#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 12 of 1
An ideal a domain
I mean, I guess it's typically a non-unital ring lmao
Yep
i also hse it for groups
so the grader is not only a dick
but they are a wrong dick
It's a bit like with groupoids
hurb
imagine writing "the cyclic group Z_6" and losing a point because u mightve been talking about p aidcs XD
hilarious
yes, youll get to that level of advancement some day
Two marks removed bc 6 isn't prime(!)
Three because Z_p aren't a cyclic group
anyways i am sad that my midterm went horribly
thanks
imagine failing a midterm in grad school
i will soon have that experience
what is missing here
(given prev. discussion i feel like something is missing - prof said we didnt have to be as rigorous with this but still)
Consider the ideal 2Z x 3Z of the ring Z x Z
hrm
Oh, my mistake, I thought this was sth else
I like the reasoning here
So this does show that the prime ideals are of the form R x J, I x S, but it doesn't show that these are exactly the prime ideals
Meh, the method chmonkey mentioned is lovely but this is fine
what am i missing to show that they're all of this form is what im meaning to ask tho
You have shown "If X is a prime ideal then it is of the form blah blah blah"
but you have not shown that everything of that form is a prime ideal
ah okie. that's what i thought
(Technically, you have not argued why the P in P x S must be prime either)
(But that's easy so who care)
So fk insnane
Wishing you good luck with the rest of it
no that wasnt me who lost the point
although i did separately bomb a midterm just now
wait this is easy
i think
one sec
bit verbose but i think that's enough
i asked this before but i didnt get it: is there a commutative ring with identity which has a unique non-zero prime ideal
i originally thought a field would be an easy trivial example but i think walter pointed out some silly defn jumbo as to why it was wrong
Not silly

hi walter 
ok so someone had said "something something polynomial ring"
but (x) isnt the only ideal of R[x] is it
yes
Consider R[x]/(x^2)
Good ring
i was never gonna consider that on my own lol
why is it a good ring
outside the context of this q

Maps out of it with image a specific point are the Zariski tangent space of a scheme at that point

nah i thought you said like unique maximal ideal lol
and was gonna say like this is an entire class of rings lol like local rings
Anyway R[x]/x^2 is interesting, the dual numbers (for R the real numbers ig)
you can think of it as R with this 'small' element x lol
More interesting when R = F_37^42
just to be clear, R[x]/x^2 is the set of polynomials with terms in x^0 or x^1 and that's it right
Yeah
And you multiply in a kinda obvious way
It’s dim 2 over R
(Really I should have used k, you want a field)
stfu
is there a name for elements of a module other than "vector"? just started learning them in class and i'm still learning the terminology
I just call em elements
We typically don't call elements of a module vectors, unless you're working over an algebra
fair enough. i guess there isn't really a name for elements of a group/ring/field either. why not groupies tho lol
oh okay. my professor was probably just easing us into the concept then i guess.
Elements of a field do have a name; they're typically called scalars.
Though this depends on the author a fair bit
oh right. never made the connection. but my prof called the ring elements scalars for the module though. is there a different word for modules then?
I don't know what you mean by that
like he called it "scalar multiplication" in the module
i also wanted to ask about this. he showed us an interesting module. taking a vector space V over a field F and a linear operator T:V->V. Then V is an F[x]-module where p(x)*v is defined to be p(T)v. would F[T]-module also be appropriate notation?
I haven't seen that notation before but i don't dislike it
Wait no I don’t like this
If anything it’s like a T-module
Anyway you’re starting to see one of the beginning ideas in representation theory
yeah? i'd be interested if you could tell be a lil bit if you don't mind.
A representation of a group G is a group homomorphism G -> End(V) for some vector space V over say, C
If V is dim n then this is the same as GL_n(C)
No, calling it an F[T] module is not correct
Conversely in a manner similar to what you saw here, such a map is equivalent to giving V the structure of a C[G]-module
Where C[G] is a group ring
And you can take any module structure of V over C[G] and turn that back into a representation G -> End(V)
So you can talk about representations as maps or as modules, and this is important because a lot of results are proved by looking at the structure of modules over C[G]
Things like Artin-Wedderburn and Maschke’s theorem are about such modules
But then you can translate that to get theorems about the structure of representations
is there a more compact way to define it or do you have to explicitly define the V, F, T, and specific scalar multiplication every time?
you don't need to define T
Yes.
Part of the data that defines a module is the action of the ring
If you know about G-sets, it is entirely similar
You can't just have a set on its own – you must define the way the group acts on it, which is part of the data of the 'G-set'
also, what's really wrong with this notation? it seems pretty harmless to me
this is interesting, i'll look into it. thank you very much for taking the time to explain it 🙂
It is incorrect; there is a significant difference between F[x] and F[T] where T is some predefined linear transformation of an F-vector space
also what i meant by this nix, is that if you have a F[t] module structure on V, then you can think of the ring-action as a map F[t] -> End(V). The image of "t" under the ring action is your linear map "T"
conversely, if you have a linear map "T", it defines a unique F[t] module structure such that t maps to T
what would F[T] denote?
I would read that as a certain subring of whatever GL(V) it is that T is an element of
GL(V) 
If you don't know what it denotes why'd you write it tho 
This is typical basis free-notation :)
Perhaps you'd like GL_n(k)?
yea, but T doesn't need to be invertible
correct
but ur feeding my defense of the F[T] notation
I really don't care terribly much
because it seemed like there was little point in writing p(x)*v=p(T)v when i could just consider all the scalars to be polynomials over F in the "variable" T
just cut to the chase of my scalars being some p(T) basically
to be very precise, (the only sensible way to interpret F[T] is) F[T] = F[t]/(f) where f is the minimal polynomial of T, i.e. the kernel of the ring action F[t] --> End(V). So if you have an F[t]-module, you can always get an F[T] module by
considering F[t]/(f) --> End(V) induced by quotienting out the kernel of the F[t]-module action
Waltuh
Aured
cringe
Holy shit dude, they did the hard part for you
does the existence of a multiplicative identity in a ring imply that some elements have inverses
the identity 😎
oh wait Z
it has a multiplicative identity but only 1 and -1 have inverses
though i guess -1 is a non-id element
tf is that
ah
simple but im trying to show that these have identity, where e is idempotent
R has identitty
identitty 
don't you also have to show ere=re too?
e commutes with everything so we can make e1 -> 1e no?
then ee = e bc idempotent
oh
l o l
yeah you're right
is there anything we can say about the cartesian product of comaximal ideals
trying to prove that if $e$ is idempotent, $R \cong Re \times R(1-e)$
sebbb
actually Re probably isn't necessarily maximal
ok no hints yet brb
waiiiiiitttttt
i smell chinese remainder thm
simply just ||extreme spoiler lmao||
This is actually like
Even easier
You’re basically just writing it as an internal direct product
Which you probably saw for groups
So I’m pretty sure you can just emulate that
I guess my point is
Re and R(1-e) comaximal
Yeah
their product is just 1
that's what i meant my b
Which is important you DEFINITELY don’t want the product to be 1 haha
Yeah so you can just CRT
But like
I think it’s worth thinking about this as an internal direct sum
Like your map sends x
To (ex, (1-e)x)
But you can interpret that isnide R
As ex + (1-e)x
And you can just see that multiplying x and y
Would correspond to multiplying ex + (1-e)x and ey + (1-e)y
wait sorry does CRT work? what is R/Re
And the cross terms just die
i also knew that
because this was on my ag hw
They’re defined to be
eR is shorthand for (e)
Or well
Idk if even shorthand lmfao
probably missing something small but why is this true
ew
"Every prime ideal P in a Boolean ring R is maximal: the quotient ring R/P is an integral domain and also a Boolean ring, so it is isomorphic to the field F2, which shows the maximality of P. Since maximal ideals are always prime, prime ideals and maximal ideals coincide in Boolean rings."
R/P is an integral domain bc P is prime
but how does it get to the isomorphism to F2
Every element is an idempotent
Is there was one besides 1 or 0, then it’s a product of rings
But an integral domain can’t be a product of rings
working on this
should i instead be looking to use CRT again?
that^ isn't done ofc
wait uhhhhh
the prime ideals of R will all be {0, r} for every r in R
they're all comaximal
(assuming comaximality can apply to more than two ideals of the same size)
then the product of all prime ideals is equal to the intersection of all prime ideals which is just 0
R \cong R/P x ... x R/P for all possible P
bit scuffed but i think this is good 
Why is the definition of proper subring distinct from the definition of proper subset and subgroup?
Is there a meaningful reason the identity group is a proper subgroup of every nontrivial group but the zero ring is never a proper subring?
WDYM in the third-last sentence?
Also, for a sufficiently small ring, is it possible to have the zero ideal be a maximal ideal?
It doesn't contain 1?
Even in rings without identity, if I'm not mistaken a proper subring is defined to be not the whole ring and not the zero ring.
Yes, and “small” isn't quite the right word for it. (In a commutative ring,) this happens iff the ring is a field, and there are fields of arbitrarily large cardinality.
Oh, I assumed ring meant with identity.
I suppose that could also make sense.
I was thinking of a ring with 2 elements, but I guess that would make it a field.
In a rng, that's … a weird convention IMO, which I disapprove of.
But people have their own conventions 🤷
It's upto convention whether you define proper subthing to allow trivial subthing
And I think not allowing it is weird.
A course I'm taking now does this though. 😫
Even for groups.
I find it frustrating as well, though I believe it's standard convention.
Is it?
What's the verdict on redefining the word proper while I'm redefining notation?
I would prefer “proper non-trivial” for that and I thought that's at least also common
I'm more hesitant to change something that might have mathematical significance.
It's a headache to write all the permutations of notation that might be necessary.
Like, for example, is there a point in putting an equivalence underline under the symbol for "maximal subring"? Or since it's by definition not equal, should it be excluded entirely out of redundance?
afaik the conventions on ring terminology are not as well unified as other stuff
eg. ring might mean commutative has 1 in some contexts but not in others
I don't want to be careless
In fact, in some many defns, subrings have to have the same identity as the original
so the null ring would not be a subring in these cases
this structure-preserving definition makes more sense to me
I'm honestly okay with removing all sorts of structure.
but this defn only applies to rings with 1
Heck, I'd even be okay with subgroups of rings.
But current mathematical notation is far too context-sensitive to handle things like that.
I'm very pleased with the way things are shaping up so far, but there are so many permutations of things to include that I'm a bit overwhelmed with the task.
its hard to unify a subject in areas of active research and many ppl writing on. we're not 'done' yet and one defn in one context may have advantage over another.
As long as one is clear which defn they are using from the start of whatever they want to say, then all is good.
Right now I have independent, distinct, and easy-to-read notation for
subring
ideal
equal/not equal
proper
maximal
principal
prime
left & right
That can all be used simultaneously or individually on the same symbol to write entire sentences in a single inequality.
One of my friends and I have been working for a few days on an overleaf package for it that will hopefully make a lot of things a lot easier.
so I'm doing part a, trying to prove that if f and g are ring homomorphisms R to R, then (f+g)(r)=f(r)+g(r) is a ring homomorphism and I'm struggling with the multiplication property. it just doesn't seem like multiplication should work.
like
f(xy)+g(xy)≠(f(x)+g(x))(f(y)+g(y))
am i misunderstanding something?
it's almost 2am so i feel like any second I'm going to realize i just completely messed up the definition of what f+g is
or of what a ring homomorphism is lol
Multiplication of homomorphisms is defined as composition here, so (f•g)(x) = f(g(x)), not f(x)g(x)
wait I'm confused. then am i not showing that
(f+g)(xy)=(f+g)(x)*(f+g)(y)?
in R
i thought that was necessary for it to be a ring homomorphism over R
Oh shit yeah, this does seem to be what you have to prove
this wouldn't be the first time my prof has sent out a question with a mistake in it so it's possible there's something missing
Well (f+g)(xy) = f(xy) + g(xy)
= f(x)f(y) + g(x)g(y)
≠ [ f(x) + g(x) ] [ f(y) + g(y) ]
So doesn't seem to make sense
@toxic zephyr
yeah that's so weird. I'm pretty sure fg does work though...
Yeah, that part works
If we were talking about module homomorphisms here then the set of module homomorphisms from some R-module M to itself does form a ring under pointwise addition and composition
is there some sort of alternative definition for f+g that could make it work out? it would be really surprising if he wrote this whole question and there was no way to make it work.
Idts, the module thing is the best I can come up with
oh no... this is very concerning. 😦
oh yeah and i guess the mapping to 1 property would also fail. because (f+g)(1)=1+1=2
maybe HOM(R,R) is actually just a non-abelian multiplicative group and not a ring?
Can't follow proof of cycle decomposition
just sent my prof an email (scheduled for 8am because i don't want him to get an email from me at 2:30am lol)
if anyone can find a way to salvage this problem that would be really great 🙏
or alternatively prove that this question could never work would be great too lmao
imma sleep now
thank you for taking a look at this and helping me @little jasper ❤️
It's a non-abeliean semigroup under composition
No probs :)
@toxic zephyr the mistake here is that they meant Hom(R,R) to mean endomorphisms of the underlying abelian group of R
i.e. End(A) is a ring under these operations when we interpret the elements of End(A) as homomorphisms of abelian groups
its like earlier when we were discussing F[t]-modules. I was using the fact that the "scalar multiplication" on a module (aka ring action) can be thought of as a ring homomorphism F[t] --> End(V), where End(V) is a ring under the operations laid out in this exercise you're doing
you're gonna have a normal subgroup of order 7 and a subgroup of order 3
so like semidirect product of Z/7 and Z/3, so you equivalently must like classify maps Z/3 -> Aut(Z/7) up to an automorphism ig
i.e. maps Z/3 -> Z/6 of groups
Okay so the map Z/3 -> Z/6 must send 1 to either 0,2 or 4 by order reasons
the maps sending to 2 and 4 are the same up to an automorphism though
whats the justification all groups of order 21 are semidirect products of C3 and C7 or C21?
Well C21 is a semidirect product of C3 and C7 tbf
yh is this sylow?
But yes the justification is that there is gonna be a subgroup of order 7 and a subgroup of order 3 (by Cauchy or even just counting), with the subgroup of order 7 being normal by index reasons
or something
And then clearly intersection trivial & product is the entire thing, so we have a semidirect product
ic
owo
I forget what the nicest proof is that a subgroup H of index p (where p is the smallest prime dividing the order of the group G) is normal
is it just to consider action of G on cosets of H, i.e. a map G -> S_p and then show that map has kernel exactly H by order reasons or is there an even more straightforward way lol
that's the proof i always see
Noice
group actions proofs are adorable sometimes idk
A semidirect product of groups G and H is equivalent to an action of one group on the other (depending on which way your like weird symbol in teh semidirect product goes lmfao)
Yeah exactly what I'm doing
Okay cambridge is cringe smh /s
But yeah uhhh I mean I could send our notes on it for example if you'd like, idk they're useful
which course is this for?
oh fair
i've not really done any like explicitly group theoretic stuff in our rep theory course
ye
oh lol
Uhhh wdym by uniqueness here
Maybe I'll just give more of an explanation
Yeah so it comes down to this
So I guess are you more interested why the maps like Z/3 -> Z/6 sending 1 to 2 and -2 give the same semidirect product up to iso? (here i'm identifying Z/6 with Aut(Z/7) btw lol)
If you want a hint, ||Consider the group of functions ax + b, where a and b are integers modulo 7||
And ||a has an inverse||
brute force?
Brute force is probably the best, use that there is a normal subgroup of order 7, and then consider the conjugation action of the order 3 element on that, and you will see there’s only 2 non isomorphic ways it can work
And one will just be C 21
Do naturally isomorphic functors have naturally isomorphic derived functors?
This seems like it should be obviously true but somehow i'm not sure how i'd prove it
wait nvm this is trivial I think
isn't it the case that if F and F' are naturally isomorphic then the induced functors on chain complexes are also naturally isomorphic
right
so yea this is trivial
I mean this is just a consequence of the definition of natural transformations
that it's a chain map
I think proving the defn of the natural transformation not depending on the choice of resolution might be a bit annoying
maybe not actually
wait why am I trying so hard
I think this just falls out of universality
you do the hexagon diagram chase thing
I gotta look at that proof again
Lol nice
Also, you should really get Facebook
Many climbers are mathmos, but not many mathmos are climbers
The first thing was more what I meant aha
In fact it has a natural ring structure
nice
i thought it would be long walks or smth given how much pacing around the room some people like me do when we get stuck on a problem
You can do both
dope
mathematicians be like "i got 99 problems and you will be one" every week
lol
responded to me and pinged someone else nice uh
give me tons of problems
jk i am busy
Please don’t torture me like that
Unless you’re giving me the sheet 3 problems I haven’t done.
That’s fine
not a well-defined question because x is in four different locations in that line
So going back to this here is my attempt. \ let G be a group of order $\kappa$ and let $F_{m}$ and $F_{n}$ be the free groups generated by M and N st $|M|=m$ and $|N|=n$ \ the number of functions from M to G and from N to G is $\kappa^{m}$ and $\kappa^{n}$ respectively \
by the universal property of the free groups on a group G for each function between M and G we have a unique homomorphism $
\varphi : F_{m} \to G $ we conclude there is $\kappa^{m}$ homomorphisms between $F_{m}$ and G and $\kappa^{n}$ homomorphisms between $F_{n}$ and G \
now this is a intuitive guess but if $F_{m} \cong F_{n}$ then the number of homomorphisms from $F_{m}$ to G is equal to number of homomorphisms from $F_{n}$ to G ? and if its true any leads on how to prove that? ( and if im approaching this the wrong way lmn)
Susilian
Am i bein stupid right now? Im struggling to get a more common isomorphism class for a module of the form M oplus N /(1,a) given that i have a nice form for N/(a). It seems like this should be easy to do but im honestly not sure how to represent things
(In my particular case im looking for the isomorphism class of $$\frac{\frac{k[x,y]}{(x,y)}\oplus \frac{k[x,y]}{(y)}}{(1,x)}$$)
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
this is in the context of computing a cokernel for the equivalence between yoneda extensions up to yoneda equivalence and the first Ext module if that helps
I almost never do
You can take G to be a finite group for ease here to conclude and for the last bit this is because we can use the isomorphism between groups to go between maps Fm -> G and Fn -> G
Fair lol
oh i see
i think i got this now , thank you!
I'm just, typically, a slow careful thinker. When I don't give out ad hoc arguments at least
I don't get emotional. It comes with some work, or the idea just arrives in my head, if I decide to think about it
I'm pretty good at catching errors, because I want to not make them
Let $G$ be a group with $k$ elements. Suppose ${\gcd(k,n)=1}$. If $g\in G$ and $g^n=\varepsilon$, then $g=\varepsilon$.
whereismydaddy
this is my proof
Assume $g\in G$ and $g^n=\epsilon$. We know ${\gcd(k,n)=1}$, then there exist $x,y\in \Z$ such that $kx+ny=1$. We get $g=g^1=g^{kx+ny}=g^{kx}g^{ny}=(g^k)^x(g^n)^y=\epsilon^x\epsilon^y=\epsilon$. Thus $g=\varepsilon$.
whereismydaddy
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Lagrange's theorem - the order of every element of a finite group divides the order of the group
is he allowed to use lagrange?
Lagrange is easy enough to prove it
Simply consider action of G on G/H, from which the formula |G/H|*|H| = |G| readily follows
Normally you do lagrange before looking at group actions lol
I suppose. But you don't use the fact that it's a group action in the above argument anyways
You just observe that |xH| has the same cardinality as |H|
Yeah. But whenever someone mentions group actions + cardinality argument I always ghink of orbit/stabilizier formulas
yeah i mean look at how simple his proof is
you can't just assume group actions
but i guess you can show it directly pretty much anyway
This isn't relevant to #groups-rings-fields, sorry. In fact this is very off-topic. Perhaps you're looking for #computing-software.
Oh my apologies, I will move it there, thanks!
Let $f(n)$ be the number of groups of order $n$, $g(n,k)$ be the number of groups of order $n$ with $k$ conjugacy classes, what can we say about $g(n,k)/f(n)$ as $n\to\infty$
CS person
One thing is that there are only finitely many finite groups with a given number of conjugacy classes. I think this follows from a result of Landau?
But I'm not sure what computations have been done on counting how many such groups exist
restricting the problem to abelian groups might be more tractable, since the number of abelian groups of a given order is a multiplicative function so you'd have some dirichlet generating function for that and try to throw some ANT tricks at it. Then maybe try to use that to put bounds/asymptotics/etc to get the original case. Dunno, interesting question though
Well for abelian groups the number of conjugacy classes is just always the order of the group
Wait I can’t find Landau’s theorem
oh right 😩
Let me check again, iirc it's a number theoretic result
But on this end I am curious about the limit of number of groups of order n/n maybe
Or like the growth rate of the number of groups
I'd play more but I have to work on my resume, keep me updated tho
Oh found it. There are finitely many solutions to $\sum_{i=1}^k \frac{1}{n_i} = 1$. Applying this to the class equation gives the result
walter
But I agree, this sounds like a neat problem and I'll think about it more
Yeah, I'm sure there are variations that could give you interesting answers when you look at the limit. It just sounds like a difficult problem lol
Yeah true
I'm a bit stuck on an algebra problem involving ideals of internal direct products.
The symbol you don't recognize means "is an ideal of"
My approach was going to be something like this:\
If $I$ is an ideal of $R_1\times\cdots\times R_n=:R$, then $I=A_1\times\cdots\times A_n$, where $A_k=\pi_k(I)$, the canonical projection of $I$ onto $R_k\cap I$.
Amizar
- Is it reasonable to simply claim I remains the direct product of each A_i, or is that something I need to justify more thoroughly?
- How might I go about showing that each A_i is an ideal of R_i? If it weren't for part (b) I would think the problem were more straightforward, but I'm a bit confused at how we might be able to do this for rings without identities.
I think I misspoke. What I mean is, I thought my proof outline should work for any ring, and the fact that it doesn't necessarily hold for rings without identities makes me question my initial argument.
When your abelian category is concrete (e.g. R-Mod), to construct a contraction (A chain homotopy of the identity to 0, so 1=ds+sd), I really only need s to be set maps right?
I need the 'prism' maps or whatever you wanna call them to be set maps I mean
I proved this I just wanna make sure i'm not being silly
Also, here, rotman claims that P_n are free Z[G]-Modules. I'm not sure I see why it satisfies the universal property, or rather what the basis should be
I don't see how these can be free G-Modules, since the basis elements have relations between them
which can't happen in free modules
so how can he conclude this is a G-free resolution
says it here, p.529
of homological algebra
ok wait it probably is a free module just the free abelian group basis is not the Z[G] basis
so what is
A basis is the tuples with x_0 being the identity element
It's not hard to show they have no G-relations
oh neat question
there's an asymptotic result on the number of groups of order p^n im pretty sure
so maybe your question can be answered for p groups?
yeah here it is
Of course. That makes sense now thanks!
I was being silly here. Set maps is not enough, but them being maps of Abelian groups in the case of modules is enough
Just need them to map 0 to 0
That was in response to this
Hi, I'm going through Sylow's theorem in Dummit and Foote right now and just wanted to make sure:
when looking at the conjugates of some Sylow p-subgroup, all conjugates will also be a Sylow p-subgroup because conjugation is an isomorphism, right?
Or essentially, why can we conclude that every conjugate in S here is a Sylow p-subgroup?
Yes, conjugate subgroups are isomorphic. The inverse of conjugation by g is conjugation by g^-1. In particular, conjugate subgroups have the same order.
Ok, thank you.
When constructing the semidirect product of H by K, the choice of homomorphism f:K->Aut(H) matters, right? I know that inside the semidirect product itself the action of K on H is always conjugation, but the "specifics" of the conjugation (what gets sent where) is determined by f and different choices of f might produce different semidirect products, right?
Yes, that's correct. For example, one could choose the homomorphism f: K -> Aut(H) to be the trivial homomorphism, in which case one just recovers the direct product
Thanks
Does anyone have any insight into this problem?
What is the evident way here? Is it applying f elementwise to the matrix entries?
I mean, that seems like it should work to give a homomorphism, but I thought maybe they mean some other way which I am not thinking of at the moment.
is this a typo? Isn't ad_x \in gl(g)? or, ad_x: g -> g
yeah
where ad is:
yeah I reckon they probably meant g -> g
cool!
i dont think it's a typo
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Center_(algebra)#:~:text=The center is a commutative,of the Lie algebra L. notice what it says about the center of a lie algebra
The term center or centre is used in various contexts in abstract algebra to denote the set of all those elements that commute with all other elements.
The center of a group G consists of all those elements x in G such that xg = gx for all g in G. This is a normal subgroup of G.
The similarly named notion for a semigroup is defined likewise and...
probably because you can define g without a lie bracket but g with a lie bracket is called a lie algebra
oh g is a lie algebra
my bad
but still youre mapping the element in the lie algebra to a functional, no?
like x is going to [x, y] which is a functional on g so gl(g) no?
you map g to ad_g(x)
It is a typo. ad maps g to gl(g), taking x to ad_x: g -> g.
A bracket for a Lie algebra might not explicitly be a commutator.
The expression xy - yx may not be defined.
ad_x just takes y to [x, y].
what?
srs?
didnt know this
ye
it just has to satisfy some other stuff
bilinearity and the jacobi identity or something
Antisymmetry, bilinearity, and the Jacobi identity.
These are the only requirements.
The reason I say "explicitly" is that it could be isomorphic to a Lie algebra where the bracket is explicitly a commutator. See, for example, Ado's theorem.
isnt there a theorem for non characterstic zero
like you can decompose it into a sum of matrix algebras
or something
eh im thinking of something else
Is there an easy example of a module over a PID that is torsion-free but not free?
(the module wouldn't be finitely generated, of course)
Q over Z
nice
Ok so
I have a proof for my thing
But it must be wrong
Because I don't know how the conclusion fails to hold if the rings don't have identity elements.
The symbol you don't recognize means "is an ideal of."
You've shown that I is a subset of the product of the A_k, but not equality
Try justifying why they're equal and you might see what goes wrong
Is $\mathbb Z^\mathbb N$ as a $\mathbb Z$-module free or not? Just curious
Croqueta
i don't think so
i've heard that it's not projective as well
but dunno an elementary proof
lemme think
there probably isn't an elementary proof as far i remember
i think i've heard that Hom_Z(Z^N, Z) = Z^(direct sum N)
so if Z^N was free, then it would have uncountable rank which means |Hom_Z(Z^N, Z)| = 2^2^|N|
so it's very far from being free as |Hom_Z(Z^N, Z)| = |N|
this is actually equivalent to non-free-ness as Z is a PID. but again it's only easy to see this under the additional hypothesis of finitely generated-ness
one way to see this in the general case is by first showing that submodule of any free module over a PID is free, this will require some sort of axiom of choice
then if you had a projective module over a PID, then it's a direct summand of a free module, and hence would be free.

Alternative reasoning: Wikipedia states it as an example of a module that isn't free 
is every ideal generated
What do you mean by this
do you want to dm me the question in german
is the set of all generated ideals equal to the set of all possible ideals
like can we write every ideal as a generated ideal
If all fails we can write it as the ideal generated by every element of the ideal
but i'm not quite sure what your question is still
What does "common eigenvectors" mean, do the eigenvectors also have fixed eigenvalues? Let's say $\mathfrak{g}0$ is a Cartan subalgebra, $H_1, H_2 \in \mathfrak{g}0$. I reckon that then $\mathrm{adj}{H_1}$ and $\mathrm{adj}{H_2}$ have the same set of eigenvectors. Let's say $x$ is an eigenvector with $\mathrm{adj}{H_1} x = \lambda_1 x$ and $\mathrm{adj}{H_2} x = \lambda_2 x$. Are $\lambda_1$ and $\lambda_2$ equal?
Mattuwu
can we write every ideal in the form of $(a_1, \ldots, a_s)$
illuminator3
🙈
Where do you deduce that from?
(the uncoutnability of the hypohtetical rank I mean)
Free modules are classified by their rank
if the rank was countable, then Z^(direct sum N) is also countable
So Z^N would have to be an uncountable direct sum of Z
(the uncoutnability of the hypohtetical rank I mean)
but |Z^N| = 2^|N| = uncountable
oh yeah, I was totally missing that
wdym
idk why i was thinking Z^N was countable lmao
You’re searching for the word “finitely generated ideal”
all ideals in your ring are finitely generated iff. your ring is noetherian
ahhhhhhh
that's what I was looking for
thanks
(that's even a common definition for it)
oh lol
Anyway I’m pretty sure you can show Z^N isn’t projective
I’m trying to come up with a proof of a map you can’t factor
Okay
Consider the map Z^N -> direct sum Z/nZ
Given by sending (a1,a2,…) to (a1,2a2,3a3,…)
Wait umm
Idk why you would say that instead of sharing the link of the Wikipedia article, but ok
Gah

Nvm this won’t work I gotta think more
The article i was referring to is the german one for "Free Module"
oh the english one uses it as well, didn't see that
I see. If I is a subset of this product, how would we get an element of the product not contained in I?
Could we not use the canonical injection to map elements of A_k into I?
Since they're explicitly defined as the canonical epimorphism of elements in I?
I'm not sure how we would have anything but equality.
Yeah I’m just gonna give a size argument
Consider a map f:Z^N -> Z
Then f necessarily is the sum of the maps f•i_n
What I mean from this is, let e_i be the like i-th “basis” element
It is 1 in the i-th term and 0 elsewhere
but this sum isn't finite >.<
nope
Is there a notational way I can refer to A_k as subrings of R instead of factor rings?
at least false for vector spaces
Yeah this is also false
like Q^N --> Q
Smh
It's a bit cumbersome to define (0,...,i_k,...,0) every time I want to refer to an element of A_k living inside R.
Let me phrase it like this. We have a tuple of elements a_k in A_k. By definition, for each k there exists an element b_k in A such that pi_k(b_k) = a_k. The issue is that there may not be one specific element such that the projection applied to each factor is a_k
How could that be?
Well if you want to prove such an element exists then you'd want an identity element
And if you want a counterexample then you look to nonunital rings
Yeah idk this is trash
I imagine that would be the case based on the way the questions are phrased
Yes
Is there a convenient notation I could use to refer to elements of the rings interchangeably?
Idk I use subscript and superscript sometime but indexing is hard
The whole "canonical projection" thing makes sense but it's a bit awkward.
I've been restructuring ring notation from scratch lately, but I don't know if I necessarily want to go that far just yet.
Here’s a proof
It doesn’t appear to use choice only that you can split maps to a projective and then some minor set theory
This is interesting
I'm forgetting, is the direct sum at least free/projective
Or wait is that the definition of free
Idk how infinite works
Lmao
It is
Yeah
Well I guess it depends
You could say “has a basis” but then it’s iso a direct sum on the cardinality of the basis
Right, finite sums and all that
Yeah
Generation says the map from the direct sum is surjective
Indepencence says it’s injective
Yhh
How would we have a tuple of elements in A_k that isn't contained in I?
if you know about tensor products, then just write it as i_k ⊗ 1 in R_k ⊗_R R
what was the actual question tho?
I don't know enough about tensor products and they've not come into this class.
Like I said earlier, this doesn't make use of what seems to be a necessary fact, so I'm not sure I've done this properly.
the key is the statement you claim without much justification
I'm sure it is.
why are i, j in the ideal I?
It's taken me an uncharacteristically long time to solve this problem.
Wait, I thought that one was actually justified.
Oh
one sec
Why are they in I?
if i_k is in A_k then you only know that there is some tuple (i1, ..., i_k, ..., i_n) in I
Wouldn't that direct product necessarily be included?
not necessarily (0, ..., i_k, ... 0)
Could you help me properly understand what is involved with a direct product?
okie so lemme say this first
Ah, I see.
you know about groups, right?
in general it's false that subgroup of G x G' looks like H x H'
where H is a subgroup of G and H' is a subgroup of G'
the simplest example is the "diagonal" of G x G which is {(g, g) : g in G}
We've proven that it's true for specific cases, like finitely generated abelian groups and p-groups
I see.
I see what you mean by that.
it's false for any non-trivial group tho :p
Hmm.
so let's first prove it for a smaller product
say R and S are rings, show that an ideal of R x S looks like I x J
the proof remains the same, but easier to write down and think concretely without using "..."
Yes, I suppose it would.
And since the direct product is associative it should generalize to any finite case immediately, right?
yep
So I can entirely restructure my proof into a case of two with that caveat
That would make the notation so much nicer that I think I could tackle it pretty well.
(but i think once you understand the case for n = 2, you can easily write for any arbitrary n)
This is insanely nit picky, and in practice it does not matter but it’s interesting to think about if the direct product is actually associative
Because it actually isn’t, if you ask for literal equality, it’s associative up to the most obvious isomorphism in the world
((a,b),c) -> (a,(b,c))
(i said to myself i shouldn't say anything categorical here :p)
Well, yeah. I suppose I could say "associative and commutative, up to isomorphism."
Yeah I just bring it up because this starts driving home some ideas that become important depending on what you end up doing
And also is good to think about, it kinda drives home the idea that “=“ really isn’t the right question to be asking a lot of the time
I suppose that's fair.
natural isomorphisms are equality 
To some, lol
elaborate

what does it mean when you put text inside parenthesis?
like this, really
oh so like thought bubble in a manga?
Ahhhh. I think I'm beginning to understand why this doesn't necessarily hold in some cases.

Does the canonical projection send things to the multiplicative identity or to 0?
If it's 0, then we can just multiply (i_1,i_2) by (1,0) to get (i_1,0) in the ideal, so its projection is in the ideal.
Not sure what this means >.<
It sends (a,b) to a
Yep this is exactly how being an ideal and having 1 in your ring helps
Er, the canonical injection, I mean.
The one that maps an element of A to an element of A x B.
Does it map a to (a,0) or (a,1)?
If it's the latter then I think we have what we need.
Er
I mean
Similarly you could use the element (0,0,...1,...0) to kill of everything but the kth component
if it's the former
Right. That's what I'm trying to do.
But the canonical injection maps to a,0 not a,1. Right?
There isn't any canonical injection tho
R --> R x S can't sending r to (r,0) is not a map of rings as it doesn't preserve the identity
And you can't send r to (r, 1) as in this case the map isn't even additive
So if you have (r,0) in your ideal
Then you can subtract (r,0) from (r,s)
Er
Wait
that doesn't really help
Just read this again without the "If it's 0, then"
If we have i_1,0 in the ideal
Ohhhh
Because i_1,0 is isomorphic to R_1
And 0,i_2 is isomorphic to R_2
Er, with poorly named variables.

Not sure I understand what you said
I'm kinda sleepy, so I'll just write the argument
Say you have the ring R x S and some ideal K in it
Since R x S --> R the canonical projection is surjective it sends the ideal K to an ideal I in R. Similarly you get an ideal J in S.
Now it's clear that K is contained in I x J
We need to show the other inclusion
so given i in I and j in J, we want to show (i, j) lies in K.
By definition, i is in the image of K under the projection, so there is an element (i, j') in K and similar and element (i', j) in K for some i' and j' in R and S respectively
Since K is an ideal, and R is a unital ring, we can multiply (i, j') by (1,0) and still land inside the ideal K, as ideals absorb multiplication by elements from your ring
So you get that (i, 0) is in K and similarly as S is unital, you get that (0, j) is in K
Finally their sum (i, j) is in K which shows K = I x J
Me sleep now
if G is a group of size 2n, and H is a subgroup of size n, then is G/H isomorphic to Z/2Z?
Provided G/H actually is a group (i.e. provided H is a normal subgroup), sure
G/H is a group of order 2 and hence isomorphic to Z/2Z
Actually a subgroup of index 2 is always normal
Good point aha
interesting
(if you've not seen that a subgroup of index 2 is always normal, it might be worth pointing out that in general, if G is a group and H is a subgroup of index p, where p is the smallest prime dividing |G|, then H is normal; this special case comes from the fact that 2 is the smallest prime overall lol)
I mever thought of this
I sorta see it though?
H is of index 2 if G/H has order 2
Isn't this one of those classic intro group theory exercises?
It's like the "a space is Hausdorff if and only if the diagonal is closed" of algebra.
i never learned it
(Algebraic geometers don't @ me.)
a space is seperated if diagonal is closed immersion
I know.
im restating for myself lol
and to be corrected
im still a 👩🎓
i went through proof of this a week ago and barely followed. i have to back track it sometime
its mostly because i am lost in the sauce of definitions
we went over valuation criterion for seperatedness at the same time
This was my definition of "separated variety", although, as the quotes might suggest, I only did varieties. The word immersion didn't come up once, we just said subspace.
I know about immersions from differential geometry, though, so the statement makes some sense to me and sounds right.
I am a little rusty.
Welcome to AG!
you know more than me im pretty unconfident
yeah i dont feel welcomed lol
immersion in dg is when differential is injective right?
Yup.
also
Same as being locally an embedding.
Immersions and local embeddings are the same.
The normal form for immersions gives you this.
Every immersion locally looks like x -> (x, 0).
i had no clue
oh yeah
constant rank is a term
i think it means for any point on manifold the rank doesnt change
rank of the differential
Correct. For immersions, the rank is always equal to the dimension of the domain.
but idk how to verify this, i dont know many explicit examples of maps between manifolds
yes my knowledge is very gapped
I just wrote one down.
what you are saying the x,0 map
like yes i know i can talk about maps from Rn to Rm
Separated is a property of a morphism
A map f:X -> Y is separated if the diagonal map X -> Y x_X Y is a closed immersion
yeah
Hausdorff is then the special case when you’re looking at the map f:X -> pt over the final object since the fibered product is just the product in this case
ive been told you say a scheme is seperated if its seperated over k
Well it depends
like X->spec k
If you say separated without any other reference I think it is likely over Spec Z
oh
But if you’re working in a context you’re fixing a different base then it should be over that base
So if you’re dealing with varieties it’ll be over spec k
And if you’re “working over a Noetherian base S” then it should be the map to S
Anyway, sorry, I just wanted to re-hash that separated isn’t an absolute notion!
However it can have really interesting absolute properties
wdym pt over final object?
Here’s an example:
If X is a scheme which is separated over any affine base then the intersevtion of affine opens in X is again affine
In topological spaces the space which is just a point is the final object
So I just mentioned that because the fibered product over a final object is just the normal product
Because the condition about the maps having to agree after going down to the base you took the fiber product over is trivial, since ofc they have to agree!
If someone asked me if intersection of affine open sets is also affine I would have said yes
Nope
I didnt know you needed seperated
affine opens are just the covers of the scheme right?
yes
An affine open is just an open set with the induced scheme structure being isomorphic to Spec A for some A
But like this is not true for a couple reasons. 1: an affine open is just a single open, not a cover. 2: not every open cover is by affine opens, eg {X} covers X so take X non-affine
Okay so I have an example of a non-separated scheme
yeah i didnt mean the cover but the components of the cover sorry
Take a DVR A, maybe even k[x]_(x)
okay
ok
Oky so we can glue two copies of Spec A at the open point
So our resulting space has 3 points
{m,m’,0}
Where 0 is the now-identified open points
And m,m’ are the two different copies of the closed point
ok
yes
Each of these is just Spec A
Let me think for a second
Fuck aaaa I think this is separated
It isn’t affine though

It’s hard to come up with a non-separated scheme
The standard example is a line with two origins
But the issue is that the intersection then is non-affine
OH
Okay okay okay I think I have an example sorry
So btw this construction is the smallest (cardinality) non-affine scheme. You can compute that the global sections is A, so if it was affine it would have to be Spec A, but that only has two points!
Sorry sorry so
Take A^2
And then remove the origin
You have A^2\0 which is open
Take two copies of A^2 and glue them along A^2\0
You get a plane with a doubled origin yeah?
I want A^2!
Because A^1\0 is affine
But my example here
You have a cover of this plane with a double origin via the two planes right?
This is an affine cover
Their intersection is A^2\0
And that’s non-affine!
ok im still analyzing sorry
so we went over the glueing construction in class one day
Sure
and all i remember is that you have two open subsets and an isomorphism between them
Right
with 3 properties that need to be satisfied
i dont entirely understand the construction besides that it mirrors how its done for manifolds sorta
What matters is just that you can find two planes
The only way they differ is their origin
yes
Cuz we identified every other point of them
These are both affine
Cuz they’re A^2
But their intersection is just the set you glued them along
Which was A^2\0 which isn’t affine
yes
It doesn’t mirror manifolds really because you can make non-separated stuff which is like being non-hausdorff
i meant construction of glueing schemes
But maybe if you want to visualize it, it’s just like gluing any two spaces
Like you can probably imagine say
Taking a box
like how isomorphism exists between open subsets that intersect
Right
That exists basically like
You know how transition functions exist?
For manifolds
Is an element of a ring always in the ideal it generates?
Particularly a nonunital ring.
Those conditions with the crap about like
Intersections
And the cocycle condition “the thing about the compositions”
Is to basically guarantee that when you go and change charts or whatever it all works
ugh
Like you need that in order to glue your sheaves
cocycle is a word that ive been hearing often
Like here’s the idea even better
I read the definition of principal ideal, and it's either only meant to be used for rings with identity, or it excludes some elements from their own ideals.
Which wouldn't make sense but the definition technically doesn't include it.
but i think about cohomology and idk how there is a connection
It’s about Čech stuff
You’ll eventually get it
For now just take the definition to be like
The stuff are compatible in triples
We have a sheaf on X_1, X_2, X_3
we should move to ag
The isomorphisms on the opens say U_1, U_2, U_3
Ok I think it's just poorly worded when it comes to rngs.
For some reason the textbook we're learning from uses almost exclusively rings without identity.
Hungerford?
Yeah the generality is a bit excessive in the ring section
Perhaps
I'm not a fan of the way it's written.
I don't mind solving the exercises (most of the time)
But I rarely read the definitions and theorems because they make my eyes glaze over.
I've literally had an easier time deriving algebraic theorems from scratch than trying to figure out wtf the textbook says.
That said, currently I'm trying to find the best way to show that (2,0) is not in the ideal generated by (2,2) in 2Z x 2Z.
Relatable. My professor was epic enough to assume all rings have identity for the modules chapter
Oh that's lovely.
My professor is pretty awesome as well, but it's rather a pain to assume everything is identityless.
Fine, I'll prove the ring squares to itself. Happy?
Lol yea I remember the statement of CRT started like “let R be a ring with R^2=R”
As for the ideal thing, my first thought is a rather exhaustive approach, but I'm not sure if there's a more straightforward way to show the exclusion.

Yeah I've just chosen not to read those statements.
So, ((2,2)) is the set of all integer and ring multiples of (2,2), right?
And sums thereof?
What's the most convenient way to claim that (2,0) is not in ((2,2))?
It's just a piece of the puzzle I'm trying to put together, but it seems to be a rather straightforward piece.
I'm just not sure what tools I have at my disposal other than common sense.
Hmmm. Using the relations of the ideal you should get some constraints that can’t occur if (2,0) is in ((2,2)). Like a linear algebra problem. I’m on mobile so I can’t really check myself atm
And I can’t think of an easier way hm
I've reasoned out that the ideal generated by (2,2) is the set (a,b) of even integers whose difference is divisible by 4.
Which would prove the claim, but I'm not sure if there's a nicer way of writing that down that takes less space.
Without knowing the precise definition of an ideal of a ring without identity, I'm not sure how to proceed.
Is it all ring multiples? All integer multiples?
The set containing sums of both?
It's rather a pain.
It’s just an abelian subgroup which is closed under multiplication by the ring. Isn’t this the def in hungerford?
Honestly not even sure.
So if I instead defined it to be "the set (a,b) where 4 divides b-a" it might be easier to prove, then?
Defined what to be that?
Ah, the set of elements (a,b) whose difference is a multiple of 4
This is a really gross proof of both sides of the problem
Is there a way I could make this less awful looking
You really don't need to keep restating definitions.
The entire first four lines of your proof for the first part can just be reduced to "We prove the n = 2 case, from which the case for arbitrary n follows by the obvious induction."
Do you really have to make a new line for every sentence?
You also don't need to restate things given to you in the problem. You are only wasting space by writing "where pi_1, pi_2 are the canonical epimorphisms" and such.
I can kinda understand what you’re trying to do, but you’re trying to write a proof for a human
This looks like you’re trying to write formal math like lean code for this
But were they monic?
i see what you did there 
outside of classifying finite groups, what are some significant uses of Sylow theorems?
passing qualifying exams
Sloth King Daminark
Here Sylow means p-Sylow where q = p^r
Sloth King Daminark






