#groups-rings-fields
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If * is a binary operation on set A, given a ∈ A and e is the identity element, does a * a⁻¹ equal e?
is A a group?
unless you verify the existence of inverses, not necessarily
and Z is a group under + lol
- could just be basically anything unless you have further assumptions
oh ok
Suppose you have finite subgroups $H_1,\ldots,H_n$ whose elements commute with each other, such that $H_1 \dots H_n=G,$ and such that $H_{i+1} \cap (H_1 \cdot H_N)=e.$ Then, G is isomorphic to $H_1 \times \cdots \times H_n$
thanks
Hello1
Show using induction ^
they are necessarily normal
oof ok
also i dont even need induction then?
I haven't thought that far lol
alr
oh wait
im stupid
if you have $x_1 \cdots x_n=e,$ then $(x_1 \cdots x_{n-1})x_{n}=e$ which implies that $x_{n}=e$
Hello1
now i want to use induction to show that x_{n-1}=e as well
but, i only have the condition of disjointness, H_1,...,H_{n-1} do not product to make G
so can i still use the idnuction hypothesis?
yeah but how does that help us
what is the cancellation property?
ah okay thank u
where a, b, c are elements of some set and + is some operation
you learned an example in elementary school
Since m ∈ ℤ+, shouldn't it directly follow that:
|alpha_i|≤m|alpha_i|
≤m×max|alpha_i|=mB≤max{1,mB}
But then this seems too trivial to be explicitly stated, which probably means I've completely misunderstood what is going on here.
I was thinking once, because in any semigroup we have its left/right translations
and for monoids for example, this is actually a representation
so we can consider semigroups which can be represented as left/right translations of themselves
and if you take any small category, then by adding an element to it, you can make it into a semigroup which has the above property
just send composition of morphisms to that additional element when it's undefined
I mention this because it reminded me of the property of being cancellative
it's recreational mathematics, I doubt anyone cares
for a) does it suffice to say that $g = g^{-1} \implies gg = gg^{-1} \implies g^2 = e \implies |g| = 2$
n!
for the left-sided proof
yes
and for the right-sided proof (since this is an iff statement) we have $g^2 = e \implies g^{-1} g^2 = g^{-1} e \implies g = g^{-1}$
and 2 is minimal because otherwise g would be e
n!
yeah
thanks
for b)
g^n = e
$g^n = e \implies g^{-n} g^{n} = g^{-n} e \implies (g^{-1})^n = e$
n!
right?
thanks
what about c)
I'm stuck on it
Suppose $G$ is finite with order $2n$, then $G$ contains an element of order $2$
n!
Two coprime things dividing the same number
that means the product divides it. This let's you calculate all the degrees in the extension diamond.
this seems intuitively true but how do we prove it
lagrange's theorem doesn't state the existence of such an element
yeah thats what i thought
of course, this is true by another theorem
nw
hm
let me think of how to hint at this without giving too much away
2 is prime. now
are there theorems that come to mind
okay that's a lot cleaner
but you gave too much away
Euclid's lemma?
yeah sorry, should I delete it?
its too late so whatever
there's a rather famous french mathematician who has a lot of analysis things named after him
from the fact that they're still asking questions, it may not be too late
yeah delete it i havent read it properly
but thanks for trying to help @lusty marlin
np
knightwatch ill let you take over alright
your solution is quite a bit cleaner than mine
also im popping off coincidentally to study some algebra
nice
I was about to overkill it lmao
so do you have any hints knightwatch
so there is an even number of elements
and a set having even cardinality means that one can...
partition it into pairs of elements
I've given away a bit too much now, it is just a step away.
disjoint pairs of elements?
pairs, the word partition implies disjoint. It was redundant
so I should pair the elements with one another?
Yes, but what should the rule for pairing be?
Ok, and what does that achieve?
Some elements can be their own inv (which is guaranteed in this case)
not sure, that's just my only thought
noo wait
B is the max of the coefficients, not the roots
so the bound isn't trivial
yes, thank you for that. a and α should never be used together
ikr
@lusty marlin I found a way to use Lagrange's theorem to solve this
would you like to see
nah it's fine, I have seen this question in the past
did you get how pairing elements would give you the result?
Ok, do you want to know?
So by partitioning the set into sets {a,b} where a and b are the inverse of each other, one finds that the identity element is put in a singleton set by the partition. But since the group has even order, there must exist another element that is in a singleton set, which means that it is its own inverse, which means that squaring it gives identity, which means that it has order 2.
I'm still a bit confused about this
Assume |α|≥1
|α^m|=|∑a_i× α^i|≤
∑|a_i×α^i| ≤ ∑|a_i|×|α|^(m-1)
Where the summations are from 0 to m-1
Divide by |α|^(m-1) throughout to get |α|≤∑|a_i|
Which is ≤m×max|a_i|
And if |α|≤1, the bound trivially follows.
prove what? sorry i just came back home
a | n, b | n and gcd(a, b) = 1 then ab | n?
more precisely, lcm(a, b) * gcd(a, b) = a * b
So I was trying to prove that unique factorization of ideals in an integral domain $\implies$ Dedekind domain. In the strategy I followed I arrived at a point where I have to show that if p and q are (nonzero) primes such that $p\subseteq q$ then $p=q$. I'm not exactly sure how to conclude that (notice that we cannot use the fact that $p\subseteq q\iff q\mid p$ as ideals, because that's what we are trying to prove). One possible proof that it occured to me is to use Krull's intersection theorem, that would tell us that there exists an $n$ such that $q^n\subseteq p$, and since $p$ is prime, we would have $q\subseteq p$ and we would be done. But this feels overkill.
Croqueta
I'm not sure what's an easy way to show this
Localization also seems not helpful at all here
mmh actually not even Krull intersection gives that
q-p forms a multiplicative system actually
yeah
you can just use the fundamental theorem of arithmetic
How do you get from the penultimate to the last line there?
Okay.
or tbh, just use prime factorization. you can assume that Z works nicely instead of proving everything from axioms of ZFC.
To prove the fundamental theorem of arithmetic, you would have to use Bezout anyway, so I guess its easier to just do Bezout
yea
wait so i wonder if there is a way to prove bezout from div alg
oh ofc
we can do the algorithmic proof by extended division algorithm
i was confused if we still needed to know that N is well ordered or not
but was a weird confusion
uhm I think you do need that tho
because ofc when i say division algo, we mean the valuation to N
like i was thinking of taking the smallest positive element in the set aZ+bZ
weird thought
nvm
ignore me 
is the converse true too?
nah
sadge
If you have a ring extension $R\subseteq S$ and $M$ is an $S$-module, free as an $R$-module, is $M$ projective as an $S$-module?
Croqueta
M finitely generated over S
where can I quickly learn some facts about projective modules
you only need to know 3 things on top of yoru head. the definition, direct summand of free, and can be used to compute derived functors
hey guys, why are the only primeideals contained in Z (0) and (p) for p a prime number?
do you know that Z is a pid?
I guess so
yee, so the prime ideal would look like (n) for some integer n
what conditions do you have on n, such that this is prime?
n is not a unit and for all x,y in the ring R, n|x or n|y
and that's one way to define what a prime number is 
(this definition included 0 as a prime number)
but if you wanna show the other thing, which is usually called "irreducible" say n was non-zero and n = ab. from this you want to conclude exactly one of a or b is a unit.
Another question following, we actually defined a prime ideal of R a ring as a proper ideal p in R with: for all x,y in R: xy in p ->(x in p or y in p)
right
are both definitions equivalent?
like has the p mentioned here always the form (p), for a prime number?
an element p in R is a prime element if and only if the ideal generated (p) is a prime ideal
nah. there may be prime ideals which are not generated by a single element. the simplest example of such is for the ring R = Q[x,y] and the ideal P = (x, y)
it requires a little effort to see that you can't write P = (f)
but in Z all the prime ideals have the form (0) or (p) right?
now it makes much more sense, thank you so much!!

these things took me quite some time to digest, so don't worry too much if you're just learning. projectivity would make a lot more sense when you do homological algebra
I was doing NT and some exercise asks me to show that something is projective. I have never done anything related to this lul
happens :p
I think I can try tho
the fractional ideals are fintiely generated O-submodules of K, where K is the field of fractions of O
lol i was thinkign about something similar today
and like these fractional ideals are free as Z-modules I think, unless I'm smoking
but idk if its related
A is integrally closed in K, L/K a field extension and B the integral closure of A in L
K field of fractions of A
i can't think of a simpler proof lol, and using this feels like an overkill
hopefully i revisit some alg nt after reading more commie alg
(in a slightly different language, so fractional ideals correspond to line bundles and i know line bundles are vector bundles of rank 1, and vector bundles correspond to f.g. projective modules)
are you okay with using this?
i can tell you the proof i have in mind
yes, at this point unique factorization is well set
and that the fractional ideals form a group etc
nice nice
Im working through some examples, tho you can say the proof. I'll read it if I can't do anything
so wlog assume that a is an ideal in O
and find another ideal b such that ab is principal
you have a map,
a --> N
so get the map
ab --> bN
since left side is principal, this map looks like cO --> bN
bM --> bN is also surjective
so we sort of reduced the problem to the case where the ideal is principal
so as a module it looks like O
you have O --> N'
see if you can lift this to M'
and then convert back
that's the idea in my head
(phrased differently, if a is a fractional ideal and b is its inverse, then
you have an equivalence of categories O-Mod --> O-Mod given by tensoring over O with a and coming back by tensoring with b. so starting with a --> N tensoring with b would make this O --> b⊗N, and then you lift it here, O --> b⊗M, and now you go back by tensoring with a, to get a --> M)
maybe there is a much better proof >.<
chmonkey
will enlighten us soon 
can I send my question from earlier? if you guys are done, that is
yep we done
det this is the q I had from earlier that you helped me with
I couldn't really get anywhere, though
okie
so
the cool fact about D_n is that if r is the rotation of order n and f is any reflection of order 2
then (r^i)f are all reflections
in particular rf is a reflection
so rfrf = 1
r^if?
which is same as frf = r^-1
which is further same as fr = r^-1 f
so you can push the r to left of f, at the price of inverting it
rfr = f
see if you can picture this in your head
for a rigid motion of a regular n-gon, you just need to keep track of 2 consecutive vertices to determine the whole transformation
number the vertices 0, 1, ..., n-1
but shouldn't we generalize this to order n
didn't get you
r has order n, no?
reflections are always order 2
if you do them twice, you do nothing
but why do we care about i here
oh
I misunderstood
i was just saying how D_n looks like
right
it has a subgroup Z/nZ generated by r
which are rotations
The idea is pretty cool, but when you are writing bN you are really writing the tensor product no?
and rest half of the things are all reflections
i had tensor product in head, but idk i felt bN and b⊗N would be isomorphic. did i make an error?
well if its not a tensor product then idk how you interpret bN
product of an ideal with a module
oh right b is in O
IM = submodule generated by im
oh I see
(yea that was teh entire point of forcing both a and b are ideals in O)
aba is just a^{-1}
else them being fractional is fine if we look at tensor products
isomorphism
wait i think there is an error here 
how come
this is the solution
but like
I don't want to memorize this property in D_n
I want to be able to derive it
so I can solve problems without having to memorize certain properties of groups
oh
isn't the answer just a^3 b^3
why is it a^6b
usually people think of D_n through it's presentation... so won't actually call it like memorization
some people would define D_n = <r, f | r^n = f^2 = (rf)^2 = 1>
this doesn't make sense to me, why is r^n = f^2 = (rf)^2 = 1
you mean r has order n
?
cause although it's nicer to define it has the rigid motions of a polygoan, making that precise takes some work which can be avoided
I forgot to reply to this, the point of this is simply that O is free and the map is surjective. We just want f(h(1))=g(1), since f is surjective we can send h(1) to a preimage of g(1) and done
oh
Free --> Projective is easy
for this we have $a^2 b a^{-1} b^{-1} a^3 b^3$ where $a$ is a rotation of order $n$ and $b$ is a reflection.
isomorphism
right, and the best way is to focus on that ba^-1b^-1
because it gets rid of all the b's in the middle instantly
(ba)^2 = 1
yee
so.
thus.
oh
that's quite clever
(ba)^-2 = 1
thank you det
I got it from here

should I just memorize this property that frfr = 1
if you can quickly think why fr is also a reflection, then no need to. but you'll be used to it in no time
that's so slick lol
i need to think why that map splits though
mmh but I'm confused, you just used that ab is principal (which you can easily get by inverting a and multiplying by a suitable principal ideal in O, and that's b). No?
gotcha
thanks
again
yep
if you're comfortable with tensor products, then just use that language lol
i was trying to avoid it just in case
:p
aba = b right
not abab = 1
same thing
how come
//patpat
thanks for the 10th time today det

So with Clark, given an ideal a you want to find an ideal b such that ab is principal and a,b coprime. You can do that by CRT: look at the ideal class of a^{-1}, by CRT you can pick b in O such that (b)a^{-1} is an ideal in O and coprime to a
Thanks @rustic crown
Let $p$ be the minimal polynomial of $\zeta$, suppose it has degree $n$. How to prove that
[
\text{Tr}_{\bQ(\zeta)/\bQ}\left(\frac{\zeta^{n-1}}{p'(\zeta)}\right)=1
]
?
Croqueta
Is there a notation like $f:A\to B:a\mapsto b$ that explicitly means $f$ is a homomorphism as opposed to a general function?
Amizar
I dont think so, just say it
I'm in the process of extending existing notation to include more algebraic structures, e.g. subrings and ideals etc.
And I'm making my best effort to stay along the same lines as existing notation.
notation for what?
For example, instead of saying $A$ is a subring of $B$, one could write (please hold while I take a screenshot, as the symbol here only exists in my own LaTeX package.)
Amizar
this is ugly
It's rather low-res
There's no point in doing what you are doing, in fact, things will become much less clear. Its easier to say "its a subring/group/algebra/field..." than to have distinct symbols for every algebraic structure
I believe you're mistaken on every single thing you've said.
rings fields and so on have been around for plenty of years
and most mathematicians didn't think there was a need to employ different symbols for each algebraic structure. Are you saying they were wrong?
But this is not the place for that conversation. I'm not sure what is, but I'd rather not clog up #groups-rings-fields unless this is in fact the right channel for this conversation.
mmh you are right
Is there a better place to have this conversation/discuss notation?
Probably #math-discussion
this channel is for conversations
Oh, is this actually the right place?
While on the topic, do you have any clue if there's a functional notation for homomorphism?
lol
notation creates ambiguity
words don't
We have modifiers that imply injectivity, surjectivity, and a host of other properties
Then why have any notation at all?
Why not just say
one plus one equals two?
ok so there's a proof of what I was looking in Lang. It didn't occur to me to look until now lmao. Lang is a king
Why not just say "A is a subgroup of B that is not equal to B" instead of $A\lneq B$?

You mean the other way round
words can create ambiguity
well and properly defined notation doesn't.
The issue here is convincing anyone that such notation is necessary
It probably doesn't serve much purpose and obfuscates the meaning
what definition of ambiguity are you using
How are symbols ambiguous?
Amizar
You define them in such a way that a program could interpret it
they can mean different things depending on the context
Notation should not be obscure, that's the point. Definitions should be introduced only when necessary.
This conversation is veering much further away from abstract algebra
You're talking about overloading which is a separate issue.
That's exactly the problem and why I'm defining non-ambiguous notation.
Exactly
You're making my point for me.
who says your notation is the standard
whats wrong with the same symbol or all?
The point is there is literally no existing notation.
I don't hate that, but it's still not fully satisfying imo.
rather than inventing new notation
We could go all the way to subsets
What Boytjie said, but the point of notation is not just to make things unambiguous (in fact, I'd say that is not that relevant)
Why distinguish between subsets and subgroups at all?
In a way, subsets can cause confusion because sometimes you talk about the underlying set and want to use subset
Whereas in the case of fields and rings, you will not talk about the hidden group structure
and talk about one being a subgroup of the other when considering only one operation
That's not always true.
That rarely ever happens unless you make it explicit
Particularly when it comes to rings and fields.
No, not really
You can certainly talk about a subring of a field.
For example, the integers contained within the rational numbers.
Ok I agree with that
fields are rings
but fields and rings are not groups
so perhaps one more symbol only
I agree that it's far less common to need to discuss the group structure of a ring
but
I would argue that there's potential for discussion nonetheless.
Like, for example,
in module theory
One can confirm that an $R$-module $B$ is a submodule of some $R$-module $A$ if $B$ is an additive subgroup of $A$ and is closed under multiplication by elements of $R$.
Amizar
Even if you insist on introducing symbols for each, I would not use something completely different
Anyway, I'm not actually here to make that case right now. I've already defined a good amount of notation and am still in the process of defining more.
Oh it's not completely different at all
In fact
use =<_G, =<_R, =<_F maybe \frak for G, R, F
it's extremely similar and follows intuitively from the symbols themselves.
I honestly don't hate that idea and might have done something similar if I'd spoken to you before I started.
call a group G
…
wew did you ignore my ping
The fact that subsets and subgroups already use distinct notation led me to consider different but similar approaches to the notation
Probs I was out
For A is a subring of B, I used
check your pings and answer pls
it's rep theory related
i think thats just horrible to do in writing
What do you mean?
i wouldnt want to write this
It's literally just $\leq$ with a circle
Yus
Amizar
in the context of lecturing, i dont think this is easy to draw (well)
it's not standard notation but I have seen \leq also used for subring
never seen circle leq
I mean, it's really not that difficult. I do it all the time on a whiteboard.
Or on paper.
If you really need to make the distinction between subgroups and subrings in the same context then I guess it's a fine symbol
yh, I think its rare u need to
I agree that it's uncommon, but one advantage is that it allows us to immediately consider A and B as rings as opposed to "Let A and B be rings such that A is a subring of B"
It condenses that whole thought down to 3 characters.
name on example where you need to distinguish them
No it doesn't.
also you can just say B/A is a ring extension
In what way does it not allow us to do exactly that?
A =< B does not condense down to 'let A subgroup B'
without first defining at least one of them as a group
You're right
However
The only reason it doesn't
Is because when subgroup notation was being defined
They used already existing notation that created ambiguity
If you say "Let $A\subseteq B$"
Amizar
Then it immediately contextualizes A and B as sets.
Even so, its rare you would ever do this except where the context is very clear
what kind of sets are A, B? its usually going to be said
The ring notation, as it does not conflict with any existing notation, would contextualize A and B immediately as rings.
Well sure, but that can be provided after the fact.
The whole point is that they're immediately known to be sets.
Can we move this conversation about notation, not algebra, elsewhere?
Literally any discussion channel
This is not a channel to pontificate about notation.
a field extension over a finite extension field is always finite, no?
because if L/K where L is finite
then K = p^k and L = p^m with p^k | p^m
so p^m = (p^k)^l
I think it was the third time I asked about this lol. But in case you are wondering, this is due to this equation
where the alpha_i are the roots of f
it is trivial to see that the equation holds
0<=r<n ofc
lol why did I even ask this
a subset of a finite set cannot be non finite
🤦
hi det

today i am reviewing hopf's theorems on group homology
and running away from complex analysis homework 🏃
hehe
How would you guys go about proving this, assuming it’s an equilateral triangle and F stands for a vertical reflection and R stands for a 120 degree clockwise rotation
merosity talking about isometry 
I'd just go through and use the fact F^2=I and R^3=I to write them in terms of each other
lol
like multiply the first one on the left by R to remove R^2 an you have RFR=F, oh that's the 3rd one, etc just keep messing around
Consider the linear forms L1(x,y)=x and L2(x,y)=y in R^2. The associated determinant is 1 and 3/2>1. So we should be able to find integers x,y such that |L1(x,y)|=|x|<1/2 ??
How would that example agree with what this theorem is saying?
(btw, it is understood that the integers m1,...,m_n should be zero)
LOL thanks, I was overthinking it so hard
how does this even make sense? The c_i can be permuted, so that is saying that we should find m1,...,m_n such that |L(m1,...,m_n)|<c_i for each i, with L fixed. But c_i can be arbitrarily small
thus {|L(m1,...,m_n)| : m1,...,m_n in Z} should attain arbitrarily small (positive) values, but in general this is not true at all
I mean that theorem is true ofc, I must be missing something lmao
I think the det of those L_i is 0
idk didn't compute them now I'm probably wrong lol
L_1 has determinant -1/4 I think yeah
or wait
$L_1(x,y)=a_{11}x+a_{12}y$ and $L_2(x,y)=a_{21}x+a_{22}y$. The matrix is
[
\begin{bmatrix}
a_{11}&a_{12}\ a_{21}&a_{22}
\end{bmatrix}
]
Croqueta
maybe it's just not the origin of the lattice, so some 0 components are ok
btw I consulted some other text on this theorem, and the formulation is the same
(so Im just getting something wrong)
yeah they say it there
nonzero vector
(1,0) is nonzero but has 0 components, that's ok
haha yeah cool, you're welcome
So then, the tuple (m1,...,m_n) depends on i?
nope
ok I still dont get it I think 🤦♂️
What would be the (m1,m2) in the example L1(x,y)=x and L2(x,y)=y ?
tell me your c_i
and the other 3
ok perfect then (0,1)
😛
Thanks
me too
you're welcome
I didn't really read your question but sort of going off what I remember about minkowski's theorem as intuition about how you have a symmetric convex shape and you can squeeze it past one lattice point in one direction, but not another, and caring only about getting a point that's not the origin
at least I figured it was like that
and like the reason we care is we can use that to bound the class number or something? lol idk
you mean Minkowski's theorem or the linear forms thing?
both?
Minkowski's is apparently really useful
I have not seen linear forms thing in action
like I'm thinking of the determinant as that volume of a convex shape, or related to it
yeah, its along those lines
I mean, I think the case of dimension 2 is straightforward
so if you're bigger than a fundamental cell you've necessarily grabbed one of the lattice points and that feeds into another thing about how the norm over the ideal norm is something I forget
I think it's basically the same argument as how you'd show ideals of Z[i] is a PID by assuming you have an element of smallest norm?
https://www.math.cmu.edu/~ttkocz/teaching/1819/read-sem-notes.pdf In this it is proven the two and four square theorems with Minkowski (you still have to do some effort besides Minkowski tho). This is pretty cool
I don't know, this is something I have to spend more time on eventually but haven't gotten around to it yet
neat
yeah the usual proof that Z[i] is a euclidean domain is essentially computing the volume of the fundamental mesh/domain/parallepiped
They are still not trivial btw, and idk if three squares falls with Minkowski. I have actually never seen a proof of three squares
I have but with the hasse-minkowski local-global theorem for quadratic forms, basically proving in Z_p for p != 2 is easy with a clever substitution, then p=2 case handled separately
Product should be reversed
Apparently the notion is additive
So like okay
Z2 = {0, 1} and Z3 = {0, 1, 2}
I get that
but how is
(0, 1) * (0, 2) = (0, 0) with this additive notion?
1 + 2 = 3 = 0 mod 3
ahhhhhh
how do we write in proper order?
and what determines ordeR?
I feel silly, im sorry
@rich patrol
Do you know what Z_2 and Z_3 are
Z2 = {0, 1}, Z3 = {0, 1, 2}
Z2 is cyclic group of order 2
Z3 is cyclic group of order 3
See ryu's message
.
this is the question:
Wdym by this
lets just focus on this questiopn
how do I list the elements?
like I know what Z2 and Z3 are
but how do i figure out what the elements are
Okay so what is Z2 x Z3
Z6?
No
alright im confused af
Ok so what's the definition of the direct product
G x H is the group consisting of all the elements
x, y
where x in G
y in H
correct?
Ok, so what is Z2 x Z3
Okay, and what is the group operation
group operation is additive
Tell me explicitly
well i know in Z3
4 = 1
because 4 = 1mod3
so wait i guess we're in mod3 now
not mod2?
@rich patrol
how is (1, 0) + (1, 0) = (0, 0) in the operation table
1+2 = 2
2 = __ mod 3
right here
look closely
very carefully at your definition of the operation
nevermind they didnt make it explicit
ok thats not your fault
let G and H be groups
Let * denote the operation of G
. denote the operation of H
then the operation of the direct product in G x H is
(g, h)(g', h') = (g * g', h. h')
is this clear? @burnt sparrow
ah yes
now try again
.
no wonder you were so confused
here the external direct product means the same thing as direct product
so like
"It is understood that each product g_i g_i' is performed with the operation of G_i"
(1, 0) (1, 0) are both in Z2 x Z3
how can a^h = a^k and simultaneously h > k? i know they're saying a^h = a^k for contradiction but it still seems like it wouldn't work
because h and k are positive
lets consider this
because for instance, taking h = 5 and k = 2
yeah
there we go
of course without more context its not possible to see what you're talking about
here 2 is the order of 5
you're going to need to post
$\original$
active mental mutilation liker
what do you mean here
you know what an order is right
i'm still a bit confused but i kind of get what you mean
yeah
the cardinality of a group correct?
but what does 5 refer to
Z5?
oh sorry case 1 is tackling the infinite case
yeah this is why I asked you to include the theorem statement
If G has infinite order and is generated by a this is of course true
for example $\bZ = \langle 1 \rangle$ under +
active mental mutilation liker
yeah i understand
but i'm more confused about the proof
logically it doesnt make sense
ok
you can't have a^h and a^k and have h \neq k
of course not
thats a contradiction
they're showing you why it's absurd
it says that <a> generates an infinite group but somehow a has finite order
do you know what order of an element means
why is there a need for it then
because if a^h = a^k
then a^ha^-k clearly equals e
i dont see a need for h > k
no
actually wait
i see why they need it
to show that h - k is a positive integer and thus contradicts that for all positive integers m a^m \neq e
but it still doesnt make sense they contradict each other
anyways yeah take ur time
basically if for contradiction your a^m = e
then the group is not infinite
let's suppose m is the least integer such that that is the case
then given any a^k
we can write a^(qm+r)
= a^r * a^qm
and clearly a^qm = e
this group is not infinite
okay i understand that
how does that apply here?
or more specifically where we're allowed to say a^h = a^k and say h > k
I just gave you an example
Can Someone Please Help Me With First Line Of This Proof?
,rotate
look at the class of g in H\G
since X is a set of representatives, Hg = Hx for a unique x
so g = hx for unique h in H and x in X
Isn't X here is of form {Ha, .....}?
i think X is a subset of G such that X --> H\G given by x --> Hx is a bijection
for each coset you picked a representative
Please wait i am confused now😅
yee im not going anywhere :p
Does X have number of elements as much as G/H has numbers elements?
yep if they finite
Okk
more precisely this bijection
(when they allowed to be infinite)
So its like, if g in G that means it is somewhere in any coset lets say Hp, so g = hp?
yee
That means g =hx form some x in X?
Because X is representive set here
Thankyou For The Help.
np :3
How to show that Additive group Q is not a Free Z module?
why is the text in blue true?
suppose E is a finite extension of F, and R is a subring of E containing F
R is an F-algebra, sure, but R may not be finite?
R is an integral domain since the cancellation law would hold (the cancellation law from E is inherited)
note that any such extension is algebraic, show there's an inverse
ahhh idk what an algebraic extension is, yet
you can write the inverse in terms of a polynomial in F and α
at least it's clear then that the result is not a corollary of lemma 1.23
ok so say α ∈R with F ⊂R ⊂E where E is finite ext, then R is a vector space over F
now for α ∈ R, 1, α, .. , α ⁿ cannot all be LI, since dimR ≤ dimE
n = [E: F]?
so you get a equation of the form
∑ a_i α^i=0
yes
ahh makes sense, now just choose the smallest j in 0 to n such that a_j is non-zero, take it to the other side and we have the inverse?
it is depending on alpha tho, but i guess that's fine
since α^(-1) ∈F, multiply by it and solve for α ^(-1) and show that it must also lie in R
so you get R has inverse of all nonzero elements
i see, thanks
how does this result relate with the lemma tho?
doesn't seem obvious
it does, thing is there is a reltn
lol show it's an integral domain
lol that's much easier
this is correct innit
but R may not be finite!
R ⊂ E, so R must be again integral and hence field by the lemma
the lemma wants R to be "finite"
ahh i see, thanks
so your proof works more generally, even if R is not finite?
yea
yeah im not sure either
in general for any k ⊂ R ⊂ cl(k) is a field, where cl(k) is the algebraic closure of k, whatever that means
you can replace cl(k) by any any finite extensions of k, which is the given statement
i see, thanks!
oh btw
just noticed, the finite here doesn't mean finite cardinality
hii det
it means the dimension is finite
@median pawn

A subring is a subspace so it's a finite dimensional vector space.
I passed my Algebra exam
Thanks everyone ❤
Swag
ok so
some galois group
for x^4 - 5 in Q[x] I got Z2 x Z2
our roots are frt(5), zetafrt(5), -frt(5), -zetafrt(5)
so our splitting field will have degree 4
because 1, zetafrt, frt, sqrt will be a basis
we can list some automorphisms:
id : frt -> frt, zeta -> zeta
sigma : frt -> -frt, zeta -> zeta
tau: frt -> frt, zeta -> -zeta
obviously this is not cyclic
so we have Z2 x Z2
now for x^3 - 8 in Q[x]
roots will be 2, 2zeta, 2zeta^2
so degree 2, therefore Z2
now x^3 - 5 in Q(isqrt(2))[x]
it has no roots in the field, and is separable
I looked at its determinant: Delta(x^3 - 5) = -549
this is not a square in our field so we will have S3 as a galois group
are these correct?
{ 1, zetafrt, frt, sqrt } is a basis
because zeta^2 = -1
so (zetafrt)^2 = -sqrt
what is sqrt * frt
{ 1, zetafrt, frt, sqrt, 3/4th root }
what's zeta frt * frt
continue multiplying things
{ 1, zetafrt, frt, sqrt, 3/4th root, zetasqrt, zeta }
because sqrt * zetasqrt
still missing something
can't be 7
ah, zeta 3/4th root
this could work now
yeah it would be 8
you're missing some automorphisms
yeah I see now
x^4 - 5 is the min poly of frt
for zeta we have x^2 + 1
this would've been easier with the tower law, yikes
ok I think I found them all
let me take a picture
,rccw
in an exam, would I just say "the galois group is { id, gamma, tau, blabla }"
or do I like have to find its name
next guess: Z4 x Z2
we sure this is a group of order 8? Like, positive fr fr?
might suggest just writing out the entire cayley table 
nah nah
check to see what else has order 4
because if there's more than 2 things with order 4 we can eliminate D_8, and if it's non-abelian it has to be Q_8
gamma sigma has order 4
are the two elements of order 4 in the same cyclic subgroup
i.e. are they both powers of some other element
if not, Q_8
if yes, D_8
it's Q_8 then
it smelt like Q_8 i must admit
ok thanks wew
my arcane knowledge of small p-groups comes in clutch 
for this I am 99% sure
not sure about this
whether -549 is actually not a square in Q(isqrt(2))
I'm 70% sure there
how can it be a square when it's a negative :mock2:
well that's convinced me
ok epic
now another one
I wanna show that Q(fifthroot(13)/Q has no intermediate fields
it obviously has degree 5
because the minimal polynomial is x^5 - 13
so Z5
Z5 has no proper subgroups, because prime order
so there are no intermediate fields by galois?
(ext not galois)
but doesn't matter
argue on degree instead lol
if E is an intermediate field, what is [E:Q]?
Aut(Q(13^(1/5))/Q) = 1
lol
ah I see
it's separable because char 0
so our extension will also have degree 1
thus no intermediate fields

you just said it had degree 5
not 1
wait
I'm really confused
uh
let me think
intermediate field degrees have to divide the degree of the entire extension
but that's 5
so it's either 1 or 5
meaning that there are no proper intermediate fields
ok I was thinking way too complicated at the beginning
thank you det
uwu 
what's the most common symbol for the matrix form of a linear map T from basis A to basis B ?
$[T]_{A \to B}$ ?
Delerik
I have seen $[T]_A^B$ too
Croqueta
I think yours is actually pretty nice

