#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 8 of 1
if m,n in M_tor are annihalted by r,s non-zerodivisors then m + n is annihilated by rs, still not a zero divisor
let m in M_tor be annihilated by r, r not a zero divisor. Given any s in R, sm is either 0, or if it's non-zero it's still annihilated by r
since r(sm) = s(rm) = 0
wait but, with this definition, Z/nZ over itself is always torsion-free??
because if r\in Z/nZ is such that there exists an s st sr=0, then s is a zero dvisior
everything ring will be torsion-free over itself. You make a tradeoff
you get actual submodules of torsion elements
but weird things like this happen
honestly, the real answer is that torsion doens't make that much sense if your ring isn't an integral domain haha
hah xd
in that case the two definitions for torsion agree
to extend it for non-domains you either have to have weird stuff like p not being torsion in Z/pqZ, or you don't get submodules
okay. Thanks
I basically understand none of my classes and go through them with the knowledge of high school math
for any homo. phi : G -> G', if H is normal in G, and H is a subset of the kernel of phi, then G' must be H?
I want you to think this through
first of all, is H a subgroup necessarily
second of all
what if we take H to be ker phi once, and antoher time we take it to be {e}
and the kernel is not trivial
if you stare at this critically you will see all of the holes with this question
this isn't even scratching the surface
for example, what if phi is the trivial homomorphism, G is not isomorphic to G', and we take H=ker phi = G
ok wait then I don't quite understand this
"We always have a homomorphism ..."
"Proposition. Let phi : G -> G' be a group homomorphism"
"(a) Is H normal in G with H being a subset of ker phi, then phi induces a unique homomorphism phi bar : G/H -> G', such that the diagram ... commutes"
are we also assuming that H is a subset of G'?
Why do you think this is true? Can you explain
No, what here would make you think we're assuming that?
it was my attempt at an understanding of the proposition above with the help of namington's messages in #discussion
because if phi(G) = H
but we have phi : G -> G'
it's not
phi(G) is not H
what makes you think that
that is definitely a typo
but even if it wasn't, this doesn't mean that phi is surjective
Oh, well that makes a lot of sense
They meant G' there, not H
That is a simple typo
ohhhhh
And if it's not clear, this is just not true.
yeah, if H is a subset of G, G' can't be H unless G intersect G' is not empty
just realized
thanks
typos are horrifying
G intersect G' is meaningless unless G and G' are both subgroups of some bigger group anyways
or subsets of a bigger set
why is it meaningless?
yeah I mean the elements in the group
There's no useful way of interpreting the intersection between arbitrary groups.
how do I say "G and G' must share some elements"
You would say their intersection is nonempty.
But we very rarely care about this
We would more often say that G and G' have a common subgroup H, for example.
but isn't that meaningless?
ah
You're missing the point of what we're saying here. It is meaningful to talk about the intersection of two arbitrary sets in a way that it isn't in group theory. Because of the typical set-theoretic construction of groups, yes indeed we would phrase this literally in terms of the sets involved. However if we are to be more precise (and in fact, more correct in some sense) we would really consider monomorphisms phi : H -> G and phi' : H -> G to describe this.
You use some other foundations for mathematics.
eg?
Type theory. This is an abstract algebra channel; if you have questions about foundations, ask them in #foundations
oke
potato
i am confused about why this doesn't work; maybe I'm just misquoting the way direct limits interact with ext?
An injective resolution seems like a really hard way to do that haha
Surely you'd try a projective resolution first
I'm trying to figure out how to prove that 2^K - 1 is composite if K is composite. I'm not quite sure where to start.
Okay fair enough that seems more sensible lol
I guess I just don't know any projective resolutions of Z[1/p] but I guess I can work one out
Does anyone here understand tensor products in terms of quotient spaces?
in what way?
or do you mean the construction of the tensor products of vector spaces (which would sometimes use quotient spaces if in the general case)
This is a question more suited to #elementary-number-theory, but I'll give you a hint anyway. Consider k = mn and recall that x^a - 1 = (x-1)(x^{a-1} + x^{a-2} + ... + 1) for any x.
this way!
although
we have them constructed as the free abelian group on the cartesian product of the two sets
Well the idea is essentially that you have "generators" given by F-linear combinations of pairs of elements and "relations" which make it behave as you'd like
so something like A tensor B is the quotient of the free abelian group generated by A X B on the elements
blah blah
I don't think it helps that I don't fully understand quotient groups
But im struggling to picture what the space A tensor B looks like
i really wouldn't worry about tensor products until you undrstand quotient groups
haha im working on questions on tensor products as part of a class im taking on a hilbert problem
so I am very much worrying 😦
I understand quotient groups simply as the set of cosets of one set in the other
well take it rather as like a recommendation to make sure you work on quotient groups a bit more first
Yes ty I agree
But if i were to think of quotient groups as the set of cosets
how does that make sense with tensor products
potato
Just taking a look now
Yeah looks about right to me
Obviously would need double checking but looks sane, you know
well the idea just being we have an obvious surjection Z^2 -> Z[1/p] and we can identify the kernel with Z as in my map
Yeah I think so
Noice
And this makes more sense actually
contravariance of Hom(-,Z) turning that limit for Z[1/p] into the limit giving you the padics; the result should be \hat(Z_p)/Z
I couldn't say; not terribly familiar with the p-adics myself
Oh I mean dw
I was just saying like lol thanks for suggesting projective instead as more intuitive
No worries
But yeah the projective resolution tends to be easier to calculate for modules, definitely
Oh yeah fair
Especially when stuff is fg and all
actually there is an error here lol
k-th symmetric power of V
I would guess the answer you're supposed to give is just that - the multiplicity of V in CG.
Unless you have seen some character theory by now
Can anyone gone an example of a monoid whose Grothendieck group is 0
Non zero monoid obviously
(Wikipedia says, but I did check that) if the monoid has a zero element then its Grothendieck group is trivial
So non-negative integers under multiplication IG
it's Z for nnv integers
Omg, i’m your biggest fan! It’s an honor to meet you
Oh lol
Anyone know some good resources on Lie algebras actually explaining along the way why we care about what we’re doing? My course is building towards proving the semi simple classification but the work we’re doing along the way on nilpotent representations feels very ad hoc
It’s hard to see the point
I also felt that way about my first Lie algebras course. I'm not really sure about where a good place to get motivation is, but at the very least Erdmann–Wildon's book on Lie algebras might help you a bit
oh wait I just realized
The reason why (1,0) is not linearly independent is because (0,1)(1,0)=(0,0), right?
yep
Is there a nice way to see that (assuming it's true!) complex (finite dimensional) representations of a compact group G with the same character are isomorphic? this is referred to in a paper i'm reading without proof
(We can also assume G is a Lie group for my purposes)
I know the proof for finite groups boils down to using orthogonality and that you can decompose into irreducible decompositions; does the same proof carry over somehow? probs uses Peter-Weyl
(I think I asked this before but still a bit puzzled why e.g. I can't find a reference to what looks like it should be a really important fact!)
I have a question in a proof that HK=KH iff HK is a subgroup of G given that H,K are subgroups. For showing HK =KH, it says the KH is clearly contained in HK by closure of subgroups, why is it KH \subset HK and not HK \subset KH for the trivial direction?
the proof is out od Dummit and Foote page 94 at the top
When HK is a subgroup, you can say that KH c HK because HK contains H and K so in particular contains every product of the form kh (since it is a subgroup)
you cant say that if HK is not a subgroup
then why cant you instnatly say HK c KH by the same reasoning
because KH isnt a priori a subgroup
we only know that HK is a subgroup
(in the end so is KH but you need to show that)
yeah true, thanks! that clears it up!!
i wonder if there some nicer perspective on these things with products of subgroups in the non-abelian case
i guess it is just a few checks though
wdym
Eh dw
How important is the distinction between an interal direct sum and an external direct sum?
what do you mean? For me it's just that we want to know when a, say, module, is isomorphic to a direct sum of its submodules
Hard to know for sure, but from the algebra courses I have seen, it will be early on.
The first isomorphism theorem is what it's called.
Yeah, the first isomorphism theorem is a pretty fundamental concept and is typically taught early on
This diagram also ignores like most important thing about it - the phi tilde is injective
I need to find the number of homomorphisms from GL_3(7) to A_3. I think I'm supposed to abelianize GL_3(7) by quotienting out SL_3(7), but I don't know what the elements of that quotient group would look like or if any will have order 3
Wow, that's a hard question
Fwiw I think you're right in your approach but I can't think of how to continue. Perhaps trying to characterise the quotient is helpful
Wtf lol
Wouldn't the quotient group need to be cyclic? Maybe the answer is 1
I'm leaning towards that, yeah
SL_3 is the derived subgroup after all
But my whole thought is that the kernel needs to contain it... is that true?
The kernel does have to be maximal
Oh
Or does it? A_3 is simple, right
right ofc, brain moment
I wonder if it is possible to illustrate why relations are associative in simple language? EG, without falling back on group theory given that I'm trying to explore some of the underpinnings of group theory to begin with and want to avoid circular reasoning. 🙂
Do you mean an operation rather than a relation? Relations are typically called transitive, not associative
As for the reason, it's just because composition of functions is associative; this is the real underpinning.
I'm ultimately reaching for "why is symmetry associative". And it's interchangeable to ask why Groups are associative (eg, why we require associativity to call something a group) which gets answered "group binary operation makes the most sense when it's a form of function composition, and that is always associative". So why are function applications associative? Apparently because functions are a subset of relations. Why are relations associative? Cue a bunch of latex that falls back on group theory. 😉
What? No it doesn't
You do not need any group theory to show that composition of relations is associative.
That's good to hear, and what I'm trying to learn up on. 🙂 Google searching and such has not yielded anything but latex that does rely on group theory though.
Neither do you need the fact that functions are a subset of relations to even argue why function composition is associative
On the contrary, you need to show it is associative before you can start using group theory to study it.
So how can the associativity of functions and/or transitivity of relations be described in simple language? Not something that has to be rigorous, just broadly illustrative. 🙂
That's how they figured out that associativity is important in the def of a group iirc, because function composition does it.
You're still using the wrong terminology. Functions are not associative; composition of functions is. Similarly composition of relations is.
Associativity communicates the following. If I want to put three pieces of pipe together, I can put the first two pieces together then put the last one on, or alternatively put the last two before putting on the first. Associativity states that these two methods will produce the same result.
That's a great explanation, I like
I'm glad you like it
Yep, I understand what associativity is but I don't understand why that should always be a property of function or relation composition.
Commutivity is not guaranteed for example, even though that just "feels" simpler. And appears simpler to describe both in English and mathematical notation.
If I put on clothing, order of operations matters (not commutative) but still not order of composition (is associative).
Putting shoes on before socks does not result in the same outcome as putting on socks before shoes, but I can put socks into shoes and then apply that combination to my feet and get the same outcome as if I had put socks onto feet first.
It's like associativity says something about potential chronological perspectives, but it does so directly by subverting that perspective.
Ok maybe this is wrong because now I'm wondering if I can map everything but the center to zero, the center is Z6 since 7-1 is 6, that would give us 3 homomorphisms
You care about the order pipe pieces wind up in, because water is going to flow through it chronologically. But the statement about putting the pieces together specifically addresses that you can put the "last" bits together before you attach the "first" bits.
Commutivity also speaks to chronology, but somehow in a very different way.
Perhaps you're looking for something completely elementary:
(fog)oh = fo(goh) because they have the same value at all inputs: ((fog)oh)(x) = f(g(h(x))) = (fo(goh))(x)
I think this no longer has anything to do with group theory, to be frank with you
Oh drat yeah I think you're right there
Wait
No actually lol, I'm not sure how that map would actually work
Okay so
I'll find out
Any map from Gl_3(7) factors through the abelianization you’re right
And this is finite
Yeah I just confirmed this myself too
So you could theoretically write it down as a product of a bunch of Z/nZ
And then you’re reduced to just asking which of those admit maps to Z/3Z
And then you can take any product of those
So it really comes down to writing down the abelianizariin of your group in some normal form
Yeah as before, you should focus on that
Maybe everyone already said this

But I just thought of it and didn’t want to reread everything

Associativity is an underpinning of group theory. Non-associative loops do not constitute symmetries. I could just use some help to wrap my head around what associativity actually brings to the table that makes it fundamental to symmetry.
I think it's because function composition does it, and symmetries are bijections
So Loops are not bijections?
Loops? Cycles?
what is a loop for you here
yeah.. but discord won't inline that, sorry. A Magma with divisibility and identity, but not necessarily associativity.
Groups obey four axioms. Loops are the superset of that which only obeys the first three.
@rustic crown
@coral spindle
MIT OCW has a course on Lie Algebras iirc.
Multiplication by an element in a quasigroup is a bijection
The operation just doesn't correspond to function composition
Then it sounds like symmetries being bijections wouldn't play into it.
Group multiplication behaves like function composition in a way that other quasigroup multiplication is not guaranteed to, and somehow that is important to describe symmetries. But I don't know how.
I feel like Euclid trying to work out a justification for an ugly fifth postulate. 🙂
I don't know what to say 
Symmetries work by having a state of an object, altering it, and obtaining another state of an object
In geometry, the fifth postulate relates to the Gaussian curvature of the space being considered, so altering or omitting it has a physically meaningful analog.
So by the very nature they must behave like functions
Say, not symmetry but more like a change of a state
To me that sounds like a bijection though.
So I suppose from external direct sums you get new modules from old (meaning you take the cartesian product, and define component-wise operations). Classic example: R^n. But I asked that because isomorphism relations is not all we care about, equality is also important. For example, Z^2=Z+Z (as an internal sum, and literal equality) is not exactly correct (Z is not even a submodule of Z^2). Sure, Z is isomorphic to (1,0)Z, but it is also isomorphic to (2,0)Z and (0,2)Z, and definitely, Z^2 is not equal to (2,0)Z+(0,2)Z. You may say this example is rather trivial, but sometimes, I think, this stuff may matter. That's why I asked.
Yes? But quasi-groups aren't just bijections. This is a product Q x Q to Q which happens to be bijective coordinate-wise, but if you try taking x(yz) then it's not necessarily (xy)z so treating elements of Q as maps on Q with product inherited from Q doesn't give you that xy is composition of functions.
So while they are bijections, you don't compose them like bijections
So how an element of quasi-group acts on itself doesn't matter as much when composing them
Which is associativity said multiple times but in a different way
Redundancy coming from intuitive treatment of the subject, i. e. concept of symmetry
Symmetries are just bijections
But composing symmetries is to compose functions
Enough said
is there any kind of easy criteria to check if a polynomial with rational coefficients F(x,y) can be decomposed as G(x,y)*(ax+b)+H(x)?
calculus things, does x = b/a have to be some kind of minimum maybe? random thought
if u took the partial wrt y?
dF/dy = dG/dy * (ax+b) so it should have the same linear term in it
maybe that's as good as it gets, which isn't terrible I suppose
yeah, I could use rational root theorem I suppose too
Am I missing something? Take G(x, y) = F(x, y), a = 0, b = 1, H(x) = 0
And here you go

well, a!=0
I suppose I should also clarify a,b are rational as well and the coeffs on G and H are rational too
actually this is pretty decent for my case, I don't care which variable is which, so I have two shots at it. try to find a linear factor in y on F_x or a linear factor in x on F_y
this is long division right
yh, think it always works. surprised ig
Does euclidean alg not work on the original thing. i assume u tried
yeah, in the F_y case it'll be looking at coefficients which are polynomials in y, so it might not be so easy
I considered it but didn't really get anywhere, maybe I didn't try hard enough lol
You can always divide with remainder if you’re dividing by a polynomial with a unital leading coefficient
So you can at least write F = G•(xa + b) + H(x,y)
I imagine that you can show this expression is unique in the same way division with reminader in a Euclidean domain is unique
And if that’s the case you just can do a divisor with remainder to get an H and then check if it’s a polynomial only in x
well if I'm not misunderstanding you, I'm thinking once I get (ax+b) from F_y = G_y (ax+b) I already know H(x,y) doesn't depend on y because it got killed by the y derivative
I don’t understand. If you take the y-derivative of H you get F_y - G_y(ax + b)
I don’t see how you can conclude this is 0?
I think I'm looking at something different than you
I don't know ax+b before hand
I took this expression
Wait what are a and b?
You aren’t fixing them?
I'm starting from a polynomial F(x,y) with rational coefficients and wanting some criteria to show if I can factor it in this form G(x,y)*(ax+b)+H(x), I don't know what the G, H, or a,b will be
yeah it's sorta annoying yeah
also I should probably restate a != 0 so it's not trivial
also it doesn't matter if the variable is x or y, just that I can factor out a linear term in one variable out of it, F(x,y)=G(x,y)*(ay+b)+H(y) would be fine too
x and y are just arbitrary labels, and really for any change of variables I could probably be fine too, well, admittedly this question isn't that important for what I was doing so I hadn't thought about it too much lol
With sets, a function f has a left inverse if and only if f is injective. This is not true if f has to preserve some structure on the sets (for example, in the case of modules). However, that still holds (unsurprisingly) in the case of vector spaces. I think this is category theory, but I write this in case someone has something interesting to say 😮
(I am asking about the question of necessary and sufficient conditions so that a morphism has a left-inverse)
choice might lurk
it doesn't lurk in modules
not even for right inverses, which is fun lol
I think the general answer is very similar for the case of modules, but I'm clueless as to how you would express it
Not if you restrict to finite dimensional vector spaces
The only thing you need is to make use of the fact t hat every vector space has a basis
And showing t hat every injection has a set theoretic retract doesn’t need choice, you need this to produce one-sided inverses to surjevtions because you have to pick one element in every fiber
I suppose that question is equivalent to the following: Given a structure X and a substructure Y of X, when can we extend a morphism with domain Y and some fixed codomain to a morphism on the whole set X so that the restriction to Y is the same.
https://math.stackexchange.com/a/3023502 can anyone tell me how this guy moved from the first summation to the second one (group theory conjugacy question)
It’s factoring
We're summing up |C(a)| for every element of the group, but we will collect elements together according to their having the same conjugacy class, in which case their centraliser has the same order (you should be able to prove this easily). So writing Cl(a) for the conjugacy class of a, then choosing representatives of each conjugacy class we can simply sum up |Cl(a)| * |C(a)| for each representative, instead of all the |C(a)| for each element of the group.
Hopefully that's the transformation you were talking about there.
Oh, right. They do explain that there.
Well if you can be more specific about what's confusing you, that would be helpful.
There are |Cl(a)| elements which are conjugate to a
They all contribute |C(a)| to the sum
Hence in total they contribute |Cl(a)| * |C(a)|.
Is that clear?
how does each thing in Cl(a) contribute |C(a)| to the sum?
Because if a and b are conjugate, then |C(a)| = |C(b)|.
so if i pick something in Cl(a), this is just an element b where b = gag^-1 for some g
Yes, that is the definition.
but this isn't an element of C(b)
No, who says so?
C(b) is all g where gbg^-1 = b
Yes.
we have gag^-1 = b
For some specific g in G, yes.
that's C(b)
Yes what about it?
is the elements which fix b under conjugation
Why is that relevant?
I think you're confusing yourself in some way that I cannot quite work out.
Let's review some definitions.
Cl(a) = {gag^-1 | g in G}
yes
C(a) = {g in G | gag^-1 = a}.
so all elements conjugate to a
Great.
and all elements which fix a under conj, sure
Exercise: if b is in Cl(a), then |C(b)| = |C(a)|. Hint: conjugation.
Now let's look at the problem at hand
Hopefully you are aware that the conjugacy classes, Cl(a), partition G.
yeah
Great.
i understand the rest of everything
in the proof
just dont get the factoring piece
OK
Let's say each of a_1, a_2, ... a_n are conjugate, and b_1, b_2, ..., b_m are conjugate
So Cl(a_1) = {a_1, ..., a_n}
If you have an inner product of vectorspace V does this induce a innerproduct on End(V)?
OK
So
The sum we're looking at
is |C(a_1)| + ... + |C(a_n)| + |C(b_1)| + ... |C(b_m)|.
N.b. of course that n = |Cl(a_1)|, m = |Cl(b_1)|.
Now note
since |C(a_1)| = |C(a_i)| for any i
we have that this is equal to |C(a_1)| + ...(n times)... + |C(a_1)| + (the same for b_i)
Do you see that?
sure
|C(a_1)| = |C(a_i)|
i guess i need to show this
it's the fact u gave before though
Then you're done. Because this is just |Cl(a_1)| * |C(a_1)| + |Cl(b_1)| * |C(b_1)|.
This should be clear now, yes?
We're summing over classes rather than elements of the group, now.
Is this clear?
more clear, sure
no it's not totally clear
OK well I don't know what else to say. I'm afraid I need to sleep now. Maybe someone else can help you with any specific questions you have.
i dont get why there's a_i and b_i now
i mean i just have 1 set of representatives, yes?
rather im choosing a set of reps
and you can't have Cl(a_1) = {a_1, a_2, ...., a_N}
because the representatives aren't supposed to sit in the same class..they define different classes
they are by definition the things not equivalent under the relation of conjugation
so no, this isn't clear at all
like if a_2 was conjugate to a_1 it wouldnt be a representative of a different conjugacy class, it'd just be something in Cl(a_1)
but i guess he had to leave immediately after the explanation
|C(a_i)| = |C(a_1)|
there are no a_i in Cl(a_1)
are you mixing notation
a_i is a representative of a conjugacy class
no they arent
I literally defined them as that
if a_2 is in Cl(a_1) then a_2 is in the same conjugacy class as a_1 and so a_1 ~ a_2
The representatives are b_1 and a_1 in this miniature example
so they cant be reps
You have just invented this idea that the a_i are representatives.
no i didnt
it's in the proof, and you said it before
but ok if theyre not reps then fine
Lmfao
I'm not going to continue, I should be sleeping.
You can figure this out yourself
why are you getting angry
i just said "if they're not representatives then this is fine"
anyways i think i get it now
Let X ={0,...,n} for n a fixed number. Is there always a group G such that G acts freely and transitively on X?
Cn or am i missing something
Yes, cycles are fixed-point free
I knew that much, I guess I just was wondering if there were more
Because for n=4, I could see the cases 3 cases of just "rotating" the set through, and swapping the first 2 and second two elements
so that is a group with 5 elements at least
if n is composite u can chop it up into smaller cycles?
I doubt there is a full classification for general n, but there are surely more
nvm not transitive
ugh ok this is annoying
So about 5 days ago, at my colleges math club, my buddy posed the question: "What is the probablility that, if you drew n uno cards, that there is some order in which you can play those n cards, following normal uno rules"
We simplified the problem to the case of 4 colors, 10 cards. I represented this as a 4x10 graph
I started reading about Cayley graphs, and was curious of the graph of "playable cards from a point" is a cayley graph, and I believe it is, meaning that, for any L suits and W cards per suit, there is a group corresponding to the set of all legal moves from a given point
I wanted to do a combinatorial argument based off the cosets and compositions, because I found what I think is a strictly combinatorial solution
anyway, where this problem arises is looking at how to construct the graph itself. A cayley graph for GxH is the cartesian product graph of both. So, I wanted to find the group representing the free transitive permutations on L and W elements, and look at the product group
Very roundabout way of doing it, especially since the graph gets far more complex when you add wild cards and duplicates, but if the group structure idea holds, we're in business
That's pretty cool. Not sure if I have anything to add right now but those are all interesting problems
"what happens when a statistician, an algebraist, and an actuary play uno" would be another appropriate setup
Lmao
In your graph, are the nodes numbers, suit of the next card coloured edges and "is a legal move" the rule that connects two vertices?
so far we ignore coloring of nodes/edges, but ye
Well the edge colouring matters for cayley graphs
Nodes are tuples of (C, N), for C a color and N a number
Oh it does?

I was focusing on using this theorem:
Cayley graphs as I know them are generally defined wrt a set of generators, edges represent multiplication by generators and each edge in coloured appropriately
Maybe you can disregard the edge colouring in some definition?
According to this article, I can recover the generating set S, as well as the coloring from a graph, assuming it is Cayley
Math wikipedia is full of surprises
update: I'm dumb and that transposition makes the action not free
If you transpose then shift, it fixes some elements
Do you have that every irreducible rep is a sub rep of the regular representation?
If so then you might be able to show that the regular rep is the sum of only the reps you’ve found
and you can abuse that you know exactly what that sum is
what's a unit?
Of what
in Z/nZ
ah ok thanks
I read this and the question of trying to characterise them is a very interesting one
Here's a small observation
If I'm not mistaken, the subgroup of S_4 generated by (1 2)(3 4) and (2 3)(4 1) acts freely and transitively on {1,2,3,4}.
I believe it is a subgroup of order 4 (again, I may be mistaken), and is isomorphic to V_4
This leads me to believe that characterising these groups will likely involve partitions of n, or perhaps more likely just divisors of n.
Think I agree. If you have a product of unequally sized disjoint cycles, it cannot be free
Oh cool lol this looks like one of those questions where it should be trivial or smth but it really isn't xd
eg. ((12)(3456))^2 fixes 1, 2
More generally
((1...k)(k+1...n))^k fixes 1, ..., k
So any free permutation group on n elements needs to have elements that are products of n/k equally sized disjoint cycles for some k
why do people choose to keep everything on the same side
i.e.
why not write (v_1 + v_2) ⊗ w = v_1 ⊗ w + v_2 ⊗ w
The point is that you mod out by those things
It is more natural to just give a list of relations - stuff we set to 0
<a, b | aba^-1b^-1> or <a, b | ab=ba>, think most prefer the former
I see
If G acts freely and transitively on a nonempty set A, then choose and fix a0 in A. Then for each a in A there is exactly one g in G such that g(a0) = a, so we get a bijection between G and A. Through this bijection G acts on itself rather than on A, with an action that satisfies g(e) = g for all g. But then g(h) = g(h(e)) = gh(e) = gh, so the action is exactly the group's standard self-action by left multiplication.
So the free transitive group actions are, up to bijection, exactly the standard group self-actions.
And the free transitive actions on {1,...,n} are just the groups of order n.
Oh fair enough
Also @coral spindle
DMd for semi dox reasons
Yeah I realised this, that’s a very cool observation. I guess this means that this is as hard as classifying all groups haha
Can you explain this..
<a, b> must have order a multiple of lcm(ord(a), ord(b)) = 2, but also divides 3! by lagrange. It's not 2 as it has to contain HK, so it's 6. idk if that's the argument
what does not seem straightforward?
Might be the wrong channel: the question is from representation theory. Say I have the group $G=\left\langle\begin{pmatrix} a & b \ 0 & d \end{pmatrix}\right\rangle$ and the represntation $\rho$ in $\mathbb{C}^2$ is just left-multiplication. If I am not mistaken, this representation falls apart as two subrepresentations with $\text{diag}(a,1)$ and $\begin{pmatrix} 1 & b/a \ 0 & c \end{pmatrix}$ whenever $a,b,c\neq 0$. I ought to compute $\text{Hom}G(\rho,\rho)$ (the intertwiners) or at least its dimension, which I have a hunch is of dimension 2 (I am not sure how to calculate this). This should be a counterexample to Schur's lemma, in the sense that it shows that the factors of the decomposition from before not being semisimple means that $\dim\mathbb{C} \text{Hom}_G(\rho,\rho)\neq 1$. Can anyone help me out with this? The calculation of the intertwiners. Thanks in advance.
miqq
The problem in question, book is An introduction to representation theory by Kowalski.
Hello!
can anyone recommend a good book for lie algebra?
one that is not written scientifically but mostly for intuitive understanding
I knew the problem was more interesting than Z/nZ!
Well you'll like Tropo's observation here @acoustic pine
Very well written too
So as I mentioned, this problem is as hard as finding all groups of order n. Which is to say... very hard indeed lol
But I guess it's easy when n is prime!!! 🤪
Or 1
I think I figured it out if anyone is interested. Let $\langle e_1, e_2\rangle$ be a basis for $\mathbb{C}^2$. Then the subspace $\langle e_1 \rangle$ is invariant under the action of $\rho$ and is a 1-dimensional subrepresentation $\tilde{\rho}$ say. Being 1-dimensional means it's irreducible. If $\rho$ were semisimple, then there should be one other subrepresentation $\pi$ which should also be on some invariant subspace and that $\tilde{\rho}\oplus\pi\cong\rho$. However, any other possible subspace (so the two generated by $e_2$ or $e_1+e_2$ are not invariant, hence $\rho$ can't be semisimple. What $\text{hom}G(\rho,\rho)$ ought to be still eludes me, but at least I've established $\rho$ not to be semisimple. I do think that $\rho$ decomposes somehow like $\rho \cong \tilde{\rho}\bigoplus{i=1}^\infty \rho$ hence the intertwiner set is actually just injections/projections. I could be wrong though.
miqq
The smallest $n$ such that $Z_2 \times Z_4$ is a subgroup of $S_n$ is n = 6 ?
ru0xffian
Hm interesting question
I am inclined to think yes but it's not easy to prove
I think you'll have to argue via generators
We can see that n is at most 6
Can you somehow reduce to A_n
Idk, I think I would try to check for all lower n
And verify it’s not possible
I just tried to work with group presentation it's generated by an element of order 4 and element of order 2 such that they commute
Can’t be <4 by number of elements, can’t be 4 as a 4 cycle can’t commute with a product of 1 or 2 disjoint transpositions
And I think a similar argument rules out 5
Very nice
Yeah I think that does it
(1, 1) needs to be a permuation consisting of disjoint 2 and 4-cycles
So it does have to be 6
Yeah I argued similarly
I have worked through some small examples of this thing before
Like, finding minimal faithful actions
Finding the number for the cyclic groups is quite interesting.
I won't spoil in case you're interested in working it out in general
yeah, so (1, 1) needs to be multiple of at least one 4-cycle and at least one 2-cycle
disjoint*
Is it ||sum of prime factors, counting multiplicities (eg. Z/4Z would be 2 + 2 = 4)||?
Ah not quite
I mean for example what would Z/8Z be? It's not too hard to see this must be embedded in Sym(8), and nothing smaller
An instructive example is working out Z/6Z
🤦 If I’d actually tried to work out my example through the proof I had, I would have seen it didn’t work ||but I believe that the same proof shows that it’s the sum of the highest powers of each prime dividing it, and that this follows quite easily from the fact that Z/p^k Z minimally embeds in S_{p^k}, and the Chinese remainder theorem (and the fact that if two cycles of different (coprime?) length are either disjoint, or don’t commute)||
Yeah, that was nice
I figured out you can also embed Dih(2n) in the same way. Like the minimal faithful action of Dih(2n) and Z/nZ has the same size
Which I thought was really cool
The only exception is n=2.
what's more immediately useful to study: multi-linear algebra or universal algebra?
I would say it depends on what you'd like to do after.
For me, multilinear algebra would be more useful, because I like geometry.
It's hard to rate one subject over another as more useful in general.
Neither of those are particularly widely applicable, to be quite frank with you
There are better places to look. If you're personally interested though, this is your choice
< (12),(23) >
Is the set of all finite products of (12), (23), and their inverses.
So that gets you:
(12),
(12)(12) = e
(23)
(12)(23) = ( 123 )
Anything else?
in general angle brackets mean the group generated by x, or in this case (1 2) and (2 3)
Yeah multi linear algebra is lowkey just subsumed into linear algebra via tensor product and related things
I think the theory of bilinear forms and stuff is a notable exception where there’s useful and interesting stuff to say which doesn’t readily fall into that category
But besides that, not really
idk wym that they're not "widely applicable".
Mmm... good to know on the multi-linear stuff.
Thanks.

Multilinear algebra is just a small part of linear algebra, and universal algebra doesn't really have any results that can be used elsewhere.
Universal algebra btfo.
It's a nice little bit of perspective, and it's fun
Universal algebra is something you learn because you like it IMO
Yeah as I said, if you're personally interested then that's your choice
It just isn’t a very good payout if you’re looking at like usefulness to time
So... you all have studied universal algebra then?
I've done a little.
If you're wanting a top-down view of mathematical structures, model theory would be more worthwhile.
Multilinear algebra is, in my experience, the kind of thing you learn because you're using it for something else. You don't really do it for its own sake.
It is easy to think that because it says "multi" on front, it's an upgrade!
I'd argue the top-down view of mathematical structures is category theory
(23)(12)=(132)
do differential geometry
No, but everyone that ever studies universal algebra that I’ve talked to never has anything to really show for it. All I’ve seen is that they say words like quasi ring, semi groups, semi ring, etc and then they can’t say anything useful you can do with them
They do have applications in symplectic geometry
Like if you want to describe algebraic structures like this, I think operads also do that
And operads are very important in higher categorical stuff
I'm interested. Go on.
Yeah I mean, that’s the first I’ve heard of it, but I don’t think it makes sense to study these weird esoteric structures just because you might eventually use it when you become a symplectic geometer. It seems like something you should just pickup when you find yourself needing it, which is also the case with multi linear algebra
This is all again just assuming you don’t want to study these things for their own sake
I see what you mean. I am inclined to agree with you. It's a nice tool to have in the toolbox, but certainly not something to delve too deep in
Where does universal algebra see application in symplectic geometry?
Grigori Perelman ftw
Is there anything else?
The claim is that you can get all of S_3.
Are you able to make a 2-way containment argument?
Showing isomorfisms between symplectic manifolds, and quoting (I think? translating from Swedish) certain tangent spaces. I know it has certain applications in the knot theory part of symplectic geometry

Any references?
Are you looking for books or pdf:s on the topic?
On the applications of universal algebra you're mentioning.
I've studied symplectic geometry, but have never seen universal algebra in it.
Maybe I have the wrong idea of what universal algebra is
I interpreted it as abstract algebra
Yes, you're right. I was thinking of abstract algebra for some reason. My bad, ignore my gibberish
All good, it happens.
universal algebra can give you an eagle-eye view on some things
that said, multi-linear algebra 100%
I did study universal algebra before
Hmm.... what's more useful...
Graph Theory or Multi-linear algebra?
depends on where tbh
in applications graphs are really common
algorithms etc
but like if you study physics for example then probably multilinear algebra
but you could dive into manifolds at that point
well, not that multilinear algebra is only used there, it has applications in geometric measure theory too for example
in algebra in general
tensor products of modules, so I guess, it kind of incorporates some fundamentals for you to do homological algebra
I agree, at least with the first part
yep. There is some things that you learn while doing universal algebra but that's a time that could be probably better spent doing something like further studying ring theory or number theory, if you're into that kind of stuff
Btw, a modern book about universal algebra is Bergman's Universal algebra
I picked up Grazter's from the library.
🤷
it does mention Hilbert nullstelensatz few times so I guess it's better to dive into it with some algebra knowledge already
personally I read Sankappanavar
Universal algebra has enjoyed a particularly explosive growth in the last twenty years, and a student entering the subject now will find a bewildering amount of material to digest. This text is not intended to be encyclopedic; rather, a few themes central to universal algebra have been developed ...
?
Is the the Dihedral group of order 24 subgroup of $S_n$ for $n < 12 $ ?
ru0xffian
Yes. See a lot of the discussion above, or consider the rotation subgroup’s embedding
Are you asking if its a subgroup for all such symmetric groups? Well, no, because it's order exceeds those of S_2, S_3, etc.
But, iirc, there's a theorem that all groups are isomorphic to some subgroup of a corresponding symmetric group.
So probably since S_4 has 24 elements, good chance it's a subgroup of that or at least S_n>5.
Starting here #groups-rings-fields message
Yes
Got it thanks
It embeds into ||S7|| by something like ||r -> (123)(4567) and s -> (23)(57)||
Is this the correct set of iso classes of group order 72 using versions I and II of fundamental theorem
Using that z_mn = z_m x z_n iff GCD of m n is 1
yes by arrows i mean iso @void cosmos
then yea
sweet thanks! preparing for an algebra exam lol
btw
this is not the classification of groups of order 72
its the classification of abelian groups of order 72
up to isomorphism
no just abelian
yes
up to iso
im dealing w abeilan groups using the fundmentla theorem for abelian groups
yea
version 1 requires the group be finitely generated
version 2 just requires ableian of order n>1
yea
cool thanks!!!!
am I understanding this correctly. let's say it's finite, and a group is a simple group, but it doesn't guarantee any subgroup of it simple?
Yeah
Like, if your group has an element of order nm, where these aren’t 1
Then the subgroup generated by it has a normal subgroup
Of order say, n
So any element of composite order not equal to |G| will break this
gotya thank you
screenshot is from my lecture notes of Lie Algebra class. Why is the eigenvalue non-zero?
ig adₓ is [x,.]
yep
bc it is non abelian there is a x st [x,.] is non zero
bc it is ad-diagonalizable, every ad_x is diagonalizable (by def ig, I don't know the def of ad-diagonalizable lol)
so [x,.] has an eigenvector
with non zero eigenvalue
bcp if every eigenvalue of [x,.] were 0, it would be 0 since it is diagonalizable
Thanks! That makes sense!
Help, I can't see this. I can see that [x, [y, -]] = [y, [x, -]] since x and y commute and the adjoint representation is a homomorphism from g to gl(g). But why do [x, -] and [y, -] have common eigenvectors?
"Simultaneously diagonalizable" means that there is a basis which diagonalizes both of them, i.e., which consists of eigenvectors of each. It's a general linear algebra fact that commuting diagonalizable operators are simultaneously diagonalizable.
I'm not completely familiar with the Lie algebra stuff being thrown around here, but I think that'll do it for you.
ahh thanks!
yeah it doesn't seem to have anything to do with Lie algebra
this is the definition of the tensor product
what exactly is addition in the vector space L
I am confused because it says V x W is a basis
It’s formal sums of simple tensors v (x) w
Except you can like factor according to the rules described there
So like v (x) w + v’ (x) w = (v + v’) (x) w
These are symbols
In that they call these (v,w)
Anyway, just look this up in a book
this is (v + v', w) ?
Don’t learn it from Wikipedia
Sure
any recs
Like any book on abstract algebra lol
ok
I know what a quotient space is
but "modding over these relations" is confusing to me
Well then
I don’t think you should be learning what a tensor product is
Unless you’re only doing it for vector spaces
Or you need it for a specific purpose
only for vector spaces
These are a mildly advanced construction
Oh well then like
Idk look it up in Intro to Smooth manifolds or something
They describe it for vector spaces
It’s way easier there
Let H be cyclic and N some arbitrary subgroup. If \phi \psi are injective homomorphisms from H --> Aut(N) such that phi(H) = psi(H) show that N ⋉_phi H ~= N ⋉_psi H
would the easiest thing to do here be construct an isomorphism?
oh the ascii is backwards
sec
Let $H$ be cyclic and $N$ some arbitrary somegroup. If $\phi, \psi$ are injective homomorphisms from $H$ to $Aut(N)$ with $\phi(H) = \psi(H)$ so that $N \rtimes_{\phi} H \cong N \rtimes_{\psi} H$
*-algebra
heh..help
should the identity map between these two define an isomorphism
oh no it's something a little more careful like $(n,h) \mapsto (n,h^a)$
*-algebra
I need some help on this question
I believe that the composition series of $G$ is $F_{20} \supset D_5\supset \ZZ_5\supset{1}$, but then I found that the commutator subgroup of $G$ has order $5$
pramana
Okay
I need to show every submodule of M/N can be written as L+N/N for some submodule L of M
My proof
There is a correspondence between submodules of M containing N and submodules of M/N
Let S be a submodule of M/N
then there is corresponding submodule L in M that contains N
L contains N implies N=L cap N
Using second isomorphism theorem we have that L/L cap N isomorphic to L+N/N
S is isomorphic to L/L cap N?
Do you know the proof that like
Every ideal of R/I is of the form J/I where J contains I?
The proof will be exactly the same, you basically just need to note that if J > I, then J + I = J
Except for modules it’s like, if L > N, then L + N = L
Also same result for groups!
oh okay
I don’t think you need to use a second iso here
Rather, second iso sort of is predicated on this result in some sense
i guess I dont
As is 3rd iso
So S in M/N is in form L/N for some L in M containing N and L=L+N
N is subgroup of L?
Sub module
But that really is just a set theoretic inclusion
So like in general, if you have L < M, and look at L’s imagr inside of M/N
This will be equal to the set (L + N)/N
But what you really want is a bijevtion between submodules of M/N
yes
And some set of submodules of M
So start with a submodule of M
This is why you stipulate that L > N
Because both L and L+N correspond to (L+N)/N
But among all the submodules of M which correspond to (L+N)/N
Aka those whose image is that set
Only one of them contains N
Namely that’s like, L + N
So if we look at the map
{L a sub module of M, L > N} -> {submodules of M/N}
Where the map sends L to L/N
This is a bijection
The inverse takes a sub module of M/N, and sends it to the inverse image
Under the map M -> M/N
Wait you knew that fact already?

I only did for rings though
lol woo
Yeah the proof works exactly the same
walter
This can be ignored 🙂 I forgot how the diagonal action works and made a goofy mistake
Can someone check a proof: If $R$ is a commutative ring and $I,J\leq R$ are ideals such that $I\subseteq\sqrt J$, then $\sqrt I\subseteq\sqrt J$.
Proof: $I\subseteq\sqrt J\implies\sqrt I\subseteq\sqrt{\sqrt J}=\sqrt J$.
cucaracha
Seems fine to me if you've shown that radicals preserve inclusion and that the radical of the radical of J is just the radical of J
Ye
if K and F are both finite fields and G = Gal(K/F) acts on K then does there always exist an element z of K with Stab_G(z) = {1}?
why ? If you take a subextension K'/F, then Gal(K/K') is a subgroup of Gal(K/F) and it's containing the stabiliser of points of K'
and it is probably non trivial
Anyone know a tool for generating Cayley Graphs for known groups?
Does this question make sense like
Stabilisers would normally be defined for elements of K
Given that a finite Group G acts transitively and faithfully on a finite set $\Omega$, with $|\Omega|>1$
Show that the fixed point free permutations generate a transitive normal subgroup of G.
I am sitting on this for about 2 hours now and just managed to show that there exists at least one fix point free element, would anyone mind giving me a bit of help with the approach?
Philip
How many units can a ring have?
|R|-1, where R is your ring
this doesn't answer the question
i think not at least
so if F is a fintie field, then there are F-1 units, but this number is of the form p^k-1
and Z[i] has four units
oh well I guess it's in that form. Are those all the possibilities?
also, I forgot to mention that I'm more interested in the case that our ring has characteristic zero
i mean if K and F are both finite fields and G = Gal(K/F) acts on K then does there always exist an element z of K with Stab_G(z) = {1}?
Ah, you mean if the number of units a ring can have underlies some restrictions other than maximum and minimum?
I'm not following you ?
If you adjoin an inverse of 2 in Z, then you will also get an inverse of 4, 8, 16 and so on, so you will get infintiely many units
Im not quite sure what exactly you are asking for
Given a ring R of characteristic 0, how many units can R contain?
Oh okay so the homework problem lol
Well hint: what do you know about the group of units of a finite field?
I think you generally can have 2k units for any k\in \N
it’s generated by 1?
This is true for any (finite) galois extension, interestingly enough
i know why it’s true when the fields are infinite but not when they’re finite
there is a proof that works in the infinite case but not the finite one? very interesting
yeah it uses fixed fields of elements of G
also the group of units is obviously not generated by 1, that would just be the trivial group
i mean cyclic
it assumes that if K/F is a finite extension then G is finite
Yes it is cyclic
Once you know it is cyclic this is a one liner
So think about it a bit more
You don't need to use the fact G is finite
so G acts on K\ {0} which is cyclic
so if a is the generator of this cyclic group then any automorphism of K that fixes a would also fix all K, so no non trivial automorphism fixes a right? so stab_G(a) = {id}
But this would imply that the 2p-th cyclotomic ring has only 2p units, I don't think that is the case?
I don't know about cyclotomic rings, so idk
Question about proof verification
For showing a group of order 112 is not simple can o suppose that it is simple then n2, n7 can’t be 1
112 = 7•2^4 where
n7 = 1 or 8
And n2 = 1 or 7
Assuming simplicity we get
n7=8 and n2=7
Thus there’s 6 times 8 elements of order 7
And 7 times 15 elements of order 2 contradicting the group having order 112
Does this work ?
As 105 +48 > 112
@ me with either a verify or critique
Anyone??
Here is some info on this question: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3367423/is-every-group-the-unit-group-of-some-ring
Turns out it's fairly hard to answer this. For instance, there is no ring with precisely 5 units.
The first answer is the one I refer to for this fact.
This is false.
It is true when R is a finite field, certainly, but there are plenty of finite rings which are not fields.
What is an example of a minimal spanning set that contains no torsion elements?
and that it is not linearly independent *
Sure
Consider the Z-module Q
Well actually now that I say that, that has no minimal spanning set
I just read that modules need not have minimal spanning sets 😮 crazyyy algebra is blowing my mind today
Certainly one of minimal cardinality but not minimal by inclusion
that was probably expected, but didn't think about it
I mean minimal with set inclusion, not cardinality
I know.
I'm thinking.
OK so consider the ring $\mathbb Z[X]$, and consider the ideal $I=(2, X)$. Clearly as a $\mathbb Z[X]$-module, this is spanned by these non-torsion elements $2$ and $X$, but it's not too hard to see that $I$ is nonprincipal, hence this is a minimal spanning set. However these are not $\mathbb Z[X]$-linearly independent, since $X\cdot2 + (-2)\cdot X = 0$.
Come on TeX...
Boytjie
I think $\mathbb Z[\sqrt 2, 1/2 \sqrt 2]$ over $\mathbb Z$ is an example. The set being ${1,\sqrt 2,\frac 12\sqrt 2}$
Croqueta
Uh that's not right, you can just omit sqrt(2) and you get a smaller spanning set.
oh right
I think my example works just fine :)
thanks for the example 👍
I think you can also take the span of (6,15) over Z, then (6,15) is a minimal spanning set, but not linearly independent
That doesn't work either. In fact any finitely generated torsion-free Z-module will not work.
I urge you to find a smaller spanning set there.
that's 3Z no?
It is indeed. So it is generated by 3.
yes, but I meant the set {6,15}, which doesn't contain 3
Ah right, I see.
yeah
In that case you can find arbitrarily large examples of that within Z itself.
this works as before because there are we can solve 6x=15y but x and y will be non-units
and their gcd is 3, which is strictly smaller than any of them
So in general, you just want a set of vectors such that there exists a non-trivial linear combination equal to zero, but such that all the coefficients are all non-units
Then, this set will be a minimal spanning set of the set they span but it will also be linearly dependent
I should move on, but whatever. Let $R$ be a ring, and put $X=\bigcup_{i\in I}{x_i}$ and consider the ring of polynomials $R[X]$ as a module over itself. Let $Y$ be a proper subset of $X$. Then $Y$ is linearly dependent, but it is a minimal spanning set of $\text{Span}(Y)$.
Croqueta
Is this true? I think I came up with a proof for the case when R is an integral domain, but I don't know if I'm being completelly delusional
The second part certainly isn't true, and in fact you pointed out a counterexample earlier
:)
oh yeah the second part is stupid
As for the first part, I'm thinking
the second part doesn't follow from my "proof"
This should be the correct statement I think
The first part is also not true (I think I have an example) but I think if you require that L be spanning as well as L.I. then it is true – haven't checked.
This is still not right.
I can make minimal spanning sets of Z that are arbitrarily large
yeah lol
Let me demonstrate
Let p_1, ..., p_n be distinct primes
Then set x_i = the product of all the p_j, except when i = j – we omit that
you take a bunch of integers, that are all coprime, but every subset is not coprime
Yes that is right
This set x_1, ..., x_n spans z and is minimal
So anyway
For a counterexample for the first one, consider the ring R = k<X,Y> of non-commuting polynomials over some field k. Doesn't matter which field.
Then the set {X, Y} is l.i. but is of larger cardinality than the spanning set {1}.
(this is within the module R over itself)
(left module, of course)
My idea was to "close" the R-module M into a vector space V over the field of fractions F of R in a natural manner. So that a subset of M was independent if and only if it was independent in the vector space closure over F
I think that does work for domains R, yes. You could make this construction explicit with localisation or the tensor product.
This is the localisation, yes.
It would be best if you specified that the set L is going to be R-lin ind in M, but Frac(R)-lin ind in V
pi is the map that sends v to (v,1), etc
This is clear, yes
I thought about that
but shouldn't that be true?
It is, yes
You only really need to prove the 2nd part. The 1st part follows immediately
yes
But then, if $S$ spans $M$ and $L$ is linearly independent (over $R$), then $\pi(S)$ spans $V$ and $\pi(L)$ is linearly independent (over Frac$(R)$), therefore $|\pi(L)|\leq |\pi(S)|$
Croqueta
and pi is injective
Yes
so then |L|\leq |S| ?
For domains R, yes
Although actually
It is not true in general that pi is injective
But your conclusion that |L| \leq |S| is correct, just for slightly more subtle reasons.
If S is minimal spanning set in $M$ then $|S|-1=\dim(V)$ and so for any other spanning set $S'$, $|S|-1\leq |S'|$.
Croqueta
The problem is that pi is not injective?
But this is wrong, we've seen this before
Again, minimal spanning sets can be arbitrarily large
Can someone verify if I did this correct
yes, that's why I ask if the problem is my assumption that pi was injective
Well indeed it is not true in general that pi is injective, so that is indeed wrong
I don't know how you've concluded that |S|-1 = dim(V) even in that case
But dim(V) means there is a l.i. spanning set of size dim(V), so that's just wrong
You can choose a basis like that
My idea was that if $S$ is a minimal spanning set in $M$, then $\pi(S)$ is a minimal spanning set in $V$, the vector space closure of $M$
Croqueta
Well again that's not true, and we've seen this
{2, 3} is a minimal spanning set for Z.
you are right
Yup
You can notice something about how pi behaves on S and L to show that |L| <= |S|.
I think in that case I mixed up the notions of linear independence and span
It is certainly true that |pi(L)| <= |pi(S)|. You should recall this.
Because it is not true that if pi(S) spans V then S spans M
so S can not span M while pi(S) spans V
That's true as well
Example: {2} over Z does not span Z, but {2} over Q spans Q
I urge you to think about this as you're very close
I'm lost at how pi is not injective. Recall that (v,a)=(w,b) if and only if bv=aw, therefore, pi(v)=pi(w) iff (v,1)=(w,1) iff v=w
Set M = Z/2Z.
Calculate V
Admittedly, I think this is due to an oversight with the way you constructed V. I need to think about what's missing.
The point is that since every element of M is torsion, everything gets sent to 0 under this construction
Yup indeed, (1 + 2Z, 1) ~ (0 + 2Z, 2) here
Could the issue be that this relation ~ isn't an equivalence? Let me think quickly
Yes indeed this is the issue.
You need to consider the transitive closure of ~.
Put simply, it is not the case that bv = aw iff (v,a)=(w,b) if you complete ~ to be an equivalence relation.
Whoops typo
yes I see
Would you like some hints for showing |L| <= |S|?
If the module is torsion free, then that relation is transitive tho
Indeed well done, you've noticed pi is injective on non-torsion elements

Of course it is not sufficient to look only at torsion-free modules, but you can use this fact
You should be very close now...
So every module is a direct sum of a torsion-free module and a torsion module
Sure, a bit unexpected but I'm interested
OK well
Hint: ||Elements of a basis are not torsion||
Suppose $M=M_\text{Tors}\oplus M/M_{Tors}$, then $V=\pi(M_{Tors})\oplus \pi(M/M_{tors})$
Croqueta
Yup
so torsion gets killed, is that what you were saying? :p
No that wasn't my hint
If you want to use this, you'll need of course to argue why this construction respects direct sums
Hopefully it's obvious why torsion modules go to 0
yes
If v is not torsion, then pi(v) cannot be torsion, because if a/b pi(v)=0 then a pi(v)=0 and so pi(av)=0, but pi is injective in the torsion free part
Nice
its crazy that you cannot really say anything in general about minimal spanning sets tho
Well they are kinda weird objects
I think we can be fooled by vector spaces into thinking that minimal spanning sets are nice
But no, it's just vector spaces that are nice haha
yeah, this is very tricky
If G is a group and H is a subgroup and for all h in H, there exists h' in H such that gh =g'h' for some g, g' in G, is this sufficient information to conclude gH = g'H, ie, that g, g' are representatives for the same coset?
Yes, that is enough.
