#groups-rings-fields
1 messages Ā· Page 31 of 1
oh wait not nlab
i think chm
shared columbia thingy
notes
||Field theory is galois theory
||
The galois group of a galois extension K/L is the group of automorphisms of the extension which fixes L pointwise
š
I mean
as in
jk
my course hasn't started galois theory yet
we did the primitive element theorem
that was the last thing we did today in lecture
an open source textbook and reference work on algebraic geometry
U guys are like 2 weeks behind my exact course lol š
galois theory depends on field theory i think, not the other way around
Holy shiz
I mean studying embeddings of stuff into the alg closure
yushhh i remember this
This is already basically Galois theory
every algebra course on the world doesn't start at the same time
Yeah of course lol it's just really cool that we are learning the topics at the same time
Since I'm 2 weeks behind my class š
you can look at the fundamental theorems, they are different
There are few things you can do with fields without utilizing galois theory as far as I know, though I could be very mistaken
yeh like the field axioms
i feel like i get so confused when galois go to finite fields
idk
and infinite im happy with 
Char 0 is definitely much simpler imo
except that you get the non-separable case, which doesn't happen in Char != 0 i think
I'm still a galois novice though I kinda suck I basically failed the galois theory exam in my course
its probably precisely because char 0 => separable
Yeah, but we can ignore non separable extensions I hate them anyway
ignore extensions of Q, the rationals?
?
afaik finite fields always have a cyclic galois group, so that case is easy too
i see, you mean the opposite. ignore non-separable extensions
prove what?
Then use the theorem that if thereās one subgroup of every order dividing the order of the group, youāre cyclic
oh ic
This relies on knowing the structure of finite fields tho
But thatās kinda easy
Actually you donāt even need induction
oh whats this
not sure i hearda it
By induction, all smaller subgroups are cyclic
Now you basically do some screwy element counting
that isn't sufficient to be cyclic afaik
And arrive at a contradiction if it isnāt cyclic
FLT is sad
why sad?
it just got disproven
you mean Freshman's Dream, not FLT?
no i do mean fermats last theorem
is the splitting field of $(x^2 + 1)(x^2 + 3)$ (roots are $\pm i$ and $\pm i\sqrt{3}$) $\bQ(i, \sqrt{3})$ or $\bQ(i, i\sqrt{3})$
rectangle cube
Those are the same
indeed
Lmfao
ive found a c though lmao
he was responding ot me
FLT is a^n + b^n = c^n, nothing to do with distributivity as far as i know
yeah it was
well there are a couple of active questions
but whatever
what interests me is this
according to chm, induction.
so the induction step is all the subgroups are cyclic (except the biggest one)
and from that hopefully u get there
at most 
thanks!
Literally exactly the same strength tho lmfao
bruh
If at most then is cyclic so actually there is one
I said exactly 1 subgroup of each order dividing the group
What
rip
it is well known imo that, a cyclic group of order N has a subgroup of every order dividing N, but is the converse true?
Yes but itās the same!
If you have at most one then youāre cyclic by this theorem
So actually thereās exactly one of every order didicing |G|
yh i read yours as at least
are you saying this @next obsidian
wait ur saying both are true?
it's false then consider (C_2)²
No
seems to be the suggestion
wait mines kinda silly isnt it
But this is all you need to show finite fields Galois groups are cyclic
ok then i don't undertand
Because thereās only one intermediate field of any possible order
this isn't a trivial thing imo
how would you show it?
Show what?
show the claim
Which claim?
the claim i replied to, where you say "show..."
wait all finite field galois groups are cyclic?
I have you blocked so idk what youāre replying to
i completely missed this 
No
sry edited
no. the galois groups of the extensions of finite fields
It follows from the thm I said
the actual theorem is that "all galois groups of extension of finite fields are cyclic"
looks like some fun thinking
The Galois groupās subgroups are in bijection with the intermediary fields
Thereās at most 1 of those of any fixed degree
So by the thm I was talking about for finite groups
why do you have me blocked?
You see the Galois group is cyclic
not true in general
Idk, I block ppl when theyāre excessively annoying so you probably kept saying some Hurb shit one day
annoying?
you have various claims outstanding. you are the excessive one
Yeah, so this is the type of shit that made me block you
isn't it enough to just consider the splitting field of x^(p^n)-x or something i vaguely remember the argument professor made for finite fields
Omegalol
insert some shit to sidestep the proofs
about to call bullshit on this entire server because of @next obsidian who never read
a) the fundamental theorem of galois theory
b) the fundamental theorem of field theory
Idk probably
Dude TTerra you reading this shit?
TTerra is always reading
no but let me read it now
Idk the fundamental theorem of Galois theory bro
it's basically that the degree of field extensions are associated with the index of a subgroup
i think chmonkey knows this...
how are we arguing about fucking GALOIS THEORY
The structure of intermediary subfields is exactly the structure for the subgroups of the Galois group
of all things
Which is why it suffices to know thereās one finite field of every order
one of y'all gonna die in a duel at 20
at 20
To know the Galois group has one subgroup of every possible order
Which by the theorem I stated for groups
Says the Galois group is cyclic
Why this means I donāt know the fundamental theorem of fields or Galois theory idfk
everyone getting mad over math proofs š
Iām not even mad Iām just confused
dawg i don't even know what a trie is and i have a data structures final in 2 hours i'm just sitting here laughing at this bruh
damn
trie is actually a word
By 6.1 (2) it suffices to prove that there is an irrep on which Z(P) acts faithfully. If Z(P) has order p^k with generator g, this is the same as showing that there is an irrep rho such that rho(g) is a root of unity of order exactly p^k. If rho(g) was of stricly smaller order for every irrep rho then you can get a contradiction using the regular representation.
Me too š«
I'm trying to compute the homology of Q_8 with trivial coefficients. From my understanding, all of the homology is concentrated in a 2-primary component, which will be isomorphic to the invariants in the homology of a 2-Sylow subgroup under the action of Q_8 by conjugation.
Say we fix the 2-Sylow subgroup to be <i> = C_4, which in particular is normal, so we just have an action of Q_8 / <i> = C_2 on the homology of C_4. I'm confused on how to compute this action. In any case, I've already made a mistake in this setup because if I look up the homology of Q_8, we get that H_1(Q_8) = Z/2 + Z/2, which isn't even a subgroup of Z/4 = H_1(C_4)
hmm so is a spectral sequence the way to go about this?
Walter I do not know group cohomology, I just happened to notice that
fair enough, thanks friend
I can ask someone who does, if you'd like
chill, jesus.
but their answer would take a while
I'll give it a shot first, at least I can check my answer online
lmao they're out
thanks again
no they left, im fairly certain
Oh that's cool too
Tfw abstract algebra attracts weirdos
Kinda a math problem tbh
Hello
Take a group of order 2p
p odd prime
cauchy tell us there's $x,y \in G$ with $|x| = p$ and $|y| = 2$
mns
since $\gcd(|x|,|y|) = 1$, I claim $\langle x,y \mid x^p = y^2 = 1\rangle = G$
mns
might need some other relation
It does indeed
in case you have a semidirect product
<x, y | x^p = y^2 = 1> is an infinite group
well yeah, we have the normality of $\langle x \rangle \triangleleft G$
mns
yes it has the smallest prime index
so it's normal
but <y> is not necessarily normal
oh really?
I mean
D_3
was about to use this
<y> is typically not normal, yeah
nah it's not always a direct product
fk
However, if you deal with the case where it is a direct product, you'll get the other case pretty easily via some Sylow theory
plus that would mean all groups of order 2p is abelian
Or well, idk if you even need the Sylow theory
if you have 2 | |Aut(Z_p)|
then it could be semidirect
but right Aut(Z_p) is like p-1 so
Well I am trying to show that the groups of order 2p are all isomorphic to either Z2p or D2p
and I started with cauchy
yeah if it is semidirect you get D_p
got both x and y
and the normality of <x> in G
then I want to show their product is G
so that I can manipulate the presentation of the group $\langle x,y \mid x^p = y^2 = 1, yxy^{-1} = x^i\rangle$ to show the cases for the cyclic and the dihedral case
mns
|HK| = |H||K| = 2p
yes so it's the whole thing
HK here is either H x K or H semidirect K because one of them is normal
then just work out how you map the nontrivial element y to Aut(X)
should be exactly the second one in the relation
Oh ok, I think I see. If rho(g) has order p^(k-1) or less for all irreps rho, then reg(g) would have order p^(k-1) (where reg is the regular representation), which is a contradiction because the regular representation is faithful. Is that correct?
hum
because it has to have order 2
so there's only two choices for i
I don't see how it would yield the result, there must be some theorem that's missing
one gives you the direct product
well yeah
the other one the semi
mns
so $p \mid (i+1)(i-1)$
mns
I think you're done at this point
Well yeah, I think the detail that $\langle x,y \rangle$ generates the whole group is missing
mns
uh they generate the two subgroups
well yeah
then HK has order 2p
HK is contained in the group
and has the same order
so it is the group
yw
Yep
Great, thank you so much š
That's a nice problem
how do i prove this?
what have u tried
Nothing, i have no intuition
Have you thought of say an explicit example to make sense of this
i proved the first part
Thats what I would do
no thats a good idea
So I would recommend
V is R3
W is some line
and X this line moved in a straight line
i confused why U contains W
if this all makes sense
So say W is the x-axis
Then do u agree the set V/W is all the translations of this x-axis?
its W plus some vector (essentially)
{v + W} right
Yes, it'd be sets of of horizontal lines?
yes
ok so now let X be a subspace
so you can see how V/W is 2D
let X be the subspace where u move the x-axis along the y-direction
W = {(x, 0, 0)}
X = {(0, y, 0) + W}
Now think what U must be
It needs to contain W and U/W needs to 'look like' X
U is a subspace of V, so um maybe like some set of points on the y axis
hm well think about subspaces that contain the x-axis
first of all - what must be the dimension of U for all this to make sense
U must be a horizontal line?
no
W is 1D
X is 1D
X = U/W
So U has to be 2D?
(more formally i should be writing dim(W) = 1, etc)
why does U have to be 2D?
dimensions of the quotient
dim(A/B) = dim(A)-dim(B)
right?
not sure if uve seen this
ohhhhhhhh yeah
So now u need to consider planes that include the x axis
In particular, what comes out when you quotient such planes by the x axis
And that will answer this example
=======
As for proving the general case...
You're going to have to work explicitly with the algebra, but I imagine the thought process wont be too far off
Oh that makes sense
In particular the 'tough' part is figuring what U should be for the general case
But the example should clue you in
and remember we want this to be equal to X
is U the set of all 3d planes?
no
You need to figure out what U is
we established it had to be a 2 dimensional subspace of V
V = R^3
W = {(x, 0, 0)}
V/W = {v + W}
X = {(0, y, 0) + W}
W subspace of U (subspace of V)
X = U/W = {u + W}
to sum up everything so far
sure so did you follow
how Ive written X in 2 different ways
X = {(0, y, 0) + W}
X = {u + W}
Using this, you need to figure out what U should be
So first of all, U needs to contain the y axis or this fails
u is the set of lines with y component only?
no u is members of U
sry i wrote it casually
$$X = {(0, y, 0) + W: y\in \bR}$$
$$X = {u + W:u\in U}$$
So yes U needs to contain the y axis
but remember, U also needs to contain W
so it contains both x and y axis
U set of planes where z = 0?
just the one plane
the xy plane
perhaps try to draw diagrams of everything in this example to make sense of it
thats not a subspace
oh bc it doesnt contain the zero vector
thank u so much
i think i understand it now
In group theory, the correspondence theorem (also the lattice theorem, and variously and ambiguously the third and fourth isomorphism theorem) states that if
N
{\displaystyle N}
is a normal subgroup of a group
G
{\displaystyle G}
, then there exists a bijection ...
You can take $U = \bigcup X$
Blitz
animal-noises-v1
With finite field stuff, do ppl have some sort of visualization? With extensions of Q in C, I can at least kindof visualize in the complex plane
I never got comfortable with finite field stuff
Something that helps is to know is the multiplicative group is a cyclic group.
in what particular way?
it kindof doesn't "mesh" in a nice way with the additive one right
Pretty much, but I'm sure there are a few examples in part where it does
Nothing great comes to mind really though
Hopefully someone has something more useful to offer than me here lol
i remember drawing (F_p)^n as an n-dimensional grid for n = 1, 2, 3 and trying to identify subspaces of it if that helps. not sure if it would help too much with extensions
Hi, i was reading this https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Frattini_subgroup and it says that the frattini subgroup is analogous to the Jacobson radical. But i don't get it, wouldn't the analogous thing be to consider the intersection of all maximal NORMAL subgroups?
oh, I know Frattini subgroup
read about it in Bergman's Universal Algebra book
šman
berg means mountain in german
interesting
i really don t get why wikipedia calls it "analogous to the Jacobson radical"
wikipedia is not always good
true
lambda cube (alison)
This one follows near immediately yeah?
so all i need to prove is the opposite
Right
Anytime you have an ideal equal to R
This is equivalent to 1 in that ideal
So I would write down 1 as an element of I + J
And then see if you can prove the reverse inclusion
IJ := {polynomials in i, j with coefficients in R} ?
a = x+y, x in I, y in J. a in both
x = a-y in J, y = a-x in I
{Sum i_k j_k, i_k in I, j_k in J}
ig coefficients in R dont matter; ideal defn
Ur message sucks cuz it just is the answer instead of providing a hint that they can use to then try and find the answer themselves 
Then why bother saying it at all?
Just to flex your intelligence? You're not clever you just need to go touch some grass.
This is a rather pedestrian discord for pedestrian mathematicians it seems
btw the reason that this def doesn't work is that for example IJ doesn't necessarily include J

i wish people here spent more time talking about math and less time making jokes and arguing
I just made a mistake in what I'm trying to prove is all
the point was that we were both wrong
quick someone drop a "no u"
sounds like you have a problem
no u
abstract-chill uwu 
i want to show a polynomial irreducible over Q(i) -- my suspicion is that it is enough to show that this polynomial is irreducible in Z[i] which is straightforward
This just works
Just use Gaussās lemma
Z[i] is a UFD (itās even a Euclidean domain)
there is a more general version of gausses lemma? the only one ive seen is for Q and Z not Q(i) and Z[i]
It works for any UFD
i see.. thank you!
over any UFD.. thats powerful
This makes me wonder, are there non-UFDs for which gauss's lemma works?
I would think so, but thatās an interesting question
Thereās some āwell-studiedā weakenings of UFD
But idk who studies them lmfao, it feels like something thatās probably niche and just at some random unis
isnt that a recurrent theme of algebraic number theory? lol
I'd say in algebra
š
what happens with the example D = Z + t*Q[t], this is one of the nice example of a ring i know where gcd makes sense but it's not a UFD
the fraction field is just F = Q(t) 
I've ended up with
for some i in I, 1-i in J
write i + j = 1 for i \in I, j \in J and consider z \in I \cap J as z times 1
I think this isnāt what you want to do
Start with x in I\cap J, then write 1 = i + j
Then we know x = xā¢1
So now try substituting
Oh, this is what George said kekw

yeah i got it from george
thank you
and thanks chmokey
i tend to go down long roads and get nowhere sometimes 
This message is just a bookmark to remind me to check this again later when i have time.
for the left module of $2\times2$ matrices over itself, would ${I}$ and ${e_{11},e_{22}}$ both be valid bases? since
$$A=IA=e_{11}A+e_{22}A$$
nilpotent nix
Sounds good to me, though linear independence of e11 and e22 must be shown ofc
they aren't tho? am I dumb
Lol
gonna delete so I look silly?
Sorry chmonkers
Wait also like silly q but
You said left module and then did e11A + e22A
I assume that is a mistake
Isn't I a basis?
I is surely a basis lol
Since it is linearly independent and as a submodule it generates the whole ting
since this is like
A ring viewed as a module over itself
they are viewing it as a left M(2,R) module
because A = AI
ye
Uhhh so are e11, e22 lin indep in this module meh im sleepy and just on phone lol
so true
you a real one for that

oops yeah i think so. it would be AI and Ae11+Ae22 i think. but the principle is the same
not linearly ind?
Yeah
I'm not sure, but I believe you'd want R to be non noetherian, or else the matrix ring is noetherian and it satisfies the invariant basis property
Also uh random but I've seen online that sometimes u can find irreducible characters of a group by considering exterior/symmetric powers; is there much of a method to decomposing these though or is it just smth that occasionally works
Since usually I'd only decompose a character by already knowing the character table lol
I've also gotten a bit stuck on c here
I've tried a bunch of different approaches and none have clicked together
Like I'm not sure what the isomorphism actually is
this being true isn't intuitive to me
are I,J coprime/comaximal?
I+J = R
yeah I've tried that
An isomorphism should obviously be $$r\mapsto (r+I, r+J)$$
It should be immediate from that
Blitz
R/IJ \cong R/I x R/J right
Oh to me that just is the chinese remainder theorem
well I guess usually would have intersection but here the two coincide
Look @south patrol
at least assuming R is commutative lol
It was different here
I'd just probably prove it directly lol
thanks i got it from this
Hi, can anyone explain me intuitively that what does it mean when I apply a relation on a particular set ?
Pls tag me while answering
Like what does a relation on a particular set do ?
it's a condition for two elements to be equal under that relation
A relation can be defined on only one set ?
I think an example would help:
Like if I have set A = {1,2,3} and I define a relation on Set A then -
R = { (1,1) (2,2) (3,3) }
Am I right ?
that would be the definition of your relation, not the implication
it would imply that 1 is equivalent to 1 under R
Oh, Then what type of questions can made on implication of relation ?
Can you give me any one example ?
if our set is $\bZ$ and our relation is $$R = \Set{(x, y) | \text{$x$ and $y$ have the same parity}}$$
rectangle cube
then we'd have $[3]_R = \Set{\ldots, 1, 3, 5, 7, \ldots}$ because they all have the same parity
rectangle cube
[3]_R means "what elements in the set are equivalent to 3 under the relation R"
but yeah, go to #proofs-and-logic
What is parity ?
odd/evenness
Oh, but i think relations and functions are a part of abstract algebra ?
arithmetic is also part of abstract algebra, as you have to do addition sometimes
but that doesn't mean it's well-fit for this channel lol
Sorry bro š
Relations and functions are not specific to abstract algebra. #discrete-math or #proofs-and-logic are more appropriate
I didn't knew that, sorry
This ring is really cool! It seems to be what happens if you take the ring of integers Z and freely adjoin a new element t that is divisible by every non-zero integer! (i didn't check this so might not be exactly that but still very cool)

also it's a bezout domain, so not just you can talk about gcds, you can also write them as linear combinations of your elements
in other words, every finitely generated ideal is principal


the proof i know is just a case bash, so not really enlightening
Perhaps it's best analysed as a graded ring? There are some obvious generalisations, right
Because the ring Z + tZ + t^2Z + ... + t^nZ + t^{n+1}Q[t] has similar properties
(At least I think!)

yo this is the first rings and modules exercise sheet i complete without asking for any help on this discord
proud moment 
can we perchance see the sheet?

me has also troubled chmonkey every now and then 
question
how do I show 4x+2 is irreducible over Z[x] but Reducible over Q[x]
on my exam i did the silliest thing and modded out by the ideal generated by 4x+2 and said that if 4x+2 goes to 0 then -1/2 is not in Z
which i know is not the correct argument
Is it irreducible over Z[x]?
You might have it the other way around, it's reducible over Z[x] but irreducible over Q[x]
Sorry to be the bearer of bad news
How could you
But yeah, the idea is that 2 is a prime element in Z, but it's a unit when you pass to Q
hi walter 
hi det 

Hope you're doing well around this holiday season
what a lovely sight

so since 2(2x+1) in Q , 2 is a unit 4x+2 is irreducible?
altho that is true, that is not why 4x+2 is irreducible
well, you'd have to show that every factorization of 4x + 2 over Q[x] would have a unit
pick a factorization
2, 2x+1
ah
can you see why one of them is forced to be a constant?
(non-zero constants are units in the ring Q[x])
(oh so i was saying we wanna show exactly one of them is a unit, so it suffices to show it is a constant)
so do you see why when you multiply to polynomials and you get a linear polynomial, then exactly one of the factors was a constant :p
lol idk what else to say without just telling the answer 
this has to do with degree of the polnynomial being 1?
yes
and degree of product is sum of degrees
what is an example of $[\bK[a] : \bK]$ not being finite
rectangle cube
for a field extension $\bL/\bK$ and an $a \in \bL$
rectangle cube
have you tried finding one?
Lol
rectangle cube
how to write pi^2 as a Q linear combination
pi^2
Fuck
no
is Q[pi] a field?
no

because [Q[pi] : Q] isn't finite

uhh

in my lecture we had that K[a] is a field <=> [K[a] : K] < infty

yeah
and the degree is still not finite
and you asked about field extensions
so i just wanted to mention that
now I'm confused
yes?
why are you confused
what does Q(pi) have to do with my question
Q(pi) is a field extension of Q, unlike Q[pi]
I'm talking about R/Q tho
you should make stuff like that clear at the start
idk I thought it was clear cuz I was talking about a general field extension L/K and then oac talked about an example so I thought of pi which is transcendental in R/Q. mb, should've specified it next time
the confusion (on my end) is here i think; its uncommon to use [L:K] when L is not a field
my prof uses it a lot lol
calling them rn 
does Fermat's little theorem apply to any element of a finite field of characteristic p
So, FLT should be seen as a specific case of Euler's theorem
Let me just state that for you in case you don't recall
$\varphi(m)$ is defined to be $|Z_m^\times|$, i.e., the size of the multiplicative group of the ring $\mathbb Z_m$. Euler's theorem states that for any $x \in \mathbb Z_m^\times$, we have $x^{\varphi(m)} \equiv 1 \mod m$.
Boytjie
Now ofc, this is just the theorem of Lagrange in a specific case.
So the answer should become a lot clearer now
It's a no. However, x^{p^n} = x in the finite field F_{p^n}
i see
This is just a consequence of the Theorem of Lagrange again
One more thing
Maybe you know this already, but this theorem is very nice
what's the name of this font
Let $F$ be any field, and let $G \leq F^\times$ be a finite subgroup of the multiplicative group. Then $G$ is cyclic.
Boytjie
It's a clone of Zapf's masterpiece, Palatino. I think I used the newpxfont and newpxmath packages.
interesting
trying to prove all finite integral domains are fields
i think I've got it now
I'm curious to hear how you prove it
||s -> rs is bijective||
I suppose I meant I'm curious how Ally proves it
right lol
by pigeonhole forall a, a^n = a^m for n > m
and you can cancel since R is a domain
so forall a^(n-m) = 1
qed
Good proof
That's clever, yeah
I wouldn't have expected pigeonhole here
i was gonna do some monoid stuff in the middle
me likes
but figured out the cancellation part skips it
The same proof gives you the fact that any cancellative semigroup (i.e. one in which ab = ac implies b=c) is a group
This proof is just an applied pigeonhole principle
(As long as it's nonempty!)
Uh?
this one is cool as well
though i think you need to do a contradiction to prove it's injective
shouldn't be too hard
nah
Showing surjectivity is the harder part
rs = rs' <=> r(s - s') = 0 <=> s = s'
Yeah
that's just finiteness
you also forgot to say non-empty
āļø
nah actually I didn't
apologies then
this is just pigeonhole again i think
Those semigroups generated by one element are called monogenic
Yes 
They turn out to be groups when elements are periodic, I think it's called
Which is not the case for infinite ones as then they turn out to be natural numbers
Hence the difference
good theorem
One of the greats tbh
Assuming cancellative here of course
well i guess you can be more general lol
if G is any finite group with <= 1 subgroup of order n for each n, then it's cyclic ig
not necessarily
lol ye
i forgot the exact statement
since i've only basically proven this directly lol
question wheenever this ones established
Maybe it is possible to reduce that to |{elements of order n}| <= phi(n)
But ofc we can probably say |{elements of order dividing n}| <= n
I guess is the standard way to show $\sum_{d\mid n} \phi(d) = n$ just to consider elements of $\mathbb Z/n\mathbb Z$?
potato
there is a proof in terms of like
1/n, ..., n/n and reduce
but i imagine that is basically the same lol
Ya
I think so, if we use (Z/nZ)/(dZ/nZ) \cong Z/dZ, where dZ/nZ is isomorphic to Z/(n/d)Z I think
uh okay yeah maybe i'm just thinking about it a different way lol
Just like Ļ(d) is the number of elements of order d right
Ah okay i see what you mean, sure
the subgroup of order n/d is dZ/nZ
I'm not sure phi(d) is the number of elements of order d
Like, additive order d?
Oh right yes. I see.
question
in general to determine wether or not an element in the gaussian integers
you you suppose it equals two elements then take norms
say for instance in Z[3i]
Oh checking irreducibility?
prime
yes
and lets say for instance 3+3i in Z[3i]
thee norm is 18
which has possiblilites 3 and 6
which no element os Z[3i] has nor 3 nor 6
other option would be 2 times 9
but no element has norm 2
so only option is 18 and 1
so for eexample is 3+4i reeducible
and is my reasoning for why 3+3i is irreduc correct
yes
looks correct
im trying to find an element thats reducible
turns out 3+4i is irreducible as well
take two non-units then multiply them
ahh
18
hi ally
lmaooo
I fucking hate this shit
time to rant
my homework keeps introducing new notation without explaining it
18 = 2ā¢3² = (3+3i)(3-3i)
is it just lin alg notation that you don't know again

this is normal notation
automorphism group of a Galois extension
what is a galois extension
a field extension with some specific properties
this is all on wikipedia
yes
hi ally
is there a way using degrees of polynomials to determine irreducibility of polynomials in polynomial rings over either Z or Q
Not really
and can someone give me a small polynomial say linear which is irr in Q not in Z or vis versa and have me solve it out
There are some cases in which it's easier
e.g:
- any polynomial of degree 1 is irreducible.
- a polynomial of degree 2 is reducible iff it has a root
This holds for any field*.
over Z and Q?!
hello
Use Gauss' lemma for Z.
i havent been taught gauss' lemma
f is irreducible over R iff f is irreducible over Q(R)
ohj that i have been taught
Thank you. I was getting increasingly sadder
i was gone
so how do you determine wether or not a given polynomial is irr or red in Z[x] or Q [x]
if its degree 1
its difficult lol
lol
tbh, I have never cared about "factorizations" of polynomials which are just scalar multiples
and I think that's what you are talking about
I just wanted to make a joke because rectangle cube did out of the blue but it got real 

Hey how do you illuminate a large area? Fire works! Hahahahahahaha
Let's drink?
š»
Carla!!!
hi!
not really I've talked to you on tau
but hello regardless
yes algebra is cool
Now we drink
Now I want a drink
What's a cube anyway I omly know cube diagrams from category theory

a cube is like a triangle but more polygony
Commuting one?
A cube is a bunch of 3-simplices if you glue them up good-like
a cube is ${x \in \bR^n : |x|_\infty = 1}$
lambda cube (alison)
(+-1, +-1, +-1)
only in ohio
guys
the parametrization of the vertices of the icosahedron and dodecahedron is very easy
In algebraic group theory, a "torus" is a direct product of k^\times. Which I think is a bit of a funny name
if you learn them, they might save your life if you have to face some question about them, for real
Maximal torus of my face
š ±ļøorel š ±ļøubgroup
Very true
we all agree
go on then I'm waiting! I want to see this!
Neat!
where $\varphi=\frac{1+\sqrt 5}{2}$
Croqueta
ofc ofc
But is it a commutative icosahedron?
It takes the train
And ofc phi does make an appearanājinx
the icosahedron is actually cool. I should study more geometry, and read Klein
Not sure if there is a decent way to do it without ico
Ehm let me think
might have another go but eh
I think using the icos is equally hard tbh
Think is like there are only two obvious characters and you need 5
Well with the icos you like
Trace of a rotation is easy
Yees indeed. I don't remember how I got it.
Do people study categorical geometry or something. Is that a thing
Does categorical rep theory count?
Forget I asked. Obviously they do
@deft ferry if e and e' are both neutral elements then e' = e' e = e
Check the definition directly. It's not a "be clever" exercise, it's a "be sure you remember the definitions" exercise.
yes
gauĆ's lemma
Not true
You require the polynomial to be primitive, meaning the coefficients have gcd 1
Take for example 2x, this is irreducible over Q[x], but not over Z[x] since 2x = 2ā¢x
(I forgor this condition)
but 4x+2 is irreducible over Q but reducible over Z
Hi
I was trying to find the minimal polynomial of $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[6]{2}) / \mathbb{Q}$ using Galois theory. For example, we can compute the minimal polynomial of $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2}) / \mathbb{Q}$. The minimal polynomial of $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2}) / \mathbb{Q}$ can be computed using the formula $\prod_{\sigma \in Gal(L/K)}(x-\sigma(\alpha)) = (x-\sqrt{2})(x+\sqrt{2}) = x^{2}-2.$ How would I do this with $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[6]{2}) / \mathbb{Q}$?
I tried computing this but kept getting different roots and wasnāt getting anywhere.
Sapphire Gaming
Its easy to see what are the roots in that case. Hint: ||sixth roots of unity||. But it seems what you want to do is find the Galois group of the splitting field of the polynomial x^6-2
And that is simply || Q(z, 2^(1/6)) where z is a sixth root of unity ||. Then you use the fact that the degree of the extension is the same as the order of the group and see that the possibilities for the automorphisms are limited
ist the other way around irr in Z gives irr in Q but not vis versa as 4x+2 is irr in Q but red in Z
That is why the hypothesis of being primitive is important
is there anyone who wouldnt mind checking 30 problems of algebra problems for me lollllll
actually only like half of them
i have them in TeX in a pdf
only 12-27
theres only 27 questions
sorry
Omg Iām trying to read it
But what does $H \le G$ mean?
fifty_two
I forgot
Subgroup or same group
subgrou
Just asking, why canāt they use $H \subseteq G$ ?
fifty_two
thats subset
group is set + binary operation, not just a set
Is that it tho?
So is $1 \in \mathbb{Z}$ a subgroup?
the singleton 1
Even if itās only one element?
in \z?
i wanna say yes vacusouly
but its not a subgroup as it doesnt contain the additive identity, am i right?
fifty_two
vacuosuly right
under multiplication I believe it is subgroup. Ander + - no
but z isnt a group under times
no
it doesnt have mult inverses
then
Wait wait wait
yea
ah, yes. true
Why does a subgroup need an inverse?
^
in this case no as Z isnt eveen a group under multiplication
{0} would be the trivial subgroup of Z
Wait
would u mind checming my work lol
What about itās inverse?
inverse of 0 is 0


