#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 39 of 1
stare at it??
Use it to understand the definition of a maximal ideal prime ideal etc
There's no definition there
i love how mathematicians just upload whole textbooks onto their faculty pages
Solve problems with it
I am so confused
l3athalgaming did you take any of the advice you got from that one time?
why do you refuse to learn from a book??
Yes
chixen moment 
such as?
iirc most people were telling you to, well, get up to speed on proof stuff and to read books
Yeah and I tried doing that
I'm not really interested in continuing this discussion: two people have given you book recommendations.
yeah it's not a month long endeavor. work harder
unterstufenkategorientheoretikermoment
But at the very least compare my knowledge now to then that’s at least something worth noting right?
german language moment
Idk why you guys are bothering rn ngl
ig?
no not really to be honest
it's entertaining
Fair enough
we're not trying to haze you lmao we're just trying to make sure you learn things well
and properly
Ye I get that
for reals doe, just do everyone (including yourself) a favour and pick up artin or smth
I have it open rn
nice 
You think there are audio books for this stuff I don’t have much time to sit down and read it but I can listen to it as I go
There are not.
Rip
learning math is 50% reading 50% doing exercises
Man I’m going to have to take more out of my free time then that sucks
...
mofo trying to read math books as if they're light novels lmfao
you don't? 
devvystation
I do, but I'm built different 
Built with Linux
for the record, this is a joke 
Maybe I should say something about your approach so far. You seemed to think that "a special subset of a ring" was a definition of an ideal. In fact that is not a definition at all, but a vague description that deliberately obscures detail to get to a different point.
In mathematics, we are not studying objects like in e.g. physics, where the definition of electricity for example must start out with a vague description. In mathematics, we have explicit, precise definitions, that leave nothing up to interpretation or opinion. There is an explicit list of properties that defines what it means to be an ideal.
Ideal? That sounds perfect
what's your goal for learning math?
is there an intuitive way to think about this lemma?
[ E/R is the set of orbits]
Christ, if you find out an intuitive explanation for Burnside, please tell me
It does become a bit clearer once you've done some rep theory
But it's really not obvious at all
ah rip , indeed it did feel a bit random but ile try to find some applications for it somewhere 
thanks anw 
Wtf is this notation
ask my professor 
why is [0] not in the lattice of subgroups of C12/C2
I’ll try and think of a good way to think about it
It’s definitely less intuitive than orb-stab for sure
[2] gets mapped to [0] by the quotient if I’m reading the notation correctly
Never mind I wasn’t
the image of [0] is the same as the image of [6]
oh right
LOLLLL
Eh I had the right idea lol
Oh you're looking for applications! OK
Applications of Burnside's are actually quite easy to find. I'll give one example
Let's say you want to find the number of simple graphs of order 5, let's say
these correspond colourings of the edges of the complete graph K_5 by two colours (think of one colour as meaning 'in the graph' and the other meaning 'not in the graph')
However, if we ignore the symmetry in K_5, we'll be counting a lot of duplicates.
So we act the symmetric group Sym(5) on K_5, and then the number of simple graphs of order 5 is then the number of orbits of this action
Burnside then gives you a really nice way of calculating this number: you look at each element of the group (there are 5! = 120, but you can look at conjugates, so it's much easier) and look at their fixed points
REAL
Oh? So its also a way of counting thats useful when considering symmetry
lmaoo
Not entirely sure how it does that exactly
ile think about it.
Fixed points are points that kind of “ignore the symmetry” if you want to think about it like that I suppose
Oh , thats true 
There is no goal I’ve already learned the majority of what classes I will take there’s very little that I need to learn in order to pass my math classes for the future I just do this as a hobby
Why does this hold? O here is an order of K, i.e. subring of the integers of K that is free of rank [K:Q].
In a bit I’ll explain more
I’ll give wnother example
One possible reasoning is that C2 x C2 is a quotient of Q8 (Q8 is a nonsplit extension of C2 by C2 x C2).
So there is a map from Z[Q8] to Z[C2 x C2] coming from the homomorphism Q8 --> C2 x C2. This hom sends -1 to 1.
Have you ever done a combinatorics problem like this:
We have 3 red and 3 blue beads. How many circular necklaces can we make that use all of these beads?
The idea is that you cannot simply count the number of ways there are of arranging the beads in a line. Instead, there are symmetries (here rotation and reflection) that mean that we consider certain arrangements of beads in a line as 'the same,' which we might say more precisely as being in the same orbit. This question could use Burnside's lemma with the action of a dihedral group to produce the answer.
Ah thanks
yeah i got the basic idea behind it now , thats a pretty good example ,i also found how its applied to aligning 8 rooks on a chess board so that no 2 attack each other which finally linked the idea for me.
didnt expect this to pop up in so many combinatorial problems lol
thanks boytjie and wew
Anyone know what this is?
context?
without any context I'd assume it's the fock space?
what is meant by linearly ordered subset of a group, in definition 3.1
I think you can ignore the linearly ordered in that definition. They just mean that the basis should be an ordered set
But in the next theorem they just take a basis to be a set so idk
Probably just think of the analogy with vector spaces
You can require bases to be ordered or unordered
They are requiring them to be ordered here
Yeah nothing really
In vector spaces the order is useful when you wanna represent maps using matrices
Because then there's a canonical ordering on the rows and columns
Maybe they wanna do something similar here
Probably ignore for now and see if it is used somewhere later
An example of what Moldi is talking about re: matrices is the following: If you choose a different ordering, then e.g. your notion of an upper triangular matrix will look very different.
Try computing a change of basis of your favourite upper triangular matrix, where the new basis simply swaps the ordering of the old one
Hey I get this part now but would the next step be proving by induction?
Just thinking back to a group theory question I did where I proved by induction
no
so this is for proving that 1+x is a unit which is the first part im here but i dont know the next step in proving it
Nah I get it cause (1+x)w=1 where w would be 1/(1+x)
That's a really good step. Have you tried doing the algebra to see what this simplifies to?
you can do the explaining for me
I mean at this point it is literally just do the thing
It’s an infinite series oh wait is converges right
It’s basically just 1-x+x^2…
okay maybe i should explain
What is there to explain? It's just do the distribution and it works out. The hard part is coming up with that power series if anything.
This is a formal power series. Think of it just as a collection of symbols. There is no meaning to it converging or not, without additional information.
the message immediately following yours
boytjie did it for me
w = 1/1+x
1 / (1 + x) is not a thing in R[[x]] so we use a power series
i was going to say i brought up the power series just as a heuristic tool for finding out what the inverse of 1 + x should be if x is a unit
we are not dealing with formal power series
in R[[x]]
also l3athal please don't ping me for messages that old
i also, frankly, don't think this person is ready to learn what a formal power series is
let's stick to basics
My bad mate lol
yeah
but remember that x is nilpotent
meaning that x^n = 0 for some n
Ye
That’s where the next part comes in
Going back to the original
r + n = r(1+nr^-1)
nr^-1 stays nilpotent right?
yes
to fully elaborate on my hint: in calculus the power series for $1/(1 + x)$ is obtained by noticing that $$(1 + x)\left(\sum_{k=0}^\infty (-1)^k x^k \right) = \left(\sum_{k=0}^\infty (-1)^k x^k \right)(1 + x) = 1.$$ in a general ring the expression with the sum doesn't make sense. however, if we assume $x$ is nilpotent, then eventually all of the terms will be zero and we get a finite sum like: $$(1 + x)\left(\sum_{k=1}^N (-1)^k x^k \right) = \left(\sum_{k=1}^N (-1)^k x^k \right) (1 + x) = 1,$$ so if $x \in R$ is nilpotent then you can find an inverse for $1 + x$ by this method
TTerra
I love this trick. So cool.
Just wanted to say that
me too
And because of the proof that 1 + a nilpotent element is a unit then it just becomes a unit * a unit
one of my favorites boytjie
And the product of 2 elements is an element
why does an infinite sum not make sense in an arbitrary ring?
Well it's simply not defined
Therefore r+n is a unit
remember that + is literally a binary operation R x R -> R
so only accounts for finite sums?
there's no meaning to repeating an arbitrary function an infinite number of times
yeah
yes
its undefined
Yay I’m learning
by default for ring ops?
In general, due to something called the Eilenberg–Mazur swindle, you cannot define infinite sums in all cases
If you want to think about limits and other things, then you can imbue your object (ring, group, module, whatever) with some topological structure
E.g. hilbert spaces have a metric structure
Elaborating on this, basically you say that a sum like 1 + 1 + 1 + ... cannot be defined in general in a way that is consistent with the operation '+'
eilenberg mazur is neat
It's another one of my favourite tricks haha
1 + 1 + 1 + ... = -1/12
I remember seeing a video on that a while back
bc that's not consistent with addition!

I should find other applications of Eilenberg Mazur. I only know the one where if you have a projective module P you can find a free module F such that P + F = F
only reason I ever heard of the swindle was that it could be used to prove that you can't tie a knot in an already knotted string and slide the knots together to "cancel out" to get an unknotted string
Someone showed me a very cool application of it to some set theory. Apparently (I forget how, exactly) you can use it to prove that if A injects into B and B injects into A then there is a bijection between the two
It might have been a surjection. I'll try to reproduce the proof sometime.
Thanks for your help ima keep reading stoof and move on the the 3rd question
ah yeah, I'm reading on the wiki page that Cantor-Bernstein-Schroeder can be seen as an antecedent of Eilenberg-Mazur
I’m doing both
Think of it like my current goal vs progress
i am being swindled right now
Goal is now question 3 progress is exercises in book
in the dihedral group, what word would you use to refer to the half that has an s and the half that doesn't? cosets?
like what would you call $s^i\langle r\rangle={s^ir^a\mid a\in\bZ}\subset D_n$
nilpotent nix
Sure, it's a coset
I don't know of any name for this specifically
Not everything in math has a specific name
yeah i didn't necessarily mean for the dihedral group specifically, but more just the general term. thank you 🙂
Well they certainly are all the cosets of <r> in Dih(2n), so there we are
If you're identifying the elements of D_n with the action they have on the plane while leaving the regular polygon of n sides invariant (this is how the dihedral group is usually introduced), the ones that don't have an s are the rotations (determinant 1), and the ones that do are reflections + rotations (determinant -1).
This is actually also algebraic!
D_n is C_n semidirect Z_2
The C_n component tells you how much it’s rotated
And the 0 or the 1 from the Z_2 tells you if you have a reflection or not
So there’s a map D_n -> Z_2 which you can consider as projection to the second component
And that’s the 1 or -1 Monchi is talking about
:D
oh huh that is really interesting!
yeah the original question i had was about where the cosets get mapped to by a type of function. going to ask my mentor about it tomorrow, but I've been spending the last few days trying to prove some results on my own first. dealing with the cosets has me tripping tho lol.
idk why group theory is harder for me to understand than ring theory. i feel like it should be the other way around lol
thank you both @next obsidian @pallid oracle! ❤️
people in the #groups-rings-fields channel seem really cool haha. i really hope my abstract algebra III course isn't cancelled next semester 🥲
im not sure i understand why the prufer group is injective... I'm trying to show it via Baer's criterion but struggling: a morphism from nZ to Z/p^inftyZ is just a morphism from nZ to one of the Z/p^kZ subgroups, so it's the quotient map nZ->nZ/np^kZ. However when n is coprime to p (ie when n is anything but p) I'm struggling to see how this can extend to a morphism from Z to Z/p^inftyZ
what do they mean by the notation H^u?
seems like its ${ uhu^{-1} \vert h \in H }$
Gev
These elements h^{u} fall outside of G, but why can't there be such relation? is it because L is a subgroup of X which is a free product?
I think it's just because each h_i is an element of G
so that expression is a word in G * <u>
which alternates between elements of G and <u>
so cant be reduced
or is it between elements of G and elements that are neither in G nor in <u> (because uhu^{-1}, h in G, u in <u>)
oh wait it makes it into 3 elements of <u>, G and <u>
kinda makes sense now
Maybe I'm missing something, but I think if in your map from nZ you send n to f(n), you can extend this function to Z by sending 1 to f(n)/n. You can divide by n because it's a divisible group.
I don't remember why it's divisible though
isn't it only p-divisible
ahhh wait no that makes sense
Well, being p-divisible is trivial but they're also divisible
yeah like if n=p^rm i take some element of Z/p^kZ, i just embed into Z/p^{k+r}Z and in there there's some element such that when multiplied by n gives me our element
or smth
okay so this was in the context of the injective hull of Z/pZ
and i think I kinda see why it is that now by Baer
so like in general if i want the injective hull of M id need some kind of direct limit that mimics this same kind of behavior no?
like id do something kind of like lim R/Ann(M_i)
or smth
cause i want every morphism from I->M to be of the form i->im for some m so i need to make my module grow so that there arent ideals that just annihilate it right?
that's probably not enough though
You don't need to restrict to powers of p. If eg p and n are coprime, then there's a solution for x/p^k · n = 1/p^k, and so you can divide 1/p^k by n, for any natural n coprime to p. Dividing by p is also easy, so you can divide by any natural n.
But I don't know about your other questions
yeah but i mean in the context of the factors of the direct limit to allow myself to divide by n i need to go to a high enough prime power that doesnt divide the highest prime power of n no?
or multiplication by n in Z/p^kZ would just be 0
oh sorry p and n are coprime yeah
anyways im getting myself confused over this injective hull business ill get back to it later there are more important things for me to study over right now
If it's not clear I'm just arguing that the group is divisible. So n can be any natural number. You wrote the case where p is a power of a p. I wrote the case where (p, n) = 1. Together, you can divide by any number.
I'm sorry I can't help with the more abstract questions
no i was also doing for general n, i was just looking at the divisibility within Z/p^kZ for a high enough power k so that this would hold in the prufer group
np thanks for the help
Oh I'm so dumb I read your p^rm as p^(rm). I'm sorry lol
can someone give me an example where this is useful or when it occurs naturally?
examples of R-algebras are also welcome 
this occurs pretty naturally for algebras
it's easier to see for fields
if im looking at a field extension L\K
what we have is an embedding i:K-> L
so we can consider K as a subfield of L
and now we have a natural K-module structure on L given by your picture
ie a K-vector space
considering fields as vector spaces over their subfields is very fruitful
Is this right place to ask about spectral sequences
It's the most overloaded channel topic in the whole server 🥲
Maybe consider splitting 
moving abstract algebra to early uni and turning this into "advanced-algebra" would be gud I think 

R as a Q-vector space 
it's more useful in the setting of algebraic extensions
Namely if you quotient K[x] by an irreducible polynomial, you obtain a field extension K[x]/(f) \ K, and the dimension of L=K[x]/(f) over K is the degree of f
If you let a denote the residue class of x in this quotient we denote this extension by K(a) and call f the minimal polynomial of a over K
To see why it could be useful to consider fields as vector spaces over their subfields, try showing that every finite field has order p^n for some prime p
@coral spindle why
? 
That is part of the problem: people sometimes come here bc they think it's just advanced algebra
where 'algebra' just means... solving polynomial equations
The issue imo is more like people do group theory in the same place as homological algebra. There's not enough space to talk
Yea they don't know that's called algebraic geometry
#groups-rings-fields is a fine name
I don't know what would be a perfect splitting-up of this channel, but perhaps having a separate #algebraic-structures channel would be the start of a plan
or maybe we can make a thread for each major area of algebra?
like one for group theory one for ring theory etc
feels overkill no?
That is simply too many channels
honestly the server already has too many channels
finite groups, infinite groups, rings, Galois theory, Lie algebras, I mean the list goes on
we just have to come to terms with the fact that math is too big to please everyone with just a few discussion channels
like this applies to the other channels too, think about probability
they just have two channels
discussion in here is sometimes very elementary compared with some of the topics you guys often touch
but I guess its fine, idk
True, but this is (as the stats somewhat recently showed) is the most overloaded
fair enough
honestly im also never sure whether to post a question here or in #algebraic-geometry
Tbf, suddenly seeing "homological algebra" at the end of the topic list here feels like quite a gear shift.
yeah what motivated that decision?
it has algebra in its name
I usually ask homological algebra questions in #algebraic-geometry
since it's closer to commutative algebra i guess
homological algebra should just go in alg top jk
Is there any use of homology in algebraic geometry? I sort of assumed it had been put here because it was considered a kind of common ground.
Oh I mean y’all would know better I just used to ask there for lack of anyone telling me to do otherwise
I'm serious, actually -- what little I know about homology connects just to alg top, and I'm unsure what else there is.
is it really?
I wouldn't know tbh
but aluffi literally does homological algebra two sections after introducing modules lmao
Yeah idk it’s just cause I’m learning homological algebra during a comm alg class. I think it has some uses in algebraic geometry with étale cohomology or whatever
Allufi based
I imagine that’s pretty standard honestly yeah
That’s more or less the order I learnt stuff
I guess in a simple way, genus is used to categorize algebraic varieties, like elliptic curves are genus 1 cubic curves
idk how in depth it goes past that either
question about terminology
Pethaps I feel it's a gear shift because it's the one thing in the list where I don't even know any basic definitions ...
I mean honestly at this point isn’t there a cohomology theory just about everywhere
Don't ask me; I've never learned what a "cohomology theory" IS.
What field do you study?
None. Computer science back when I did study.
Yes of course ! It's used to define sheaf cohomology for instance
This gives you a cohomology theory for algebraic varietied
It's used to define the etale cohomology as well which is used to prove the weil conjectures for instance
Although I don't have a good understanding of it, you can rederive Riemann–Roch entirely via cohomology of sheaves
Homologvial algebra isn’t just present in algebraic geometry, it’s very present in commutative algebra
Present in noncommutative algebra too 

I'm offended by this
Good
Try defining the derived category without noncomm algebra, fucking geometers have no respect smhsmh
Okay, I use a model category structure
Prove the localisation exists and has nice properties
Derived category is just an ore localisation
when i tell my non math friends im taking abstract algebra they just think im sitting there factoring polynomials all day long lol they think its the same as college alg and alg II lol so i gave up and call it group/ring theory now lol
like they go "oh i took algebra in high school" ............ lol
I've wondered if we could reduce misunderstanding by reviving the (somewhat antiquated-sounding) term "higher algebra" instead of "abstract".
I imagine that would lead to some people asking about lurie lol but good point (I imagine such questions would be relatively rare anyway)
or just #group-ring-field-theory lol
Oh, looks like nLab is squatting on "higher algebra" for some weird n-categorical stuff. 😵💫
lurie?
Homological methods are absolutely central in modern algebra. It's hard to do much of anything without them when studying CA, AG, AT, etc
Hello
Let's assume the relation R in which :
∀x,y ∈ N* , xRy⇔∃k∈N s.t x = y^k
(So sorry again if my terms are not correct idk most of them in english)
Now Let's assume that a subset A⊂N* is A={2,4,8}
The question says find the intervals of minorants(aka elements m such that mRx) and I fount that they are {64^n | n∈N}
Now the next question sais find out if there was an inferior, which I believe is 1 cuz
∀x∈A, 1Rx
But the solution says that the inferior doesn't exist, do you guys know why? Or if the solution is correct from the first place?
Perhaps the real problem is that "groups, rings, fields, vector spaces, modules, etc" really ought to have a channel in "early university".
Ehh probably not
There’s no analysis channel in early uni
Which also feels strange to me.
If you compare it to every other channel other than #proofs-and-logic analysis and algebra feel qualitatively different
Even part of the “proofs” part feels different than the other early uni channels
Also since this is the internet it invariably becomes 🇺🇸-centric
Where analysis and algebra are like, 3rd year courses
Okay that explains it lol
how long is a bachelor in the us
about 4 years
what do you do in the first 2 years
party
lol
first one was easy but I'm stuck on the second one
what's the serious answer
in the first semester at least, thats serious
early university section encompasses a lot of first yr i suppose.
oh wait these relations force y to be of order 20 at most
I'm dumb
A lot of General education classes (where I am, it’s at least 1/2 of your degree)
general education classes?
you should swap to one of the discussion channels for that
what is $SL(2,\mathbb{Z})$?
Gev
that's a cool group
hmmm
SL means determinant 1, 2 means 2 x 2, and Z means entries in Z
thats not a group right
to unpack the notation
wait
how is it a group?
the inverses
prove it
just prove it
what's the inverse of a 2 x 2 matrix
general Ed stuff mostly. so various history, English, social studies, art, etc. stuff alongside basic major classes like calculus.
what if the determinant is 1
just write it down lol
okay the determinant is 1 so its still integers
cool group indeed
1
nvm ok
Im about to attack an exercise of presenting SL(2, Z) as an amalgamated free product
what could I do to improve it tho?
Well from this perspective, not much. It is just rote computation
But there are lots of cool interactions between free products and actions of groups on trees and graphs
That's called Bass-Serre theory and it's worth looking into if you're interested in this stuff
Serre's book on trees is a good reference (or so I've heard, I haven't actually read through it myself)
is it combinatorial group theory or does it diverge from it?
trees and stuff like that
I'd say it leans toward combinatorial group theory, but I'm sure there are other directions to explore
Like intersection of combinatorial and geometric group theory
my advisor gave me these, to prepare for my undergrad thesis which will probably be in combinatorial group theory
Fun stuff, could be worth talking to your advisor about. They'd probably give better advice than me lol
he also said there's representation theory if I'm interested but his main research is in combinatorial group theory
Rep theory is fun too, yeah. I used to know more than I do now but it always takes me like 2 or 3 runs before I start to actually understand something
it's really confusing since I'm gonna spend so much time on my thesis, it will determine my future
I'm not too sure about interactions between rep theory and combinatorial group theory but I don't doubt that they exist
Best of luck with your thesis, I'm sure it will go well if you put in the time
thx
I have more than a year, I hope I won't fail
what are the most active areas though?
I know I still have a lot of fthe basics to learn
I'm not the right person to ask. These are probably questions better suited for your advisor
I don't understand why every z-module is an abelian group
Every module is an abelian group.
... together with a scalar multiplication, but when scalars are from Z, there's only one way the multiplication can work.
there's only one way the multiplication can work.
why?
Because it needs to distribute, so for example 5·m = (1+1+1+1+1)·m = 1·m + 1·m + 1·m + 1·m + 1·m = m+m+m+m+m.
Z is initial in Ring

It says that every subobject is the kernel of some morphism.
In Grp, only normal subgroups can be kernels; in Ring, kernels don't even need to be subrings.
what does "every monomorphism in R-Mod is a kernal" mean tho
That's just the catheaded way to talk about subobjects without pointing to "subsets of elements". A subobject is identified with its injection morphism (which is always mono).
ah
For example, Q is a subgroup of R, viewed as abelian groups. In the category-theoretic phrasing we can't speak about "subset" directly, so instead we declare that it is the identity function Q -> R (which is a good homomorphism -- and indeed a monomorphism too) that "is" the subobject.
"Every field extension L/K of degree 2 is normal. Let f(x) in K[x] be irreducible with a root a in L. if a is in K then f(x) = (x - a) and the statement holds. assume a is in L\K. after making it monic f is the minimal polynomial of a over K and we get 2 = [L : K] >= [K(a) : K]= deg(f) >= 2. therefore L = K(a) and deg(f) = 2. thus f splits over L."
I don't quite understand the last part. what does "f splits over L" mean?
thx tho 
There's something to be said for this view in everyday mathematics too. Say, if you have constructed R via Dedekind cuts, and you want to say Q is a subset of R, then you end up implicitly claiming that 1/2 and { q in Q | q < 1/2 } are the same thing, which is absurd. So you end up either pretending this isn't a problem, or doing a lot of tedious footwork in your definition of R such that the rationals can still represent themselves. OR you decide that it's enough that there's an injection from Q to R which preserves all of the operations (arithmetic, ordering) we're interested in.
I find that as nothing more than pointless pedantry tbh
but it doesn't bother me too much
coz it makes sense, I have to admit
f splits over L means you can factorize f into linear factors in L[x]
so like all its roots are in L, essentially
f(x) = \prod (x-a), a in L
why does it split over L
cus ur like
chopping that polynomial
up
into linear factors
?
remember polynomials are 'over' a ring
polynomials over K are polynomials in K[x]
oh you meant in context
yee
I'm not sure i follow the argument you've copied
Let f in K[x] irreducible with root a in L.
You've shown L = K(a) ?
And L/K is degree 2?
If the above, then a must be the root of a degree 2 polynomial. Hence f is degree 2, and +-a are its roots (nvm dont think thats necessarily true)
If f has degree two and has one root a in the field, then (x-a) divides f, therefore we can write f(x)=(x-a)(x-b), where the coefficients are in the field.
yh im handwaving, thats better
idk why the proof that rectangle cube copied uses so many words
this is the original one
yeah but if a is not in K
ah
What you want to prove is that if a polynomial of degree 2* f has a root in the field, then the other root will also be in the field
yeah I get it now
thank you
we want our extensions to be galois because otherwise we'd permutate some roots to themselves, right?
well there are 2 things
normal cuz of fundamental theorem
not normal means you're missing some roots you could've permuted to
not separable means that what would've been distinct roots are the same, and you lose some permutations as a result
yeah ok
Galois extensions K<L allow the most freedom in terms of automorphisms. It turns out that this will allow a very rich relation between intermediate fields of the extension K<L and the subgroups of Aut(L/K)
the fundamental theorem only requires a finite normal extension though?
Can you share what you mean by "fundamental theorem"?
Wouldn't that be the Galois correspondence?
You need the extension to be Galois, you need separability to get almost anything
correspondance
in my lecture script it says finite normal extension
Are you only working over Q?
no
Only in char 0?
no
Well then it’s wrong lol
You can have finite normal extensions in char p with infinitely many intermediate sub fields
non separable stuff seems pretty interesting tbh, many pathologies
So how do I calculate all possible ringhomomorphisms of Z[\sqrt{27}] -> Z/119Z? I haven't a clue where to even start. I was thinking perhaps the first homomorphism theorem somehow?
Mmh idk but are there even any? The image of 1 will generate the whole ring, and then you have no room for sqrt 27
No?
Oh wait nvm thats irrelevant
Gaussian integers w rad 27?
Like you send 1 to 1 and sqrt 27 to one of the roots of x^2-27 in the field Z/119Z
In case you're asking the definition it's the set {a+b\sqrt{27} | a,b ∈ ℤ}
So there are obviously at most 2. And I think those are indeed homomorphisms, because sqrt 27 doesnt interact with addition
This is all you need to know
That actually makes somewhat sense
Is we want this to be in the kernel it leaves for a to be plus or minus 1
Are we sure it isn't a problem here that 27 is not square-free?
Was gonna mention that. For some reason I thought 27 was a quadratic residue lol
3 and 119 are coprime, so 27 is a quadratic residue iff 3 is -- but 3 is not a quadratic residue (fairly quick to check using the CRT even if one doesn't remember the quadratic reciprocity law, since 119 = 7·17).
Since $\phi(1)=1$ we also have $\phi(27)=27$, which has order $16$ in $(\bZ/119\bZ)^\times$. This forces $\phi(\sqrt{27})=\alpha$ by squaring to have $27=\phi(\sqrt{27})^2=\alpha^2$ which makes $\alpha$ have order $32$. But CRT forces order of the multiplicative group to be lcm(6, 16) = 48, and since $32 \nmid 48$, there are no ring homomorphisms.
Merosity
the one in my lecture establishes a correspondence between separable intermediate fields and subgroups
if the extension field is separable then the requirement for intermediate fields to be separable can be dropped
that's where my confusion came from
Is there an analogue to polar decomposition of GL(n) using SO(1, n-1) instead of SO(n)?
Wait why exactly does 27 map to 27?
phi(27) = phi(1) + phi(1) + ... + phi(1) 27 times
Oh yes right right
check that it fulfills all requirements
- well defined
- T(ab) = T(a)T(b)
- T(a + b) = T(a) + T(b)
T(x+y) = (x+y mod m_1,...,x+y mod m_r)
we need to show x+y mod m_j = x mod m_j + y mod m_j?
@formal ermine
yes
yeah cool this is obvious
that's how addition is defined for equivalence classes, and it's well-defined
I know that if $M$ is a finitely generated torsion free $R$ module then $M$ is free and $M \cong R^n$
is the other direction true as well?
The other direction might be even easier to show lol
So this is a super old message so dont ask me how i came back across it but now im actually grown up enough to understand this. I think i kinda get what you meant now. So like I have an injective map A-> B which gives me a bunch of injective maps on the finitely generated submodules. When I tensor I get a bunch of maps on the finitely generated submodules, and if I can show each of them is injective then the induced map on the direct limit is too?
So I'm trying to come up with a counter-example to disprove this, but I can't find one. I think that the statement is true as n_5 = the number of Sylow 5-groups is st n_5 divides p, and p is prime, so its only divisors are 1, p
I'm not good enough with Latex but I can definitely write it out neater
thanks
Joe 1
you need to find n_p not n_5
Thanks!
5 = [G : H] = |G/H| = |G|/|H| <=> |H| = p^n
so H is a p-sylow subgroup rather than a 5-sylow subgroup
That makes sense. So then isn't |H| = p^n by definition of it being a sylow p-group?
|H| = p^n means it has index 5
but also that it's a p-sylow subgroup (by definition of those)
so you gotta find n_p and show that it's 1
np
This forward direction is only true if R is a PID. Take the ideal (2, x) in Z[x] for a counterexample.
Oh ok
I realise that by the basis theorem there is a basis e_i of L such that c_ie_i is a basis of T(L), but why should the c_ie_i then be the image of some basis e'_i of L?
Isn't this just smith normal form?
it's not that simple
because submodules of M do not correspond to submodules of M (x) N, this fails because tensor product isn't left exact
you either have to show that if an element sum m_i (x) n_i is 0 in M (x) N that there's finitely generated submodules of M and N, M' and N', such that Sum m_i (x) n_i is in M' (x) N', and is zero
which you do by adding in all the elements you need in order to write out that its zero
left adjoint commute with colimits
the easier way
it's true over a valuation ring
Fg ideals are principal (and you're an ID) => flat iff torsion-free
Combine with flat and fg over a local ring => free
hi walter :)
actually you can like
use a lot of theory to get the result for PIDS sort of in this vein
torsion free => flat => projective cuz finitely presented
then use projective => free
but obviously this is really dumb :)
Perhaps
right okay so once i tensor i can't consider that im taking a direct limit over submodules, but the direct limit of the tensored modules will still be the tensor of the direct limit because left adjoints commute with colimits is what youre saying?
Sure, but using just the theorem for free modules (N\subset M both finite free => exist bases x_i and c_jx_j), how do I get this?
what's an example use case of a differential ring that is not a polynomial ring
Yes this is exactly right!
And direct limits are exact
So it suffices to show that the corresponding diagram on the fg sub modules are exact (it isn’t necessarily equivalent though, but because flatness is about every tensor product in this case it is equivalent!)
unless im mistaken, T takes the free module L to a free submodule of L of the same rank so picking a basis of L and looking at the image under T there's some choice of basis in L that makes T(L) be a multiple of each basis vector
this choice corresponds to right multiplication by a unimodular matrix in smith normal form
That's correct, I'm asking why the preimages e'_i then have to be a basis of L.
no we're starting with the e'_i
Oh shit
looking at their images
yeah
I don't think so, but that's irrelevant now.
ah fair enough we need to both post and precompose by basis changes
got confused there
$I$ and $J$ being coprime means $1 = x + y$ for some $x \in I, y \in J$. consider $z \in I \cap J$, show that it is in $IJ$
the other direction ($IJ \subseteq I \cap J$) is true in general
I can see an argument if R is commutative hmmm
oh is R not commutative
what were you thinking of?
xz (=zx if R is comm) is in IJ (coz it's an ideal)
And so is zy
So zx+zy=z(x+y)=z is in IJ
yeah nvm I was thinking of the same argument but in reverse lol
I cap J \ni z = z1 = zx + zy \in IJ
does need commutativity as you said though
you can find a counter example for R not commutative I think
yeah okay you definitely need R commutative here

that's funny
Z[x,y]/(2x+2y-1), I = (x), J = (y) is a counter example I think
it's in the errata for the first printing but not in the errata for the second printing
oh maybe that's because he fixed it in the second printing 😵💫
that's a commutative ring 
but with a free non-commutative algebra i think you can modify this slightly
I thought i had the latest printing 
lol that makes it double funny
yeah okay i think you can take what @formal ermine was saying and changing it a bit, like take something like R<x,y>/(x+y-1) with I=(x) and J=(y). You get IJ = (xy) and JI=(yx)
what does R<x,y> mean
free non-commutative algebra on x,y over R
ah
there's an obvious isomorphism to T(R²)
where T(M) is the tensor algebra over a module
jordan block of a nilpotent matrix
the question is why the commutants of this matrix are non cotrigonalizable
Hello. Is it true that the set of functions A → G from some set A to a group G is itself a group? Namely:
• the identity is ⊢ λ a: A. ε
• the inverse is f: A → G ⊢ λ a: A. (f a)⁻¹
• the composition is f, g: A → G ⊢ λ a: A. (f a) (g a)
For finite A, A → G is the same as a product of |A|-many copies of G. I briefly checked the laws and everything seems to be alright for any A. Is there a reference that talks about this?
this is just the product Gx...xG
Yes, in finite case it must be isomorphous to said product.
I still have doubts because I do not remember reading about this specific fact anywhere.
MY EYESS 
It'll still be the product in the arbitrary case
Also in the infinite case
Sniped 
Specifying an element in the A-fold of G is the same information as specifying a function from A to G
In both cases, you're specifying for any a in A a corresponding element in G
This is true at the set level
But of course inherits the group structure
If you wanna be pedantic, this is how arbitrary products are usually defined
In set theory
but formality
no the appropriate symbol is \mapsto
that too
I am not here to debate matters of taste.
Based
Based on what
Random jokes go in #chill
Surely everyone here understands my question. Is it hard to say «yes, reference is this book that chapter» or «no, this is false, here is why»?
I gave you an answer
Didn't shin answer it lol
only like 3 people here understand your notation
This is so unnecessarily tense lmfao
I do not see why 2 of them had to be pushing me to speak in the manner they find to their liking. If my question is not clear, I can restate it, but I have not been asked to do that.
This discussion is
- Not relevant to this channel and
- Not relevant to your question since it's been answered. If you have any follow up questions feel free, otherwise take this elsewhere
we've had this discussion before. There are standards for mathematical communication, and if you wish to participate in it you gotta abide
most people will interpret "symbol soup" as unnecessary and pretentious
In the future, if you want help, consider that people here are helping out of their own goodwill, so it would do you well to make the discussion as accessible as possible, else people won't want to help
If you want to keep bashing this point, go to one of the discussion channels
It is not I who started «bashing this point». Indeed I expressed my unwillingness to debate this matter. I asked a question in good faith. I am however now forced to defend myself.

This discussion is over. You got a good-faith answer, so again, I implore you to ask if you have any more questions about the explanation I gave, otherwise, this discussion is not suitable for this channel anymore
nuke sully this and move on
I do have those questions. Is there a proof in literature that I can refer to?
pretty much every abstract algebra textbook will talk about products of groups, even in the infinite case
What about my proof do you find insufficient? This is an elementary enough example and your question is coming at it from an awkward angle, so I highly doubt there is literature that covers exactly what you want
If you want to see how set-theoretic products and direct products of groups in the arbitrary case are defined, there are plenty of references
These are things you should prove on your own if you are skeptical
Alright, let us look at it like so: suppose I have two models of the theory of groups in some category C, say G and G'. How can I begin talking about group structure on arrows G → G' between these models?
I want to avoid the formality of sets as far as it can be avoided.

assuming you mean a group object wrt the cartesian monoidal product
cartesian product preserves limits
this works in the infinite case too.
G^|A| is a limit
Asking simple questions couched in complicated language assumes an ability to answer simple questions couched in simple language
You are doing things wrong, you are just learning random words
that conversation has already been had
don't try lol
I know, but was just a remainder
What is an abelian group?
I have no idea what you folks here are talking about. Complicated, random, wrong. Are you punishing me for some evil I have done, with these negative words? Please understand, I am not going to speak in your language until you talk to me without prejudice against mine. This is a location on the Internet where people seem to be talking about Abstract Algebra. I am here to talk about Abstract Algebra. Why are you all seemingly so upset?
This is more like what I expected. Clear cut answer, even if short.
the main issue to me seems to be that you're using lots of formal type theoretic logical symbols that many people are not familiar with
so people are finding it hard to answer your questions
Well, it seems they could ask me what I mean or explain my notation, instead of saying how bad I am for being myself.
Please direct this discussion anywhere else
@simple valley My problem with your argument is that my category may not have infinite products.
This does not concern the topic of this channel
sorry
Sure, let us redirect this to my private messages if someone wants to talk.
Alright, returning to those products:
- Let me have a proof that a Cartesian product G₀ × G₁ of underlying sets of two groups G₀ and G₁ is the underlying set of some group itself.
- By induction I can extend this proof to a product of any number of groups indexed by a finite set. Then, I can get an isomorphose between a function from a finite set A to G and a product of G with itself indexed by A, thus making A → G into a group.
- However, I cannot extend this proof to a product of an infinite number of groups in the same way, because this would result in an infinitely long proof.
Unfortunately, I do not understand transfinite induction, so I was hoping to find a proof that A → G is a group even if A is infinite, say ℕ, that does not appeal to the construction of infinite products. What can I do?
One way is suggested by @simple valley:
- Cartesian product preserves limits.
- A → G is a limit. (An exponential object.)
- So? I do not understand what product I need to look at.
Suppose we have a model of the theory of groups in a Cartesian closed category C. A group object, is this called also? Let us call the object that we build the group upon x. x ← A will denote an exponential object for some A. I think I can build a proof I want in this setting, but maybe @simple valley you can clarify what you meant first?
When thinking about this from the logical side, I understood that the theorem I am looking for does not fit into the axiomatic theory of a group because there are two different groups involved. I need to add a way to talk about functions or some kind of arrows to my theory. It seems that a little touch of Lambda Calculus is enough to put the problem forward and then the proof can be written without reference to any concrete models. Indeed I have sketched some. But I need to read up before I can explain any of it in detail.
A -> G is an infinite product
you do not need any induction here
in Set, any object A is the coproduct of |A| copies of 1
by straightforward computation, A -> G is iso to a product of |A| copies of G
the proof of G^A being a group does not rely on any properties of A
I implore you to understand the Set case before heading into generalized nonsense
You can be charitable and assume I understand the Set case but look for another approach, for whatever reason.
Unfortunately, I do not understand transfinite induction
does not seem to be the case
Well, I reckon few mathematicians can derive transfinite induction from the axioms of a set theory. I am trying to stay constructive, so it is even harder to find a reference.
.
I may be in error, sure. I need to prove that an infinite product of groups is a group, right? But induction only lets me prove that for any n ∈ ℕ, the product indexed by n is a group.
ok so how do you define an "infinite" product?
You want to say that an infinite product is a function; but I want to say that practically an infinite product is a co-inductive type and a function is an expression that I can evaluate. This is why I mentioned isomorphose and not identity. But I have no objections to having such an isomorphose.
idk where you picked up that word but it's called an "isomorphism"
adj "isomorphic"
I am happy to know that you understand me. So, we found that a proof for an infinite product will be as good for us both as a proof for a function. But we are nowhere nearer that proof yet.
I don't think anyone out there thinks of all infinite products coinductively
some infinite products (namely those indexed by inductive types) can be understood this way, but not all
say what's X^(N^N)
Let us restrict our attention to these well-behaved ones then.
well, no, because this is adding structure that we do not need
ok so let's consider the set of functions from A to G where A is an arbitrary set and G is a group. You have already defined the identity, inverse, and multiplication on this set. What's the hold up?
Well, I was hoping someone can simply point me out to some literature that I can study, or sketch a proof that I can complete. You sketched me a proof that I cannot complete (sketch is too sparse); so also @chilly radish sketched a proof I cannot complete (seems to require transfinite induction, which I cannot prove).
you just verify the group axioms, pointwise 
Let $f \in G^A$, then $f^{-1} \cdot f = \lam x f^{-1}(x) \cdot f(x) = \lam x e = e \in G^A$
mniip
etc
Yep, this is about the same as what I was sketching for myself, so if we both think this works it is likely to be without fault.
Earlier today, not sure about specific time.
…But I reckon we can get a nicer proof if we allow ourselves some more tools. Suppose we have an algebra Fx → x. We can then go F (x ← A) → ((F x) ← A) → (x ← A). (Here the backwards arrow allusively denotes exponentiation.) I think we can do it with very few assumptions, but I cannot quite catch all of those assumptions. And we need to clarify how F makes x a group!
Ideally this lets us state that any algebraic theory has this nice property — rings, say.
So, I was secretly hoping to gather some food for thoughts in this direction. @simple valley so can you at last explain what you meant when you mentioned limits above?
I think the more important story here is that the forgetful functor U : Grp -> Set is a right adjoint and therefore it preserves limits. Therefore the underlying set of a (category-theoretical, possibly infinite) product of groups is the cartesian product of the corresponding sets.
If it exists. 😉
Therefore the underlying set of a (category-theoretical, possibly infinite) product of groups is the cartesian product of the corresponding sets.
Yes, it is. …If it exists.
What really gets you going is that the forgetful functor is monadic, so it inherits the underlying limit
that's what really gets me going anyway
this is explained in mac lane on page 111

How does this help us?
Oh, I was not interested in helping.
Ah, you helped anyway.
the page I linked also deals with some considerations for when it exists
Oh, yes. I see that now, cool.
Is there something that helps us speak about A → G?
I'll have to spell this one out won't I
Maybe one more hint will be enough.
by one of the ways you can look at an adjunction F --| H, the object HX is the limit of a certain diagram involving F
I shall take some time to think about it. Good to think about either way, relevant or not.
?
questions about limits belong in precalculus /s
trying to understand the dicyclic group. the way it's presented is like this
$$Q_{4n}=\langle r,s\mid r^{2n}=e,r^n=s^2,s^{-1}rs=r^{-1}\rangle$$
so what would the elements be of $Q_4$? $r,s,sr,s^{-1}r$?
nilpotent nix
i want to make a multiplication table but i have a hard time reading what the actual elements are from something like this...
for context, I'm kind of "moving up" from the dihedral group. so I'm trying to deal with it as similarly as possible
just realized I didn't include e, that's pretty stupid of me lol.
so i think it's {e,r,s,sr}
You seem not to have accounted for the fact that r = s^2 in Q_4
Q_4 is just the cyclic group of order 4
aha. now i see that
groups are so hard for me to understand lol
so much stuff is obvious when someone points it out to me, but i struggle through it without making basic observations for hours...
is there anything interesting to say about the orthogonal Lie algebra associated to the Killing form of L where L is a Lie algebra? Ie the algebra of endomorphisms alpha of L such that k(alpha(v),w)=-k(v,alpha(w)) for all v,w in L (I suspect this is more or less Inn(L) but im not quite sure)
I don't understand why [L : L^H] = |H| where L^H is the fixed field of L under H
The proof I like uses that the extension is finite, separable and so simple, then use the primitive element to bash it out
Interesting way is u can show that there is there's z in L with trivial stabiliser [ig eg as a primitive element but u can also just do this more directly] and so |H| = |H.z| = |L^H(z): L^H| <= |L:L^H| where I used the fact that H acts transitively on the roots of min poly of z. the reverse bound always holds for any extension I gues
But hm im not sure if this answers the "understand" bit
Maybe the key point is just that that second equality I wrote encapsulates the fact that th galois group acts transitvely on roots of min polys here
In Cartan's criterion for solvability of a Lie algebra, one checks that the killing form satisfies $\kappa(x,y)=0 ~\forall x,y\in L$. Why can't we just check $\kappa(x,x)=0$ $\forall x\in L$? After all in this case we know that on a Cartan subalgebra $H\subset L$ we have $\kappa(x,x)=0 ~\forall x\in H$ and thus in particular we cannot have $[L,L]=L$. So $[L,L]$ is a proper ideal and by induction it is solvable, giving us that $L$ is solvable?
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
how do i find the elements of order $6$ in $\mathbb{R}/\mathbb{Z}$.
isomorphism
i got 1/6 + Z, 2/3 + Z
the second element has order 3
a/b + Z with a in Z, b in N and gcd(a, b) = 1 has order b
you want (a + Z) + ... = 0 i.e. 6a in Z
yeah
,, 0 \leq a < 1
yes
but, critically, you also don't want 2a or 3a to be in Z
so 1/6 + Z is one such element because it is composed with itself 6 times to yield 1 + Z = 0 + Z
but what other elements are there
the group generated by 1/6+Z is iso to C_6, there are two different generators for C_6
see if you can think about what the other one should be
||this gives 6a in {0,1,2,3,4,5} but what wew noted reduces it to {0,1,5} meaning that the elements could be 0/6, 1/6 and 5/6. it's obviously not 0, checking gives us that the result is 5/6 and 1/6||
don't unspoiler until you've tried what wew suggested
||alternatively, if g is a generator for a cyclic group then so is g^-1||
this is big brain
just solve 6x = n where n in Z for 0 <= x < 1 and see which elements have order 6
since n + Z is ultimately Z
that's essentially what I said
ty @delicate orchid @formal ermine @chilly ocean
find primitive 6th roots of unity in S^1 = R/Z
i also have this question
which one
this would be for the multiplicative group though, no?
$a \in R$ is a unit if it has a multiplicative inverse. Similarly, $R^\star$ is the unit group of the ring i.e. $$R^\star = {a \in R : \text{a is a unit}}$$
that's just the citation det dw
45
its not a practice exam
its a past paper
not a practice exam, just an exam 
yea, but my eyes just see the isomorphism as an equality >.<
isomorphism is an equality. Cope more
not for the galois correspondance 
show closure, associativity, inverses, nonemptiness (or alternatively, existence of an identity)
galois
mans not bovvered
non-emptiness is not equivalent to the existence of an identity, one is a much stronger assertion
a grave error
idk yet tho
I'm gonna take algebra 2
my prof said he's either gonna do rep theory or com alg/alg geo
you need com alg for alg geo
you need com alg for rep theory 
or at least a lot of com alg motivates alg geo
yes that's why it's a combined course
wait
really
I thought it just needs like
linear algebra
rings
modules
rep theory is the study of modules over the group ring of course you need com alg
and not noetherian level stuff
tesnor products
tesnor products
sorry, *plopducts
i would say a lot of stuff in alg geo reduces to com alg and not really a statement about motivation 
in my uni you don't need any of that for rep theory
only lin alg and some groups/rings/fields
my prof said that he doesn't wanna do com alg because it's very dry
i have some practice problems i can send you for com alg later if you wanna see what it's about
the prof in my uni who does rep theory states only lin alg as prereq and does all the necessary comm alg in lin alg
there are many different approaches to rep theory tbh it's hard to give a universal pre-req other than lin alg + groups
yeah that's what I'm planning on doing anyway maybe this autumn
closure meaning if a, b in R* then ab in R*?
also does it suffice to say multiplication is associative because a(bc) = (ab)c
that's associativity not commutativity
@delicate orchid could you help me go on from here?
im not sure how to show inverses/identity
the identity is in $R^\star$ because $1 \cdot 1 = 1$ i.e. $1$ is a unit and thus in the unit group of the ring
45
And then inverses should be from definition of R*
you are correct regarding associativity because multiplication is associative
yes
^
definition of R* implies existence of inverses because by definition, R* is the group in which every element of the ring has an inverse
now closure is a bit tricky
is $xy \in R^\star$? think about it, do we have a formula for the inverse of this "product"?
45
$y^{-1} x^{-1}$ is the inverse of $xy$ so $xy \in R^\star$?
isomorphism
What are the ring axioms 👀
ok so
no
showing this is a ring is a very tedious process
much easier to show it's a subring
of the set of 2x2 matrices with coefficients in Z
i don't remember them
first off you establish $R \subset M_{2 \times 2}(\mbb{Z})$
45
for something to be a subring it has to be a ring itself
M_2(Z) is a ring
also that's not the point
showing something is a subring is a much easier way of showing that it is a ring in its own respect
because you have less conditions to fulfill
Let $R$ be a ring. A subset $S \subset R$ is a subring iff it satisfies the existence of the additive and multiplicative identity, additive closure, multiplicative closure, and additive inverses.
45
otherwise you'd have to show stuff like distributive property over addition which is a tedious process
which is otherwise inherited from the main ring
associativity, too
which would be a pain in the ass given that we're talking about matrices here
by definition of matrix multiplication and addition...
why take the harder route
I feel like this is not the route their teacher expected them to take
you can replace all of that simply by stating $R \subset M_{2 \times 2}(\mathbb{Z})$
45
if you want to verify all ten axioms go ahead
i won't stop you
im gonna be sipping tea after im done showing these
that's probably what their teacher expected them to do considering they've just been introduced to rings
usually subrings are covered second to its definition and examples
but that's a question of pedagogy
showing matrix multiplication is associative
I'd rather die
exactly
why waste time
im guessing it's a 2 hour exam
if you wanna waste a precious 10 minutes on six marks, that's not how i'd do it at least
matrix multiplication corresponds to composition of linear maps which is clearly associative 
sorry I'm back
proving the correspondence is only slightly better than just doing (AB)C = A(BC)
all you have to remember is identity, closure, inverse
Both for subgroups and for subrings
inverse
☣️
first implies the second, which is sad the other way
yeah I know det I meant better from a "this is really annoying and sucks" perspective rather than "which one is stronger"
I understand parts i) and ii) thanks to @chilly ocean but I'm struggling with showing that the unit group does not have elements of order $3$
isomorphism
also isn't proving correspondence actually more work?
my perspective was, if you're doing some annoying work, then might as well do the stronger annoying work :p
true
is it really that annoying? you only need two facts, 1) the jth column of the matrix associated to a linear transformation T is just T(e_i), and 2) the jth column of a product AB is just A*(jth column of B)
and both of those are just from the standard definition of how matrix multiplication works
then if S is represented by A and T is represented by B, then the jth column of AB = A*(jth column of B) = A*(T(ej)) = S(T(ej)) = (ST)(ej)
and that shows that AB represents ST
can anyone help
you can use the Nike method for that part
what is that
Just do it
uh
lmao
ig you can use cayley hamilton to save some work
what is that
or just use some eigenvalues
for an upper triangular matrix the diagonals are eigenvalues
you can just pick a matrix in R and raise it to the 3rd power and then try to solve the equation "that = Identity"
and you'll find that you cant
just prove it directly
and if it's a matrix of order 3, then the eigenvalues are roots of x^3 = 1
you can also use more theory
like what det is suggesting
which would save some computation
but its asking for R*
since diagonals are integers, they're integral roots of x^3 = 1, so x = 1
so if R has no elements A with A^3 = I
then R* certainly has no such elements either
(even beyond that, if A is in R and A^3 = I, then A is automatically in R* anyway)
and so the matrix looks like
[1 *]
[0 1]
only way this cubes to I is if 3* = 0 so * = 0 but this has order 1 and not 3
take an element of R and raise it to the 3rd power
I understand
and try to set that matrix equal to the identity matrix
and for iii) I do the same thing but show its not commutative
and see if you can find solutions or not
so I show for some A, B in R AB != BA
wdym
it asks to show that R* sin't commutative
yes
so you need to find elements of R* which don't commute
Just a question: for part ii) would this be formal: det(M) would have to be 1/3 which is not attainable by multiplying / subtracting integers, so M can’t exist
if your A and B aren't in R* then you haven't done what the probelm asks for
how do i make sure they're actually in R*
no
det(A^3) = det(A)^3, not 3*det(A)
Ah
