#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 48 of 1
that's true
we only need one root
but uhm
we'll need to show that the extansion contains all roots
Right?
Or am I missing something?
then what about this
As a linear combination of 1 and zeta
yes
I was explaining why the detree wasnt 2
hmm
{1, zeta} is not a basis
But {1, zeta, zeta^2, zeta^3} is
what is zeta
Yea
okay okay
Yes
Understood
For any irred poly of degree d with root alpha, the set {1, alpha, alpha^2, …, alpha^(d-1)} is a basis for Q(alpha)
Regardless if that field contains the other roots of the poly or not
Yes. In most cases, adjoining a single root isnt enough to get all of the roots
But in this case, with x^4 + 1, it is
Because the other three roots are just powers of the first one
Right
There are two separate facts here which have separate and unrelated proofs. The first is that Q(zeta) has degree 4. The second is that Q(zeta) contains all the other roots of x^4 + 1
There are multiple ways to prove the second fact, several of which have been given here already.
okay
and how to get this
I mean how do you know that?
Thats how roots of unity work
If zeta is an nth root of unity then so are all powers of zeta
Or just do direct computation
Zeta satisfies the poly x^4 + 1 = 0. Show that those three powers also satisfy that polynomial, and then show that they are all distinct
Or even more direct computation
hmm okay
You already know that the four roots are (1/sqrt2)(+- 1 +- i)
So pick one and start raising it to@powers
And youll get the rest
Yes, all are related to roots of unity.
Np and gl
so what will be the splitting field
Q(zeta)
Yes, it has degree 4
Remember that $\tau (12)(34) \tau^{-1}=(\tau(1) \tau(2))(\tau(3)\tau(4))$
need help with 1)
I don't know how to show closure
I know I have to show closure, commutativity, associativity, existence of inverses and identity.
what does it mean for it to be closed
a, b in G => ab in G
being in G entails being an an element that is coprime to n in Z_n
so the "product" of two coprime elements to n is coprime to n (?)
yes, that's what you need to show -- not sure why you have scare quotes around the word "product"
if a and b are each coprime to n, show that ab is coprime to n
n!
well, it does say right below the question
to use that gcd(m,n) = 1 iff you can write 1 = mx + ny
n!
and $a, b \in \mbb{U}_n$ such that gcd$(a, n) = 1$ and gcd$(b, n) = 1$. That is, $$1 = ax + ny, 1 = au + nw$$
n!
what was your idea?
I am stuck at part b of the problem. I guess I can use part a when I can find distinct m and n, but idk why there exists such distinct m,n satisfying a^m=a^n.
well, if you can't think of anything else to do, you might as well try that
like, at least try something before you give up all hope
$1 = (ax+ny)(au + nw) = a^2 x u + axnw + nyau + n^2 yw$
n!
Not sure is it due to G is finite. This is the only property I haven’t used.
no that's not gonna work
you're missing a b somewhere
i think you mean (bu + nw)
the first factor comes from (a,n) = 1, so your second factor should come from (b,n) = 1
gcd(a,n) = 1 and gcd(b, n) = 1
so
ax + ny = 1
bz + nw = 1
(ax + ny)(bz + nw) = 1
axbz + axnw + nybz + n^2yw = 1
hm
is that of the form abX + nY = 1?
that's... not what we want
pain
this is what we need
we need to show gcd(ab, n) = 1
sometimes you just have to do something to solve a problem. you can't just stare blankly at it
its ok if you dont know how the proof is going to end when you get started
if you have an idea, just try it
does this make sense
yes
W rizz
thank you sir
so as for the other axioms
commutativity and associativity are present due to the fact that this is multiplication
what about the identity and inverses
what about them? you tell me
what is the identity for multiplication
1
yes
break down what you need to prove: if gcd(a,n) = 1 then there exists b such that ab = 1 mod n (and gcd(b,n) is also 1)
well, you want to prove that such a number b exists
like what?
you have to prove that if a in U_n then there exists b in U_n such that ab = 1 (mod n)
that is, if gcd(a,n) = 1, you need to find some number b which also has gcd(b,n) = 1, and for which ab = 1 mod n
ok so if a in U_n then gcd(a, n) = 1
you can't assume that you have b
multiply what
why do I need to show this
that's what it means for a to have an inverse
like, that's the definition of inverse
np and gl
Galois correspondence probably easiest
you could use some gauss sums, you have some g in Q(zeta_p) such that g^2 = (-1/p) * p
(that parenthesis is the legendre symbol)
from that you easily see that sqrt(-3) and sqrt(5) lie in your field
If this is like my course you probably won't have that technology at hand lol
"you can solve this problem by simply knowing how to find the answer ahead of time"
Lol

maybe working separately with Q(zeta_3) and Q(zeta_5) would be a little less messier
yes i do agree with det's suggestion
to work with zeta_3 and zeta_5 separately
even weaker than that is that Q(z15) contains both Q(z3) and Q(z5)
and each of those has a unique quadratic subfield Q(sqrt(a)) and Q(sqrt(b)) (by galois theory)
so Q(z15) contains both of those and therefore also Q(sqrt(ab))
you don't actually need that Q(z15) = Q(z3, z5), just that Q(z15) contains the right side
just work with them one at a time
instead of looking for quadratic subfields of Q(z15)
look for quadratic subfields of Q(z5)
and Q(z3) is itself already quadratic
det
Oop
oopsie
Gg
you want index 2 subgroups
yeah, there should be 3
well, again, like det suggested
it would be a little less messy to start by looking for quadratic subfields of Q(z5)
because Q(z5) \subseteq Q(z15), so a quadratic subfield of Q(z5) is also a quadratic subfield of Q(z15)
well, with any luck, we wont have to work with those subgroups at all
we know by galois theory that there are definitely three quadratic subfields. so, if we can find them by any means, we konw that they have to be all of them
that's right
to be clear -- you could go further and actually use the subgroups as you suggested
and tried to figure out what theyw ere directly by calculating their fixed fields
and that would lead you to the correct answers as well
but, in this case, it's just easier to work with simpler fields
that's right
just because like, writing down something like z15 + z15^4 + z15^7 + z15^13
(which is fixed under your second subgroup)
and trying to figure out what that's equal to
looks like it could get a little messy
ok det you can take over again cuz i gotta go
:^)
there is only one
but once you have Q(sqrt(a)) and Q(sqrt(b))
you also have Q(sqrt(ab))
posting here bc #category-theory seems to get way less attention 
this counts as #groups-rings-fields bc i need to show products exist in Ring
I bet you’d see how to do it if u deleted your messages in Chmonkey thread
it was answered in #category-theory 😎
why does the existence of one G invariant subspace imply the existence of another one
Look up Maschke’s theorem
oh lmao
maschke's comes right after this
so irreducible reps are like prime elements basically?
Uhhh cause as one move other stay still so all stay still but in half
chmonkey no
it doesnt have to be like this
I don't understand
It does
Maschke’s theorem
.
rep theory is nice but sometimes it's too much linear algebra for my taste
I love doing rep theory for F_p^n and thinking about representations of p-groups
How does that make u feel wew
Do you enjoy that?
Does this bring you joy?
Quite
You enjoy not being able to write down 1/|G|?
You like not having Maschke’s theorem?
I am literally suffering this pain right now
Shouldn’t have done langlands
Oh wait no it doesn’t because it turns out unlike the brauer ring the F-stable character ring isn’t free so I am in for a world of pain
Didn’t ur mother ever tell you to stay away from the scary men with their representations of Galois groups?

I hate you
Omgggg literally just like… compute it pmggggg
Galois groups
I don’t care
the second i delete my message i become a chmonkey dick rider
Me when I’m in char p and do ^p 
Hate you
Literally every finite group is a Galois group
Don’t caare
It’s not proven yet
I know
In Galois theory, the inverse Galois problem concerns whether or not every finite group appears as the Galois group of some Galois extension of the rational numbers
Q
{\displaystyle \mathbb {Q} }
. This problem, first posed in the early 19th century, is unsolved.
There are some permut...
like if you take any field K and L = K(x_1, ..., x_n) then Gal(L/L^S_n) = S_n
then you just apply cayley
what are you trying to say? xd
the fixed field will usually be stupid as fuck
in F<F(x1,...,xn)
and its likely to contain algebraic elements not be purely transcendental
any G --> S_n so if Gal(L/K) = S_n then Gal(L/L^G) = G
that's just how fields work. If Q(sqrt(a)) is a subfield of K and Q(sqrt(b)) is another subfield of K, that means K contains sqrt(a) and sqrt(b). therefore it also contains their product, whcih is sqrt(ab)
and hence it contains the quadratic subfield Q(sqrt(ab))
not quite, no
notice that in what I wrote, i specifically took generators of the quadratic fields of the form sqrt(a)
z3 isn't of the form sqrt(a) for an integer a
so therefore the third one would be Q(sqrt(-15))
pop quiz for you:
we've now shown that Q(z15) contains both Q(sqrt(5)) and Q(sqrt(-15)). So, by the reasoning above, shouldn't it also contain Q(sqrt(5 * -15)) = Q(sqrt(-75))?
but isn't that too many subfields?
(what error have i made in my reasoning)
@willow geyser
that is related to the answer, but that in and of itself isn't the issue
meaning, the error in the reasoning is not "the sqrt(a) , sqrt(b) ==> sqrt(ab) fact only works for coprime a, b"
(it's true for any a and b)
For b \in B where B is an ordered multiplicative basis, and v_i's are in a set of orthogonal idempotents such that 1 = \sum_{i=1}^n v_i.
Why is it that only one v_j from the orthogonal set multiplied from the right gives b?
it is true that Q(z15) does have Q(sqrt(-75)) as a subfield
yes, that's right!
but which one 
not quite, no
the "Q(sqrt(a)), Q(sqrt(b)) => Q(sqrt(ab))" process will always give you a new field
(assuming that sqrt(a) and sqrt(b) aren't in Q to begin with)
so in fact Q(sqrt(-75)) = Q(sqrt(-3))
indeed, sqrt(-75) = sqrt(-3 * 25) = 5sqrt(-3)
so adjoining sqrt(-75) is algebraically the same thing as adjoining sqrt(-3)
;P
so that's kind of where the "not coprime" thing comes into play
both 5 and -15 have a factor of 5
so their product has a factor of 5^2
I suppose since any basis element can be written as a product of two other basis elements, which is the case here.
I wanted to thank you for the nice explanation, I got it now. Sorry for not answering earlier 😦
"degree 6 over Q"
you can also answer this from context. the problem gives you an example -- Q(z7). that field does indeed have degree 6 over Q, but since [Q(z21):Q] = 12, it means that [Q(z21):Q(z7)] = 2
so by context we can assume that it is indeed asking for subfields of degree 6 over Q, not subfields of relative degree 6
(but even without the context, illuminator3 is right -- the degree of a subfield means the degree of teh subfield over the base field. otherwise, i think you would say "relative degree" or something like that)
could i get some help with this please 😓
my friend tried to help me before but i didnt rly understand and i felt bad asking her repeatedly
i know i probably have to use tower law in some way but its not rly clicking
sorry to interrupt; its just that the channel seemed to be busy for the past few hours
let M = K[x]/f(x) = K(alpha) where alpha is a root of f
What can you say about [M : K]? what about [LM : K]?
think about [LM : K] in two different ways, once using the tower K < L < LM and once using the tower K < M < LM
oki ill give it a shot and come back
do you still have this question? sorry i was away >.<

okie :3
Sf is symmetric proof: Sf = sum(f) over all permutations on S_k (k is dim) , phi(S(f)) = S(phi(f)) = sum(f_phi) over all permutations on S_k = sum(f) over all permutations on S_k as just this phi will be composed with itself giving out another permutation as S_k is a group
is that correct
looks correct
only weird part is that you need to verify that this gives a left action
sometimes this could be weird since you're defining it in terms of indices
yea i get u
good catch
but arent i going ot have 2 * S(f)
or no not 2 *S (f)
i meant like one will bee repeeating
$\phi \cdot S(f) = \phi\cdot \sum_{\sigma} \sigma \cdot f = \sum_{\sigma} (\phi\cdot \sigma) \cdot f = S(f)$
det
so what's repeating?
right, but everything gets permuted, this tau goes to phi . tau

this is an incredibly basic and kind of stupid questin but
if G is a group and g is in G
is gG = G?
ok if thats the case im running into a major conceptual roadblock
because if you have some representation V of a finite group G
then u can take any vector v
consider its orbit under G
add all of those up
then the span of that forms a G-invariant subspace, making V reducible
funny, this same thing has happened twice today
ppl asking this same qusetion?
Someone else forgetting that this same sum can be 0
💀
generally speaking though, is taking sums of the elements in the orbit of a particular vector by a subgroup a standard trick for producing subrepresentations?
Considering it will only produce the trivial representation, no.
That's super boring.
Right. I don't think I've seen it but it would work, I guess
particularly if this subgroup is cyclic
for an automorphism $\func{\phi}{A}{A}$ on an abelian group $A$, does it make sense to write something like $p(\phi)$ where $p(x)\in\bZ[x]$? and $p(\phi)$ will still be a homomorphism, but won't necessarily be an automorphism itself, correct? or am i completely wrong...
nilpotent nix
I'd understand this notation, as long as you had a little explanation beforehand
great thank you both sm! @chilly ocean @coral spindle
Should be noted that you've discovered that endomorphisms on Abelian groups determine Z[x]-modules :)
idk, throwing ideas out there: check when T=0 that it's true, then prove the derivative is 0, maybe that's easier. then take care of the special case when 0 is a root or something.
another idea: factor out f(T) and integrate, get something like log lol use log rules --> ???
can someone please explain how these definitions are equivalent? it's not obvious to me, and i can't find anything about metabelian groups in the textbooks i have... is it possibly under a different name? or does anyone know of any textbooks that do cover it?
=> should be obvious: take A to be the commutator subgroup.
For <=: If G/A is abelian, then A must contain every commutator -- and so the commutator subgroup is a subgroup of A and is therefore abelian.
sorry could you explain why G/A being abelian implies that A must have every commutator?
If f is the projection from G to G/A and G/A is abelian, then f(xyx'y') = f(x)f(y)f(x')f(y') = 1, and therefore xyx'y' is in the kernel of f -- that is, A.
ah that makes sense
thank you @tribal moss!
oh yeah, so I never got an answer to this question even after asking people irl. But my best guess is that PSL(2, R) is perfect, so we can consider it's universal central extension, and B_3 arises as the group which surjects onto PSL(2, Z) under this extension
does associativity only hold for triples in G? for example is it not always true that (a * b) * (a * b) = (a * b) * (b * a)
this will hold if G is abelian ofc
associative means (ab)c = a(bc)
so say we had a group G with identity e such that every element x in G is its own inverse, i.e. x * x = e for all x in G. then x = a * b for some arbitrary a, b in G. would the following line of logic be valid:
x * (a * b) = e, so x * a * b = e --> a * x * b --> a * a * b * b = e = a * b * a * b, so following the left and right cancellation laws, we see that a * b = b * a so G is abelian?
What’s supposed to be in the middle of your chain of implication
x * a * b = e --> a * x * b this I am not convinced by
even if xab=e => axb=e still not convinced tbh
There’s no =
oh wait im actually stupid i didnt use associativity
It’s just a single element
Yeah even if it was stating it was =
You’ve been using it by just not writing parentheses
yeah just not explicitly is what i meant
Anyway
Your last thing
Your chain of 2 equalities
Is all you need, I don’t know what the point of the middle thing in your chain of implications is
you know abab=e because x is its own invwrse
yeah ur right
you also know e = aabb
Well I mean
and ee = e
You wrote it down even
Like in this block of text you wrote it haha
but would you able to get rid of the parentheses to get aabb = abab
yea i know g
I mean both are e
There’s nothing about parentheses, you’re just using transitivity of =
what does that mean
If a = b and b = c then a = c
sorry im confused how does that apply here?
You know that aabb = e
And e = abab
So you get aabb = abab
There’s nothing about parentheses here
I mean if you want to explicitly write down associativity you have to worry about parentheses or whatever
abab is meaningless if your operation isn’t associative
But it is, so it’s just equal to anything you can possibly write down with any parentheses
oh okay so it just follows from associativity
I mean sure
If you want to go write all the parentheses you can work out where you swap them
But it’ll work out
I refuse to think about it because it’s annoying lol
so associativity is not only for triples
because in the definition or rather associativity they state that a(bc) = (ab)c
but that's only with three elements
I mean, you can just iteratively do this
If you are confused by this maybe it’s best for you to write the parentheses down and figure it out
so say i'm trying to prove the following:
Show that if $(a * b)^2 = a^2 * b^2$ for $a$ and $b$ in a group $G$, then $a * b = b * a$
okeyokay
would this be an acceptable proof?:
Since $(a * b)^2 = a^2 * b^2$, it follows that $a * b * a * b = a * a * b * b$, so the left and right cancellation laws imply that $a * b = b * a$
okeyokay
hi, any suggested readings to better understand how to factor a polynomial over pretty small (non-prime) fields?
basically but I would probably not say cancellation laws, I'd say multiply on the left by a^-1 and on the right by b^-1
i see some things on factoring x^n - x (n is a power of a prime) over a field but not sure how to generalize this to other polynomials
sounds redundant since a group has inverses in it by definition, how do they describe the group axioms?
hmm looks pretty usual I guess
when I think of cancelling I think more like an integral domain or something
idk doesn't matter I guess
it is a first course in abstract algebra type textbook so it is pretty gentle
the problems are kind of sloppy though in my opinion
for instance, when checking the existence of an inverse in this problem you must assume that given any a in G that a is nonzero for its inverse is 1/a
unless i'm mistaken
but that's not mentioned in the problem
no clue
i thought it would be not enough to state that the inverse of any a in G is a^-1
but even still that's equal to 1/a
literally speaking of course
in the definition of a^-1 it's never specified that a is nonzero
or any inverse for that matter
depends on what you mean by zero
wdym
if the group is the set {0} with the binary operation + then the inverse of 0 is 0
if you're saying 0 is something that has the property that x*0=0 for all x, then it forces it to be a group with one element
because in a group you always have inverses
im so confused then
so what would be an inverse for any a in G here?
you can't use the fact that G is a group because we haven't proven that yet
it's a group because they say it is in the first line
well they say show that it's a group
so we're proving that it's a group right
otherwise the proof would just be like
<G, *> is a group because it's stated that it's a group
well there's some facts about all homomorphisms
they always send identity to identity and inverses to inverses
so probably worth proving those if you haven't already
although idk gotta scroll up and see if we know it's a homomorphism or not
so the identity for <G, *> is 1 right
so we need to produce an element b such that a * b = 1
or in other words ba = 1
if you're calling the identity of <G, .> 1, sure
wdym
i was talking about <G, *>
the identity is arbirary notation, sometimes people use e or 0 or 1
depending on the operation
maybe I'm actually thinking you meant more than you did here
because to prove <G, *> is a group i proved associativity
now i need to produce an identity and 1 works
because a * 1 = 1(a) = a
for all a in G
you have a*b = ba so if you plug in b=1 you get that a maps to a for all a, so the identity will trickle through as itself as well
a*1 = a
that's the same 1 that gives us a.1 = a
I gotta go to sleep, keep playing around, someone else might help, good luck
about an inverse to produce
right
okay
right
not some vague element such as e
because nobody's gonna take that seriously in the proof
like
idgi
okay
maybe this is where i'm strugglig
you know by definition of a group
struggling
there must exist an inverse always?
okay so here's the notion
I noticed you were talking about a being nonzero
right
ye
so you've assumed that ab = ba
for all a, b in G
and of course I'm guessing that operation is associative
yeah i proved that
have you found an identity?
wait how did i assume that it was abelian
yes
okay
1
can you send the question
right
how did you find e?
right
so maybe if i switch the equations around it'll make more sense?
let's see it
so are you saying that we have ba = a * b, so since <G, .> is a group then by definition it has an inverse for each x in G, so that means * must have an inverse for each a in <G, *>?
or something along the lines of that?
*since brain is not working
it should have an inverse, but it doesn't immediately follow
let's consider any element in G
say a
ok
under . it must have an inverse, yes?
right
so let this inverse be say y
okay
so ya = e = a * y
awesome

do you know how to make the isomorphism in the next bit?
well they already produced the map so you just need to prove it
right i already started trying to prove it but injectivity seems a bit difficult but i haven't really thought that much about it
phi(a) = phi(b)
do you know how to show something is injective
so the inverse of a = the inverse of b
sorry
yeah
so i'm trying to show that a = b
from the inverse of a = the inverse of b
nope, uniqueness of inverses comes to mind
ok wait
wait
i see where you're going
wait let me think about hthis
so the inverse of a is equal to the inverse of b, so more precisely let a' be the inverse of a which is the same as the inverse of b. then a'b = e = a'a, which is a contradiction since each element in a group G has only one unique inverse so a = b?
what are we trying to prove here
yeah you don't need the contradiction
right
we can just use the cancellation laws
or probably the fact that a' has an inverse
you literally did it lmao
okay surjectivity is trivial
right
you know how to show the last property?
every element has an inverse
yeah let me try to show it
it's called the homomorphism property correct?
oh okay interesting
ig that makes sense
okay
so
for the homomorphism property i basically have to show that the inverse of the product of two elements is the same as the product of the inverses of the two elements
in other words (ba)' = a'b'
by plugging it into the homomorphism equation or whatever you call it
yeah i feel like there's something obvious hidden in plain sight
ok so phi(ba) is equal to (ba)'
ok let me give you a massive hint: you actually already said the correct answer
this?
hmm
not quite
the hint here is that one of the lines
contains the thing you said
i don't feel like this would suffice right
because that's what we're trying to prove
(ab)^{-1} = b^-1 a^-1
funny thing about linear algebra is that a lot of abstract algebra came from there
ohhhhh
okay so ab(ab)^-1 clearly equals e
gallian calls it the "socks-shoes property"
basically if you put on your socks and then your shoes
which is equal to ab(b^-1)(a^-1)
you must remove your shoes first before your socks
so by the cancellation property or whatever you can get to (ab)^-1 = b^-1a^-1
yep
oh interesting lmao
here we left-cancel off (ab)
so yeah when you said that line you've already proven it
If G is a group, X is a set, and a: X x G -> X is a (right) group action on X that is free, then
a(x, g) = x implies g = e (the identity). This is the definition of a free action.
But doesn't the inverse of g fix a(x, g) for any x and g? (the calculation being a(a(x, g), g^-1) = a(x, gg^-1) = x) So by freeness we must have g inverse be equal to the identity, but this clearly isn't true for all elements of the group
I don't believe my definition is wrong, so I went wrong somewhere in my logic
xg
mathworlf suggests a different definition for free action
this says gx
whether or not the action of left or right isn't relevant to my question though right
like the point still stands
let's see
I am not convinced the calculation is correct
from a(a(x, g), g^-1) to a(x, gg^-1)
xg is not a group action
letting * denote
x * g = a(x, g)
and let . denote the group action
wait you just defined * to be the group action?
ok let's look at
a(x, g) is literally the group action
If G is a group, X is a set, and a: X x G -> X is a (right) group action on X that is free, then
a(x, g) = x implies g = e (the identity). This is the definition of a free action.
but if thats the case your action isn't associative no?
because (xg)(g^-1) should be the same as x(gg^-1)
idk
associativity is a part of the definition of an action
I just wrote down the definition of a free action above
honestly I'm confused too sorry
I'm popping off now, someone else will probably be over to explain
no problem
I stuck at part c of the problem. I have tried the method of contradiction but I think I can’t say since ab not equal to ba then (ab)^2 not equal to (ba)^2. Is there any better method to show?
contradiction is overkill
It is hw
alright
You mean my negation is false?
overkill meaning we can use a direct proof here
also what you wrote looks like a contrapositive rather than contradiction
Ok but I am not sure how to prevent square root
this is abstract algebra
Umm
we don't do square roots like that
I see
close
It is associative
which means (what can we do here?)
So I can write a(ba)b
I think you got it
Oh wait I cant assume it is commute
compare to the RHS
expand on RHS
Oh
we aren't assuming it is abelian at all
abab=aabb
the result follows directly
But why we can cancel out the left a and right b?
left multiply by inverse
are you lacking sleep by any chance
Lol perhaps
get some sleep
I slept at 3am last night
you need sleep
say $N$ is a normal subgroup of $G$, and $S={s_1,s_2,\ldots}$ is a left transversal of $N$. i believe conjugation of elements of $N$ by $s_k$ ($\phi_k(n)=s_k\inv ns_k$) is a homomorphism on $N$. will the elements of $S$ give all such homomorphisms?
nilpotent nix
perhaps we can find an n such that the polynomial we wish to factor divides x^n - x, then we use the factors of x^n - x as factors for our polynomial? is this the right thinking?
what are you thoughts?
I think $a = \pm 1$ works
isomorphism
yep!
and what about the right inverse of some element a?
say e is a left identity element
not sure
do I set |a|b = e
then |a| = b^{-1}
yep, because definition of the right inverse will depend on the left identity you chose
yep, and you wanna solve for b
so $|a| = \pm b^{-1}$
isomorphism
I think?
sort of true? >.<
not really, but it's a little confusing the way you wrote
because |a| can't be something negative right
in any case, we want b and not a
a is given to you
and you want to find a right inverse
you just want to find all b's such that a * b = e
b = $\pm \frac{1}{|a|}$
isomorphism
won't write +- here
how come
like i said, the definition of right inverse depends on the choice of e
isomorphism
so once you fix e, there is a single element b which gives you a right inverse of a
yea that all is good
but i think the point of the exercise is to show you that the identity element may not be unique in genearl
I see, that makes sense - I was surprised we had two choices for the left identity
say
- is associative,
there is a left identity
and for each element there is a left inverse
then this would automatically imply the left identity is unique and each element also has a right inverse
basically in the axiom of groups, you could only ask for left identities instead of two-sided and same for inverses without really changing what they are
but like you saw, left identity and right inverse don't imply all the group axioms
because we had an example with two distinct left identities

for this problem
the order of x^2 is 3
so x^4 cannot be the identity right
is that sufficient reasoning?
isomorphism
yee
so
x^2 \neq e implies that x \neq e right
which must mean that
if x \neq e
then x^{-1} neq e
yep
hence x^5 neq e
yee :3
thank u
is this logic consistent though
regarding the order of x^2
if you know order of x is 6, then yep
so that proves that x^4 cant be e
that's why the problems asks you to show x^4 and x^5 are not e
that way, only options for order are 3 and 6
x^5 = x^-1 implies that x^4 = x^-2and x^2 neq e which means x^-2 neq e which means x^4 neq e
yee :3
you could also argue via contradiction, that's sometimes a little easier to follow in head
x^4 = 1 would mean x^2 = x^6/x^4 = 1
and similarly x^5 = 1 would mean x = x^6/x^5 = 1 which means x^2 = 1
(i get to be lazy because <x> is cyclic)
it doesn't matter whether you write (x^4)^-1 * x^6 or the thing above
yeah
I have one more question that I kinda don't know how to approach because the dihedral group is not abelian
I think I have to use associativity
but i'm not sure
I thought I can leverage $a^{-1} b^{-1} = (ba)^{-1}$ somehow
isomorphism
you need to use the relations a and b satisfy in D_n
what's that
because if bab^-1 = a^k then, ba = a^k b
so you can use this relations to push all the b's to the extreme right
how do we know bab^-1 = a^k
I don't
(like what's your definition of D_n?)
hmm okie
so in that case notice that if b is a reflection and a is a rotation, then ba would again be a reflection.
I think I have to try this out with an example
like D_3
so I can see the relation
yee give it a try
thank u again for helping me

I'll get back to you once I'm done
Can someone please help mw with this, i m not getting how they assuming function g?
,rotate
It seems to be the same g that appears in the previous proof - or at least a specific example of such a g
Is there any reason they are defining g like this?
you're forced to define that because you want f = g o alpha
Thats the thing how they get f=ga even they have not defined a 🥲
yea they did
Let $F \subseteq E \subseteq K$, a field extension such that $F \subseteq E$ is algebraic. Then if $a \in K$ is algebraic over E how can we show it is also algebraic over F?
Let me try
What are you trying?
ye
Trying to show f= ga
Good luck 
Eso
so say a satisfies some polynomial x^n + c1 x^n-1 + ... + c_n = 0 where c_i are in E. what can you say about a over F(c1, ..., c_n)?
from that what can you say about F(c1, ..., c_n, a)/F
hmm then it would be a root
when can an upper triangular matrix commute with a down triangular matrix
right, and the polynomial also lives over the field L = F(c1, .., c_n). so not only a is algebraic over E, it's also algebraic over this (possibly) much smaller subfield L
when one of the matrices is diag?
ye i kinda was here but idk how to show there is a poly in F[x] which has this root as well
yeap, so instead of looking for an explicit polynomial, just try to argue using degree. recall a is algebraic over k if and only if [k(a):k] is finite
you know that a is algebraic over L and L is f.g. and algebraic over F
thx ❤️

i totally overlooked the thm
Is This ok?
how do I show that [L(alpha) : K(alpha)] = [L : K] for some alpha in the algebraic closure of K if [K(alpha) : K] and [L : K] are coprime
hint: both [L:K] and [K(alpha):K] divide [L(alpha):K]
not quite. you could only apply g = f o alpha to an element of X. and alpha(x) is 1.x in the copy R_x
there won't be any summations there
Okk, let me check this again
But 1.x is element of F now, so we can write this in summation form.
have you seen that Exercise 2.2 which they talk about?
the element x in F actually means the tuple (0, 0, .... 1, 0, ... 0) wehre the only non-zero element is 1 which is at the x^th spot in the direct sum of Rs
Thankyou for the help, i will try

