#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 43 of 1
I noticed that my prof defined a ring with commutativity
I'm kind of complaining because the author I'm reading rn never explained it lol
I don't know if you understand german, but I think this is what he means
like in my case the difference between a ring and a field is just that it doesn't have to hold 1!=0 and the inverse of an element under multiplication doesn't always have to exist
fields are usually assumed to be commutative, the non-commutative rings where every non-zero in invertible are called division rings
Yeah seems so
It's not that non-commutative rings are not important, but commutative ones are easier to work with (and have a richer theory?)
@rustic crown yes?
You're the algebra expert :p

prime ideals are fun, but hard to deal in non-commutative rings >.<
i've only worked with non-commutative rings while doing some representation theory
everywhere else the world is commutative for me 
Do you have some duality between ideals of a ring and filters on some space
Or something analogous
Sorry, random question
was looking at the definition of filters lol
Can you study non-commutative rings geometrically to some extent like you do in commutative algebra?
if i had to guess, then probably the answer is yes 
it's hard to keep mathematicians from not generalizing things :p
analysis has predominantly non-commutative algebras unfortunately
I wonder if Boytjie knows more 
only non-commutative geometry i've heard have more stuff to do with C*-algebras
The rings I'm studying in topology rn are all commutative and nice 
with lots of zero divisors
@coral spindle hey, good morning. Did you get anything about this lattice question of mine from yesterday?
I’m afraid not :( nobody seems to know
Sorry for not @chilly ocean you, I forgot to
Whoops, that’s a person
Sorry
Lol
wouldn't have expected linear algebra to be used in the classification of cyclic extensions
unaware
Exact sequences of commutative non-unital rings show up in K-theory 
exact sequence of groups are bad enough already 
all SES of groups split so it's not that bad :trollface:
explain
all groups are projective ℤ-module anyway
Can I prove that if m is a maximal ideal in R, and u \in R\m, then there is some v \in R such that uv-1 \in m?
let f in Q[x] with degree >= 3. why does f(x) = c(x^n - a) imply that its galois group has degree <= n^2?
where a = alpha^n for a root alpha of f
do I just like
calculate the degree of its splitting field manually
then use that |gal| <= [extension]
the ideal (m, u) contains m strictly so it must equal all of R. so you can find r in m and v in R such that r + uv = 1, ie uv - 1 in m
not for the fr*nch, I have learned 
LOL
Guys I need help, it's my first time applying something to show that it's a group, I don't know how to go about it.
I would like you to give me some ideas, and how I could demonstrate that it is an abelian group.
I have done it like this
I didn’t look too carefully but it seems correct
I don’t think you showed the operation is associative though
how do I do that, I don't understand 😦
look
if |G| = 2^(r - 1) why does there exist a subgroup of order 2^(r - 2)
sylow 
i don't even think you need Sylow for this, I've always proven this by induction
It's a more general fact about p-groups, that if |G| = p^r then G contains normal subgroups of order p^k for all k <= r
ah i see
sylow only gives a normal series right
here you get that everything is normal :3
but I guess Sylow 1 lets you conclude that if p^k divides |G| then you have a subgroup of order p^k which is cool in its own right
ig the only difference between the two proofs is exactly that for p-groups you have a non-trivial center so you can choose a nice element of order p than some arbitrary one
for p-groups the proof is easy tho without any Sylow nonsense
use useful fact #1 about p-groups and mod out by Z(G)
I guess you need to handle the abelian case which could be difficult unless u have structure thm
what's useful fact #1 about p-groups
non-trivial center
that Z(G) is non-trivial
ah
you can prove abelian cauchy also by simple induction 
Actually not true just like
take an element
of non-maximal order
exists by like, cauchy, or by whatever else you want
lots of ways to do
just like, take some multiple of an element of maximal order and you see you get an element with order not p^n and also not 1
if |G| = p^n
i was thinking more like this, ig G is a p-group, by induction find a normal subgroup of order |H|/p, then find some nice p thing in G/H
I mean, that's the point of Z(G) right?
as long as it isn't all of G you can by induction find something of index p in G/Z(G)
then pull that back
I could really "kill a fly with an atom bomb this" I think 
makes sense. i was using Z(G/H) non-trivial to find the normal subgroup H'/H in G/H of order p >.<
ig in your argument, instead of taking all of Z(G) just take a subgroup of that of order p to avoid dealing the abelian case separately.
all subgroups of Z(G) are normal lel
Okay but
Det
actually your proof doesn't help at all
cuz how do you now you can do that in Z(G)?
the abelian case is only when G = Z(G)
but then you can't do that in Z(G) cuz no induction go through
but
i had cauchy in mind, but ig if you avoid that then it increases the owrk a little
I mean
finding an element of order p in Z(G)
is equivalent to handling the abelian case

i wonder what all things people consider nonsense :p
like category theory is abstract nonsense 
are there more concrete nonsense examples?
Is category theory really that looked down upon ?
Sounds like a love-hate thing
it's nonsense in the sense that it talks purely about structure of things and not about meaning
That’s the premise of it right? To study about its relationships and not to care about the inner details
can someone help me prove/disprove this statement? If two actions of G on some set X are both sharply transitive, and they agree on an element of X, then they are the same
ah i think that's easy
Yes, you factor through this element they agree on.
yeah lol i guess im a bit tired i thought about this too hard
also we don't even use the freeness of the action
i was about to type 'freedom of the action'
thanks though
That's not true, we do indeed use freeness of the action
or am I misremembering what that means
if your point is that we don't need to use the fact that the transitivity is sharp, this isn't right
no, no you're right I got it wrong. one sec
say both actions fix $x_0$. Let $g\in G$, and $x \in X$. Let $h \in G$ be such that $h \circ x_0 = x$. Then
$$g\circ x = g \circ (h \circ x_0) = gh \circ x_0 = gh \cdot x_0 = g \cdot (h \cdot x_0) = g \cdot x $$
I Abhor Hatcher
I don't think we used sharpness at all?
You're quite right, my mistake
alright, thanks for helping out 🙏
So, my text uses the notation for the sum of 2 ideals. Is that defined as
I + J = {x + y| x in I, y in J }?
Rather, is that a standard operation I should know
Yes
yes to both
Thanks!
now what about the product 
it's also worth mentioning it's kind of like the gcd of ideals, since you can do the euclidean algorithm by addition and subtraction. Look at ideals of Z for examples.
Interesting
It is quite literally the same as “the smallest ideal containing both” so within the lattice of ideals it is the meet!
Err, join
I think
You can define about direct sum too
in some cases
it might be useful
why does the semi/quasi-dihedral group need to have an order that is a power of 2? does it collapse into some other dihedral group otherwise?
like why is this not a quasidihedral group?
$\gen{r,s\mid r^{12}=s^2=e,s\inv rs=r^{6-1}}$
nilpotent nix
is it perhaps that the order isn't actually going to be 24? like r^6=e and this is actually just D12 or something?
how could I theoretically show that that's the case? that r^6=e i mean
This is for ppl in the numerated help channels
ah my bad i didn't see that in the rules anywhere
I don't see how order of r would be 6
Is it just me or is this proposition written weirdly?
Also I believe it's missing the fact that R has to be non-trivial
Is this Rings and Modules by any chance
It is indeed
Yeah okay the notes are weirdly written at times oofies
But importantly... R has to be non-trivial right??
Good point
yeah me neither. but quasidihedral groups apparently need order of 2^k and i don't see why.
I'd definitely write it differently cause I just managed to confuse myself thinking about it lol
if it isn't quasidihedral, i guess it has to be dihedral ? but idk how to find it's order. unless maybe it's neither, and is actually an entirely different group
But yeah it should be like "suppose R is a non-trivial ring which is also a f.d. F-vector space, such that left/right ring multiplication is F-linear. Then if R has no non-zero zero divisors, U(R) = R^x" and that long condition in my first sentence can be summarised as being a non-trivial f.d. F-algebra
Suppose that $R$ is a non-trivial ring with no non-zero zero divisors which is also a finite dimensional vector space in the which left and right multiplication maps are linear. Then $U(R)=R^*$, and in particular if $R$ is a commutative ring then $R$ is also a field.
Yeah I mean sure for the last bit, but the point he's trying to make in the last line is that like
finite integral domains are fields
Also saying U(R)=R^* is just a fancy way of saying R is a division algebra
Indeed
Philka
Well, or a less fancy way I suppose lol
the guy doesn't define division algebras etc iirc
It's phrased very weirdly tho, why would they not just say "if R is also commutative then it's a field"
It is a vector space over what field? 
any field
Like, F2 too?
Why would that make a difference?
Yes
The field plays no relevance to the proof since you appeal to the rank nullity theorem
Okay, that makes sense
oh, given no non-zero divisors the field must by of characteristic 0 i think
No, because e.g. F_p has no non-zero zero divisors and is a f.d. F_p vector space
potato
I would like to show that the action of the special linear group SL(E) on the projective space P(E) defined by $u.\overline{x} = \overline{u(x)}$, with $\overline{x} \in P(E)$ is doubly transitive. Can someone help me to show that ?
The point of writing it this way is to show that actually the important thing in showing r has a left inverse is showing that the sequences R \supseteq rR \supseteq r^2 R \supseteq ... must eventually "stabilise"; if this is the case for any collection of ideals in R then we call R (left i guess) artinian
Hmz
do i just have to do a multiplication table or something to brute force what it is/is isomorphic to

groups really confuse me
no
Dihedral group has two generators
One is order n
the other is order 2
there is also a relation between the generators
srs=r^-1
have you learned about lagrange theorem or quotient groups yet?
or normal subgroups?
learned: yes. understand super well: not so much. which is the Lagrange theorem? the subgroup order divides the group order?
so with the example, r^12=e, s has order 2, and there is a relationship where srs=r^5, that sounds like it falls under the category.
but then r^5 should be r^-1 implying that r^6=e?
unless that last condition somehow breaks something else and it's not even a group. I'm not sure...
|G|/|H| = |G/H|
oh yeah my bad for afk
use lagrange theorem and thats it
and let reflections be the normal subgroup
order of normal subgroup (order 2) divides the group
|N| is order of subgroup, |G| is order of group
so |G|=k*|N|
and remember we know this because of cosets
cosets have equal order
and they partition the group
so from these two facts we fet lagrange theorem
the subgroup generated by s {e,s} you mean?
is that a normal subgroup? rsr^-1=sr^-2 doesn't it?
$$ rs = sr^5, r^2 s = rsr^5 = sr^{10}, r^2 s r^2 = s, r^2 s = r^{10} s, r^2 = r^{10}, r^8 = 1 $$
so that makes sense that two divides the group. but i don't see why <r,s|r^(2n)=s^2=e, srs=r^(n-1)> necessarily implies it needs order that is a power of 2
mzg147
oh interesting
sorry I'm just trying to learn how to use latex here
and also wake up
if I didn't mess up then r^4 = 1 so rs = sr
Did you come up with this presentation by yourself?
Oh, this is the problem
how did you go from r^2 s r^2 = s to r^2 s = r^{10} s?
it came up in a paper i was using for a project. it just seems odd that n apparently has to be a power of 2 for the third one. like why can't we choose n=6 for example (which is where mine came from)
i wonder if this general principle could work though. like maybe the fact that it's 5 and not 2^k-1 will cause some kind of issue?
but i can't think of where that issue could arise
what does 3,7,15,31,etc. have that 5,9,11,13,etc. don't?
groups that have the size of the power of 2 are important in group theory, they are called 2-groups
I would guess that's why semi-dihedral groups are defined for the powers of 2, they are next in the sequence of some 2-groups
Your example would be a semidirect product of C_12 and C_2 with a twist of 5, too general for the name of "semidihedral"
interesting. what exactly is "a twist of 5"?
oh
yeah, r^3 commutes with everything
So {1, r^3 , r^6, r^9} is normal
and it's C4
dividing we get a group of order 6 which is not abelian, hence it's D3, aka S3
and something something splits
so S3 is the r part and C4 is the s part?
oh
so this is saying the group is isomorphic to the product of the cyclic group of order 4 and D3?
Yes
interesting
what is this function you used? is it something i could experiment with?
I used SageMath on https://cocalc.com
CoCalc landing pages and documentation
I didn't sign up so I cannot share you the workbook, it would've been easier
I have a reduction map [-] that sends an integer to its equivalence class.
Addition is then a map from ([a],[b]) -> [a+b]. I need to show addition is well-defined and unital.
I have already shown that it is well-defined, but unsure what to do for unital. Do I just show that there exists an equivalence class E s.t. [a]+E=[a]? Does it just suffice to show that E can be defined as [0], which since addition is well defined gives us:
[a]+E=[a]+[0]=[a+0]=[a]
Or do I need to show more?
strictly speaking, depending on your axioms you would need to show [a] + [0] = [a] = [0] + [a], but i think it's clear from what you have done.
The problem says I don't have to show symmetry, I can just assume it to be true
for a semidirect product
$$G=\bZ\ltimes\paren{\bZ/p\bZ}^k=\gen{s^av\mid v\in\paren{\bZ/p\bZ}^k,a\in\bZ,s^{-\a} v s^\a=M^\a v}$$
would you denote the cosets
$$G/\paren{\bZ/p\bZ}^k=\left{s^a\gen{\paren{\bZ/p\bZ}^k}\right}$$
like this?
nilpotent nix
i feel like i'm completely messing up the notation
then it's good :3
you don't need to put the extra <.> at the end, it's already a normal subgroup
tbh i would just denote it by \overline{s}^a
instead of carrying the whole subgroup around
so $s^a\paren{\bZ/p\bZ}^k\defeq\overline{s}^a$?
yep
nilpotent nix
great thank you!
strictly speaking it is =:
overline{s} is (by definition) the coset of s inside G/...
so overline{s^a} = overline{s}^a is the coset of s^a inside G/...
whenever there is a single group G and a single normal subgroup N in sight, anyone would understand that \overline{g} means the coset gN in G/N
thank you @rustic crown, @chilly saddle @ruby sundial @formal ermine for help with my earlier question, and the #groups-rings-fields channel in general. you have all helped me so much ❤️
illu is no help, lies.
quick question, is (phi) meant to be coker(phi) here?
I assume that's what it is but I don't wanna go about proving something wrong lol
yes, it should be the cokernel
cool 👍
wait wtf how am I even supposed to prove this, "this just follows from the definitions"????
LOL
I guess I'll just write out the definition of exact and call it a day
i guess doesn't that technically require the first isomorphism theorem?
No why
All you're checking is if ker/im's are the same
First isomorphism theorem would be like, if you were given exact sequence 0 -> K -> L -> M -> 0 and wanted to replace M with a quotient for example
K is a subgroup of G
Why is this true
show it's closed under the operation and inverses
the normality of H comes very much into play here
this isn't true in general
oh wait
H is normal, mb
in that case, it is 
x^8-2 irreducible in Q(i) simply follows from Eisenstein's criterion right? Since 1+i is prime in Z[i]
yes
omg
omg
don't prime elements in general generate prime ideals
prime elements being elements that generate prime ideals?
a prime element r is a non unit s.t. if r | xy then r | y or r | x
I see 
yes, basically by definition (but not quite!)
It should be said that while every prime element of a ring generates a prime ideal, in general a prime ideal will not be generated by a single prime element.
that's only true in pids is it?
I'm not certain
It’s true in any principal ideal ring
It’s actually equivalent to being a principal ideal ring
Very nice
Z[2^(1/2^infinity)] looks like an example of a ring with a prime ideal which isn't generated by prime elements inside it 
oh wow
(that's a slightly different thing i was wondering)
what's an example of a finite ring that's not a pid
is every field a pid
yep
Z
and k[x]
Proof that primes are all principal => PID for domains:
Finitely generated primes => Ring is Noetherian
Noetherian means Krull’s Principal Ideal theorem => ring is 1 dimensional
1 dimensional means Dedekind domain since all local rings are DVRs => ideals are product of primes
All primes principal => all ideals principal
The case of a non-domains starts the same, then you write it as a finite product of dim 1 rings with the same property, or local Artinian rings with principal maximal ideal. Either way, each component is a principal ideal ring, so the product is too.
Latter part is harder than handling the domain case
what is this group? {x,y,z | x^2=y^2=1, z^8=1, xy=yx, xz=z^7x, yz=z^5y}
I obtained that as the Galois group of x^8-3, I think its correct, but there should be a nicer form
The splitting field is Q(sqrt 2, i, 8rt 3), and x is the automorphism that sends i -> -i, y sends sqrt 2-> -sqrt 2 and z sends 8rt 3 -> g* 8rt 3, where g is (1+i)/sqrt 2 is an 8th root of unity.
it has a normal subgroup isomorphic to D(8) or D(2*8) whatever you like to call it
so some weird extension of Z2 and this D(8)
it's also generated by 8rt 3 and w = primitive 8rt 1
maybe that gives a simpler presentation 
(isn't galois group of x^8-3 a good enough description :p)
no
like the exercise asks to find the galois group lmao
and you found it >.< as a presentation
${ Z_{n} } = { 0, 1, 2, \ldots, n-1 }$
Are addition and multiplication just implicitly defined for this set to be modulo n or is it that people just assume that it's used in the context of modular arithmetic?
but it sucks
ren_dez_oox
I'll be honest
Tbf normally one would not view Z/nZ as that set lol but yes, if the operations aren't given in the standard way then it's not Z/nZ
I don't know semidirect products, tho I could probably read the definition
what is it "normally" viewed as then, if I may ask?, are you alluding to it being the set of all integers modulo n?
Yeah
is there anything more to the definition of Z n
But I guess at first Z_n is sometimes introduced as you said so nvm
a+b-c in nZ is same as saying a+b and c leave the same remainder on division by n
and there is a unique such c in that set for a given remainder
right yes I got that part , but is it a part of the definition of Z n, or is Z n just like any other normal set, and this is just so that the operation of addition and multiplication are closed?
that depends really... in the start people may explicitly write (Z_n, +, *) for this whole baggage... but as time goes on people just abuse it and refer to the whole thing by Z_n
I see ok, that was kinda confusing for me, different lecturers used it in different forms as you mentioned, thanks!
it's never a confusion unless one defines multiple operations on the same set, and when people do that they would definitely be careful about the putting all the + and +' everywhere
Yeah makes sense.
Is $\mathbb{Q}(\frac{-b\pm\sqrt{b^{2}-4ac}{2a}}) = \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{b^{2}-4ac)$?
Sapphire
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Supposed to be divided by 2a. Idk what went wrong.
$\mathbb{Q}(\frac{-b\pm\sqrt{b^{2}-4ac}}{2a}) = \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{b^{2}-4ac)$?
Sup?
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
thanks 👍
what's you guys' favourite k-algebra where k is a field?
k is my favorite k algebra
cringe.
uhm ok I think its just {x^8=y^4=1, yx=x^3y}
my favorite is a k-algebra-algebruh k is a field, algebra is a vector space and algebruh is a tensor algebra 
Terrible day to have eyes
so it's a semidirect product of Z/8Z and Z/4Z :3
with the map Z/4Z --> Aut(Z/8Z) = U(8) given by sending 1 to the unit 3
let p be an irreducible polynomial and suppose that for every root a of p, the extension Q<Q(a) has no intermediate fields. What can you say of the Galois group of p or the splitting field of p ? 
Algebra
isn't that over a field
No
Usually its over a commutative ring
they're called R-algebras in aluffi (where R is the ring your algebra is over ofc)
I do think I heard "Algebra" is usually over a field too
there's even separate articles for the two
ig algebra can just mean a few things rip
i don't even assume my algebras are associative
I'm unmuted again
since this section was all about how R-mod is an abelian category, I get the feeling that I'm supposed to prove M satsfies the universal property of ker p and im p
I know ker p \cap im p={0}
how do I prove this tho?
glad you know it, illuminator
it's not a hint it's the whole fucking answer
how do you show that x^4-14x^2+9 is irreducible? I could show it by pretending it to factor as two quadratics, since obviously it has no roots, and modulo p it seems to be reducible always (at least for small primes). Is there an other way?
you could try eisenstein with sub
substitution
Do you know the splitting lemma?
I think u = x - 1 works
But you don’t even need that
recall from group theory that if you have subgroups which intersect trivially, and generate the group, then G is the internal direct sum of the two subgroups
you get this
Prove the same thing is true for modules, then prove that this is satisfies by the im and kernel of p
typo
I mean 2 not 1
wait
that doesn't work either
it's a 31
oops
yeah lmao
You could try looking at factorizations of the form (x^2+ax+b)(x^2-ax+b)
Or (x^2+a)(x^2+b)
yeah that's what I did. But was wondering if something else could be done
There should be a prime where it is irreducible I think but I can't really check anything for now
I did check in wolframalpha. There was none
this one's a classic
Ah are the roots just +-sqrt2 +- sqrt5
Ah yeah it never stays irreducible
btw, the Galois group of that polynomial is just Z2 x Z2 right?
Yeah
Let p be a polynomial of degree n. Can you say something about the size of the Galois group (of the splitting field of p)? So of course you know that its divisible by n and it divides n!, but are there any other restrictions?
hm, to be slightly picky the Galois group order needn't be divisible by n unless p is irreducible
But yeah I mean you can find examples when each the galois group has order n (e.g. cyclotomics) and examples where it has order n! (e.g. the "typical" quintic has galois group S5)
So you'd need to know more about the polynomial to make any better conclusions
oh yeah, I forgot to include that condition
if we leave it as not necessarily irreducible, is it possible it divides a number with factors not in n!?
Let me reformulate the question: Let m be an integer that is divisible by n and divides n!. Does there exist an irreducible polynomial p of degree n whose Galois group has size m ?
regardless of the properties of the polynomial, you will still get a faithful action of the Galois group on the roots of the polynomial
(so that G embeds in S_n and hence |G| divides n! anyway)
in vector space R[X], is this true: (p+q)(x) = p(x) + q(x) ?
yes, that's how we define a vector space structure on R[x]
thanks
can a submodule of a finitely generated module be non-finitely generated?
I can't see any obvious reason why the submodule would have to be finitely generated
yeah
look at a unital ring as a finitely-generated (by 1) module over itself
easy examples follow
grrrr
okay yeah I see, I just need to figure out how to prove that submodules of a finitely generated module are finitely generated in the case where R is noetherian then
there are many stupid examples like F[x1,x2,x3,...], and look at the submodule generated by x1,x2,x3,x4... (over F[x1,x2,x3,...])
Oh I see
That makes sense
So the key is that I have to use the fact that R is noetherian somewhere hmmmmmm
oh wait this is in dummit-foote
its not hard to prove
okay I set up a list of conditions that should be equivalent and I proved that 2=>3 and 3=>4, time to prove the other implications..
How do I show that the Galois group of x^4-2x^2-2 is D4 ?
I figured it out I think
I guess if r is a root, then -r is also a (distinct) root, so you have the roots {r, s, -r, -s}, then if sigma(r)=s I think this basically fixes a bunch of stuff
yes
I saw the proof for that not too long ago actually
I think you need to do something w quotients of free modules
that way is easier, yes
yea
the proof relies on the fact that ||if R is noetherian then so is the free finitely generate module||
okay so now this reduces to proving the acc for free modules of rank n hMMM
I guess we just use the fact that the rank is at most n
look at R^n
yeah
if the chain isn't eventually constant then the rank would continue increasing forever
I think
okay yeah
finished my hw 🥳
cool
you don't need to use the acc, you can just ||look at the first coordinate of the vectors in R^n and realize its an ideal, then blah blah induction ||
ascending chain condition
oh yeah, I was proving that four conditions were equivalent
that makes sense though
(if R is noetherian)
I'm not sure if your book mentions this but if every submodule of M is finitely generated then it's called a noetherian module fwiw
which I find cute
(what's fwiw?)
for what it's worth

fwiw d+f defines noetherian modules using the ACC lol
ugh I wrote a proof down but I can't find where I used the fact that R is noetherian
uh oh
first 3 are equiv for any ring


that's a huge accident
lmfao
Lol I wrote that if m_1, m_2, ..., m_n, m' is linearly dependent, then m' is a linear combo of the others
Oops
//headpat
over what ring
then it's just free 
🤯
hmm wait is it true that if (M \subsetneq N) and the rank of (N) is finite, then the rank of (M) is strictly less than the rank of (N) over a Noetherian ring?
lebesgueric (he)
clearly this isn't true for a general commutative ring
is N free?
no
else consider M = 0, N = Z/2Z over R = Z
I thought I was working in Ring and thought Z is initial 
okay just gonna erase this and start over lol
still not true 2Z < Z for R = Z
pain
//patpat
are you trying to say Hom_{Z-Mod}(Z, Z) = 0?
you can consider Z and 2Z, both over Z. The inclusion 2Z in Z is proper and 2Z and Z have both the same rank
hewwo walter 
hi det 

(lmao its what det said, didnt read)
yes lmfao
that is not true
😭
yus
we showing R^n artinian or something of the sort?
do this instead... if M is a submodule of N such that both M and N/M are notherian, then N is noetherian
oh, I know
isn't this still just induction on n
M=Z/nZ and R=Z
R^(n+1)/R = R^n
yee >.<
:)
but... didn't have to do the argument specifically for R^n with all the messy n+1 and n's >.<
:)
what lies beneath those eyes
in several of my friends groups there's this inside joke that 🙂 is a psychopath
Use Hilbert basis theorem and that Noetherian is closed under quotients
lmao
If you’re a finite algebra you’re finite type too

(only problem being hilbert basis theorem uses R^n is noe inside its proof >.<)
you would quotient in R[x] by x^n right?
I don’t think it does?
You use equiv of ACC and fg ideals
Then take a chain of ideals in R-[x]
Look at some ideals of leading coefficients, use that that stabilizes
Then conclude the chain of ideals stabilizes in R[x]
how do you conclude the final step here
You do some dumdum argument

You are able to show that at the step the ideals of coefficients stabilize
So too does the ideals in the poly ring
Here’s a proof I took at random
It is slightly different but
Same general idea
No use R^n is Noeth
i think that would use R^n is noetherian module, because leading coefficients will only tell you what happens beyond a certain degree
😭 how is that messy
weird that I heard about hilbert's basis theorem literally an hour ago
What was hilbert's original nonconstructive proof of the basis theorem?
I asked my algebra prof and he didn't know
It definitely doesn’t
Just go read a proof it’s never used
Why is he requiring D>0 ? Isn't the same also true for D<0 or am I missing something?
the proof i had in mind was slightly different, if I is an ideal in the big ring and J is the ideal of leading coeffs, then J is fg so pick polys (f_1, .., f_n) whose leadings generate J. giving any arb poly with degree very large, you can use these to decrease the degree, and if the degree is small enough we use R^n is noe to add finitely many more thigns to do the work
good to know 
yea i don't see much difference, except the obvious that you want |D| to be not a perfect square
D<0 makes the units in the ring Z[sqrt(D)] change and now you have a fundamental solution to pell's equation along with all its powers with norm 1, I'm guessing that's the issue
maybe, but i think, since we're working with Q(sqrt(D)), it doesn't change much?
but there are more solutions, so it's not exhaustive anymore
you show there are not more solutions by Hilbert 90, no?
what other solutions are there? 
pell's equation gives you integer solutions to x^2-Dy^2=1
yes, but aren't those included in that parameterization?
I'll try to find an example real quick
(1,0) is clearly a solution and you can just produce all solutions by drawing all lines with rational slope through (1,0). Although now its a hyperbola, not an ellipse. Maybe I'm missing something
so let's pick x^2-2y^2=1, we have (3,2) as a solution, can we write this as that form?
s, t = 1, 1?
a=(s^2-t^2)/(s^2+t^2) = 0 not 3
a = (s^2+Dt^2)/(s^2-Dt^2) with D = 2
oh I'm using the wrong form
ig technically this gives (-3, -2) but shouldn't be too far off
how does it generalize
oh I see, you wrote with -D where I was expecting +D
what's b end up being?
(i just copied croqueta's calculations 🙈)
hilbert 90 is weird
if you apply Hilbert 90, the parameterization is clear
and you can apply it, because the Galois group is cyclic
over Q stuff is so much simpler as compared to over Z lol
and if you do the chord method, you can probably produce all solutions
(s^2+Dt^2)^2-D(2st)^2=(s^2-Dt^2)^2
so we have
s^2+Dt^2=3
2st=2
s^2-Dt^2=1
with D=2, is that right?
i hope so
yeah
so you had caculated (s + sqrt(D)t)/(s - sqrt(D) t)?
2st=2 means s=t=+-1 and s^2-2t^2=1 becomes 1-2=-1 though
and took the norm, yes
but st rational
wait
oh s=1/t ok
you don't need s^2-Dt^2=1
thinking
The parameterization for $x^2-Dy^2=1$ should be (I think):
[
(x,y)=\left(\frac{a^2+2b^2}{a^2-2b^2},\frac{2ab}{a^2-2b^2}\right)
]
for any $a,b\in\bQ$.
Croqueta
so now (3,2) is now on there so we should be able to solve for it

I think I see now in general this will work, it just won't be the cleanest form since it looks like it's gonna always be a reducible fraction that pops out
like with primitive pythagorean triples, the side lengths are all relatively prime numbers, I guess that might be part of the D>0 constraint that they have in mind, idk I gotta work on other stuff right now but good to know
Consider the equation $x^2-Dy^2=1$. Clearly, $(1,0)$ is a solution to this equation. Consider the line that passes through $(1,0)$ with rational slope $m$: $y=m(x-1)$. We will obtain the point of intersection with this line and the hyperbola. First, solve for $x$:
[
x^2-Dm^2(x-1)^2-1=0
]
which is clearly divisible by $x-1$. This factors as
[
(x-1)(x(1-Dm^2)+1+Dm^2)=0,
]
and we obtain the solution
[
x=\frac{-1-Dm^2}{1-Dm^2}
]
and
[
y=x-1=\frac{-2}{1-Dm^2}.
]
Croqueta
if you write m=b/a, you obtain the above parameterization, but it's weird because I'm getting the above but with x,y multiplied by -1 
uh wait this is not right 
oh wait
y=m(x-1) not y=x-1
then everything is fine
but still weird because everything is multiplied by -1
so much algebra >.<
i think i lost the ability to do that
btw, why is HIlbert 90 called "90" ?
it's the 90th theorem in somethin
I think it was like the 90th theorem in some book he wrote lol
the 90-th theorem in Hilbert’s Zahlbericht, a report
on the state of number theory at the end of the nineteenth century commissioned
by the German Mathematical Society
imagine there are 89 theorems before it

and even more after it probably
people know so much >.<
so in my abstract algebra class we talked about modules, but we never talked about matrices over modules. how does the invertibility of matrices change when over a ring rather than a field? specifically, i'm thinking about what i can and cannot say about an invertible matrix A over Z/nZ instead of Z/pZ
over Z/pZ i'm pretty sure everything that's true in R or C applies... like with respect to the determinant being nonzero and being surjective/injective/etc.
a matrix A is invertible if and only if det(A) is a unit
so gcd(det(A),n) has to be 1?
if you are working in Z/nZ I suppose that's the case
This is true over any commutative ring
and if det(A) is a unit, you can divide
the other direction is trivial, you can try to prove it
wow that... is like a perfect generalization from the 1d case i was working with originally...
that makes perfect sense!
adjugate matrix comes in clutch once again
alright so that's good. so if the inverse exists, then it's still both injective and surjective, right?
like the kernel is still trivial?
yes
mmh
it need not be surjective
if you are looking at matrices as linear operators on a space of vectors (by left multiplication), if you are over a ring, surjectivity will be lost most of the time
for example, in Z, consider left multiplication by 2
oh wait
but 2 is not invertible what am I saying
I guess then what you said is still true
yeah if it's invertible then it's torsion free right? i think that's the right term that applies
What, if a matrix is invertible it defines a surjective map
a map that is invertible is bijective always btw
yes, by brain collapsed for a sec
What does this mean
haha all good
A map doesn’t have torsion
In any definition of torsion I know
Do you mean like as an element of the module of matrices maybe?
maybe they're thinking invertible matrices don't have finite order?
i think the matrix is acting as a scalar

this is the group
$$G=\bZ\ltimes\paren{\bZ/p\bZ}^k=\gen{s^av\mid v\in\paren{\bZ/p\bZ}^k,,a\in\bZ,,s v s=M v}$$
and im essentially working with a function w that does this
Like are you trying to make M_nxn(R) into an R-module?
nilpotent nix
so i'm looking at the invertibility of the matrix pa(M) and how that can potentially make w a bijection
i was originally working over Z/pZ but now i'm moving on to Z/nZ
i have a proof that i think works for the former, but i wasn't sure how much i have to change my argument for the latter
there's a lot more to it... but that's the very basic gist
decompose Z/nZ into Z/p^kZ x .... by CRT then look at inverting in Z/pZ and then go back up to Z/p^kZ by hensel's lemma
or maybe just think about solving it in Q_p since it's a field, then restrict down to Z/p^kZ again
googled "CRT algebra" and got "critical race theory" 
chinese remainder theorem?
cathode ray tubes
😆

Let F be the splitting field of x^n-2 over Q. Let z be a primitive nth root of unity and consider the automorphism of F that sends nrt 2 -> z nrt 2 and fixes everything else. The subgroup of Gal(F/Q) generated by this automorphism is Z_n. Let K be the fixed field of this subgroup, then Q<K is Galois and Gal(K/Q)=Z_n.
i'm writing that down so i can ask my mentor at the next meeting if that could apply, but it's possible that having the gcd of the det with n being 1 is the if and only if i need, since M/pa(M)/a/n are all pretty arbitrary and tough to compute in general.
Is this correct?
yeah more than one way to do it I think, idk I didn't really understand the original problem you were doing but this seems like a rough way of vaguely splitting it up to make it simpler probably
shouldn't that be units mod n?
it's Z/nZ cause it's addition in the exponents of z^k
the galois group is the semidirect product of Z/nZ and (Z/nZ)*
z can go to any other primitive nrt1
uhh wait
yeah, I see I think
right
so Z/nZ is a normal subgroup so by fundamental theorem, gal(K/Q) would be the quotient Z/nZ*
not an isomorphism if you're not doing units
sigma_b(z^a)=z^(ab) basically derp my bad
if b isn't invertible mod n, we're screwed
so fixed field is just Q(z) right lol
Let F be the splitting field of x^p-2 and let z be a primitive p-th root of unity. The map prt 2-> z prt 2 is then a valid automorphism no? And this automorphism has order p, so this way we can produce Z/pZ as a galois group, no?
yea, but that won't be over Q
Gal(F/Q(z)) = Z/pZ
but you've come quite close
because Gal(Q(z)/Q) = Z/(p-1)
oh okay I see
I could swear you helped me solve this before lol
your exercise was showing that the galois group of x^p-2 is Z_pxZ_p
I think
Zp*
yeh
How do I show that $\mathbb{Q}\left(-\sqrt{2}\right) = \mathbb{Q}\left(\sqrt{2}\right)$?
Sapphire
Lol
show that one side is contained in the other
here's a place to start
try to write down an element which is in one set but not the other
you won't be able to do that (because they are indeed equal) but that might help you realize why this is true
ok i assume this is fine here but my course in ant defines trace/norm of elements a in a number field K in terms of the images of the a under the embeddings into C. is there any point doing this when one could equivalently talk about the other roots of the min poly (or equivalently the trace/det of the map x -> ax)
i suppose the only thing is i know that in some proofs when we're actually working with it it can be helpful to use the fact that the embeddings are field homs but ye
ig transitivity becomes easier to prove with the definition using embeddings
if i have a group with 6 elements, four of which are their own inverses
then the other two are forced to be each others inverses right
they could also be their own inverses too, right?
idk didn't think it through lol going to sleep
let's say d and f are the 2 which have order 3
e, a, b, c all are their own inverses
it is e
yes and addition mod 2
well i know that, but i guess i was more concerned with can i just assume that from the start
well its an order 6 group so it's isomorphic to D_3
(i mean it's obviously not isomorphic to Z_6)
knowing that 4 elements have order 2 or less, leaving the remaining 2 to be inverses of each other
we havnt covered isomorphic yet. i just know the definition bc i read ahead
oh actually yeah you are right
let r be the rotation in D_3
so {e, r, r^2} is the subgroup of rotations
yeah
you could not assume it no
but you didn't have to assume it
since all you had to do is to perform b * c
no it’s easy enough to check
yup
but the way i first thought about it was that it was forced
i don’t know enough examples of groups to think of a counter example though
that's because there isn't one
so then it can be assumed 🤣
maybe i just have a great intuition then
although if it's Z_6
it makes sense in my head but obviously i would be better off to show it
oh that's just addition modulo 6
oh yes Z mod 6
I'm using theorems you haven't learnt yet I'm assuming
yeah i’ve only sat down with my professor once
we covered all of chapter 2 of gallian
but he kinda gave me some definitions from chapter 3 too i saw
for c)
what I'd do is provide some additional justification
like actually carry out b * c
for bc
yup
i’ll ask him also about my thoughts
what thoughts
of just taking b and c to be inverses by exhausting all other possibilities
and the fact that their order is 3
for this group sure you can brute force it
what about showing it’s abelian, elements in the group must commute. which i think they do. i just don’t know how to show it unless i’m supposed to do every combination which can’t be right
let me look harder then
yeah it isn't abelian
yup found it
I remember doing this question by brute force actually
this one we have that g^2 = e
and so then that implies that g^-1 = g right
then i should take a,b in g and show ab = ba
but ab = (ab)^-1 ?
which is b^-1 a^-1
or ba
perfect
cause you're saying a=a^-1 and b=b^-1 right
how do you show that something isn't free, like showing that R isn't a free Z-module for example
unless it is one
showing that there exists a basis seems a lot easier than showing that there isn't one
If you can exhibit torsion that can’t exist, that’s an easy one
right
But for stuff like showing Q isn’t free (projective), you might try to construct a map that you can’t lift
okay I guess I should read about projective modules then
Literally doesn’t matter
Just use this property
If M is free, given any map M -> N and a surjection N’ -> N, there exists a map M -> N’ making the triangle commute
You can do this by just looking where a basis of M goes in N, then lift this to elements of N’
Send the basis to those lifted elements and the triangle commutes by construction
oh huh interesting
(Projectivity is just the property that you can always lift along surjevtions like this, by definition)
With Q you can construct maps which would prove Z contains something which sums with itself to say, 1
So Z “contains 1/2”
ohhh
hmm
Or okay, maybe this is easier hahaha
Let’s say Q, or R was free
Free modules admit maps into any abelian group right?
Just send a basis to stuff
wdym?
Free modules admit nonzero maps
oh
okay makes sense
I feel like you can send any generator of R to any element of Z?
Well I mean by definition of free module, yeah
so like Z^(rk R)?
If you have a basis B, Hom(F,M) is in bijection with B^M
You just choose where to send each basis element
Then extend linearly
The same way you do for vector spaces
wait do you mean M^B
okay cool
Yeah
ohh
You’d have 1/2
so that means Q can't be free
Yeah
and similarly R can't be
Yes
this makes sense 🤯
And over Z this is the same as projective is the same as flat is the same as torsionfree

Anyway
Once I showed something wasn’t projective by like
Being projective is the same as saying any surjection M -> P splits
So you can find a linear… right inverse?
And this says that M is isomorphic to P (+) kernel(M -> P)[specificallt you write it as an internal direct sum of the kernel and the image of P under the splitting map, which is injevtive!]
And I just found some map where you could show that it couldn’t possibly split because somehow M just couldn’t be the direct sum of those two guys
that's super cool
multiply on the left by x^-1 and on the right by y^-1?
or just look and see that xy=yx in the middle by associativity
idk if thats as valid
lol
But yes once you do that you have yx = xy
Okay GG now you can go home to your family
Yeah but how do you justify that
same way i said it first
its so obvious once you point out what you said though i hate proofs
its just right there
lol
🗿
eh you learn after a while
kind of a silly question but I was wondering if, given B normal in A, is A/B oplus B isomorphic to A?
i feel like it should be - my idea was to map (a+B,b) |-> ab but it doesn't appear to be well defined
or at least idk how to prove that it is
what's an intuition behind the direct sum
are you mixing additive and multiplicative notation
Yes I am so sorry
maybe fixing this will help?
I had the right notation in my own working, still don’t get it though
oh right 




