex in Gamma
i have not been introduced to rad
does this not imply that simples are one-dimensional
oh i just mean that the arrow ideal will kill the simple module
because it is nilpotent
say J is that ideal, then JM = 0 otherwise by simplicity JM= M and so by induction 0 = 0M = J^mM = M
you told me that I contains R_Gamma^m for some large enough m
so what i'm saying is that M = km = km_i
which is ofc a module over kGamma/I
does that make sense?
but the main idea is that the nilpotent thing will kill M
because of simplicity
wait im trynna see why that implies its 1 dim
oh i can say that directly
ok sure
so only things that can act non-trivially are e_j
I can show the inequality using some rank arguments but I'm not sure how to prove we can always achieve the lower bound dimh = 2n - rank(A)
also confused that they say they usually define $\mathfrak{h} := \bigoplus_{i=1}^{n} \mathbb{C}\alpha_{i}^{\vee}$ as surely then $\mathfrak{h}$ would just always have dimension $n$
ΣAC
(i know that eventually when looking at cartan matrices they have max rank and so the dimension of the cartan subalgebra will be n but clearly this is not true for a generic matrix?)
does someone have a nice intutition of free abelian groups and free groups?
I can't really visualize it
ig think of the universal property
Haven't heard about free group for long time
I think that I forget what was it about
The finite products of the elements of a group or something like that
U mean on Cayley Diagraph?
no
(All vector spaces are free)
Just diagram
The arrows thing
Im lying on my bed rn so lazy to provide the diagram myself
Maybe someone else will, or maybe try googling
yea
think of like
F is faithful to G such as in like
if X tries to hook up
he rides the function to come beat her up
or what
shee*
wtf
Mmh I think Im not following you
Sorry, I'm no the job right now, so I get busy sometimes
Fk it was a misunderstanding XD I was talking about "Free torsion and torsion groups"
But for i see, free group is very similar to what I was thinking
are very similar*
Basically u have a group G, then a set X Wich is a subset of G where the finite products of the elements of X can generate G(I'm not sure about it) or some group A. And I think A will be the smallest group containing X
Yeah, like a basis for a vector space
Then X is a generating set
how do you find the elements of this group, and how do you knon when it's finite?
in general proving a group is finite given its represented this way is a hard problem
here the condition yxyx^5 = 1 should remind you of a semi-direct product
indeed, this group should be a semi-direct product of Z_8 and Z_2
its elements should be e, x, ..., x^7, y, yx, ..., yx^7
how to multiply two elements of this group should be given by the condition xy = yx^3
well.... I wouldn't really say it explains what the free group is
it's you that the free group with generators X is a group with X as their elements and all the expression that can be formed from them, so that no relations are imposed on it
my problem is that I don't even know how to approach this problem, like I found the identity and everything, but I can never come to a conclusion
Like, to understand what the free group is just try to look at what the free group with 2 generators x, y is
you have expressions of the form $$x^{n_1}\cdot y^{m_1}\cdot ...\cdot x^{n_k}\cdot y^{m_k}$$ there
Blitz
where n_i, m_i are integers
and multiplication is a bit like concatenation of strings
just that the terms when combined with each other can disappear like x^-1 multipled with x
I came to the conclusion that I have to generator, but afterwards they prove somthing, I don't even know how, by using the normalizer
and I don't understand why it's necessary to do so
you don't understand german right?
wait, what are we talking about
lol, no
this is the solution of the exercise
and at one point they prove that <x> is normal in G
I don't think they are saying much there
damn gurl
just analyzing the group G
it probably helps to construct this group at the end of this
to show that it really does have 16 elements
for me though, it follows from construction of semi-direct product
x^8 = 1 is basically Z/8Z
y^2 = 1 is Z/2Z
and f(y)(x) = yxy = x^3 is the automorphism in the definition of semi-direct product
defined on the generators
like in the definition of outer semi-direct product
this is equivalent to det(A) not congruent to zero mod p right?
yes
A is invertible iff det(A) =/= 0
works for any field
(weird notation btw, why mention mod p when you already write elements of A are from F_p?)
awesome tysm
i think because A is an integer matrix, not Fp.
guys, how would you write Z[1/2] down as a set?
{n/2^k : n, k integers}
Fp is iso to Zp
true but i mean $A\in\bZ^{n\times n}$ rather than $\bZ_p^{n\times n}$
nilpotent nix
ah
Yeah it makes sense then
Operation "mod p" is a ring homomorphism though so that det(A mod p) = det(A) mod p
Since det is defined using addition and multiplication
So no issue here
Spamakin🎷
How do you get it? And does it always work if we have fractions?
I cannot help at all, but what in the fuck is an algebraic circuit over a finite field lol
the automorphisms on $\bZ^n$ are given by matrices $A\in\bZ^{n\times n}$ with $\det(A)=\pm1$ right?
nilpotent nix
yeah. okay cool thanks
Z[1/2] is the set of polynomials in 1/2 with integer coefficients, so it's the set of numbers a_1 + a_2/2 + ... + a_n/2^(n-1)
where a_i are integers
but number like that is already of the form k/2^n
all you need to see is that it equals (2^(n-1)a_1 + 2^(n-2)a_2 + ... + a_n)/2^(n-1)
nominator being an integer
My question is only about the hint which is all algebra
But a algebraic circuit is a circuit whose inputs are field constants and variables and whose gatss are addition and multiplication (typically) and the output is the computation of a polynomial
Why do have then hat Z[i] ={a+ib | a, b in Z}
Super cool stuff
Da fuq is a circuit ☠️
Is it because i to a n power is just +-1 or +-i
Like
because powers of i are 1, i, -1, -i, 1, i, ...
A circuit that you’d draw in some physics class?
You opened me a world
Pretty much
I can explain more after my class but can you confirm my sanity check about the hint plz
so like if you have a polynomial in i then the sum of even powers time integer will be again an integer, and sum of odd powers time integer will be an integer times i
so it's of the form a+ib for some a, b integers
We usually just call this GL_n(Z), by the way
yes it's in Fp
This is so easy, why the freak does my prof not explain anything
obligatory I think
To elaborate: since for square matrices any commutative ring you can always compute the adjugate matrix, and A adj(A) = det(A) I, it's clear that an inverse matrix exists iff det(A) is a unit in R. An indeed, the only units in R = Z are \pm 1.
I have the urge to say skill issue but this is #groups-rings-fields...
Well, I should say that one direction of this iff is clear; the other isn't.
(the adjugate matrix is exactly what gives us the other direction)
is this a numerics thing? or a cryptography thing?
about the hint - yes
it's basically saying that as a field extension, a finite extension of a finite field is generated by a single element
i.e. F_p^k = F_p(\gamma)
Algebraic Complexity Theory
ah
no worries
Let M be a module over some ring and consider the set S_n={N | N is a submodule of M with |M/N|=n}. Is |S_n| always finite for all naturals n ?
I guess it is, but its not obvious to me 
Never have thought about this
hell no
Consider the module Prod F_2
infinite
then take the submodule which is 0 in one factor and F_2 everywhere else
each has quotient F_2
Of course, Prod F_2 is a non-noetherian module
Could there be a noetherian module for which S_n is still finite? Maybe you can produce a counterexample to this :)
In fact in some ways the generic example of a module over a ring gives you a counterexample... hint hint
Oh wait mb, the example that I was thinking of was incorrect!
I think you can do exactly what Chmonkey did but over Z
Not quite, because that's only for all n but not one specific n, right
I made this mistake
take infinite product of Z, and quotient out by infinite product of Z, except at the i-th summand you take nZ
Right and this is still not a Noetherian module
I will go back to thinking about whether or not there is a Noetherian module for which S_n isn't finite
this is actually so fun
I think these two things gives that S_n is finite for finitely generated free modules over Z
not entirely sure, Im tired rn
or like R PID instead of Z I guess
I agree, I'm trying to come up with a general argument though
I strongly suspect it will have to be finite if the module is noetherian
it would be something nice to figure out 
I was also thinking about imposing random condiitons on the numbers S_n, like what if S_n=1 for all n. This looks very much like Z
That's a cool idea
I think I have the beginning of an argument
Let's say we have two submodules N and N' of M, such that |M/N| = |M/N'| = n.
Now I want to inspect N + N'.
If N + N' = M, then since M / N = (N + N') / N is isomorphic to N' / (N \cap N'), well, we must conclude that |N'/N \cap N'| = n
This is a bit bothersome.
Well, I'll give it some more thought later
Ok I am presume you know what a graph is, and specifically a directed acyclic graph (it's what it sounds like)
So an algebraic circuit is a DAG with a single sink (the output), sinks labelled with field constants or variables, and all the intermediate nodes are operation gates (typically addition and multiplication) where the incoming edges are the inputs and the outgoing edges are the result of that gate. Since it's a DAG you can reuse computations as needed which is cool. If you want to remove this, then your graph is actually a tree and we call this a formula.
This model of computation leads to alot of super interesting questions. For example studying why computing the permanent is hard versus why computing the determinant is easy.
This sits in a field of study called algebraic complexity theory
I am given the set ${\epsilon, \zeta, \tau, \mu }\subseteq S_4$ with composition, where $\epsilon$ is the identity and
$$\zeta = \left(
\begin{array}{cccc}
1 & 2 & 3 & 4\
2 & 1 & 3 & 4
\end{array}
\right),
\tau = \left(
\begin{array}{cccc}
1 & 2 & 3 & 4\
3 & 2 & 1 & 4
\end{array}
\right),
\mu = \left(
\begin{array}{cccc}
1 & 2 & 3 & 4\
4 & 2 & 3 & 1
\end{array}
\right)
$$
and asked to determine if it is a group. Am I correct in saying it is not since it is not closed under composition. For example $\zeta\tau$ is not in the set
JacobHofer
you should write this as cycle notation 
but yeah you're correct
we have zeta = (12) and tau = (13) so zeta o tau = (213)
which is none of those
Okay, that's what I figured. I am not familiar with cycle notation, this was just the notation we have been given
cycle notation is (abcdefgh...)
e.g. here zeta = (12)
2 gets send to 1 and 1 gets send to 2
(213) means 2 gets send to 1, 1 gets send to 3, 3 gets send to 2
No! Elements may not repeat in cycle notation
zeta * zeta is the identity element. Usually people just write this as 1, or e, in cycle notation
Okay, gotcha. Again, I've never seen that style of notation before
So why would one write zeta * tau = (213) and not just (23)?
For the same reason one would write 1 + 2 = 3 and not 1 + 2 = 4... those are completely different things
(213) is not equal to (23)
Oh wait, yeah I just can't read. (213) implies 2 goes to 1 and 1 goes to 3, (23) implies 2 just goes immediately to 3

that shit does sound cool
Heavily debating studying it for grad school
what do you mean by "reuse computations" though?
1 sec
Left is a circuit, right is a formula
Note that in the circuit, I reuse for computation of xy to compute xy^2
But in the formula I have to compute xy twice
🎄 🎅
Christmas
Sloth King Daminark
So in my octahedron example from yesterday, ${a,b,c,d}$ and ${e,f,g,h}$ have cotype ${3}$, while ${a,b,e,f}$ and ${d,h,c,g}$ have cotype ${2}$. Well, the residues of cotype ${2,3}$ are ${a,b}$, ${c,d}$, ${e,f}$, and ${g,h}$. So ${a,b}$ is gonna be an edge connecting the vertex of cotype ${3}$ containing ${a,b}$, namely ${a,b,c,d}$, with the vertex of cotype ${2}$ containing it, namely ${a,b,e,f}$. Which makes sense by the picture here
Sloth King Daminark
More generally
If you give me a residue R of cotype {i_1,...,i_r}
That'll be an (r-1)-simplex
and here we cope
no u
But yeah so, that residue has a unique face of cotype {i_1,...,i_{r-1}}
That face has an associated (r-2)-simplex already built
So yeah we just identify it all
someone could give me a hint
if a and b are elements of G, then so is ab
(what does the condition on G say now?)
that aa=e then if a=a^{-1} belongs to the group so that if
aa=(aa)^{-1}
aa=a^{-1}a^{-1}
aa=aa
therefore it is an abelian group
it would be nice if you called the other a a b
because powers of a would commute in any group
a^m * a^n = a^(m+n) = a^(n+m) = a^n * a^m
Continuing
They give an example where the geometric realization of a chamber system isn't that of a simplicial complex
Let's work things out
The way they organized it we know the panels
But then the {i,j}-residues are just the whole thing
Ex 14 is confusing
Now the A_n(k) building
why we need to mention orthogonal matrices (is in general linear group)?
thank you
are you asking why orthogonal matrices are important?

ryuwu
So the thing inside the bracket {Q in GL(R) |Q^T = Q^{-1}} Is trying to define orthogonal matrices. Thank you
a pain to write





