#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 14 of 1
Yes
silly question - gcd of x^5 and x^6 is just x right
actually just x^2 and x^3 should work right
I’m actually not sure about (b) anymore, 1 is a gcd of those in Q[x^2, x^3]
How do you show that $(\mathbb{R},+)$ and $(\mathbb{R}\setminus {0}, \cdot)$ are not isomorphic?
CoolShot
The second has an element of order 2, the first doesn’t
does anyone know what this means?
canonical map being the map from a group to its quotient
If you have a map phi, then -phi is also a map which behaves in the same way, so you can't choose between the two
oh
is there a different word to use instead of canonical here? (because the problem is "canonical" implies unique)
that still talks about the same kind of map
Feels a bit vague tbh
Like in some contexts you can pick canonical maps into a group lol
And if u just said here is a group, give me a map into it, I'd just take the identity or the unique map from the trivial group lol
not sure what this means because for instance on a torus sending a loop gamma to [gamma] in the fundamental group for example seems pretty canonical to me
How does that show that every ideal is generated by a single element?
ah yes I forgot what an ideal is for a second 💀
nvm it then
Does someone know what Johann Gustav Hermes actually did? I cannot find his work.
Just a curiosity
I found this anyway
For cos(2pi/65537)
(Google: HIGH PRECISION SOLVES ANCIENT PROBLEM JOAN M TAYLOR)
idk if it's what your looking for, but:
In the year 1889 Hermes completed his procedure of creating a regular 65537 sided polygon using only a ruler and compass. gauß proved that a constructable polygon must have a side amount with a fermat prime, of which were known 5 at the time (till this day no more are known)
I know that, but wikipedia gives no references to Hermes work. EDIT: It does give references to Hermes work, its the 65537 gon article that doesn't give, and I probably confused the articles I suppose
Hermes sounds like a chad
it's stored in the university of göttingen
I can read Wikipedia man, I love Wikipedia
Imagine constructing a 65537 sided polygon
right
I was reading the german wikipedia article because it seemed like it had more content
here
page 170
The thing is, you just need to find the expression for cos(2pi/65537). Then, since we know how to construct basic arithmetic operations and square root extraction, the algorithm is done. So it should be easy to check if Hermes got it right (the solution at least). In the numberphile video of the 17-gon, Eisenbud actually said that he doesn't know if someone actually checked it haha
Yeah, don't think I'll get much out of this haha
its fun because the expressions for cos(2pi/17) and cos(2pi/65537) look very similar. And 17 keeps appearing constantly, notice that all numerators are divisible by 17
is Gal(K/F) only defined for Galois extensions or can K/F be any arbitrary extension?
The definition makes sense for any extension, not necessarily a Galois one.
You could write Aut(K/F) if K/F is not necessarily Galois, and Gal(K/F) if it is.
That's what I've seen, at least.
Hello! Doing two practice questions and I need some help/confirmation.. thank you!
A. Which ones of the following numbers can be the order of a subgroup of a group of order 120?
2,60,15,9,240,5,1,7
B. Which ones of the following subgroups of D16 has for normalizer D16 (with |D16|=16)?
- <r>
2.<sr^2>
3.<s,r>
4.<r^4>
5.<sr^4>
6.<s,r^4> - None of these answers
—————-
My take on A: according to lagrange’s theorem, the order of the subgroup must divide the order of the group so the answers would be 2,60,15,5 and 1?
My take on B: I know what normalization is but I’m stuck on how to proceed to prove that the normalizer is D16 for one/many/either of them. Need massive help.
Thank you!!
your solution to A is correct
(assuming commutative rings) so for an integral domain $R$ we know that $R[x]$ is euclidean. but we also know that iff $R[x]$ is euclidean, then $R$ is a field. wouldn't that mean that every integral domain is a field? what's wrong here?
illuminator3 (I/you)
I’ve only found the <s,r> group to be normal. I’m sorry I’m new to this chapter and catching up. What are or is the correct answer so I can practice the proof?
Z[x] is not a Euclidean domain, so the first sentence is not true.
It's not even a PID.
yeah you're right
then I don't quite understand this proposition:
"Let $R$ be an integral domain and $g(x) = a_xx^n + a_{n_1}x^{n-1} + \ldots + a_0 \in R[x]$ with $a_n \in R^\times$. Furthermore let $f(x) \in R[x]$ be arbitrary. Then there exist unique polynomials $q(x), r(x) \in R[x]$ with $$f(x) = q(x)g(x) + r(x)$$ and if $r(x) \neq 0$ then $\operatorname{deg}(r(x)) < \operatorname{deg}(g(x))$."
illuminator3 (I/you)
doesn't that satisfy the conditions of being an euclidean ring?
I mean, we have a well defined degree function
and the conditions about the decomposition are also satisfied, no?
"With a_n in R^\times" already excludes a ton of polynomials.
ah
To be a Euclidean domain, you need to be able to do this with any arbitrary non-zero elements.
Excluding the "a_n is a unit" gives you counterexamples, where, of course, you should look at Z[x].
If R is a field, then this condition is satisfied by all non-zero elements, which gives you that R[x] is Euclidean.
(Although you already probably know this.)
doesn't it only exclude the zero polynomial
or do they mean $a_n \in R^\times$ for any n not just the polynomial degree
illuminator3 (I/you)
Only the leading term.
The proposition says that if you have a polynomial whose leading term is a unit, then you can divide by it.
ahhhhhhhhhh
It doesn't exclude only the zero polynomial, since 2x + 1 has a non-unit leading coefficient.
In Z[x].
yeah
You won't be able to divide x by 2x + 1, for example.
Work it out and you'll see why you need the leading coefficient to be a unit.
This shouldn’t be surprising. Modify the thing you want to divide by by a unit and you’re just saying polynomial long division works for monic polynomials. If you can remember the proof of why polynomial long division works (as you learned it in like highschool if you did) you’ll see that you needed to divide by the leading coefficient, but once your polynomial is monic this doesn’t matter anymore
highschool
proofs
I don't know how to do polynomial long divison
It is now time for you to learn.
I mean
Not even proof
Like
If you ever learned it, you just use that same algorithm
Haha
The algorithm is itself the proof you can do this xD
do you have a good resource
I don't really like any algebra books, so I'm going to second chmonkey's suggestion to google it.
it only gives me sites like mathisfun.com with confusing instructions
I spent all of highschool using websites like that. Get used to it.
Hey can I get some confirmation with this one..
Which ones of the following subgroups of D16 has for normalizer D16 (with |D16|=16)?
- <r>
2.<sr^2>
3.<s,r>
4.<r^4>
5.<sr^4>
6.<s,r^4> - None of these answers
—————-
So in order for d16 to be the normalizer the subgroups have to be normal so the answers are 1,2 and 5???
Please help lol
I cited it for a complex analysis hw once in freshman year 
Based.
I first learned calculus from mathisfun.com.
Based
My bad <sr^2> isn’t normal but <s,r> is
is there any other normal subgroup in this list ?
Group theory
.
Yes lol (:
Is there a fast way for computing the order of all elements of $\mathbb{Z}_n$ for some $n\in\mathbb{N}$?
F♯A♯ℵ0
|m| = n/gcd(m,n)
cheers
Not sure what the easiest proof of that fact is actually
Also is there a fast way of knowing what all possible orders of $\mathbb{Z_n}$ will be?
F♯A♯ℵ0
You compute it by hand it’s easy af
It’s just an application of bezout
I mean fair like the way I would do it is like
$|(m)||(n)| = \frac{|(mn)|}{|(m) \cap (n)|}$
Lol noob
ig
Bruh
You’re cringe
:(
lol
Okay yes sure, maybe the simplest would be that the order is the factor you have to multiply m by to get the lcm of n and m
no bezout smh
Alright my turn
Sloth King Daminark
Now
Sloth King Daminark
I have a question about symetric groups
In a symetric group of 9
They give u two different permutations
That contain each permutations of 3 elements
Like so
And they ask u to give them the order of the product of sigma and T
We just multiply both orders right?
The order for T and sigma is 3 for both
So we get 9 for the product if we calculate everything in details
But we don't need that right?
We just have to multiply
No multiplying order doesn’t work ex take (1,2) and (1,2)
It’s 1
You can decompose the perm into disjoint cycle
Isn't the order of the product of two elements the lcm of their orders? if the group is abelian
Theyre already disjoint
Yes
But if we do that we get 3 no?
Then shouldn't the order of T(rho actually) times sigma be 3
yeah that's what I was thinking
I wanna see the working out your friend got
I'll try to do it alone too and see if I get 9
out of curiosity
If I do ill send it
alright
If I dont ill see with my friend
how do I show that $[A_n,: A_n] = A_n$ for $n \geq 5$? the hint says to use the following proposition: "for $n \geq 5$, two 3 cycles are conjugated in $A_n$". but I don't quite see how that can help me here?
illuminator3 (I/you)
ah nvm figured it out
does this group have a specific name?
heisenberg group
thanks
I had an errand to run lol
So I just did it
And it keeps getting weird
wdym
I tried to do a disjoint permutation
Cause they weren't disjoint
When u do the product
This is what I found
WAIT, I just realized symmetric groups are not abelian
that means that the order is doesn't have to be the lcm of the orders of rho and sigma
So the order now is 9
But where I read about the order being the lcm
They didn't say anything about the group being abelian
Or not
Well its correct now
The order is 9
Okay so let's say you have a root system
so vectors on a plane?
Sloth King Daminark
Now here's where this gets a bit funky
Sloth King Daminark
Oh wait
Okay okay I get it now
I prob need to go and prove this fact but
I kinda get it
Why is (y^2) a primary ideal in K[y] for K a field?
Do you know its radical? Once you have that it should be fairly immediate from the definition
One way to go about it is to show that every element of the quotient K[y]/(y^2) which is a zero-divisor is also nilpotent. That's a straightforward computation.
The good ol' dual numbers.
It's not the best way to do it, but it's fun.
If i wanted to show that the factor ring $\frac{\mathbb{Z}[x]}{I}$ where $I$ is the ideal ${f(x)\in\mathbb{Z}[x]:f(10)=100n \text{ for some } m\in\mathbb{Z}}$ fis not a field is it sufficient to take $f(x),g(x)\in\mathbb{Z}[x]$ such that $f(10)=10, g(10)=10$ then $f(10)g(10)=100$ so $f(x)g(x)\in I$ but $f(x),g(x)\not\in I$, hence $I$ is not a prime ideal so $\frac{\mathbb{Z}[x]}{I}$ is not an integral domain and hence not a field?
That's not even an ideal.
$${f(x) \in \bZ[x] : f(10) = 100n \text{ for some } n \in \bZ}$$
rakko
Thanks
(In N, woops, but I'm not going to change it.)
F♯A♯ℵ0
nope was supposed to be Z. Just not on it today...
We all have those days.
🙂
Anyways, this proof works. It might be best to provide specific examples of such f and g, but it's still good.
Ok great. Thank you!
Even a constant polynomial. If f(x) = 10, f(x)f(x) = 100 is in I, but f(x) isn't.
So the ideal isn't prime, which means the quotient isn't a field.
Sweet, thanks
what are your thoughts on them so far?

yep, that's true. (except for one tiny thing, 0 can't be written as product of irreducibles :p)
that's the expected reaction >.<
ok c) is asking if there are "coprime" ideals that arent comaximal essentially right
lol idk the definition of those words :p
by comaximal you jsut mean they sum to (1)?
yeah
also about a)
is there an easier way than just checking the non zero non units
that feels dumb 
try to see what it means to be principal here
say (a, x) = (f)
what can you say about f?
even though Z/12Z is not a domain, we can still say a lot about f as "x" is monic
oh wait maybe i said something stupid >.<
ignore me
ig you could try converting the problem to Z[x] where we don't need to worry about these nilpotents or zero divisors
first without loss of generality a divides 12, so the ideal (a, x) in (Z/12)[x] corresponds to the ideal (a, x, 12) = (a, x) in Z[x] and if this was principal, then (a, x) = (f, 12) for some polynomial f in Z[x]
Is this message self-referential

because by saying it you said "something stupid"
which makes it technically true that you said that

Lol
I'm just joking btw and it wasn't supposed to mean anything offensive
If $I={f(x)\in Z : f(0) \text{ is an even integer}}$, could someone explain why $\frac{Z[x]}{I}={I,1+I}$?
F♯A♯ℵ0
My attempt: If p(y)+(y^2) is a zero-divisor, then there exists a non-zero q(y)+(y^2), i.e. q(y) is not in (y^2), such that p(y)q(y)+(y^2)=(y^2), i.e. p(y)q(y) is in (y^2). I want to show that p(y)^n+(y^2) is in (y^2) for some n, but I'm stuck on how to proceed.
If f(0) is not an even integer, then f(0)+1 is an even integer
Thanks
So I proved that Z[sqrt(-1)] and Z[sqrt(-2)] are Euclidean, but I don't think my proof works for Z[sqrt(-n)] for n>2, is Z[sqrt(-n)] a Euclidean domain in general?
with the norm being the usual norm on complex numbers
Z[sqrt(-10)] is not Euclidean
I don't think for any other negative integers it's Euclidean, not even a UFD.
oh I guess UFD is easier to think of counterexamples for
hmmm
so Z[sqrt(-3)] can't be one because 4 = 2*2 = (1+sqrt(-3))(1-sqrt(-3))
interesting
ty!
sorry had 2 get fud - is there anything we can say about f?
You're talking about elements of the polynomial ring and elements of the quotient with the same notation and terminology. It's hard to understand.
changed it
Oh I think that y | p(y) and so p^2(y) should work
Because p(y)q(y) is in y^2 so p(y)q(y) = t(y)y^2 for some t(y) and we know y^2 doesn't divide q(y) so I think at least one factor of y has to divide p(y)
oh wait, I don't think p(y)q(y) needs to be of that form...
No, that's not really what localization does.
not always
It depends on the multiplicative subset used.
I think you need R to be a domain and S to be the set of non-zero elements of R.
Wait, small issue. Let me fix it.
Is it not true that any element of a principal ideal (x) is rx for some r in the commutative ring R?
Then r = x?
R is K[x]?
Sorry for butting in, i don’t really know the context here but the statement @username000 is true
*statement he made
"he"?
I was just playing the odds i suppose
Suppose that $p(y)q(y) \in (y^2)$ with $q(y) \not\in (y^2)$. If $p(y) = a + by + \cdots$ and $q(y) = c + dy + \cdots$, then $$p(y)q(y) = ac + (ad + bc)y + \cdots \in (y^2),$$ where the ellipses denote terms divisible by $y^2$. This implies that $ac = ad + bc = 0$. You can proceed by casework: consider $c = 0$ and $c \neq 0$.
rakko
Sorry
This is true if R is supposed to denote K[x], but you should really be more explicit in the future. My bad for getting confused, though, I should have asked for clarification before jumping to a conclusion.
OK that's good. I thought I was missing something. Everything in there is a finite sum of products r_1x + r_2 x + r_n x and you can just factor out the x
Yea, that's fair
This proof makes sense, but I wanted to make sure my original argument didn't work due to some misunderstanding.
Here's the casework (which I messed up initially).
-If c is zero, then d has to be non-zero by the assumption that q(y) is not in (y^2). This implies that a = 0 by the second equation, which means that y divides p(y) or y^2 divides p(y)^2.
-If c is non-zero, then a = 0 by the first equation and then b = 0 by the second. Then y^2 divides p(y).
Yeah, it will be of that form. That's what it means to be an element of the ideal (y^2) after all.
It'll imply that y divides p(y)q(y) at least. This means that y has to divide one of p(y) or q(y). The casework here is identical to the casework I just did.
So is it not true that since y^2 | p(y)q(y) and y^2 doesn't divide q(y) then a factor of y must divide p(y) ?
Well, that's what you have to deduce.
I don't see how it immediately follows - some kind of argument like mine above is needed.
But it is correct.
I understand. It's true and your argument shows why it's true. Thank you.
This is why I try to use "they" in online situations.
Glad to help, and sorry for the silly confusion earlier.
If J is P-primary and I is P-primary, then isn't J = I ?
Since P = sqrt(J) and P = sqrt(I) ?
The radicals being equal doesn’t mean that the ideals are equal. Eg: (2) and (4) are both (2) primary
In Z that is
Ohhhhhh I understand. Thank you!
Does anyone know if this result would hold for compact topological rings, rather than compact topological groups?
yes
exact sequences of rings are just exact sequences of groups
exactness comes on the level of groups, just check the limits exist and the maps between them are maps of rings
idek if there are always inverse limits of rings but doesn't matter if they exist or not
if they exist it is exact because it is an exact sequence of groups with maps that happen to be maps of rings
add hypothesis for topological ring maps and it still wont matter
ahh that makes sense
I think inverse limits for rings always exist, since topological rings form a complete category
Is there a Dummit and Foote Study Guide for guiding someone through an Abstract Algebra Course (+ recommended problems to work on)? I'm planning an independent study class for myself and I want to find something I can use to work off of.
Just sort of like selected must-do problems
Bruh
You’re literally just saying “they exist because they exist”
Lol
choose freely whichever chapter on a topic that you actually want to learn and do all the exercises in previous chapters in order of what your selected chapter depends on. repeat until exhausted.
for me i started with galois theory and dove backward into any definition I didn't know. pretty much do that with every big book
In symetric groups
S9
Let's say I have 2 permutations
Both composed of 2 disjoint 3-cycle permutations
But both of them contain onepermutation thats the same
Like this
123 is a common element
Do we have a theorem or something for that
Im having problems explaining in english
Does anyone understand french ?
I do
Alors j'ai cet exercice
Dans la 3eme question
J'ai fait les calculs des 2 permutations
J'ai trouvé ces resultats
Maintenant j'essaye de trouver une relation entre ça et le produit des 2
J'ai trouvé que le produit est commutatif
Jsp pas quoi faire apres
Je pense qu'on peut utiliser la 1ere question
Le fait que pi commute avec les 2
Perso je remarquerais que $\sigma \tau = \tau (\tau^{-1} \sigma \tau) =\tau (\tau^{-1} \sigma ^{-1} \tau)^{-1}$. Sachant que $\sigma^{-1} = \sigma ^2, \tau^{-1} = \tau^2$ et $(\tau^{-1} \sigma ^{-1} \tau)^{-1} = (\tau^{-1} \sigma ^{-1} \tau)^2$ alors je pense qu'on peut bidouiller un truc pour retrouver $\pi$...
Silfer
Dans la 2eme partie
Est-ce que c'est toujours le cas
Pour l'inverse de sigma = sigma^2
Pour l'ordre 3
Je pense que oui car $\sigma^3 = Id$
Silfer
D'accord je vais essayer d'abord de faire la question
On a aussi $(\tau \sigma \tau^2)(\tau^2 \sigma \tau) = \tau(\sigma \tau)^2 = (1 2 3)\pi$
Silfer
pareil, tau sigma tau^-1 est d'ordre 3
pareil, tau^-1 sigma tau est d'ordre 3
Oui mais sigma-1 c'est sigma ^2
et donc ?
Tu peux m'expliquer?
Expliquer quoi ?
L'inversion elle s'explique par ça
Ca devient pas tau sigma^-1 tau^-1 par inversion?
Omg
Je suis vraiment bête
Alors je calcule le produit dedant
Et je vais comparer et essayer de trouver une relation entre eux
Bon honnêtement je sais pas trop quelle genre de réponse ils attendent
Je vois pas comment tu déduis que pi est une puissance de sigma tau
Je pense que si on calcule le produit qu'on a trouver on trouver pi
MAIS y a le tau qui gêne
Tau fois le produit qu'on vient de trouver
Enft c'est beaucoup plus rapide de faire le calcul directement que de trouver une méthode soit disant "jolie"
En DS j'aurai fait ça
does someone know how they are showing c(f_0g_0) = 1?
if irreducible divides c(fg) show that it divides c(f) or c(g), how does that imply that c(f_0g_0) = 1
Le prof a preciser de deduire
Donc on doit utiliser les "jolies" formules
Bon s'il l'a demandé je peux comprendre... mais en DS/partielle c'est une mauvaise idée.
In that part of the proof the f and g are primitive polynomials so c(f) = c(g) =1 so a dividing any of them gives a contradiction
wait f,g arnt primitive
f_0 and g_0 is primitive
He changed it up later
Replace f and g with f_0 and g_0 in the second part of the argument
See he reduced to the case of proving that if c(f)=1, c(g)=1 then c(fg)=1
@sharp dirge
i thought he just multiplied them both
and applied content function again
no?
@gritty sparrow
Well basically he needs to show that c(f_0g_0) = 1. He then shows this by showing that for general primitive polynomials the product is primitive. When he is proving the later part he lets f and g be arbitrary primitive polynomials
J'ai trouvé une notion "formule de conjugaison"
Finalement c'est un lemme d'une preuve des generateurs
wait I'm confused. v being surjective follows from the sequence being exact right?
oh nvm
Good
:D just means I only have to show products and equalizers exist, rather than inverse limits in particular
reading about localization of rings and it's defined with some equivalece relation of R x S mumbo jumbo - is it actually just talking about fractions? like literal fractions?
Pretty much. You just need a way to make that rigorous.
Have you ever seen an explicit construction of Q from Z?
It's the same thing.
there is a minor caveat, as for a general ring you might also end up inverting zero divisors and stuff
definition im reading exludes 0 from any S
which is why the definition of equivalent fractions looks a little weird
S being the closed subset
Q is the set of all tuples (m, n) with n non-zero, modulo the equivalence relation (m, n) ~ (a, b) iff mb = na. This is what it should mean for m / n to be equal to a / b, right?
yea but what if you invert say 2 in Z/12Z
The equivalence relation comes from the intuitive sense of what it should mean for two fractions to be equal.
just to be sure, this is what is happening right?:
defining $f:M''\to M''/im(v),~f(m'')=m''+im(v),~ \bar{v}(f)=f(v)=0.$ Since $\bar{v}$ is injective, $f$ is the zero function meaning $im(v)=M''$
Bilboswaggins
(by this i mean S = {1, 2, 4, 8})
yeah hadnt thought about that
yeah
All rings are integral domains.
thanks!
Np
what
🙈
Zerodivisor? I hardly know her!
if you only work with integral domains, then localizations are just subrings of the fraction field
which you probably have already seen
(Z and Q!!!!)
but in the general case for (commutative) rings, the definition changes a little. you define a/s = b/t iff there is a z in S such that (at-bs)*z = 0
(in particular, if 0 is in S, then then you can always choose z = 0 and this will make the localization S^(-1)R the zero ring as all fractions are equal to 0)
or another way to say this is that, after adjusting the fraction a little the old definition follows
if your definition is well defined we need to have that
a/s = b/t implies az/sz = b/t
else we may not even have that its an equivalence relation
and here when you invert 2, you're pretty much collapsing everything that is related with 2 in Z/12 so you end up getting the ring Z/3
and this is Frac(R) right
So for each $k, \ell$ you have the linear map $$T^k V \otimes T^\ell V \to T^{k + \ell} V \hookrightarrow T(V),$$ where the first map is the usual isomorphism and the second is the embedding of $T^{k+\ell}V$ into the degree-$(k+\ell)$ part of the tensor algebra. Note that $$T(V) \otimes T(V) = \bigoplus_{d=0}^\infty\left(\bigoplus_{k+\ell = d} T^kV \otimes T^\ell V \right)$$ (natural isomorphism). The universal property of the direct sum will take your linear map $T^kV \otimes T^\ell V \to T(V)$ defined for each $k, \ell$ to a linear map $T(V) \otimes T(V) \to T(V)$, which is the same thing (by the universal property of the tensor product) as a bilinear map $T(V) \times T(V) \to T(V)$. \emph{This} is the "multiplication" operation on the tensor algebra introduced by the tensor product.
rakko
That's what the Wikipedia article means when it says to extend by linearity.
yee 
you'll turn into a ring guy soon enough :3
the set Z\(2) is exactly the set of odd numbers 
Come to the ring side. It's more fun over here.
group ring
if you're dealing with integral domains, you can define S^-1R to be exactly the fractions r/s in Frac(R) which have denominators from S
polynomial marriage
ok, formally what does it mean to localize Z by the odd integers
from what i gather so far this is extending Z so that odd integers have inverses
yep, that's exactly it
you can also think of it as teh solution to a universal problem
you have a ring R, and a multiplicatively closed subset S, then the localization is the universal ring which maps out of R such that elements from S are sent to units
which is exactly formalizing what it means to "invert exactly the things from S and nothing more"
Getting the right relation to quotient R x S out by is a little tricky for non-domains but it's fairly straightforward for domains
What is a minimal annihilating equation?
Anyone?
i think you should justify why the subgroup is generated by 1/m
i think that is the crucial step
for example if your group had 1/2, 1/3, etc then say after making denominators same you get 3/6, 2/6, etc and one needs to argue why you also see 1/6 somewhere
That's easy I think: first, you prove that the order of any element of Q/Z is its denominator written in lowest terms. Now if (x) is the cyclic subgroup and n is its order, then x obviously belongs to (1/n) and 1/n belongs to (x) because the numerator m of x is coprime to n (by assumption), so am+bn=1 for some a,b, and a*m/n=1/n, so you have equality of the two subgroups.
Everything look alright?
oh what i was trying to say was when you make denominator of everything same, then are you sure that you find 1/6 there because the numerator may no longer remain coprime
like in 2/6 and 3/6
ofc there are other elements in the subgroup which is why this won't happen
this only proves that order of m/n is n given gcd(m, n)=1
I don't understand your point. First, you show that the order of every element is determined by the lowest terms denominator. Then you use that to show that all cyclic subgroups are the same. What exactly is wrong here? The point here is that the cyclic subgroups actually agree, in some other group you can have 2 elements of the same order whose generated subgroups differ.
ah so what i'm saying is that when you make all the denominators the same, why do you think that there is a fraction somewhere which is actually reduced
if i say anything more then it would make this nitpick more pointless than it already was :p
Because when you make all the denominators the same, e.g. m, then the group H becomes a subgroup of (1/m), which is cyclic, so H must in turn be cyclic and there must be some denominator for it. I'm not saying the denominator of H will be m itself, it might be some divisor of m (I haven't checked this directly, but the denominator of H should be the lcm of the denominators of its elements).
yee that makes sense :3
Alright, thanks.
oh wait was the last line always there, maybe then i misread your argument >.<
sowwy
i thought that you were claiming the group is exactly <1/m>
Nah, it's probably some divisor of m.
Hi
hewwo
If you want an answer, you should probably explain the notation/context, because it looks pretty strange (to me at least).
If R is a PID and a factors a = c_1... c_n. Then for b in (a)=(c_1)...(c_n), b = ra = r*c_1...c_n. Why is b in (c_1)...(c_n) ?
it kinda looks like some algebraic analysis stuff
because r*c1 is in (c1) and other c_i are in (c_i), so b is in the product of the ideals
Found this stuff
stupid question, but the heisenberg group over Z3 has 3^3 elements, yes? for reference, it's this group:
its probably the monic polynomial of least degree which kills your vector.
yep 
epic
that group must be solvable since it's a p group then, right?
yee
okay
thank you
is there any easier way, than just checking all cases and doing sylow and other stuff, to show that A_5 is the smallest non cyclic simple group?
or do I really have to go through all of them
and cross each of them out
i like to use the class equation to prove that, but it is still a brute-force in the end
but this one is not that bad i feel
illuminator3 (I/you)
yea, this will help you show A_5 is simple
o I can already assume that
and after that you need to work hard to show there aren't any simples smaller than that >.<
let me write down the entire question
"Let G be a simple group with |G| < 60. Show that G is cyclic and that |G| is a prime. You may use the fact that A_5 is the smallest non abelian simple group."
idk how to apply the fact though
okie that makes it quite easy actually... because they're only asking you to check abelian simple groups
ahhhhhhh
and then you have structure theorem, so nothing to do
oh in that case just see why there are non-trivial normal subgroups directly
oh it's module stuff, we're still at integral domains right now
you probably have proven that for abelian groups, there is a subgroup of order every divisor of |G|
yesssss
so this should do it :3
let me think about it for a minute
If you didn't have this, you would have had to work a little harder by showing that p-groups aren't simple if they have size > p, groups of order pq aren't simple for p < q, similar thing for p^2q and pq^2 and finally pqr
this should hopefully include everything < 60
Hi, I was wondering what the general equation for the basis of the sign representation is for the symmetric groups, for example span{v_1-v_2} is a basis of the sign representation for S_2. But what would one look like for S_3, S_4 etc...
okie it excludes only p^2q^2, and only instance of this < 60 is 36
isn't this only for cyclic groups
for cyclic you also have uniqueness
ah
you can do this by a simple induction
induction on which variable?
order of the abelian group :3
we're proving this: Let G is be an abelian group of order n and d a positive divisor of n, then there exists a subgroup H of order d.
or maybe you can make it even simpler... we just need to show that an abelian simple group has prime order.
why?
pick any non-trivial element g in G
then <g> is a normal subgroup
since G is simple, G = <g>
so its cyclic as well :3
<g^d> is a normal subgroup for any d dividing n=|G|
but its order is n/d
so d = 1 or n
which means n is prime
I can't see why this is true
because abelian
everything is normal
:3
it would be a lot more complicated if the group wasn't abelian, only nice tools there you have is like sylow or looking at kernels of group actions to get normal subgroups
uh I still don't see why :c
OH
WAIT
I am so stupid
.<
I confused normal subgroups with ideals
oh oops

I don't understand this last step
how can you conclude that n must be prime
oh wait
nvm
any positive divisor d of n, is forced to be 1 or n
i'm very rusty on my rep theory, but where exactly are you trying to find the basis?
if you look at S3, then i think you're considering the linearization of the action on {v1, v2, v3}. then the trivial representation lives inside this as the span of v1+v2+v3, but sadly the sign representation doesn't live inside it. the complement of the trivial rep is {c1v1+c2v2+c3v3 | c1+c2+c3 = 0} and in case of S3 i think this is irreducible
if you're trying to find it as a subrepresentation of the group algebra k[S_n] then just look at the span of (sum of even permutation - sum of odd permutations)
in linear algebra, we can prove T is a linear transformation iff T(x+cy)=T(x)+cT(y). that is, this one equality verifies both conditions, so we don't do two different verifications for vector addition and scalar multiplication. can we do the same for ring and module homomorphisms?
ring homomorphism: f(x+ry)=f(x)+f(r)f(y) for all x,r,y in the ring
R-module homomorphism: g(x+ry)=g(x)+rg(y) for all x,y in M and r in R
?
For ring homs (for unital rings) you require them to send 1 to 1 and that isn't necessarily the case with that test
e.g. Z -> Z mapping x -> 2x isn't a ring homomorphism but it definitely satisfies the stuff you wrote there
The R-module one should be fine though
i see. if i check that f(1)=1 in addition to that test, would that then be sufficient?
Yes that should be fine
Since taking x = 0 or r = 1 you just recover the standard things
being asked to show that Z[i]/I is finite (I is any ideal) can i get a nudge please
Uh I mean so any quotient of a finite module is finite (and indeed taking I = 0 we need to show Z[i] is finite anyway)
idk what a module is 
this is the question lol
Uhh I think this is at best ambiguous basically lol
Unless I am being silly
If it means finite as in set theoretically it is wrong and otherwise it'd mean finitely generated as a module over some ring
this is part of the homework i have for a week on euclidean domains and noetherian/artinian rings if that helps at all
Hm
Well yeah I mean to me when you say a ring is finite that means has finite cardinality
which is just false here
if it means finite Z-module or smth then it is correct
Okay lol
This is true for any non-zero ideal
Lmao
So ignore what I said above since it now just seems/feels pedantic i guess
lol
rip
But yes the important thing is the codomain and image aren't necessairly the same basically like ye
i realised i was being an idiot
Anyway I guess you'll want to use the fact it's a PID first sebb to cut down options
trying to yeah 
Now I mean if it were Z it'd be "easy" since you have 1 being of finite order immediately
Here you need to show that (the images of) i and 1 in the group are of finite order I guess
:O
would this work for subspaces/submodules as well? [for all x,y in A (subset of an R-module M) and r in R then x+ry in A] iff A is a submodule?
like can this just be my proof? 😆
ye i mean that seems fine enough to me
why is this?
you can always cyclically permute stuff inside trace
Basixally here the point is tr(y(xz)) = tr((xz)y)
Every ideal I of Z[i] contains an integer (why?). Suppose the integer n is in I, then it is sufficient to show that Z[i]/(n) is finite (why?). Every element can be written (uniquely) in the form a+bi where a and b are integers. If you kill n, then the reductions of a and b modulo the ideal (n) will lie in the set {0,1,2,...n-1} (mod n). So in Z[i]/(n) the elements can still be written in the form a+bi but there are only n possibilities for a and n possibilities for b
I mentioned correspondence the other day because $Z[i]/(n)\approx (Z[x]/(x^2+1))/(n)\approx Z_n[x]/(x^2+1)$, and in this last ring you are just adjoining a square root of -1 to the finite ring Z_n
Croqueta
I mentioned correspondence the other day because $Z[i]/(n)\approx (Z[x]/(x^2+1))/(n)\approx Z_n[x]/(x^2+1)$, and in this last ring you are just adjoining a square root of -1 to the finite ring Z_n
```Compilation error:```! Missing $ inserted.
<inserted text>
$
l.57 ... a square root of -1 to the finite ring Z_
n
I've inserted a begin-math/end-math symbol since I think
you left one out. Proceed, with fingers crossed.```
also, ofc n should be nonzero
how do i do this?
They're congruent if they're in the same coset of I. 5x+1 is congruent to 2x+1 and so the coset of 5x+1 is 2x+1 + I. A polynomial p(x) will be congruent to 2x+1 if you can write it as 2x+1 plus something in I. Note that x^3+x^2+8x+4 is congruent to x^3+x^2+2x+1 and so it's (2x+1) + (x^3+x^2), the latter term being in I since it has zero constant term.
Hello
I have 2 questions whose idea is from Schröder–Bernstein theorem (again)
(1) Let G, H be groups. If there exist some injective homomorphism from G to H and some injective homomorphism from H to G, does it follow that G and H are isomorphic?
(2) Let V, W be vector spaces over a field K. If there exist some injective linear map from V to W and some injective linear map from W to V, does it follow that V and W are isomorphic?
I feel like you meant to include "injective" twice in your first question.
Otherwise it's obviously false. Any group has a morphism to and from the trivial group.
Same for the second.
ohohoh yes, I should include "injective" otherwise it's trivial, thank you
For groups, it is false. For vector spaces of finite dimension, it is true (simply compare dimensions). For vector spaces of infinite dimension, I am not sure but I believe it is false.
also this question I asked before is also an idea from Schröder–Bernstein theorem:
thank you for the hints 🙂
Serious question: what are the elements of a module called in general? Vectors are the elements of a vector space, but do the elements of modules have a name?
Now that I think about it, the elements of a group and a ring don't have a general name, either.
None of the textbooks I have answer this (stupid) notational question, and I was curious to see if this was actually a thing
🫥
modulants are elements of a module, grouplicules are elements of a group, foinkulents are elements of a field, dusty-dweebers are elements of a groupon, rollies are elements of a wheel
- wikipedia
You had me in the first half, not gonna lie
im confused about this - why does the operation start within the function and then move to outside of it? is this just a (seemingly) strange definition, and if so, how is it useful?
Because you are switching the operations used in the domain and image of f
the product in the LHS is in G and the product in the RHS is in H
might help to se an example, log(x*y)=log(x)+log(y)
In regards to the uses of homomorphisms, they are very important
if we have groups (G, *) and (H,+) for instance, is there a name for a map of sets $f : G\rightarrowH $ s.t. $ f(x*y) = f(x+y)\forall x,y \in G$?
You can determine whether certain groups are related (isomorphic) based on the information obtained from homomorphisms between them
god dammit discord
I don't really understand your question, LaTeX aside.
like, a name for a similar map that doesn't 'pull' the operation out of the function, just shifts it to a different group
perhaps its nonsensical, this stuff tends to be very confusing to me
It doesn't seem very applicable, I don't think that's a thing
I would just stick with the definition of the homomorphism and build theory off of that.
alright, thanks, i suppose its utility will make sense in time
If you want to see where things are going in regards to your study of homomorphisms, see the isomorphism theorems of groups, or just isomorphisms of groups in general.
im following a pdf (https://math.berkeley.edu/~apaulin/AbstractAlgebra.pdf), im sure itll come up
if f: G ---> H is a bijective group homomorphism then G and H are said to be isomorphic, or "similar" in algebraic structure
A significant portion of group theory is determining when two groups are isomorphic to each other
That's one of the big reasons why homomorphisms between groups are so important. It's definitely not a random definition or something to gloss over.
Also I would definitely not learn abstract algebra from something like this. I would purchase or find a pdf of a book like Abstract Algebra by Dummit and Foote or Algebra by Artin
can someone put this more in the form of the image i shared, so i can see how that looks?
Volkenborn
i just chose this because
1- first search result
2- seemed easier to tackle than a full-on book
It's not the end of the world, but learning this kind of math is not something to do quickly. Speed is definitely not the aim.
honestly im just doing it to 'solve' this memehttps://cdn.discordapp.com/attachments/765585883038351410/1037730441836363827/76D7C038-2B9D-4576-B7D7-91C06AD90B13.jpg

christ, Abstact Algebra is 658 pages
You’re talking about studying for like literally 2 years
not like i have anything better to do
This is actually not that long for the scope of such a topic
There’s like a million things you could do other than understand a single meme 
Also wasn't that meme on reddit? Is this just for karma?
i mean, with my supreme boredom i also have learned a 'language' (conlang)
i dont do reddit
(its also that it just seems interesting)
anyone have any intuitive/visual explanations of the correspondence theorem and/or isomorphism theorems?
So take your time with it! Read some good books like I mentioned and get started the right way.
probably smart. I'll look into finding a pdf
I think seeing some examples is helpful. What have you tried so far?
You can also describe the theorems through diagrams, but I'm not sure if this is the "visual" depiction of the theorems that you are looking for.
reading artin
i understand them, but i can't apply them to problems very well
based king
👑
do you think that I need an understanding of linear algebra first? while it didn't depend on it, the pdf i was working off of did mention matrices and vector spaces, and my knowledge on that subject is very limited
Depends on the book. For something like Dummit and Foote, I don't think you need as much prior knowledge of linear algebra right away. But for a book like Artin, it might be helpful to have that background.
you should probably be at the very least familiar with the concept of vector spaces and how to multiply matricies
Also, I don't know who said it but there's a famous phrase when it comes to linear algebra: you can never learn enough of it.
Linear algebra is literally everywhere, so it is always good to either brush up on linear algebra from time to time or learn some more theory
are there any uses of abstract algebra outside of pure math?
Group theory is used in cryptography and chemistry, not sure of other applications
definitely quantum
the answer to how most high-level math is used
truue
wao tox mod
Oh signal processing too I think
Abstract Algebra is a huge umbrella term for a bunch of topics, so each subject kind of has its own set of applications in different areas
you see, i could just stick with the pdf, but i dont know if i can pass up the opportunity to intimidate people with a 900 page math textbook
I mean, it depends on who you present the book to. If it's a grad student they'd probably laugh since that book is something they've probably read a bunch of times from front to back.
i mean, im in junior year of high school, so im not in contact with many grad students
I'm in high school and I would also laugh and cringe, don't flex math just teach it or talk about it
Oh while on the topic of applications, it's also worth noting the specific stuff going on here is getting more and more applied through topological data analysis
(it was a joke)
also, christ, a large amount of knowledge of abstract algebra in high school- what are you even going to do in college?
More math
theres only so much math
that's what you think lol
sus
Math stops at calc 2 clearly
For real though, probably Alg NT/Alg Geo, Diff Geo or PDE's
i dont know what 2 of those are, and im assuming the 2nd one is differential geometry, which sounds extremely intimidating
First is Algebraic Number Theory/Algebraic Geometry, and the third is Partial Differential Equations
ive heard that third one, isnt it like, calc 4?
No, calculus 4 isn't really a thing. That would be Ordinary Differential Equations if it was called that for some reason, which are not PDE's.
Hot take: all maths is intimidating until you do it
that's just true
No there are no calculus levels beyond calculus II and III
Also this conversation probably belongs in #discussion
until after youve done it
yea mb, kinda got off track
I had no idea of the official terminology. I will try to remember these terms
they're fake, don't memorize them
except 'foinkulent' being element of a field, that's totally real
I refuse to believe this. Elements of a wheel are rollies to me
The reason why this is true is independent of the fact that the base ring is specifically Z_p no? Also, the p is irrelevant, it could be any integer not equal to 1. Right?
If that is true, idk why he would use Z_p and not just an arbitrary ring, its kind of confusing
I should have said field since the context is field theory, but whatever
$\operatorname{char}(\bZ_p) = p$ for $p$ prime, yes?
illuminator3 (I/you)
char(Z_n)=n for any integer n. Its the definition of the characteristic of a ring
ah right
it can't be any integer as characteristic of fields is necessarily prime (or 0).
if you want to construct the simplest example of a finite non-simple extension you need to look at extensions which are not separable, which forces you to work with prime characteristic, and the simplest example of such is F = F_p(t) with the subfield k = F_p(t^p). To show that a finite extension is not-simple it suffices to show that there are infinitely many intermediate fields, in particular we need to have the degree more than p.
now p^2 does the job. just like the above example k = F_p(s^p, t^p) and F = F_p(s, t). you could look at the intermediate fields k(s + ct), and these would be all distinct for different c in k. (because if k(s+ct) = k(s+c't) then you get that s, t in k(s+ct). which is bad because (s+ct)^p = s^p + c^pt^p which is inside k and it contradicts the degree of the extension)
but if you want to replace F_p with any other field of char p, that should be good.
What I meant by replacing p by any other integer I meant replacing the exponent of t and s, not the characteristic. I believe the simplest example of a finite non-simple extension is simply F<F(x)<F(x,y) where x,y are transcendental and independent (x is transcendental over F and y is transcendental over F(x)), no?
What I meant is, let F be any field, let x, y be independent and transcendental and let n>1. Then in the tower F(x^n,y^n)<F(x,y^n)<F(x,y) each step is simple, but the full extension is not
no?
hmm i see your point. but like i said, if your extension is separable, then it all goes bad as finite separable extensions are definitely simple. It feels the degree of this extension is n^2, so if it wasn't separable then this should better be divisible by p, and so n would be divisible by p.
So for example Q(x^2,y^2)<Q(x,y) is simple?
yep
ok I need to think about this then
any finite extension for char 0 would be simple
no?
Char 0 fields are perfect
Q<Q(x,y) is not simple?
cuz not finite
Not algebraic
Finite is finite degree
i mean tbf like Q(x,y) isn't finitely generated as a Q-module anyway
yes, actually right
It’s finitely generated as a Q algebra though
They should actually just be the same thing
since a Q-module is just a Q-vector space so you get the same ting
is it? i don't see that immediately
Wait am k being stupid
well
Isn’t this immediate?
it would be false for alg closed fields by zariski's lemma or something
Oh I see the issue yeah
i think f.g. as an algebra means you can surject Q[x1, ..., xn] --> L
and not Q(x1, ..., x_n)
oh wait ye
Yeah then it’s not immediate
Ok so Q(x) doesn't have finite dimension over Q right?
But I’m pretty sure I’ve heard it somewhere before 🤔
yeah cause with C for example like
the 1/(x-a) are all linearly independent in C(x)
yes
which i think is part of how you can prove nullstellensatz for C lol
yeah I remember
oh nvm, zariski's lemma doesn't use the alg-closedness :p
if L is a finitely generated K-algebra which is also a field, then it's automatically algebraic
if in particular we had K is alg closed then its gives L = K
yee
but would you expect it to be f.g.? like we're localizing at all the elements and intuitively localizing each new "independent" element requires you to introduce a new generator
Haven’t properly covered localization yet so I’m not sure how it relates here
Nvm I’m an idiot yeah I see
But what justifies the « independent » part
that's why "intuitively" :p
Haha
Wait this can’t be right
Q is an fg Q algebra
and Q/Q is an algebraic extension :3
Oh I thought you meant alg closed
i think there is also a stronger statement
if A is a finitely generated k-alg and an integral domain with F = Frac(A) then
tr.deg (F/k) = dim A
so if A = F is already a field then dim A = 0 which means tr.deg(F/k) = 0 and so it's algebraic
i don't remember the proofs of these 🙈
Basically you use Noether normalization
Or you can write A as like k[a1,…,an]/I
Then think really hard about the field of fraction
okay here comes a lie algebra question
this proof my prof gave a few weeks ago already baffled me at the time but after discussing it with her i thought id understood
turns out no
there's a crucial step i just cant wrap my head around
so like the theorem is showing that if x is a regular element of a lie algebra L, then the subspace of elements y such that (adx)^r (y) = 0 for sufficiently big r is a cartan subalgebra
there's a part in the proof where we take y in H (where H is this subspace) and consider the char polynomial P_y of ady
and we say that the coefficients of P are homogeneous polynomials in the coefficients of y under some basis
This i get
then right after
they say "thus we can interpret the rank of L as the minimal natural k such that a_k is not the zero polynomial"
where a_k is the k-th coefficient of P_y as a polynomial of the coefficients of y in our fixed basis
and there's just zero justification for this
(here the rank of L is minimum of the dimension of E_x across all x in y where E_x is the subspace of y with (adx)^r(y)=0 for sufficiently big r, and a regular element is one for which this minimum is attained)
All in all this is really a linear algebra problem
but i dont get it
In this theorem, can I choose the a_is to be 1? If not, can someone provide an example where it is not true?
so to not make the example stupid, suppose that each of the extensions $F<F(\alpha_1)<F(\alpha_1,\alpha_2)<\cdots<F(\alpha_1,\dots,\alpha_n)$ is a "proper" extension (in the sense that $\alpha_i$ is not included in the previous field $F(\alpha_1,\dots,\alpha_{i-1})$). Then can you choose the $a_i$s in the theorem above to be 1?
maybe there's still a trivial example I'm not seeing, idk

Croqueta
I have tendency to write a_i without mathmode when I have previously used mathmode knowing it will yield errors xd
a chain of cyclotomic extensions should do the trick no?
something like Q<Q(i)<Q(i,zeta_4)?
cause Q(i+zeta_4) is Q(zeta_8) if im not being a fool
i am absolutely being a fool forget me
this is not abstract algebra
what is it?
what about something like thtis
det
nice

oh btw one nice thing is that you can assume a_i = a^i
which looks kinda stupid :p
det
Can you applying any horizontal shift to f(x) in the context of Eisenstein's Criterion or does this only work for f(x+1) and f(x-1)?
(or maybe i'm assuming separability here, idk)
I know that over a field, irreducibility of f(x) is equivalent to that of f(x+h), but you're not necessarily working in a field for Eisenstein's Criterion.
Prove it
I managed to prove it for any integral domain
Not sure what happens when you introduce zero divisors, suspect it might be false
I guess, we can only say $F(\alpha_1,\dots,\alpha_n)=F(\beta)$ (where the $\alpha_i$ are algebraic) if and only if $\beta$ does not lie in a proper subfield of $F(\alpha_1,\dots,\alpha_n)$, no?
Actually this should always be true regardless lol
Croqueta
You’re using an automorphism
is it?
Yeah lol its inverse is shifting the other direction
if ive got ring Z/9Z cant i look at the polynomial x^3 and (x-3)^3? when i shift the two by 3 get the same polynomials no?
this isn't adding any information tho 🙈, F(beta) is the whole thing if and only if it's not a proper thing :p
okay im stupid
I don’t really get what you mean lol
i need to stop saying things hurb
yeah, that's why I said "only", as disappointment
There’s an A-alg map A[x] -> A[x]
Given by x -> x - a
It has inverse x -> x + a
So a shift is always an automorphism
yeah...
Thanks again btw, your comments are very helpful👍

i dont know how many times ive actually said something correct on this server lmao
Volkenborn
This is true, right? Or am I going crazy?
yee that is true
Volkenborn
yep 
Thank you, just wanted to make sure I was getting that right.
(just a minor nitpick, S should also be non-empty)
oops, yeah I forgot about that
hi ryu 
Hi 
from my lecture notes on Lie Algebra. Why the finite sum? Doesn't x = [u_a, v_a] works?
Because [si, si] is not the set {[u, v] u, v in si}, it’s the set of linear combinations of them. [u, v] + [x, y] can’t be written as a single bracket in general
Because [si, si] is not the set {[u, v] u, v in si}, it’s the set of linear combinations of them.
what,,,, that is a super weird notation
OwO
It’s consistent with every other time we use it, if U, V are things, then to ensure that [U, V] is also a thing, we need to require that it is closed under the relevant operation(s)
And that’s the big reason, we want [U, V] to have some reasonable structure on it
That Is the same as U’s and V’s generally
very late response, if one integer is in the ideal (this was easy enough to see) then wouldn't all of them be in I as well?
hmmm
ok then about the modulo stuff, suppose we quotient by the ideal generated by 3, that doesnt stop 3 + i from being in Z[i]/I does it
ohhhh i kinda see
kinda poorly worded but i think this gets the point across
how does the second claim relate to the first
should've said this before but i got as far as seeing that you can factor the eqn to see that it is an element of Z[sqrt2]
By factorising x^2 - 2y^2 in Z[sqrt(2)], then using the fact that 1 + sqrt(2) inverse is sqrt(2) - 1
oh does that work even for arbitrary x,y
And raising to power n to see that 1 + sqrt(2)]^n has inverse … and that that gives infinitely many solns
There’s a bit of checking to make sure everything’s in the right form, but it works out
I think you made a typo at the end of the first sentence
it's a footnote
oh true ty 
wait so is it enough to say that because it factors into two units (which happen to be inverses) it just... follows?
actually pell's formula is itself the euclidean function here
have i already proved it with my first part 
i know this is subjective but i can probably assume that this is only for values of d where we have a euclidean domain right? otherwise v (euclidean function) isn't even defined
this is my proof
v should be the norm
the norm is not the same as a Euclidean function, unless I'm confusing stuff
Most quadratic rings are not Euclidean domains, but all have norms, I think. As in multiplicative maps from the ring R to Z
ahhh okay, it's just the v happens to be a euclidean function for certain d then right
-2, -1, 2, 3 i think right?
screenshots are blurry sorry
that phi_m is the usual norm
This is from Alaca and Willliams btw, Chapter 2
Missed this ofc

unrelated now but
is there any intuition for noetherian/artinian ring
all this chain shit is 
wait a) here should follow directly from definition of a gcd in a PID no?




