#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 44 of 1
are you familiar with cat theory
only remotely
it's the direct limit of something something adjunct functor there isn't it
or something like that
not exactly, it's much easier
it's a coproduct in a 'suitable' category
categories like Abelian (groups), R-mod and all that
what's a coproduct
co product of A,B is an object C with maps i: A → C and j: B → V s.t. for any other object Z with maps f:A →Z and g:B →Z, there is a unique map ψ: C →Z s.t. ψ ∘ i = f and ψ ∘ j=g
easier with pictures
you can verify that the definition of direct sum satisfies the universal property given
In general you can't choose an element from aB, if you choose at random (like a) it most probably won't work
Right, thanks guys
For example with Z6, you have Z6/Z3=Z2, but if you try {0,1,2}×{0,1} -> Z6 by addition it won't even be a homomorphism, it's more subtle
Well also like direct sum is a biproduct which means it is ~~ a product attracted to >=2 genders~~ simultaneously a coproduct and product
I'm confused on calculating Ext^n_Z/4(Z/2,Z/2)
I know we have a free resolution given by ... Z/4 to Z/4 to Z/2, where each of the maps Z/4 to Z/4 is multiplication by 2
Ext^n_Z/4(Z/2,Z/2) should then be H^n(Hom_Z/4(F_bullet, Z/2)
I'm confused on this Hom chain complex
Hom(Z/2,Z/2) is isomorphic to Z/2
and I think Hom(Z/4,Z/2) is also isomorphic to Z/2? but im not certain
and then im not sure what the maps in this chain complex should be?
You have an explicit description from applying the hom functor
thanks!
How do I show this part?
wait
I think this is just Newton's theorem
since if you have p(r1,...,rn)=0 where ri are the roots, this is symmetric in the roots, which implies it can be written in terms of the coefficients. I think?
wait no it doesnt make sense
idk
i think that should work
say t1, .., tn are the roots, then the a_k are symmetric polynomials in t_i
so consider the automorphism of F(t1, ..., tn) which permutes these roots
definitely these a_k are fixed
so it's an element of Gal(F(t1, ..., t_n)/F(a1, ..., a_n))
then we just proved S_n is a subgroup of this galois group
so equal
how? I don't see it
any permutation of the roots of any polynomial will leave the coefficients fixed
oh i might have assumed that these t_i are algebraically independent among themselves
yeah, you cannot assume that
it's like the converse. Given that the coefficients are alg independent, show that the roots are also algebraically independent
right, my bad
I think you can just solve for the coefficients in the algebraic expression
you could prove that directly using some trancendence basis stuff, but i don't think you want that
n >= tr.deg(F(t1,..., t_n)/F) >= tr.deg(F(a1, .., a_n)/F) = n
oh yeah
that's how in the book they proved how s1,...,sn, the elementary symmetric polynomials in the variables t1,...,tn are algebraically independent
thanks
wait, i thought we were trying to prove the other way
like using galois group is S_n to get info about algebraic independence
or something
mmh yeah in the exercise they seem to take that route
Doesn't this follow from the fundamental theorem of synmetric polynomials
wait so you're saying if i have a dependence relation among the t_i, then i also have a symmetric dependence relation?
from there the fundamental theorem would say that there's a polynomial in a_i which is 0, that would be a contradiction
I make this cochain complex
Hom(Z/4,Z/2) is isomorphic to Z/2 and consists of the "inclusion on cosets", and the zero map
I think that multiplication by 2 from Z/4 to Z/4 induces the zero map on Hom(Z/4,Z/2) to Hom(Z/4,Z/2)
opps this is okay
all the maps are trivial
but that doesn't mean the cohomology is trivial
Hom(Z/4, Z/2) = Z/2
so your cochain complex is Z/2 in every non-negative degree and all maps are 0 like you say
how do we show that Q(isqrt(2)) and Q(i) are not isomorphic as fields?
and you wanna know it's non-trivial in each degree
because x^2+1 is irreducible over one and not over other :3
how does that show that they are not iso
if they were iso then this wouldn't be the case right
in other words, "there exists x such that x^2 = -2" is a field invariant
why
say Q(isqrt(2)) = Q(i) then the left side has a solution to x^2 = -1
you could transport the x from one to the other
but why should it be a solution to it
In Q(i sqrt(2)) take x = i sqrt(2)
It satisfies x^2=-2
Suppose the fields were isomorphic, h: Q(i sqrt2) -> Q(sqrt2)
then h(x)^2 = -2
why is h q invariant
can you prove that h is q invariant pls
h(p/q)=h(p)/h(q) =p/q
another way to say this is by using that Q is the initial field in the category of char 0 fields
so any map between fields gives you a triangle
Q --> E --> F
which says Q is invariant
h(p)=h(1+1+...+1 (p times)) = h(1)+...+h(1) (p times) = 1+...+1 (p tines) = p
I like concretness lol
me like abstractness 
I love category theory still 💀
Computing limits in finite concrete categories is my job
Now idea how to even start
I can't even see why $\text{Tr}(\dfrac{1}{p'(\alpha)})=\dfrac{1}{[E\colon F]a_0}$
Croqueta
if sigma alpha=r then alpha*sigma(p'(alpha))=-a0 for r!=alpha
where sigma is an automorphism
if f in R[x] has odd degree, then it has at least one real root
why cannot we prove this algebraically
like if we look at its root inside the algebraic closure
the complex ones appear pairwise
and if all were complex then there would be a complex number s.t. z = z bar
ah wait
I think I know where the mistake is
I'm assuming that they are all complex
but what if they lie outside of C
right

I just gotta prove this using algebra now
I'm pretty sure it's impossible
some help is appreciated, please. So if p(x)=(x-a)q(x), then p'(a)=q(a), and we should have Tr(q(0)/q(a))=1, I think. But I have no clue why this should be true
I could prove it for alpha an nth root of a rational number, but this case is nearly trivial
Good luck lol
You'll need to use smth special about R compared to Q for example
So like the proof will use smth like completeness
yes
yes to the first or second question?
Does this mean $N\cong M_1\oplus M_2$?
DarQ

yes
And if so, why the apostrophe in the second sequence?
this is how they were introduced to me
i think it shouldn't matter
because you can swap the terms in a direct sum with isomorphic ones
but maybe someone else knows a concrete reason why your book phrased it like this
yw
There's an MSE post about this btw
Or was the MSE post proving the FTA assuming only odd polynomials have a root? 
One sec
Seems there are none
5 lemma innit
the proof using Galois theory is neat, but you require to show that every odd degree polynomial has a real root, and you can't do that without analysis probably.
Is there any relationship between the trace of a matrix A and that of its inverse ?
Guys for exercise nine how could I check this, in one example I was given the matrix that this, but I don't know what to do exactly.
one way to look at it is that you're asking if there's a nice relation between x + y + z + ... and 1/x + 1/y + 1/z + ..., but that might be too shallow (x, y, z, etc. eigenvalues)
:c
ohhh yeah heisenberg group time
determinant is a homomorphism
Sorry, posting this here again (deleted my post here, because I used the math-help function)
Does "a zero divisor free, commutative, finite ring" imply that it cant be the zero ring?
Isnt the zero ring zero divisor free, commutative and finite?
Here it is in another Springer book but he takes it for granted D:
I don't know about that
if you know what the determinant is then certainly you know that det(AB) = det A det B
yep
mmh I guess since the inverse of a matrix is a multiplicative concept, the two don't fit quite nicely in general
so you do know that the determinant is a homomorphism
I don't know what homomorphism is
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Homomorphism#:~:text=In algebra%2C a homomorphism is,form" or "shape".
In algebra, a homomorphism is a structure-preserving map between two algebraic structures of the same type (such as two groups, two rings, or two vector spaces). The word homomorphism comes from the Ancient Greek language: ὁμός (homos) meaning "same" and μορφή (morphe) meaning "form" or "shape". However, the word was apparently introduced to mat...
Determinants are an example
wack ass pedagogy

I have already read something about it from my classmates, but I haven't seen the course and I can't understand that term either, but ok, I know about that property of determinant.
I am the guy who is studying the course in a self-taught way.

did you just sully yourself?
no, I'm going to see the introduction to abstract algebra soon, and I want to take topics ahead of it.
can anyone explain the underlined part of this proof
You want to find an element of order p
If y^p = e, then y is that element
Else, y^p has order q meaning y^pq = e, and that’s the smallest such number for which it’s true
But then y^q has order p cuz (y^q)^p = y^qp = e
I cant really still see where the order q comes from
It’s just, the order
If y^p isn’t e, then it has some order not equal to 1
call it q
Oh this is a little different than what I said sorry
y^p is in <x> and x has order q, a prime number
So y^p = x^k for some k, 0<= k <= q-1
Because <x> = {e,x,x^2,…,x^q-1} since x has order q
Now if y^p = x^0 = e, then y is your element of order p
Else, y^p = x^k with 1<= k <= q-1
But all these elements have order q because x had order q, and q is prime
Then because p and q are coprime it will follow that y^q has order p
I guess the easiest way to do this is to show y has order pq
Clearly y^pq = e so the order of y has to divide pq
This leaves only that y has order 1,p,q,pq
It can’t be 1 by assumption, we already handled the order is p, so we just need to rule out q
But the order of y is divisible by p because y<x> has order p, indeed if n is the order of y then y^n<x> = e<x>, so the order of y<x> divides n.
Thus the order is pq
How does one show irreducibility of the polynomial in the screenshot in Q[X, Y]? I thought about using
is Q the rationals
Eisenstein on (x-1)
and you can think of this
as a polynomial ring with only 1 variable over the ring of polynomials of the other variable
is this the same thing im saying?
right?
Yes
cool
It factors as Y^4 + (X-1)Y^3 + (X-1)Y^2 + (X-1)X
yeaa
Yes sorry
It doesn’t have to be over the rationals
I have already tried det(AB) :c
This doesn’t factor so long as the base ring is a UFD
Right I thought of using eisenstein considering polynomials in Y over Q[x] haha. Asked in one of those help channels first but thought I would confirm here

Alright got it. Thank you :)

Isn’t SL defined as things of determinant one
And det is multiplicative
So
1•1 = 1
No?
Wut
Then it would be a homomorphism, as I was told above.
What are you saying
Aren’t you trying to show the product of two things in SL_2 have determinant one
I’m saying that det(AB) = det(A)det(B)
And by assumption if A and B are in SL_2
Then you’re just showing 1•1 = 1
SL_2 is a group, qed
Bruh

Let's see, I asked if the product of two matrices in SL_{2}(R) has determinants one.
So I was told to try
det(AB)=det(A)det(B)
I have already tried what I have been told so I could conclude that the product of two matrices that are in SL_{2}(R) have determinant 1.
I don't understand this comment, are you still confused or are you summarizing what you've done
Sorry, I use the translator
is what I have done
this would be the most formal test
Can I tell wolframalpha to write the gcd of two polynomials as a linear combination in this two polynomials ?
Get the free "Extended GCD for Polynomials" widget for your website, blog, Wordpress, Blogger, or iGoogle. Find more Mathematics widgets in Wolfram|Alpha.
,w PolynomialExtendedGCD(x^3+x^2, x^2+2x)
oh there we go
PolynomialExtendedGCD[poly1, poly2, x] gives the extended GCD of poly1 and poly2 treated as univariate polynomials in x. PolynomialExtendedGCD[poly1, poly2, x, Modulus -> p] gives the extended GCD over the integers mod prime p.
thanks
Q(something algebraic) is a field, but calculating inverses is ???
so painful
?
nvm i c
this is the process to do it
I mean something like calculate the inverse of 6x^5-24x^3-18x^2+24x-36 where x=sqrt 2+cbrt 2 expressed in the basis (1,sqrt 2, cbrt 3, cbrt 9, sqrt 2 cbrt 3, sqrt2 cbrt 9)
yes but I meant that the calculations are annoying to do by hand
calculations are always annoying to do by hand >.<
i would often just reduce it to something a computer can easily do and call it a day
polynomial gcd is the same then 
hint: do (x^-1y^-1)^-1
this proof can be a one liner
although you can take the eqn you got and multiply by xyyx or sth
this gives yx
since ((xy)^-1)^-1) = xy?
uhh
im not sure where we get the xy from
yx holds in general xy is what you get by the assumption
use the assumption
I can't hand hold any more than this
lol okay let me think
is it not just since we assume (xy)^-1 = x^-1y^-1
then we take the inverse of each, the rhs gives (x^-1y^-1)^-1 = yx
theres a few ways to do this
this works also
(xy)' = x'y' = (yx)'
xy = yx
you are making it very complicated
for some reason
I had in mind, (x'y')' = x''y'' by assumption
and also (x'y')(yx) = e so you get xy = yx
but as aforementioned there really are too many ways to do this
probably because its plaintext, i find it hard to read
and i think u did some unnecessary things
I barely understood what you did so
theres no mistakes, probably
oh yeah that is very clean too, (xy)' = x'y' means (xy)'' = (x'y')' = yx
I assume this is what you wanted to do more coherently
also you need to prove both directions, so if your steps are clearly bidirectional, that would be easiest
that is true, while you already did the other direction you could do both directions at once if you are smart enough about it
not necessary though
yes this is what i was getting at
sorry i’m not the best at explaining my thoughts
since inverse is denoted with ^-1, how should i notate the inverse twice
like i typed it previously or
lems
perfect, thank you both
any idea on how to solve this with group theory?
this looks like a number theory problem
are you sure it needs to be solved by group theory
its one of the exercises in a group theory chapter of a textbook
so yeah
Binet's formula for Fibonacci numbers has $\sqrt{5}$ in it at worst, so the formula is valid in $\mathbb{F}p$ or $\mathbb{F}{p^2}$ and since it's a difference of powers raised to a multiple of $p^2-1$, it simplifies down to $1-1=0$. Special care has to be taken for $p=2$ and $p=5$ since they're in the denominator, probably isn't too bad
Merosity
i feeel like it's an application of lagrange's theorem for the orders of group elements
it is
p-1 and p^2-1 are the orders of the multiplicative group of the finite fields
so we're basically considering $(\mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z})^\times$?
sean
only when 5 is a quadratic residue
otherwise I'm adjoining it to the field and getting a field with p^2 elements
0 is not in the multiplicative group, so there are p^2-1 elements
the thing is, they havent mentioned binet's formula and have only barely introduced groups and lagrange's theorem, so using facts from field theory is a bit of a stretch i think..
the spicy pepper makes me think it's supposed to be hard like using things like this for all I know
that book is for competition math isn't it?
You could be expected to know Binet's formula
https://mathworld.wolfram.com/BinetsFibonacciNumberFormula.html it's not really that complicated if you've studied linear recurrence relations you can get it pretty simply too
no, but it is aimed at students trained in comp math looking to get into college math
hmm i see
ill try using this then
something just occurred to me, since my proof was more general and yours was pretty specific
ah nevermind, I was thinking the 2 in there would make the sqrt(5)^2 = 5, but it's squaring the golden ratio nvm
Does Z[x]/(x + 1) denote the ring of all polynomials of the form p(x)/(x + 1)^k where p(x) is from Z[x] and k from Z \ {0}?
No
nope, it denotes the quotient ring {p(x)+(x+1): p(x) in Z[x]}, where (x+1) is the ideal generated by x+1
oh also, what's Z(x)?
Z[x] but with x^-1
Hi
so if I were to consider a ring that contains elements of the form p(x)/(x + 1)^k where p(x) is from Z[x] and k from Z \ {0}, is there no notation to define it?
There is
there is, if you include k = 0, that's the localisation of Z[x] at x+1
Well 
Yeah you have to include k = 0
Also it is the localization at the element x + 1
yes, sorry
wait (@_@;) I meant Z[x]/<x+1>
alr! I'll check 
localization is an extremely important construction but you dont really need to learn about it if you don't have a handle on the content of an intro algebra course (including quotient groups and rings) yet
Hi, guys, we can show that any vector space has a basis by zorn's lemma, but it is not true that any module has a basis (e.g. Q is a Z-module). But why module is not the case?
what stop modules having basis
units
the point where the proof over fields fails is in the statement that if S is a linearly independent set of vectors and v is not in span(S), then v u S is also linearly independent. this is no longer true over non-fields.
This is why I like to saying that you localise at an element but away from a prime
I know I know there's a geometric meaning here also but idc
Thank you!
How do you read this?
I don't know how to read sequences lmao
K is the field of fractions of O
J_K are the fractional ideals of K
i'm not sure what the question is, are you asking what the maps are
What are the 1 s?
trivial groups
uh ok, I think I was mixing rings and groups
First 2 arrows are inclusions, 3rd arrow sends a to aO, 4th arrow is the canonical projection, last arrow is the constant morphism.
show that every group of odd order is solvable
show that $|2^X| < |2^Y|$ implies $|X| < |Y|$
show that if $g \sim h$ then $gz \sim hz$ for all $z \in \mathcal{Z}(G)$
Wew Lads Tbh
show that if Ext^1(A,Z)=0 then A is free abelian
Try finding all groups that have no nontrivial normal subgroups. Shouldn't take too long
lmao
finding the groups with no non-trivial subgroups 😌
finding the groups with no non-trivial normal subgroups 
that might be a bit tricky for someone who hasn't done a lot of algebra. Try and just find the finite ones, that's more reasonable
try finding a galois extension over Q for every group
nice challenge for an evening
As a warm up, show that every solvable group occurs as a Galois group over Q
This question came up on my group theory exam and I was stuck for the last 2/3 of the exam in it so I’d appreciate a hint. Let G be a group of even order acting on a group K of order 3^57^313^2. Show that for p=3,7,13 there is a Sylow p subgroup P such that G fixes P (fixes in the sense of the induced action of G on the set of sylow p subgroups)
Wtf is that number
All I managed to find was a stabilizer of order 2^km where |G| = 2^kn with n>=m but I didn’t manage to get anything with n=m (tried an argument where I said this stabilizer contains all sylow 2 subgroups of G and thought I might be able to increase the size of the stabilizer this way but it was a no go)
The number itself is probably irrelevant
But I’m not sure
Is that ((3^57)^313)^2
Oh sorry lol
I assume it's 3^5 * 7^3 * 13^2
Yep
Oh lmfao
Forgot * behaved weirdly on discord
Yeah I don’t get it
Do you have more assumptions on the action?
I don’t see why a group action would permute subgroups
Like G acting on itself by left mult doesn’t send a subgroup to a subgroup
It’s a group action on a group
So elements are sent to automorphisms
That’s a little ambiguous, but sure
Yeah in the context of the question it was clear should’ve made that explicit
Oog
what does the notation $\bL(\bK)$ for $\bL, \bK$ fields mean?
@wooden ember is the action faithful?
Not specified anywhere no
Then sham brought up a point
Which is
If G was any group acting on K, you can make an action of G x Z/2Z
By acting trivially with Z/2Z
Now you have an even order group acting on K, which I think still acts via automorphisms
So it’s trivial
But then G’s action is trivial
you're trivial
Oh sorry
What I mean is
There’s a Sylow p called P
Which is fixed by the G x Z/2Z actuon
So it’s fixed by the G-actuon
Why?
This is what I’m trying to show 🤔
Because G x Z/2Z is an even order group
Right I’m saying
As written
This theorem implies any group acting on K
Will get a fixed point
Oh yeah I agree
So this seems fake
I also think it’s false if that’s what you’re getting at
I just couldn’t get a counterexample because of the size of K but this is smart
Because if as written this is true
Then Aut(K) has a fixed point
But as long as K has non-unique Sylows
This is impossible by some Sylow theorem cuz of conjugation
Yeah I agree
BecUse if you have the theorem for even order groups
No it was just prove but I feel there’s a mistake in the question
Ah right yeah ofc
Then this action has a fixed point
Shin it won’t matter
the entire action has a fixed point
Yeah
Yeah that sounds good to me
well fuck that question then
I think the teacher might’ve gotten mixed up cause another question temporarily assumed G to have order 2^k and in that case it’s easy
Tried asking a TA if the exam had a mistake and the dude legit said « I don’t know the exam can’t help you » 
bruh
Yeah
Then you do class formuler
Good job Walter 
Perhaps a bit of a dumb question. Is a PID a domain by definition, meaning we take the ring to be a domain, or is it because when every ideal is a principal ideal it somehow implies it is a domain?
it's part of the definition
for example Z/4 isn't regarded as a PID even tho every ideal is principal
Ahh yes good example. Thank you!
when is an ideal in Z/nZ not principal
quotient a PID
look inside
principal ideals
explain
is R/pid always a pid
no clue if this is true so I'm going to go purely off of intuition and det can correct me
I is an ideal in a PID R, say I = (x), then mapping I into R/J through the canonical map should give (x+J)
this probably breaks in some case, which det will now tell you about
never
being a principal ideal ring is preserved when taking quotients
the difference between PID and PIR is important here
how do we show that it is euclidean
you define the absolute value as said valuation
is every non finite ring a domain
yeah but how do we show that it works
multiplication defined component wise?
yes
because euclid's division thingy. say a is an integer and b is a non-zero integer, look at the smallest natural in the set a + bZ
wdym
but how do we know this
Bruh it’s Z you learned it was a domain in like 3rd grade

yeah but how do we show it formally
that's kinda the definition of order in Z
What’s your formal definition of Z?
Z is an ordered ring, such that positive elements are well ordered
N u -N 
What’s your definition of N
What’s your definition of multiplication
My point is that these are things you need to be able to answer if you want to show it formally, but you also don’t gain anything doing this
It’s just an exercise in tedium

It works exactly how you learned arithmetic works in like, 1st grade even
It’s in a sense made exactly so that it works that way
But if you believe it’s N u -N, then it’s a domain because the Cartesian product of nonempty sets is nonempty
Because you’re probably going to write numbers as certain sets defined recursively with 0 being the empty set, and multiplication being the Cartesian product basically
You could also use Peano arithmetic
ah von neumann
oh god
If you accept that the sum of positive things is positive
Then you can define 1•m = m
(n+1)•m = n•m + m
To recursively define multiplication
oh this is smth i wanted to ask
This shows that positive numbers multiply to nonzero things
thanks chmonkey
Then treat - as like, a symbol
how can you set up a first order theory of the integers
you could use a lot of stuff for constructing Z, but these will involve a lot of unnecessary choices. best thing to do is use your favorite construction but later give a list of properties which uniquely characterize Z, that way you won't have to think again about how an integer is defined
It’s just tedious to do this and all you get after trying is
in a peano esque way
this is a cute one line description of Z
The same exact thing you had when you were in 1st grade learning about + and •
So I don’t think it’s that useful lmao
it can be useful if you're learning rigor, but beyond that... nothing :p
I was just curious 
You have to pickup a like
Elementary set theory book
Or look into Peano arithmetic or something
The problem to me is that you probably don’t know a formal model for Z
Fwiw you can show Z is a domain by showing multiplication in N is cancellative, which is a fairly tricky thing to do from the Peano axioms and definitions
I knew once but I forgor
So it becomes impossible to actually dissect why it’s a domain
Yeah so you have to pore into the construction of a model and what x is
To answer it
N.b. this is also why we simply assume that R is a field lmao
It definitely is
Because showing you complete a field to a field
Is useful in other parts of math
And might need to be reproduced again for eg p-adics
I think an actual formal construction of N is…
Not that important
yea, and another thing is eventually you're going to accept a few axioms anyway. like construction of N would boil down to the axiom of infinity + a lot of work. might as well change axiom of infinity to "N exists"
I guess my last point is
I think Peano arithmetic is reasonable to have someone new to proofs go through
But if you’re doing abstract algebra and field theory and stuff at that point I think you’re past the point you get much development from it, so it’s only something I’d say you should go through if you just feel like it
Tbh in my head it is

I know it just asserts there’s some infinite set and then you do crap to get N but
¯_(ツ)_/¯
what is a set? 🤓
Please ask #foundations such questions will not be heralded in #groups-rings-fields
people in#foundations probably have a lot of patience 
i always want to learn some model theory, but never have enough motivation to do so >.<
Hello wildberger
A collection of elements
I will not be taking further questions
A thing that obeys the ZFC axioms
I understand but there's something that is not connecting in the following question: IS the set of the three reflections about the vertices of an equilateral triangle a transformation group?
A transformation is a bijective map from a set onto itself
A group if considering all transformations in a family of transformtations has a group structure
Now, suppose we have something like /_\ with the upper vertice being A
you probably mean symmetric group rather than transformation group
Well yeah but we do not have all the symmetries since we do not have rotations
Sn can be defined as all bijections from a set of n elements onto itself
This specific case would be a subset of Sn
where n is some cardinal i hope.
ah
We should only consider reflections
I think mns wants to see if those three reflections from a group
they do, it's S_3
no
he/she asked about the set of three reflections
not the set generated by those reflections
I think
ah I see
two reflections is a rotation
ye!!
same thing to me
reflections are not closed under composition
We can't go back to this initial using only reflections?
reflections are not closed under composition
reflections are not closed under composition
ok
reflections are not closed under composition
my message was not responding to the picture, obviously
thanks
C
reflect again...
Cope
You don't need choice to define sets
☝️ 
People define sets?
you don't?
Informally ig
yeah a set X is a set containing all elements of X
If i have a group G of order 2n, how can i show that there is atleast one element of order 2
so far i have that there is an even amount of elements in G
and so we have an odd amount of non identity elements, 2n-1
but i feel like we would have to have an even amount of elements in G with an odd order
but im not really sure if thats true or even the correct direction to go
what element?
.
oh nvm use this fact
i think i should pair the elements in some way
yh
guys can someone help me with my lin alg homework 
Yeah, sure
can u prove this for me??
!help
Please read #❓how-to-get-help
wtf
Vladimir Arnold
,,\varpi
bet its induction
yur varpi_n is a nth root of unity in C and omega_n is a nth root of unity in Z/p^2Z
cant i like pair each element in G with its inverse, since theyre all unique.
indeed you can
meaning that since one element has order 1, we need another to also be its own inverse, therefore being order 2 since there can only be one identity element
idk if im explaining it right but thats how im thinking about it
group of order 2n has unique involution
oh god
am I forgetting what an involution means
Bruh
what
ah nevermind I misread the question
And by many I mean it has like, 3
In general because of that pairing up thing, you can show that |G| and # of involutions have opposite parity
that makes sense to me
I would never
im glad you didnt i learned what an involution is
🗿
I just like to call them involutions because my TA who made our algebra psets
Just included the word randomly over and over
So we just thought it was really funny
its fun to say
Yeah
i was anxious about learning abstract algebra bc every math major ahead of me who has taken it made their worst grade in it
but i think im getting it slowly
Swag
True story:
When I started learning algebra I thought it didn’t make sense
And said “I think my brain just is built for analysis”
When I started algebra I thought it made sense and now I think it doesn't make sense
another fun involution question: show that if a group has exactly one involution, that involution has to be in the centre
I nearly failed first year group theory
group theory is its own class? bruh
group theory is its own sprawling area of mathematics
we will cover ring theory im sure
why wouldn't it be it's own class?
I like rings
i saw all of this stuff when i took the gre and just used my guess letter for them lol
Tbf my first exposure to algebra
Was a qtr of group theory
And then 1 qtr of…
Rings, modules, field theory, and Galois theory
Wait wtf
I don't believe you
it's true
oh yea?
yeah, nerd
prove it
ShiN here’s a hint: ||get good||
well that would spoil the fun wouldn't it
here's a hint: ||praise the sun||
shhh chmonkey I am gaslighting wew into thinking he got it wrong
Oh okay ShiN, proceed
I never think I'm wrong (I am delusional)
I think I'm always wrong (I am correct)
btw I am saving these 2 questions and will give them to my students
Is all notation in grad math such a messy abomination? 
Wtf is sideways Beta??
you don't want to see the notation before I cleaned it
Also you haven’t even seen nG-math
Nice this is good exercise
This is cleaned???
One of my friends' papers for example
This is a parody, right?
Oooooh sometimes things are complicated ooooh so scary
noncommutative algebra has neat notation 
This does look neat tbh
Tho, the composition is a bit tilted
5/10
for an operation to be a binary operation, does it need to be closed?
that is usually implicit in the definition of 'binary operation', yes
Now we hope they weren't talking about topology
discrete topology
in my opinion, differential geometry has a very clean notation system...and another very clean notation...and a million others, all used in the field. there's a reason why it's sometimes said to be "the study of objects that are invariant under changes in notation"
Guys for this exercise I have to show that it is a group.
My idea is the following
a_i+b_i=(a_1+b_1,...,a_n+b_n)
now let c_i=(c_1+...+c_n) which belongs to Z_2 for all i=1,2,...,n
then we prove that it is commutative
therefore
(a_i+b_i)+c_i=(a_1+b_1,...,a_n+b_n)+c_i
=(a_1+b_1+c_1,+...+a_n+b_n+c_n)
=(a_1+(b_1+c_1)+....+a_n(b_n+c_n))
=(a_1+...+a_n)+(b_i+c_i)
=a_i+(b_i+c_i)
the identity would be e which belongs to Z would be 0
you haven't showed there's an inverse
lmfaoooooo
It would be as follows if a_i belongs to Z_2^n then there exists an inverse such that -a_i belongs to Z_2^n, therefore
a_i+(-a_i)=(a_1+(-a_1)+...+a_n+(-a_n)
=(e_1+...+e_n)
where e is the identity belonging to Z_2^n then
a_i+(-a_i)=(0,...,0)
Weird question: say we have A in M_n(Z). We know that A satisfies a monic polynomial with integer coefficients, but is there any obvious way this works without using Cayley Hamilton? Over a field one can just use linear dependence of some big set of powers, say
But idk if there's some like super easy way to see this
Ye
It follows that any submodule is,
And so there hs to be some dependence between the powers of A
Otherwise you’d have a free submodule of unbounded rank for example
Yeah sure, it's from there on that it seems harder I mean
Nah I mean like I'm fine w what you said, just how do you know you get a monic thing
Yeah so
Fuck the free thing
You know you’re finitely generated
So the Z-span of {A^n} has a finite spanning set
You can see from some finite spanning set you can extract that {1,A,A^2,…,A^k} is a spanning set for some k
Yeah sure so then you have polynomials in A^n generating it and just pick a massivenpoeer of A
And write as a Z lin comb of smaller ones
Sorry that was vague language I meant
So the degree is bounded
So pick the powers of A at that degree and lower
Then take an even bigger A^k
You have polys in A generating it as a Z-module
That is written as a Z-linear combo of the smaller stuff
Which is equiv to what u said
Yeah
Yeah okay nice
Thats good and feels silly now cause I did that argument earlier anyway for smth slightly different
Thanks
ChmonkaS
ok thanks
i thought that a binary operation's closure is optional
If I have a map f: R^m \to R^n over some commutative ring R with unity, I can in particular represent f as a matrix, what do people mean when they say the "rank of f"?
yes; i would interpret "rank of f" to mean "rank of the matrix" in the usual sense, like maximal number of linearly independent columns or something like that
thanks!
quick question, if i show that a potential subgroup (call it H) is closed under the operation induced by the group in question (call it G), and show the existence of inverses, must i also show that the identity of G is in H, or do it get that for free?
it would make sense if you could get it for free since an element operate on its inverse is the identity and H is closed so that identity is defacto in H
yes you get that for free
No
wait
Anyway this observation leads to the following:
A nonempty subset H is a subgroup if and only if for any x,y in H, xy^-1 is in H
so would this work?
are you convinced by your own proof?
yes but that doesn't imply it is sufficient
that's a first sanity check
takes a while to read the proof gimme a sec
why do you spam so many brackets btw
as in ()?
fair point
e_2 = phi(e_1) immediately lets you conclude e_2 is in phi(H) by definition
this is a faster way to do it btw
haha i did not see that until now
typo probably
this is fine
yup
a bit long winded
okay, fair enough. thank you for your time 🙂
also inclusion morphism
they may have not reached that point yet
i feel it's ok to write long proofs
as long as
and you don't lose yourself with many assumptions leading to wrong conclusions
it's a fairly common habit of mine tbh... so i know how bad it's
long proofs are fine
but I think it's good to practice trimming down proofs
just like you're supposed to edit essays before submitting them, you should edit proofs
tweak wording, trim fat, etc
(this is much easier if you typeset your work)
also this closer reading and editing forces you to pay more attention to what you wrote, forcing you to proofread your work (never a bad thing)
agreed
I might have a somewhat personal question to you guys.
Are y'all taught abstract algebra, categories and universal algebra in a intuitive way?
Could someone help me with this? If I let e + fi, and g + hi, then (e + fi)(g + hi) = eg + ehi + fgi + fhi^2 = eg - fh + (eh + fg)i. How do I show that c + d is nonzero? From the first two elements, e + f is nonzero and g + h is nonzero. If you did (e + f)(g + h) = eg + eh + fg + fh is nonzero. But, you can't determine if eg - fh + eh + fg is nonzero or not since fh is positive and in the other expression, fh is negative. So, is this a binary operation or not? I'm confused.
Isn't it defined above? c+d != 0
Yes, c + d != 0, but I'm trying to show that (e + fi)(g + hi) belongs in this set, so I'm trying to show that c + d is nonzero for this possible element.
Saying cd=0 but c+d nonzero is just a fancy way of saying “exactly one of c and d is zero”
So start with two elements of that type
And multiply them
@oblique river That's what I did above.
I took (e + fi)(g + hi) where e + fi and g + hi are in G.
You never used that ef = gh = 0
Im saying that you should do it by cases.
One of e and f is zero and the other is not.
One of g and h is zero and the other is not
That gives you four cases. Do them all separarely.
I see. Okay, let me try this out.
@oblique river So, whenever you see cd = 0, then you have to split it in cases?
Like cd = 0 implies c = 0 or d = 0.
Then, see if (e + fi)(g + hi) is an element of G under the assumption that e = 0.
Then, f = 0.
For complex numbers, “cd = 0” is the same as “c = 0 or d = 0”
And that happens to be useful here
Np and gl
@oblique river Quick question, for e = 0 case, (eg - fh)(eh + fg) = e^2gh + eg^2f - feh^2 - f^2gh. You get - f^2gh, but that's not equal to 0. So, I'm confused.
Wait, I think I'm confusing how to show the element is in this set.
Nvm, I think I'm right. I'm trying to show how (eg - fh)(eh + fg) = 0.
Hello, I'd like someone to tell me if my proof would be rigorous enough for a test.
Given Z and Z_{10}, prove that f(x) = [x]_{10} is a ring homomorphism, and describe Ker f. Is Ker f a subring of Z?
Proof: we can assume that Z_{q} is an additive abelian group and that it's closed under multiplication, so it inherits the moltiplicative identity from Z.
Given some x, y in Z , x \equiv z_{x} (10), y \equiv z_{y} (10) for z in {0, ... , 9}. Then, by modular arithmetic x + y \equiv z_{x} + z_{y} (10) -> [x] + [y] \equiv z_{x} + z_{y}. We know therefore that there is a corresponding element in Z_{10}. We can follow a similar approach for multiplication.
Ker f is an ideal but not a subring of Z because it does not contain 1.
Can you just put it in latex
Youve pretty much already written it out that way
If not maybe just write it readably
Why is this set closed?
DarQ
what's phi_A
The characteristic polynomial of A
i mean there you have it then
you're looking at the zero locus of a polynomial
btw what is that horrendous notation, fixing some A, looking at it's characteristic polynomial and then using reusing A for matrices that you plug in
i assume this is for some fixed A because otherwise this set is the whole space
I don't think it is fixed
And we're trying to prove it's the whole space
We're trying to prove the Cayley Hamilton with the zarisky topology
oh that's the context
Yea
ignore my messages above then i did not assume one would reprove basic linear algebra with the zariski topology

the characteristic polynomial of A would be something in K[a_ij][x]
and when you ask phi_A(A) = 0, its like asking n^2 many polynomial equations in K[a_ij] to hold true
what is the syntax? mathjax?
doesn't matter
mathjax is just latex put on websites basically lel so yes same syntax
Let's try:
Hello, I'd like someone to tell me if my proof would be rigorous enough for a test.
Given $\mathbb{Z}$ and $\mathbb{Z}{10}$, prove that $f(x) = [x]{10}$ is a ring homomorphism, and describe $Ker f$. Is $Ker f$ a subring of $\mathbb{Z}$?
Proof: we can assume that $\mathbb{Z}{q}$ is an additive abelian group and that it's closed under multiplication, so it inherits the moltiplicative identity from $\mathbb{Z}$.
Given some $x, y \in \mathbb{Z}$ , $x \equiv z{x} (10)$, $y \equiv z_{y} (10)$ for $z \in {0, ... , 9}$. Then, by modular arithmetic $x + y \equiv z_{x} + z_{y} (10) \implies [x] + [y] \equiv z_{x} + z_{y}$. We know therefore that there is a corresponding element in $\mathbb{Z}_{10}$. We can follow a similar approach for multiplication.
$Ker f$ is an ideal but not a subring of $Z$ because it does not contain 1.
now i'm curious, what are you reading and why is it proving cayley hamilton like that @warm wyvern
i feel bad for merli now >.<
It's John's stupid blog lol
I'm just pointing out a place where merli can practice latex, in case needed
oh i was actually on there just now
Merli
(oh okie >.<)
the first sentence says that it is a well known theorem and typically encountered in a first course in lin alg
Ok I think I'm done now, sorry x:

I was wondering whether Discord uses MathJax or KaTeX or something else
but whatever it is it works I guess
what's KaTeX 
I've only seen it for K=C case 
it's an interesting read tho
afaik, it's a newer alternative to mathjax developed by Khan Academy folks
bash it with structure theorem of f.g. mods over pid 
I dunno structure theorem 
do you see closed-ness from this?
Not really
(if you know it for Z, then you know it for each ring :3)
okie, so you want each of these n^2 polynomial identities to hold. each of these will define a closed subset in the affine n^2-space, and so their intersection is also closed
zariski topology by definition had closed subset = zero locus of a bunch of polynomials
I'm not really sure which nxn polynomial equations you're referencing 
okie so lets take an example
A = [a b]
[c d]
the char poly is
phi_A(x) = (ad-bc) - (a+d)x + x^2
so if you plug in x = A
you're gonna get a polynomial in each of the 2 x 2 entries with variables in a, b, c, d and coefficients in Z
and you want this matrix over Z[a, b, c, d] to be all 0s, which amounts to looking at the closed subset described as the zero locus of these 4 equations
(and since these coefficients will be integers, proving these identities hold over Z would automatically imply it holes over any ring)
(also since Z embeds into C, proving it for C implies it holds for Z)
Oooooh
So like
In phi_A(A)
Everything depends on the entries of A
yep 
Hopefully 

This is what I keep telling myself 
(you're not alone
)
I think you are still really overthinking it. Elements of G look like either c or ci for c a real number
The product of any two elements of that form is also of that form
If you want to call your two elements e + fi and g + hi, then there are 4 cases:
-
e = g = 0. Then the product is (fi)(hi) = -fh = -fh + 0i which is of the correct form.
-
e = h = 0. Then we have (fi)(g) = fgi = 0 + fgi which is of the correct form
-
f = g = 0
-
f = h = 0
In your argument, you forgot that both elements must be in G
So one of g and h is 0, which means -f^2gh is 0
yeah the method can definitely be seen as overkill here ig, but its very useful to know, as in the future you can prove "continous" properties on just diagonalizables and not have to worry. (I have used this method a lot)
Yeah I didn't see the bigger picture when i said that, after reading the entire thing i realized that it's more about the method than the theorem, which is an accessible example for said method
Sorry if that came across as me trying to bash the blogpost that was not my intention
oh dw i didnt feel that, i was just clarifying
this is an old blog post i wish i emphasized the method over thm a bit more
was i the friend lol
No
damn getting popular fr
i should edit it to be better if ppl are actually seeing it lol
bump q_q
I don't really understand your notation
What is unclear?
Although the fact that you don't understand it might be an issue in and of itself
Let $p$ be the minimal polynomial of $\zeta$. Why is it the case that
[
\textup{Tr}_{\bQ(\zeta)/\bQ}\left(\frac{\zeta^{n-1}}{p'(\zeta)}\right)=1
]
where n is the degree of zeta
Croqueta
I kinda believe this is true now, the leading coefficient of p' is n and both numerator and denominator have the same degree, and the numerator is monic. So you should be able to write that fraction as 1/n+c_1zeta+...+c{n-1}zeta^{n-1}
and I think Tr(zeta^k)=0 for k not divisible by n (no lmao)
hi. considering (a,b)=greatest common divisor, and [a,b]=least common multiple, A= a commutative ring and domain (no divisors of 0). I am trying to prove this: if [a,b] exists, then (ca, cb) exists, $\forall$c$\in$A
Maths Enjoyer
we note [a, b]=m, and have the property: a$|$m , b$|$m and $\forall$m'$\in$A , with a$|$m', b$|$m' $\Rightarrow$ m$|$m'and since we know that if both lcm and gcd exist, their product = product of the numbers, I believe I have to try to prove (a,b)=$\frac{ab}{m}$
in particular, I guess I also know $\forall$ a'$|$a $\Rightarrow$ a'$|$m. similar for b.
given that A is a ring, I also cannot use $\frac{ab}{m}$ = $a\frac{b}{m}$ ; $\frac{b}{m}$ doesn't even have to exist (in A)
thinking about it, maybe I can justify unique factorisation of a and b if [a,b] exists / that all divisors of a and b are prime atoms. then, it would be simple to prove (a, b) exists, and probably same for (ca, cb) with c $\in$ A.
hope it's ok for me to ask here.
Maths Enjoyer
I wonder if the following is true:
[
\textup{Tr}_{\bQ(\zeta)/\bQ}\left(\frac{\zeta^k}{q(\zeta)}\right)=0
]
for deg $q>k$, q any polynomial



