#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 38 of 1
oh then it's a typo in my lecture script
maybe I'm not clear on what exactly you're proving. Is it just Sylow I?
ok
np
I'm having a hard time when they just say "by induction" without specifying what the induction hypothesis, base case, and step is
fair enough, it's good to write those all out explicitly to see what exactly is being used
if $p$ divides $|Z(G)|$ then there exists a subgroup $H \subseteq Z(G)$ with order $p$ because $Z(G)$ is abelian
the thinking is all in the step more often than not
why is $H$ cyclic
order p
every group of prime order is cyclic

by like Cauchy or whatever
I keep forgetting these simples things
there are a lot of moving parts
lagrange
"this easily follows from euler's theorem"
"which one of them?"
ok another induction question
why does $G' \coloneqq G/H$ have a subgroup $S'$ of order $p^{m - 1}$ by induction over $|G|$
Induction on power of p dividing the group order
basically you use existence of H so that you can quotient it out and get smth smaller than G
And then I guess next step will be correspondence to get back to G
explicitly, if |G| = p^m r and |H| = p, then |G/H| = p^{m-1} r
but there is a cooler noninductive proof of sylow 1 lol
which one is that?
Which I have basically forgotten but I'll try to remember in a sec aha
composition
the map is A -> C but you want to emphasize you're composing A -> B and B -> C
common notation
what are G' and S' here?
.
isomorphism theorems give that the quotient is isomorphic to (G/H) / (pi^-1(S')/H) = (G/H) / S which has order p^{m-1}k/p^{m-1}
at least on the level of cosets, since pi^{-1}(S') need not be normal
ok gimme a sec lol
can you elaborate pls
Not really, it's the third isomorphism theorem
$\pi^{-1}(S')/H = \pi \circ \pi^{-1}(S') = S'$
walter
alternatively, you could note that $|\pi^{-1}(S')| = |H| \cdot |S'| = p^m$
walter
|G'/(pi^-1(S')/H)| = |G'/S'| = |G'|/|S'| = (|G|/|H|)/|S'| = (p^m k / p)/(p^(m - 1) = (p^(m - 1) k)/p^(m - 1)
ah
I don't understand the first equality here
the projection map is literally quotienting by H
projection map?
the map pi: G -> G/H
wdym
I don't know how to elaborate. The quotient map pi: G -> G/H is the map sending g -> gH, its coset
why is pi^-1(S')/H = pi(pi^-1(S'))
pi^{-1}(S') is the subgroup of G obtained by pulling back S' along this map. If you aren't sure this is a subgroup then you should verify that. But this is essentially by construction.
Let xH be in pi^{-1}(S')/H. Then x is in pi^{-1}(S'), so pi(x) = xH is in pi(pi^{-1}(S')). The other direction is equally straightfoward
no worries, sorry if i sounded frustrated at the end
lol dw
i still don't understand how you hate group actions though lol
I don't even know examples for group actions
.
we did them within one lecture and then we were supposed to fully know them
action of galois group
conjugation
multiplication within a group, automorphisms, linear transformations, the list is endless
but then it's just like a second group operation
or rather, the group operation is just another action
and anyways, conjugation happens on more than just the elements. You could also consider the action of conjugation on the lattice of subgroups
lattice of subgroups?
you know how there's a lattice of subfields
wut
you form a poset of subgroups of a given group ordered by inclusion
what's a poset of subgroups
partially ordered set of subgroups
it's not terribly important right now, my point is just that the group acts on the set of subgroups by conjugation in a way that preserves some structure
let $X$ be the set of all sylow p-subgroups and let $G$ act on $X$ by conjugation. since all sylow p-subgroups are conjugate there is only one orbit in $X$ wrt $G$. if $p \in X$ then $|X| = |Gp|$ which means that $|X|$ divides $|G|$
is that reasoning correct
Yeah, that seems right
epic
Wielandt proof of Sylow + some extra intuition ig: Let $G$ be a group. Note that if $X$ is the set of non-empty subsets of $G$, then $G$ acts on $X$ by left mutliplication and if $S \in X$ then $S$ is a subgroup of $G$ iff $\mathrm{Stab}(S) = S$; this will motivate the following.
Now if $G$ is a finite group and $|G|=p^k m$ where $m \not \equiv 0 \mod p$, then we can restrict our attention to $\Omega$, the set of subsets of $G$ of size $p^k$ and search for stabilisers of size $p^k$. Note if $S \in \Omega$ then in fact $|\mathrm{Stab}(S)| \le p^k$, e.g. because $G = \bigcup_{T \in \mathrm{Orb}(S)} T$ and taking sizes shows $|G| \le |\mathrm{Orb}(S)| p^k$ so $|\mathrm{Orb}(S)| \ge m$.
Now Suppose, for contradiction, then, that $|\mathrm{Stab}(S)| < p^k$ for all $S \in \Omega$. Then $p^k$ doesn't divide $|\mathrm{Stab}(S)|$, so $p$ divides the size of each orbit. But this means that $|\Omega| \equiv 0 \mod p$. This is a contradiction, because $|\Omega| = {p^k m \choose p^k} = \frac{(p^k m)(p^k m -1) \dots (p^k(m-1) + 1)}{p^k \cdot \dots \cdot 1}$ and the same power of $p$ divides the numerator and denominator. Hence by this contradiction and the remark above, there's $S$ with $|\mathrm{Stab}(S)|=p^k$; $\mathrm{Stab}(S)$ is then the desired subgroup.
potato
@agile burrow if u were interested lol
this is a neat proof
I've thought about that criterion for subgroups before but haven't thought about applying it that way
thanks for sharing
Oh that was smth I like added in here for the intuition lol
Well like
Ye idk lol
I guess this is sort of proof by wishful thinking in a sense lol like if there's a subgroup then we can find it as a stabiliser
so we will examine stabilisers and see what happens
But yeah idk I think writing like this is interesting cause it shows that we reduce it tons like
S = Stab(S) reduced to |S| = |Stab(S)| reduced to |S| <= |Stab(S)|
hm
let $P$ be a sylow p-subgroup of $G$. let $X$ be the set of all sylow p-subgroups and let $P$ act on $X$ by conjugation. why is $|X| \equiv |X_P| \pmod{p}$
Orbits partition X
but that's the stabiliser?
what is XP
Isn't X_P the set of elements of X fixed by P
which isn't the stabiliser
i.e. the elements of X with orbits of size 1
if you have a non-trivial orbit, then it has size divisible by p by orbit-stabilizer
use class formula
Beat me to it lol
wait so what is $X_P$
i've just gvien two descriptions oop
but ye more eexplicitly like
$X_P = { x \in X \mid p\cdot x = x \text{ for all } p \in P} = {x \in X \mid \mathrm{Stab}(x) = P} = {x \in X \mid \mathrm{Orb}(x) = {x}}$
potato
Wait a minutet hough lol
what is $p \cdot x$
Wouldn't you usually use the notation X^P not X_P or am I thick
yeah, X^P is the typical notation for fixed points
ok wait before we proceed
the set of orbits
well
if G a group acting on X and s in X then G_s i guess would be the stabiliser of s
does someone have a simple proof for the congruence of p-sylow-subgroup size
which is the kinda inverse
G \cdot s would be orbit for me
and I couldn't find a better one
What exactly do you mean by this
I'm just saying because when M is a G-module, I always see M^G for invariants and M_G for coinvariants lol
or do you mean this
$s_p \equiv 1 \pmod{p}$ where $s_p$ is the amount of $p-$sylow subgroups
yee
Oh okay uhhh
Meh screw it i might just write up some spiel on sylow theorems since it's good recall for me lol
been a while
Okay right tbh the wikipedia article gives a nice proof
but if you are stuck on that maybe i can give some help
is universal property sufficient and necessary?
for?
just in general
e.g. if something meets the universal property for a tensor product then it's a tensor product, and vice versa?
Yeah
universal properties are another way of looking at the thingy. looks to me like category theorists use universal properties as definitions of e.g. a product
I remember now, it's that if k is a field and G is finite, then kG modules are projective iff they're injective
that sounds right
for semisimple, any module over it is already injective and projective
not too sure about that being characterization tho
any arguments?
A ring is semi simple iff every ses of modules over it splits?
Yes
Cause you’re semi simple iff every module over you is semi simple, iff for each module over you sub modules are direct summands
And then it follows each module over R is projective and injective no?
oh yeah, you guys are right
Yes
wonder if there's a criterion for rings where modules are projective iff injective
But thats not the question I asked
Hmm fair enough
Is a summand of an injevtive injective?
I think so right?
If R is an ID then M proj and injective forces M=0 unless R is a field
this is right, yeah
Then this is true when you only restrict to fg modules iff A is self-injevtive
And if you want to restrict to Noeth rings where direct sums of injectives are always injevtive
It’s true even for non-fg
neat
Didn’t get what’s happening tbh
If projective <=> injective then self injevtive
And self injevtive => (projective => injective)
With fg hypotheses if the ring is non-Noeth
But for the other direction I dunno
Maybe I’m being dumb but can’t you say that if every module is projective, then every ses splits since Ext^1(M,N)=0 for all M,N? And then you conclude?
Im probably misunderstanding your question @lethal dune cause you could also do simpler by just saying every projective module is a direct summand of a free module
Ahhh sorry I see you’re asking if projective <=> injective implies semi simple mb
Why use Ext for this, just lift id 
Why do we need fg hypotheses here?
You know a projective is a summand of a free module
So you want to know the free module is injective
Oh infinite direct sum of injectives isn’t injective?
But if the free module is infinite rank it won’t be true
Yeah okay I see
Noetherian <==> every arbitrary direct sum of injectives is injective
This might be really obvious but I'm awful at group theory. Is it true that if $G^\prime \leq G$ where $G$ is abelian then if $N\leq G^\prime$ we have that $G^\prime/N \leq G/N$?
Kraft Macaroni
Hey guys, if I look at the group Q, what is for every prime number q this intersection
in our case G=Q
Yeah
Q is divisible meaning nQ=Q for all n
but why though?
Try yo show x to nx is surjective in Q
With one exception lol
Burn in hell
guys if i know that the set of all left cosets G\N is cyclic, how do the elements look like?
G/N, G\N is the set difference
this set here, sorry made a mistake
Elements of G or G/H
If G/N is cyclic then we have some generator xN in G/N
and all elements are powers of xN, that is of the form (xN)^n = x^n N
oh that makes a lot of sense, thx a lot
I'm sorry if my question was kinda confusing 😦
Wouldnt G/H just have 1 coset tho
Oh wait
Mb I was confused
If G/Z(G) is cyclic then G is abelian sorry
yeah, that sounds about right
I evidently need sleep
I'm doing an exercises where N is a normal subgroup of G, which is contained in Z(G) (centre of G) and we also know that G/N is cyclic
Yeah then G is abelian
Where are you stuck
I mean we knoe that G is abelian if Z(G)=G right? and Z(G) included in G is trivial
Yeah
on the other side i get kinda stuck
I'd just take two arbitrary elements of G and show they commute
dont you have to do the whole construction first?
what construction, I don't understand
If you take two arbitrary elements of G say x and y
Say G/N = <gN>
then xN = g^i N and yN = g^j N
Then you can go from there
I completely understand the method you want to use, but the solution I'm lookin at are slightly different
In what sense
so, are you trying to solve the exercise, or analyze the solution?
mostly analyze the solution, because I did it with your method and it worked well for me too
ah okay. Then post it, lets analyze it
I don't understand 
I'm translating it
but i don't get it either haha
what part do you not get
yeah I just thought I wouldn't need to know that much German to understand it
the part where Cent_G(x)=G
(Timo understands German)
why the hell
thx for trying though 
g = x^i n for some n in N
so g is in the center of x
because N is a subgroup of Z(G)
(I dont know german sadly)
das Erzeugnis x^n*N liegt im Zentralisator für alle n und man kann jedes g in G so darstellen
also ist G schon im Zentralisator
ah. I gave up too early, the clues were all there
choose x in G, s.t. G/N is spanned by the coset xN. For each element g in G there exists a whole number n s.t. gN=x^n*N, which means that g is also contained in x^nN. From it we recognize that N and x span whole G. Because we also know that N (which is contained in Z(G)) and x are contained in Cent_G(x), and because it is a subgroup of G, we can say that Cent_G(x)=G. This is equivalent with saying that x is in Z(G), and because N is in Z(G) we say that Z(G) contains the spanned subgroup of x and N. Which means that G is contained in Z(G). That's why G is abelian.
I don't completely understand how the centralisator of x has to be G
have you looked at the answers given so far
ist es darum?
ja
because since n is in N subgroup Z(G) so n commutes with everything
And then g is arbitrary
im assuming thats what fur jedes element g means
yes yes
yes I get it now
thx a lot guys, sry for disturbing y'all

Lol ur not disturbing at all
is Symmetric group of order 3 solvable?
yes
it's the semi-direct product of 2 cyclic groups yeah
oh, that's weird
what operation exists in S_5 that isn't cyclic?
isn't that just like rotating a pentagon?
odd way of thinking about solvability, and groups tbh
every "operation" is "cyclic" in that you can get a cyclic group from every element - I have no clue what you mean by this as it's trivial
if it's cyclic isn't it abelian?
The problem is that in the derived series you reach A_5 after the first step, which is equal to it's commutator subgroup
and according to this youtube video, if a group is solvable it can be broken into abelian groups
so it's not solvable
I'd go off of the actual definitions over wishy-washy youtube videos
oh, yeah makes sense
that is true though I think, a group is solvable <=> there is some chain of group extenstions from an abelian group that give you that group
If R\subset R' are Dedekind domains (without R' necessarily being integral over R), is P\cap R' guaranteed to be non-zero in R? I know it's non-zero if R'/R is integral, but does it happen without the assumption?
why does any element x in omega not fixed by H lie in an orbit of order |H|/|H_x|?
is it because uhh
orbit stabilizer
|Gx| = |G/G_x| = |G|/|G_x|
yes
but then why is it only for elements not fixed
wouldn't it also be true for fixed elements
the second part where they say |H|/|H_x| is a multiple of p relies on H_x not being all of H
ah because if it were fixed the stabilizer would be all of H
so $\Omega_0$ is the set of all elements whose stabilizer is the entirety of $H$?
yes
ahhhhh
that's what it means to be fixed under an action
H is a p-group so it has order p^n
H_x is a proper subgroup, what can you say about its order?
right, namely it has order p^m for m < n
yeah
so |H| / |H_x| = ?
p^(n - m)
yeah and if x is fixed then H_x = H so |H|/|H_x| = 1
ok
then we use the fact that |X| = sum of all sizes of different orbits
because orbits are either identical or different
idk what you call the different thing in english
I forgor what it's called in german even
disjoint?
yeah, orbits partition the set
you seem to have left out the fixed points, unless you want to count those as p^{0}
taking $\pmod{p}$ then gives us [ |\Omega| \equiv |\Omega_0| \pmod{p} ]
yes
right ok thanks
happy to help
now to the actual theorem
what does the highlighted part mean
like
aren't we letting P act on omega
instead of G
Yes, but P is a subgroup of G. This is saying that every element of P normalizes Q, so P is a subgroup of the normalizer of Q in G.
ah
why does P = Q
I understand that P and Q are conjugate in N_G(Q)
and Q is normal in N_G(Q)
but how does that imply that P = Q
ah wait
P and Q are conjugate means that there exists a g in N_G(Q) such that P = gQg^-1
but because Q is normal P = gQg^-1 = Q
ok got it
yes
now to sylow 2
Walter
Walter
chmonkey and timo
the index of P in G
we defined the index as $|G/P|$
I was thinking of |G|/|P|
what's the usual definition of the index
my subgroups stay finite index
what is this font
why does $p$ not divide the index

comic sans
I hate it
same
P is a maximal p-subgroup, right?
so if |G| = p^n k where k is not divisible by p, then |P| = p^n
Suppose p divided the index, implies not maximal
because if |G| = p^mk then P \in Syl_p(G) has order p^m by definition
I love how we just said the same thing just with increasingly more explanation
why does $g\inv HgP = P$ imply that $g\inv Hg$ is a subgroup of $P$
it's the same thing with like xP = P implies x is in P
just with the whole dang thang at once
happy to help
one day I will use the sylow theorems
that day is not today
it's been a while, wew
hope you're well and enjoying the new year
I'm ill and having a crisis, but I did get the first greggs of the new year at the airport so that's good!!
hope you feel better soon and sort out your crisis
Oh yeah I do actually have a question for chat
does the artin-webberburn theorem actually construct the isomorphism between the algebra and the funny matrix algebras or do you have to go cry about it yourself - cause I can't find much information on the actual map itself beyond "yeah dey iso"
iirc tox and bacono asked some stuff about this a few months back for their rep theory course, could be worth asking them? i haven't thought about artin wedderburn in a while so i don't have an answer right away
makes sense - I think I've found the map anyway it would just be nice to have a "canonical" way of doing it yk
oh and the map only works for the complex group-algebra, very sad!
yeah - the main issue is I want the action induced by a fusion system to behave nicely through whatever isomorphism we come up with
cause then you can take orbit-sums and get wholesome F-stable characters
you lost me, but i'll try to think about it
this post seems somewhat promising
I'll take a peep

I know it’s given by the Fourier transform for C[G] when G is finite
Oh and I see you’ve already found that, sadge
why in finite fields the polynomials are solvable by radicals?
this answer seems to lay it out pretty clearly I think https://math.stackexchange.com/a/2232489/741168
why did aluffi draw the spectrum of Z like this? lol
he just throws this here so randomly, I don't get it
(this is the first time he's introducing prime ideals)
drawings of spectrums are pretty famous though I don't know much about those
so I guess this is just an example where it looks a little less complicated
than usual
how do you read this

that looks like Spec Z[x] 
i don't understand the complete picture, but i can say a few things
Show that if G is a finite subgroup of PGL_2(Q) then G occurs as a Galois group of Q.
Can anyone give me any hint or some directions to go? I'm not really thinking hard about this atm, but I'd like to solve this, and I have no idea where to start really. Maybe its not too difficult idk
this exercise comes after proving that PGL_2(F) iso Gal(F(x)/F)
but stating the exercise in terms of Aut(F(x)/F) or in terms of PGL_2(F) seems as challenging
i have no idea how to solve this, but fwiw the finite subgroups of PGL(2, Q) were classified by Dresden
which is probably not how you're supposed to approach it lol, but still interesting
I think its a really nice problem
because
- I have no idea why I should care
- I have no idea where to start
xD
but its probably important that you get groups as Galois groups somehow
the isomorphism is via fractional linear transformations, right?
or like, (a b \ c d) sends f(x) to f((ax + b)/(cx + d))
that's neat
I should reread that chapter in more detail tbh
because he actually proves S_n occurs as a galois group of Q
ig only way i see how to start is by hoping we can write PGL(2,Q) as semidirect product of N and G for some normal N 
that way Gal(Q(x)^N/Q) = G
this is the first time i see someone looking at automorphisms of non-algebraic extensions lol
like, the chapter is on transcendental extensions
wdym by inclusion? 
subset relation ig
oh, if some ideal is included in another then they're connected?
why would he do that?
there are some deeper ideas here that i'm not entirely sure about, but one explanation for this picture is that there's a topology we can put on the spectrum called the zariski topology
the picture is supposed to capture something about this topology. idrk much about this, but in this case my understanding is that (0) is a "generic point" (whatever that means). A way to make this explicit is that the closure of (0) is all of Spec Z. In this sense, (0) kind of touches every point of Spec Z or something like that
other people can probably elaborate but maybe this gives a very rough idea of why someone might draw a picture at all

if p is prime in Spec R, then the closure of {p} in that topology is all the primes q that contain p, so if q is a bigger prime, then it's like super close to p in this topology which is why you also say q is a specialization of p or p is a generalization of q
I'm gonna say something nonsensical but
doesnt every member of PGL_2(Q) satisfy either x^2-1=0 or x^3-1=0
?
wait no uhh idk. I dont think you can talk about addition in PGL_2(Q) ?
mmh my reasoning was that every thing in GL2(Q) satisfies a polynomial of deg 2
and since scalars get killed, the coefficients of the polynomial also get killed (they are either 1 or 0)
what about something like
[1 1]
[0 1]
uhm yeah right.
i was trying to come up with some nice examples of homomorphisms out of PGL_2(Q)
one is det 
more precisely det : PGL_2(Q) --> Q*/(Q*^2) = infinite direct sum of Z/2Z
where's
when you need him? 


damn algebraic geometry
I need more group theory facts
I'm running low
Or maybe I'll just do another write up and talk about trace stuff this time
all groups are abelian
Grow up

I'm sorry, it was in jest 🫂
aww

👴
walter be seeking blood
where do I learn about this zariski topowology?
do I have to wait till I do AG?
The holomorph is the terminal object in the full subcategory of split extensions of some fixed pair of groups
I learned that here
that was nice
Holomorph is a word I've heard before. I'll read about this. Thank you for your contribution 

Trying to think of more facts I find cool...
Oh
here's something. I guess it's more topological in nature? Fuck it
Topology is fine too
Here is a very short proof that the fundamental group (with basepoint the identity) of a topological group is Abelian
A topological group is a group object in Top. Group objects in Grp are Abelian groups. The fundamental group is a functor, hence it preserves the diagrammatic property of being a group object. QED.
I like this proof quite a bit
do you know Frattini subgroups
That's a good one.
I've heard of them before, haven't used them for anything though
Oh I guess you also need the fact that the fundamental group preserves the cartesian product. But this is well-known lol
Showing group objects in Grp are abelian uses Eckmann Hilton, right?
woah. This is cool
Yeah, and in fact you can show that the fundamental group is Abelian directly using Eckmann–Hilton anyway lol
so it's kinda just pushing that fact forward
Right, that's the way I've seen it before so I was wondering if they were just the same under the hood
Still a cool way of phrasing it
I thought it uses that x to x^-1 is a homomorphism
but maybe that's the same argument
However, it actually generalises a bit, as you can also argue that any topological monoid has Abelian fundamental group
Well maybe that's an alternative one haha
I think either one works tbh
I think you need Eckmann Hilton to argue that the underlying group operation agrees with the operation as a group object
From which you apply the fact that inversion ought to be a homomorphism to conclude that the group is abelian
But a priori if the operations were distinct then you wouldn't necessarily have the underlying group be abelian
I posted this maybe yesterday too in a different channel, but my current favorite group theory/topology fact is that if you have a finite K(G, 1) with nonzero Euler characteristic, then G has trivial center
I'm trying to come up with more interesting group theory facts
There's one I really like
but it is a bit complicated
Basically, if you have a linear algebraic group (think of some subgroup of GL_n that is defined by a polynomial equation in its entries) if you make some mild assumptions on it (connected reductive) you can actually get an explicit presentation of it in terms of the additive and multiplicative groups of the underlying field
This can sort of be seen as a generalisation of Gaussian elimination
Group presentations are great
Well this is a particularly interesting one, since it kinda relies on the field
so it's like, idk
an algebraic group representation is probably a good word for it
but it's somehow parametrised by the field in any case
are there any cool field/galois theory facts
Sure. A matrix in GL_n(F_p) is diagonalisable in the algebraic closure of F_p if and only if it's diagonalisable in GL_n(F_{p^n}) This follows easily from Galois theory.
"this easily follows from math"
Yes
so true
It really does.
This actually lets you do a cool thing in rep theory where you can characterise all representations of cyclic groups – even in really fucked up fields. I need to learn more about this though
That's a cool one
I was ignored 
I mean you can read the definition now if you want but it probably isn't helpful
But yeah, zariski topology is an algebraic geometry thing
I remembered something absolutely epic about this actually
Let's say you want to compute Sylow subgroups of SL_2(p) where p is some prime. I have been doing this recently.
SL_2(p) has order p(p-1)(p+1).
If you want to find the Sylow 2-subgroups, it's hard. If you want to find the Sylow p-subgroup, it's quite easy. What's interesting now is when you look at odd prime q subgroups. q must divide exactly one of p-1 or p+1.
It turns out if q divides p-1, you get diagonal matrices with entries being elements of order a power of q in F_p
However, this doesn't work for q dividing p+1. Uh-oh
But what you can do is really smart
You expand to F_{p^2}, and it turns out that you can diagonalise any Sylow q-subgroup of SL_2(p) when you expand to this
And lo and behold, now F_{p^2} has elements of order dividing p+1, since its multiplicative group of is order p^2-1 = (p+1)(p-1)
I think this is fucking awesome
Calculating this is a little tricky though
That's pretty dope
I love all these tricks for explicitly computing Sylow subgroups and stuff
Super neat
Those computational group theorists are so smart
really carrying the world of algebra on their backs tbh
this idea of using F_{p^n} comes up when you try and find the conjugacy classes of SL_n as well
very cool idea
Oooh that's cool
yeah so the idea is that you want to use distinct jordan normal forms to find conjugacy classes (there's some correspondence) - but this means you need eigenvalues, not all of which live in F_p
Right, but they do live in F_{p^n}! That's very smart.
so you expand out to a larger field, which for SL_n turns out to be F_{p^n}
yeah it's sick
I'm honestly amazed you can do that at all. I have this idea that conjugacy classes of matrices is a hopeless problem
aluffi does some affine algebraic geometry in chapter 7
I forget if he talks about zariski topology at all

he does
But that section is all I know about algebraic geometry aside from the bits and pieces I've picked up elsewhere
but only for subsets of K^n
I'm doing that after this chapter 
Probably good as an introduction anyway
why do we restrict PIDs to integral domains?
does assuming every ideal of a ring is a principle ideal imply the ring is an integral domain?
no
take e.g. K[x]/(x^2) where K is any field
such rings are called principial ideal rings
fun fact every pir is the direct product of quotients of pids
Z/4Z too is a noice example
how to see the forward direction?
direct sum 
uhhhhhhh
i was thinking you're allowed to have infinite products
I think I read this on wikipedia
sometimes when I'm bored I just click myself through wikipedia
How do I find the minimal polynomial of $\sqrt{13}$ over $\mathbb{Z}_5$?
Is it $x^{2} - 3$?
Sapphire Gaming
I’m actually only in precalc so this might be a stupid question.
Yeah, x²-3 sounds right.
Typing sqrt(13) is a bit of an odd way to express oneself in Z/5, but not really your fault, I suppose.
for what do you need that
sapphire gaming spends all of their time here picking random fields and random elements and computing minimal polynomials
it is not, but that doesn't mean it doesnt have a min poly there
i has min poly x^2+1 in R
No -- if it were, its minimal polynomial would be linear.
you say this as if the answer "no" means that the original question doesnt make sense
I forgor
don't we need to specify the extension field for minimal polynomial to make sense
The question should really be understood as: assuming we have an extension of Z5 where 13 has a square root; then what is the minimal polynomial of that square root over Z5?
There is no notion of evennes modulo 5 tho?
i mean, pick an algebraic closure of F_5
or just adjoin sqrt(13) to anything
Correct.
there is clearly an element (well, two elements) in there which could reasonably be called "sqrt(13)"
But why "tho"?
Lol they didn't mean even in the sense of parity
lol
the answer to the question doesn't depend on which algebraic closure and which sqrt(13) you choose
Brooo
okay took me a while to understand this was what was meant
Lol Im stupid
Oooooh.
but ye i mean more generally like if a is in F and K an extension of F containing an element b with b^2 = a with b not in F then the min poly of b over F is just x^2 - a
Unless b is itself in F, of course.
Why don't you try other algebra problems? There are many cool problems involving polynomials
Idk I just like field theory.
you should try learning some field theory then
like, some theory, not just the computations
Ok
for example, you could try to learn how to understand statements like this
which you can use to answer not just the question "what is the minimal polynomial of sqrt(13) over F_5" also "what is the minimal polynomial of sqrt(13) over F_7" or any other field you choose
what's an intuition behind $R[[x]] \coloneqq (R^\bN, +, \cdot)$
That is not really what I'd call a definition lol
cute font
I'm reading an analysis book and it defined that
it's power series
ah
if you try to define R[[x]] as "things of the form a + bx + cx^2 + ..." then you have to answer "what is x"
potato
ring of sequences with elements in R

which is?
but this way you don't have to, you can just say "R[[x]] is the set of sequences of elements of R with pointwise addition and this funky ass multiplication"
potato just said
what i said essentially
whether you allow for infinitely many non-zero coefficients or not
ah
polynomials have a highest-degree term
so for example 1 + x + x^2 + ... isn't in R[x]
and power series don't necessarily
Note that like
what's a power series btw
{1,x,x^2,...} form a basis of R[x] for example over R
a (formal) power series is an element of R[[x]]
in this context
formal 
what's the difference between a formal power series and a power series
it just means like, "we are writing this down without regard to whether or not it actually makes sense"
indeed i just find it weird lol cause it's like
idk formal power series make more sense arguably xd
sort of nothing tbh. i think when people emphasize the word "formal" i think they are just emphasizing that like
we're not assuming this power series converges
or actually defines a function
it's emphasizing the "form" and not the "meaning" 
how can a power series converge
if you want that you need a topology
have you taken calculus?
like 1 + x + x^2 + ... converges when |x|<1
like did you learn about taylor series? and the radius of convergence of a power series?
so a power series converges when it converges everywhere?
the point is that when we are talking about formal power series, we don't even care
it's just not a question we're bothering with
nah, the usual definition is that a convergent power series is something which converges in some open set, i.e. has positive radius of convergence
i mean that would contradict what det said
ah
Power series in analysis means “converges somewhere which we care about”
Power series in algebra is just an abstract object which forms a ring in the way described above
To make clear we aren’t talking about the former ppl tend to put “formal” when doing the latter
true
people just try to reduce it to algebra for that reason
but you can topologize R[[x]] where every power series would converge :p
and we let them!
Shush your mouth
how about we topologise it where no series converges
pain
Tfw 0 + 0x + 0x^2 + … doesn’t converge
yes
Sadge
you can't get close enough to 0 it has covid
who says that 0 is the same as 0 + 0x + 0x^2 + ...
intentionality ftw
after all, if you plug in x =infinity then you get either 0 or 0 + undefined + undefined + ...
is x-0 the minimal polymomial of 0 over F_7
potato
now i want macaroni
me too >.<
Joe this is #groups-rings-fields not discussion
Here's something I've been thinking about. For nilpotent groups, there are two "natural" series to consider, namely the upper central series and the lower central series. Each are built inductively using the extremal properties that a central series ought to satisfy (I can expand on this if needed).
Solvable groups have a natural descending series, namely the derived series, which is defined inductively starting from the whole group and terminating at the identity. To my knowledge, there isn't a canonical way to define an ascending series that starts from the identity and terminates at G iff G is solvable, but I haven't thought about this very much so maybe there's an obvious thing.
I guess the issue is that for nilpotent groups, when building the upper central series the condition is that $G_{i+1}/G_i \subseteq Z(G/G_i)$ so you have an obvious choice for how to maximize this. On the other hand, for solvable groups the fact that the first term only needs to be abelian doesn't yield a canonical ``maximal" abelian subgroup
walter
In any case, I maintain that the correct way to think about solvable groups is as a group which is inductively built out of extensions by abelian groups.
i'm not quite sure what your question is
but is there any doubt about your last statement?
I guess the definition of a derived series which terminates didn't really click with me
Or at least not the first time around
idk i guess i just see that as a measure of solvability
like, the quotients in the derived series are exactly the abelian groups which are being used to build up the solvable group via extensions
Right, that makes sense
I guess these days I'm trying to rethink a lot of my arguments about nilpotent/solvable groups by phrasing them in terms of extension 1 -> A -> G -> G/A -> 1
There's a neat result by Hirsch, which says that if G is a nilpotent group acting linearly on a finite-dimensional vector space M such that H^0(G, M) = 0, then all the higher cohomology vanishes too
And the proof is essentially to show it for abelian groups and then apply Lyndon-Hochschild-Serre to the SES to proceed inductively
that's nice
I don't really have a good grasp of spectral sequences yet. I wonder if there's some weaker result that holds for solvable groups, but I can't trace the same argument because the differentials are probably different if the extension isn't central lol
they are magic
very much so 
do not stare directly at the spectral sequence

yeah ive been looking for good resources but i get lost somewhere
i was trying to read through Serge Lang’s introduction
and it was messy and confusing
Highly recommend John Rognes's book
His examples are topological because he's a topologist
But the theory chapters don't have topology prereqs
Ravi Vakil also has this Venn diagram calculus thing that you can use to intuitively understand why they work
oh cool
Look for his post on 3b1b's blog, it is called puzzling through exact sequences
It's a very informal treatment, and is not as general as the stuff Rognes proves, but you can formalize it with some effort and also adapt it to Rognes's treatment
what's the name of the book
Spectral sequences
The connective topological modular forms spectrum, tmf, is in a sense initial among elliptic spectra, and as such is an important link between the homotopy groups of spheres and modular forms. A primary goal of this volume is to give a complete account, with full proofs, of the homotopy of tmf an...
is this the one?

Learning about spectral sequences through the adams one would be a baptism of fire lol

Another unfortunate piece of terminology from topology is of an A-null space given a set A of maps 
Could have chosen any letter other than A
Ass(M)
where example 
Idk what I was expecting
Every spectral sequence known to man is an example 
His notes on the ASS have a chapter dedicated to examples of exact couples that come up (and then give rise to corresponding spectral sequences)
But the most notable example is that of a filtered chain complex
Probably just google "exact couple associated to a filtered chain complex" and you should find it
Hi guys I have a bit of a difficult question whose answer I wasn't able to find on google. So I'm doing some research surrounding PQC and I'm coming across a set of numbers which is very obviously a multiplicative group. Precisely, this is the set of totally positive elements of the number field. To better understand these I'm trying to find a more familiar group which this set is isomorphic to, but I'm having a really hard time. I've tried many different ways without success. I was now hoping to use representation theory (which I have not studied) and so I was wondering if this is even possible i.e. can you recover the group structure of a group through a representation of said group?
if the representation is faithful then you just get an isomorphic copy of G, otherwise don't think
Ah ok
Ngl I don't really know enough about rep theory to know what that means but it's good to go into something knowing there is at least hope of it working
Thx
It means that G → GL(V) injective. Otherwise you can have trivial representation, say g.v=v for all v in V. That really doesn't say much, does it?
to prove k[x] is PID if k is a field I just reasoned take any ideal (call it I) and choose a polynomial with the lowest degree (call it f(x))
now (f(x))\subset I
and the remainder of the division of any polynomial in I by f(x) is 0 (coz otherwise f(x) won't have the lowest degree) so I\subset (f(x))
but shouldn't I be careful when saying "choose a polynomial with the lowest degree"?
since not all sets have a minimum

that's not an issue here
think about what the set you're worried about here is
the set of degrees of polynomials in the ideal?
this doesn't need set theory 
yes
ig you can just start counting from 0 and go till the degree of some arbitrary polynomial in I
just well ordering right?
and the first number you count that's in this set must be the lowest
you can just say that every set of natural numbers has a minimum
you don't need to re-prove that fact in the context of degrees of polynomials
yes
I see
rudin has ruined you
ig I'm just being overly pedantic ¯_(ツ)_/¯
btw, hello buncho
haven't seen you in a while 
What does $f^{[\beta]}$ mean? $f$ is a polynomial in $n$ variables.
Spamakin🎷
I'm pretty sure it's just the coefficient of $f$ for the monomial $x^\beta$, like how you would write $f(x)=\sum_{i=0}^nf_ix^i$ for a one-variable polynomial.
Ocean Man
If zeta is a complex primitive n-th root of unity, why are the two highlighted expressions equal? i,j are the numbers from 0 to n-1.
I don't think the fact they're roots of unity comes into play here, we're just substituting k = j-i
and then doing some commuting of products
lol you're right, that was silly
I'd denote that by Z[A], where Z(f) is the zero set of f
ty for resource
i only made a correspondence before with kernel injecting into X and then surjecting onto image
My bad, A is a set of spaces, not maps
A space Z is A-null if the space of maps from every space in A to Z is contractible
I think
Yeah it's very cool, especially the idea of denoting quotients on one side of the Venn diagram
One thing that I think makes it easier though is not actually gluing things together
Like for a map X → Y, Vakil glues its coimage and image together to get a single big diagram
When there aren't many maps involved, this works well
But I've had to draw infinitely many maps in this notation before lmao
So I prefer to keep X and Y separate, draw the filtrations on them, and just remember which regions are supposed to be glued together
Can anyone help with this question? I tried asking in the help channel but it seems like no one can help there 😦
(those questions are way too advanced for the help channels fwiw)
Good text just saying Hatcher is better for alg top
I agree
Just to make sure I’m not being dumb here, instead of writing “for different primes p_i” and later “if we assume that p_i does not divide p_j” can’t we just straight off the bat say “for non associated primes p_i”?
I think so
Okay I’m very much unfamiliar with trans finite induction so I just need an indicator to know if I’m not doing something illegal here
I was reading this post https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/162945/submodule-of-free-module-over-a-p-i-d-is-free-even-when-the-module-is-not-finit
Now in the first comment they say that to complete the proof you should use trans finite induction
So my “attempt” at showing the u_i generate U is to just say that for an element x of U I can take the biggest i such that p_i(x) is non zero, so that x is in U_i. Then subtract some multiple of u_i to get an element in U_j for some j<i. I suppose by trnsfinite induction that U_j is generated by the set of u_k’s for all j less than i to conclude
This feels too broken
Like intuitively I don’t understand why this works
It makes me feel like axiom of choice (well ordering) + transfinite induction just allows you to apply induction to any set you want
Which feels like a big no no
I guess this is just another weird consequence of choice though
yeah a well-ordering on a set allows you to do induction on that set
what's broken is that for anything larger then N, you don't have any explicit order that's a well-ordering
Is Z/2 supposed to be Z/2Z or the half-integers?
(Usually it denotes the half-integers but it looks like you're assuming it's Z/2Z)
Z/2 is Z/2Z
I've never seen anyone refer to Z/n as 1/n * Z
youre going to have to make it explicit if u want it to mean that
otherwise Z/n := Z/(n) is the norm
,,\frac{1}{n}\bZ \coloneqq \left{\frac kn : k\in\bZ\right}
however this is probably understood
I see, my bad, must have confused it with (1/2)Z.
In that case, I think it might help to consider that the map from R to the product R1xR2 needs to be injective according to A.1.
If you're sending 0 to 0x0, where are you sending (+1) + (-1)? ||I would try changing f2 to sums instead of substractions, (a+e) + ...||
This really hurts my belief of AC 😭
skill issue
imagine not accepting AC
without AC it's way worse than with it
maybe your issue lies in mathematics itself
Honestly probably
It’s just weird how in some situations you’re completely fine with using it and don’t see a problem and in others it feels like the most contradictory thing
Z/2Z
Yeah if it was the half integers I would write (1/2)Z
Ah I see
What is your reasoning behind using sums and not subtractions?
Oh I just realised, that is a big brain move
Thanks!
Is this a correct way to describe an ideal of a ring?
There is no real description of what it means to be an ideal in that diagram
you've only described a subset
Well an ideal is a special subset
It is, but it's not particularly helpful to see it that way.
So I wanted to try to describe it using that one subset analogy
you could describe a subring that way
but the important property of an ideal is lost
...don't use that diagram?
I have no idea what you're trying to achieve here
Trying to connect 2 ideas together to better understand ideals
OK
The use you will immediately see in an ideal is defining quotient rings. Go look at that and it might become clearer
You can derive the definition of an ideal entirely from the requirement that it should provide quotients
ah yeah that wasn’t clear in the definition of an ideal
This is one fruitful way of seeing ideals
the words “special subset” seemed a bit vague
Also I understand better with graphics and stuff like that do you happen to know any?
I don't think graphics are helpful for rings.
algebraic geometry btfo
yeah we've all seen drawings of spec Z[x]
When you learn about quotient groups or quotients in general, I've seen some helpful diagrams though
yeah they're silly
"""generic point"""
simply visualise each ideal as the image of a closed set in the zariski topology 😌
Like as in ℤ/nℤ ?
Yes
Arnt those like cyclic groups or something like that
If you forget the ring structure, yes in particular Z/kZ is the cyclic group of order k
So that’s an ideal?
The quotient notation is the same for groups and rings
What's an ideal? A quotient group?
No
I'm confused. Have you actually read the definition of an ideal?
yes
^
So you haven't read the definition of an ideal.
No wonder you're confused
What book are you working from?
Not a book but articles/documents
use a book
I don’t have access to the books
OK, find a book on ring theory and read it
I don’t think I do
You do; often they're free pdfs online
we have a channel to discuss finding books: #book-recommendations
I get long term that will help but rn that just seems like a tedious way just to get one definition
you've been refusing to read a book for the past months
Oh wait you're that guy ok lmao
Get a book. It's not just one definition, it's the whole field that you're learning.
tf are you gonna do with the definition of an ideal alone? lmao
first google search result

