#groups-rings-fields
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Let $R, S$ be rings, $M$, $N$ a left and a right $R$ module, $X$, $Y$ a left and a right $S$ module.
We can build the product ring $R \times S$. Then we get for example that $M \times X$ is a left $R \times S$-module by componentwise action, right?
So, let's now consider the abelian group $(M \times X) \otimes_{R \times S} (N \times Y)$. My question is whether this is isomorphic to $(M \otimes_R N) \times (X \otimes_S Y)$?
expectTheUnexpected
is this good enough? feels kinda handwavey but idk what else to write
That's true, and in fact this is a R×S module isomorphism
How so? The tensor product is just an abelian group. (My rings are not assumed commutative)
Oops it's not an isomorphism of abelian groups nevermind
Thought about it more. It respect the scalar multiplication structure but not additive
there's an obvious map defined on simple tensors
$(m , x)\otimes (n, y) \mapsto (m \
$(m , x)\otimes (n, y) \mapsto (m \otimes n, x \otimes y)$
datorangeguy
but this is not a homomorphism of abelian groups
oh nm it is hahaha I keep flipping
so yeah that's your isomorphism
well... shoot that's not injective is it...
no it is! if both entries on the right are 0 then one of m is 0 and one of y is 0. By tensor relations this means it is 0. And it's surjective. So that's an isomorphism as it's a homomorphism of modules
tensor product of modules is between a right module and a left module, so that an R module structure is defined no matter if R is commutative. Without specifying if modules are given left or right action, there are multiple nonequivalent definitions of the tensor product as a group so it's assumed that M(x)N means M is a right module and N is a left module, with relations ar(x)b = a(x)rb but not ra(x)b = a(x)rb.
oh wait that's not right either ah
Your first sentence is incorrect. If M is right R, N is left R, then how do you define an R-module structure on (M ot N)?
I'm just dumb ignore me. but those groups were isomorphic definitely
So basically this was your map in the one direction
<= direction is wrong as you did not explain why |G| cannot have more than one prime factor.
Oh wait, that's the problem you had before @eager willow . The map I use to define f_1 is not additive. Is it?
no it's bilinear like it needs to be. Add things in either the first two or the second two entries to check, not all 4 entries.
oh haha
big dumb
yeah that's what I went through on paper and got confused about
very thank
I'm pretty sure that's because the "theory" in "wheel theory" doesn't even exist.
Wheels only exist so people on the internet can say "akshually you can divide by zero
"
imagine that for every object there were a "theory" of that object, xD
just fyi there's a characterization that occured to me to make me guess it was true that I've thought more on and does work. If you can accept that tensor product over a fixed ring is an additive functor, then your situation is just a special case where the RxS action on A and C is just via R (S torsion), and similarly B and D, and you're looking at $$(A\oplus B)\otimes(C \oplus D).$$ Then if you distribute all the terms and cancel the tensor products that are torsion, you get
$$(A\otimes C)\oplus(B\otimes D)$$
datorangeguy
I see, that is a lot easier and without whacky computations involving a million universal properties. Now I need only argue the simple fact that A \otimes_{R \times S} C \cong A \otimes_R C 👍
You can consider the smallest subfield containing the set.
Hello. If $A$ is a finite subset of $\mathbb{C}$ and $r, s \in \mathbb{C}$ are algebraically independent over $A$, then is there an automorphism of $\sigma$ of $\mathbb{C}$ such that $\sigma |_A$ is the identity and $\sigma (r) = s$?
MathPhysics
Probably
Honestly maybe if you showed some work
I have no idea.
MathStackExchange?
The answer is yes
I'd like to prove that $|G|$ is prime. $G$ is a group with more than 1 element and G has no proper nontrivial subgroups. I have already proved that $G$ is finite. Will this argument work to show that $|G|$ is prime?
Let $|G| = p$. Suppose WPOC that $p$ is not prime. Then, $p = nm$. $1 < n, m < p$ Let $a \in G$ be arbitrary such that $a^n = e$. So $<a>$ is a proper subgroup of G which is a contradiction.
DerpZ
The issue with your proof is that there doesn't necessarily exist an element of order n
Why does such an a exist
This is the right train of thought
The contradiction is fine right?
But as Walter said this isn’t possible, take like Z_2^4, every element has order 2
But 16 = 4•4
You have to work a bit harder
Yup I'll go think about it more, thanks!
Why?
is this reasoning correct
that sounds fine
i was starting an argument for each p=2,3,5 but then this occurred to me and it feels to simple (
) to be true
Does this idea work: Pick some a in G and form <a>. <a> is a subgroup of G for sure. So |<a>| <= |G| if <a> = G then proper subgroups can be found which is a contradiction. If |<a>| < |G| but again that's a contradiction because <a> is now again a proper subgroup of |G|.
why does <a> = G imply proper subgroups can be found?
im guilty of this too but usually when you have an idea, you can see for yourself if it works with like 5 minutes of work
we assumed |G| is not prime for contradiction
Wouldn't there be a proper subgroup of order |G|/k where k is a divisor of |G|
Yeah, that sounds better
You should try to elaborate on that step, can you be more explicit about how to construct the proper subgroup?
The subgroup is constructed by <a ^ n/k> where k is a positive divisor of |G| = n
Using the fundamental theorem of cyclic groups
Thank you very much for your help
oh lol i was gonna say just cauchy it
but I suppose you want to avoid that / haven't been taught that
Yeah I wanted to avoid that since it's from a later chapter
I'm self learning so I definitely haven't been taught it
can i get a hint for finishing this? mathoverflow soln uses group actions but im wondering if there's a direct argument i can use here, and if what i have so far is good
The typical way to do this is to show it has nontrivial center, then show that if G/Z(G) is cyclic then G is Abelian.
Neither of these are super hard, but the first part is harder than the second.
yeah that's what i found online but id already started like this and i got stuck on the last bit
though idk if a group where every element has order p must be abelian
Well I think you should prove that first
i thought it would follow pretty easily from the fact that x is not in the cycle generated by y and also has order p
I don't think so
I want more justification
and if you can't justify it, then you shouldn't use that
There are groups, for example, where x and y are of order p, but <x,y> is infinite
That still doesn't help me see why <x,y> has order p^2
informally, can i say that since x is not in the cycle generated by y, it must generate its own cycle. by assumption they both have order p, so both cycles must be of order p
Yes that's totally normal
but that doesn't tell me why <x, y> has order p^2
at best it tells me that |<x, y>| >= 2p-1
Also this is a more fundamental error
but G = <x,y> does not mean that G is cyclic
and in fact, you conclude in every case that G is cyclic, and this is just wrong.
dihedral group should counter example this right
Well yes, but I should just say that that's not the definition!
nah i see why this is wrong anyways
i'll do it the Z(G) way
t minus 20 hours until my midterm 
Hey. I'm tired and v sleep-deprived.
Can I get a sanity check?
Let either one or both of G and H be NON-cyclic groups.
Then the direct product of G x H is necessarily also NON-cyclic.
In other words, if G is a NON-cyclic group.
Let H be any group.
Then G x H is necessarily NON-cyclic.
This is true, right?
Yes because any subgroup of a cyclic group is cyclic, and G can be identified with a subgroup of G x H
you could sanity check it after getting a good 8 hours you know
Thank you! X__X
Wow, why didn't I think of that?
Or I guess you can use the projection G x H -> G to see that any generator of G x H would give you a generator of G, but that amounts to the same thing more or less
is there a nice way to simplify $\prod_{i=0}^{n-1} (q^n-q^i)$ ? im looking to compare that quantity with $q^{n^2}$. i didn't really know where to put this so i put it here since it comes from a problem where im figuring out the probability a random nxn mtx over a finite field (with $q$ elts) is invertible.
EricW
compare in what way? since $q^n-q^i<q^n$ you can get the inequality that the product is less than $q^{n^2}$ if that's what you're after
Merosity
You can write it as $q^{\frac{n(n-1)}{2}}\prod_{j=1}^{n}(q^j-1)$, so it's better comparable with $q^{n^2}$, but I don't see any other simplifications.
Ocean Man
i was looking to divide that product by q^(n^2)
you could write it as a product of q^n with the same indices, then reindex to k=1 to n of (1-1/q^k)
You can divide the expression I wrote by it and get q^(-n/2)m, where m is P_j(q^j-1). If q happens to be prime, m will not be divisible by q.
Does this automatically prove that every symmetric polynomial is a polynomial in the s_k? Every such polynomial is an element of L^{S_n}, so there must be a rational function in the s_k equal to it. Does it also follow that there must also be a polynomial in the s_k equal to it?
The zero morphism, no?

I guess in Grp that is a homomorphism A -> B that sends everything to 1_B
this shouldn't be an "i guess"
I mean I'm right
so my idea for this question
is just $\phi(h) = e_g$, the identity element in the group $G$
failingphysics
i don't want to know the solution if this is wrong
but if it is wrong can someone help me understand why it's not the right one?
I know it's well defined because if h_1 = h_2 then $\varphi(h_1) = \varphi(h_2) = e_G$
failingphysics
I know it's well defined because if h_1 = h_2 then $\varphi(h_1) = \varphi(h_2) = e_G$
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1 = h_2 then $\varphi(h_1) = \var...
I've inserted a begin-math/end-math symbol since I think
you left one out. Proceed, with fingers crossed.
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so it is a function
and furthermore it is a group morphism because $\varphi(h_1h_2) = e_G$ and $\varphi(h_1) \cdot \varphi(h_2) = e_G \cdot e_G = e_G$
failingphysics
That won't work -- it's a homomorphism all right, but it doesn't make the diagram commute.
why not? we have $\alpha(h) = e_G$ and $i \circ \varphi(h) = i(e_G) = e_G$
failingphysics
(Check the LHS triangle, that's what you're interested in making commute)
You don't necessarily have alpha(h) = e_G, only f(alpha(h)) = e_G'.
ahhhhhh
yes i misread the question
ok let me go back and try to figure it out then
thanks
(The diagram is missing a null map from H to G', really).
failingphysics
Yes
"trivially constant" map or whatever your exercise called it
Tropo is saying that f \circ \alpha being constant trivial is the same as saying that there is a constant trivial map H -> G' and the diagram commutes
is there a proper non-abelian subgroup of S_n which acts transitively on {1, ... , n}
assuming n \geq 4
actually
ive asked this before but i'll reask
what does it mean for the "natural action" of a subgroup of S_n on {1, ... , n} to be transitive
im assuming that the natural action simply refers to the permutation described by each element of S_n
so that being transitive means that there is only one orbit of this action
A_n ought to qualify.
Yes.
Or D_2n.
can i get a small nudge pls - mechanically, it seems like showing that forall x,y \in {1, ... ,n}, there exists a g \in A_n s.t. g(x) = y would be easier than showing that it has only one orbit but idk how to start that
i know that those two things are basically the same, i moreso mean the actual method of the proof
It's a "just do it" thing. After you set g(x)=y, fill in the rest of the values of g randomly to get a bijection. If that ends up producing an odd permutation, swap g(a) and g(b) for some a and b that are both different from x.
im not sure i follow, wdym fill in the rest of the values randomly
Any which way you like.
Or if you want to be more concrete than that, pick a z distinct from both x and y and consider the 3-cycle (x y z).
i understood it but may have over simplified?
mildly related but how often to short exact sequences come up
im studying for an exam and my understanding of semi direct products is pretty lacking atm, but group extensions are directly (ha) related to that right?
(x y) is not in A_n.
that's why you said this lol
Pretty much all the time, inasmuch as "short exact sequence" is the category-theoretic ways to talk about quotient objects, and quotients are everywhere.
another quickie but does this look sound?
my main concern is the handwavey argument that that is in fact the klein 4 group in A_4
No, that sounds convincing.
what is the motivation for considering semi direct products
that's probably an incredibly broad question so if there's something more refined that i should be asking about that would also be useful and col
Within group theory they help@you classify groups
They also are exactly the split exact sequences
And show up in places groups show up in nature, like in NT
I only saw them ever used as "yeah that group is just a semidirect product of these two groups"
Which honestly doesn't tell you that much
the way im understanding it is that it’s moreso a property of a group
It's more like a construction
We can just think about it internally
For other structures we do similiar things, like direct sum of vector spaces, or subdirect product of rings
I'm actually not sure if internal subdirect product is a thing

this smells important?
It's like Chmonkey already said. You describe groups using semidirect products, it's just kinda an useful way
Like for exemple the dihedral groups, you havy x, y as generators and you can write yx = x^a y^b
semi direct product of C_2 and C_n right 
im reviewing my prof's lecture notes from a week where i was terribly sick, we apparently spent three whole lectures on semidirect products lol
Dihedral group is what I think about for semidirect products
Oh. Maybe they have more applicatioms than I thought. Spending 3 whole lectures on them 
something something finitely generated abelian groups
i would post the notes but i dont wanna doxx myself lol
yeah that's like the ultimate thing it proves
Oh
I guess you could state it as
Any finitely generated abelian group is isomorphic to a product of quotients of Z
yeah i see that
there's no way i learn all this tonight lmao, t minus 9 hours until exam
It seems a little bit more like something that has potential generalizations
Then
Any finitely generated R-module is isomorphic to a product of quotients of R perhaps?
I think that's a theorem?
idk what a module is 
A vector space but over ring
the only ring i fuck w is elden ring
over PID yes
ftofgmopid
Is there a homological proof?
this should just be an application of orbit stabilizer right
do you need orbit stab for this?
the equality looks very similar to |G| / |Stab(g)| = |Orb(g)|
SNF?
smith normal form
Ah. It's a known acronym to me
Yes
It's not a known acronym by me*
In hindsight, a motivation could be: linearizing the concept of "semidirect product of groups" leads to "smash product of Hopf algebras", and these have some very nice categorical interpretations.
If I have a ring R, an element x in R, what does the ideal R x R look like? Is it elements of the form rxs with r, s in R, or is it elements of the form r_1 x s_1 + r_2 x s_2 + ... + r_n x s_n ?
The latter
Ya I'm dumb... otherwise it wouldn't even be a subgroup of the abelian group lmao
Because it contains rxs and you make it an ideal so throw all additions too
And then it satisfies the definition so we're done
If R were just a semigroup then it would be the former though
I was a bit confused by, for example, how Rx looks like.
Yeah, it's confusing
But even more confusing is remembering which of Rx, xR is left and which one is right ideal
Commutative rings ftw
hm, I don't think so. Rx captures multiplication on the left, so it's a left ideal
Nah 😄 tbh I've been doing abstract stuff so much that I don't even want to consider the category of vector spaces anymore, I
I'd rather consider the category of bimodules over a field. But that really is confusing.
Lol
If that's something you like
I think it's okay to consider left/right ideals as long as you stick to one. Probably better to remember too if you do that
Have you seen that irreps of Abelian groups over an ACF are dim 1?
This is that + Mashke
You just consider it on the subgroup <g>.
This will have been discussed earlier in these notes so I suggest you go back and check
<g> is Abelian.
Like I said here…
Hello. If $A$ is a finite subset of $\mathbb{C}$ and $r, s \in \mathbb{C}$ are algebraically independent over $A$, then is there an automorphism of $\sigma$ of $\mathbb{C}$ such that $\sigma |_A$ is the identity and $\sigma (r) = s$?
MathPhysics
so I guess an orbit of a permutation of a set A can only have one element?
Yes. Let k denote the algebraic closure of ℚ(A) inside ℂ, which doesn't contain r or s. Then you want an extension of the identity automorphism of k to a map with r ↦ s. Extend both r and s to transcendence bases B and C of ℂ over k, and B and C must have the same cardinality. Take a bijection between the 2 that maps r to s. Extend this to a map of the purely transcendental part of the extension, then extend to a map of the algebraic closures (which is ℂ in both cases)
Commuting operators have the same eigenvalues
In the sense that any eigenvalue of one is an eigenvalue of the other
how to show 3 is irreducible in $Z[\sqrt{-5}]$
pewdssssssss
just straight from defintion ?
N(x+sqrt(-5)y) = x^2+5y^2, then N(3) = 9
But there is no a with N(a) = 3
We consider the representation restricted to <g>. It is diagoalisable by the theorems I mentioned (i.e. it has a basis of eigenvectors, which are just 1d reps) so we are done
wym
N(u) = 1 iff u is a unit, so the only way that 3 could be reducible if 3 = ab where N(a) = N(b) = 3
because N is multiplicative
why cant N(a) = 9
ye so 3 is irreducible
so you are saying that N(a) or N(b) has to be 9
@chilly ocean
Rather, I'm saying N(a) or N(b) has to be 1
so one of them is a unit
I'm not an algebraic number theorist in disguise
kk in turn one of them has to be a 9
and norm = pm 1 iff unit
But I don't care if they are 9
yea but it implies that the other hast o be 1
whats a good way to show that (3) is not prime in Z[\sqrt{-5}] ?
look at (1+sqrt(-5))*(1-sqrt(-5))
thnx
koaaa
Also I wonder if $V^* \otimes_{kG} W$ is the vector space of the module morphisms. It is naturally a quotient of $V^* \otimes_k W$, which reminds me of some projection formula. However the projection formula requires the finiteness of $G$ but this construction only of $V,W$, so I guess I’m missing something here.
koaaa
Wait no, it’s some sort of biggest quotient of Hom on which G acts trivially… I don’t know how to describe that.
how is the normalizer condition weaker?
Thank you.
If shown that it is well defined. Do I need to use sequences to show that 1/f is continuous on this open ball
algebra?
like TTerra is trying to say, it's not algebra, but this just follows from continuity of 1/x
talgebra
"trying to say"?

So do I assume the distance fund used in the reals is the modulus
Oh my bad which channel is metric spaces
How do I solve this?
assuming if f:Z/2Z to S_5, by conjugate of f by g in S_5 you mean x -> gf(x)g^-1, note that f(1) must be trivial or 2-cycle
also, g(i, j)g^-1 = (g(i), g(j))
Oh, I think I see what I did wrong
I don't like how they say "the number" though
seems like they want number of conjugacy classes for a non-trivial homomorphism
It can also be a product of 2 disjoint transpositions
Oh right.
Seems to me they want the number of conjugacy classes of Hom(Z/2,S_5), that is "the number"
Ah. I was thinking of amount of elements in each conjugacy class. Makes sense
This isn't a group I don't think, but I don't think that should matter either way
The next question is the amount in each
just finished my midterm, if i knew like 3 more facts about semi direct products i would've done sm better 
I want to show $(2, 1 + \sqrt{-5}) \neq (a + b\sqrt{-5})$ in $\mathbb{Z}[\sqrt{-5}]$. i.e not a principle ideal in the quadrratic ring. Suppose that $(2, 1 + \sqrt{-5}) = (a + b\sqrt{-5})$. Then $2 = \alpha (a + b\sqrt{-5}), Applying norm. 4 = N(\alpha)(a^2 + 5b^2)$ . Which implies that $a^2 + 5b^2 = 1,2,4$. It cant be 2 cuz no solutions. If $a^2 + 5b^2 = 4$, Then $a = \pm 2$ which implies $1 + \sqrt{-5} = \pm 2c \pm 2d\sqrt{-5}$ which cant happen. So if $a^2 + 5b^2 = 1$ then $a = \pm 1$. Which implies that $2x + (1 + \sqrt{-5})y = 1 $. after multiply by $1 - \sqrt{-5}$ it implies that 2 divides $1 - \sqrt{-5}$ which cant happen. so $(2, 1 + \sqrt{-5})$ is not principle
pewdssssssss
anyone can say if this looks ok?
what did you do in the last part? 2x+(...) shows 2 divides 1-sqrt(-5)
if a = plus minus 1
then (2, 1 + \sqrt{-5}) = (1)
so 2x + (1 + \sqrt{-5})y = 1
x,y in Z[\sqrt{-5}]
then multiply by 1 - \sqrt{-5}
for contradiction
does that work?
you are getting 2x{1,-1}+6y = 2{1,-1} => 2(x-1){1, -1} = -6y => (x-1){1, -1} = -3y
what after that? {1, -1} = 1-sqrt(-5)
so $2x + (1 + \sqrt{-5})y = 1$ then $2x(1 - \sqrt{-5}) + (1 - \sqrt{-5})(1 +\sqrt{-5})y = 1 - \sqrt{-5}$
pewdssssssss
then $2x(1 - \sqrt{-5}) + 6y = 1- \sqrt{-5}$
pewdssssssss
then $2 (x(1-\sqrt{-5}) + 3y) = 1 - \sqrt{-5}$
pewdssssssss
awesome 
Is using a shit ton of symbols the norm in writing for abstract algebra, and I just need to get gud; or is it poor, unclear writing? I borrowed a book and I have to keep searching to know what their notation means.
It might be easier to understand if I completed the book cover to cover but I don't have time for that
you have time to complain
I take that as a yes?
take that as 'idk'
Without an example of what you're referring to it's hard to tell.
"Group Theory" by W.R. Scott is the book if anyone knows it
You're right, we should only talk about things that we already know about. No new things.
i only know that i know nothing 
what about the new things that we already know about
Define what you mean by—WAIT NO
why is $(ab)\inv = b\inv a\inv$
illuminator3 (#eric4honorable)
Remember that the inverse is unique?
Well notice that $(b^{-1}a^{-1})(ab) = b^{-1}(a^{-1}a)b = e$
Boytjie
yeah
Well you noticed it before I could finish
it's informal speech
if your structure has addition for example, we preserve addition
if it has order, we preserve the order
if it has multiplication, it preserves multiplication
what does 'preserve' mean here?
commute with operations/if relation holds then it holds under the map as well
it depends on if we are talking about preserving a particular n-ary operation or an n-ary relation
moreover we can talk about preserving something else
so it's more complicated than that
no idea what that means. for context, my prof said "a homomorphism is a structure preserving map" so I was wondering what it means in that context
it means that it commutes with operations
so what the definition of homomorphism says
what does to commute mean here
wdym?
yes
I'm just having a hard time right now because my lecture is in german and all of the terms are different in english
symbols are the same
just stare at the definition of homomorphism and you'll see it
I still don't understand what "it commutes with operations" means
the order in which you apply the map and the group operation doesn't matter. you can do them in either order and get the same result. they commute
but that's the definition of a homomorphism, no?
yes, and?
Can Fraleigh be a enough prerequisite for Eisenbud?
I would say so, yes
But I've read fraleigh and then read eisenbud but couldn't understand...
Is it cause of that I didn't read chapters with a asterisk? ..
So you're saying you only read parts of fraleigh? I think that explains it.
Don't spam requests for your help channel in unrelated channels.
I guess in C*-algebras
if H is a subset of G, it's automatically associative right?
Yes
But the product does not necessarily remain in H
So it's not an internal law anymore
Yeah I mean integrals are basically just linear operators on e.g. compactly supported functions on X
Riesz representation is maybe what you are looking for
If you look into some of Pedersons work, he hates measure theory and wants to replace it with a more linear algebraic formulation
Maybe you will find some of this useful
(His book analysis now has a chapter that does measure theory 101 in this framework)
how do we get the identity in C(a) {gag^-1=a} I'm assuming we can set a as g to get g(gg^-1)=g, can we say the identity is in C(a) because of this?
or wait if g and g^-1 exists in C(a) can't i just say gg^-1=e thus e is in C(a)?
I'm taking my first formal abstract algebra course (mostly group theory stuff), and something that has confused me consistently is why, if the definition of "operation" suggests that we may only call a rule an operation if it maps an ordered pair in a set to one element of the set. However, in computer science and philosophy, we often refer to unary operators and ternary operators. If something like logical not isn't an operation, what is it?
It's not an operation it's an internal law
Which is bery specific
You can define all kinds of operations in fact
Interesting okay. I'll look internal law up
Thank you
I imagine then that it's just lazy language to call something like logical not an operator?
Just gag^-1=agg^-1=a in C(a)
It's a boolean operator defined on specific sets
we didnt assume its abelian
So I can refer to n-ary rules with arbitrary n as operations?
im too early to know what commutant is
C(a) is defined as the commutant of a isn't it? (Like the set of elements that commute with a)
Thank you that clears up a lot actually
My professor was faily adamant about operations needing to be binary, which seemed off
to me they just defined it as C(a)={gag^-1=a} and asked to prove its a subgroup of G when a is in G
Which means that ga=ag
how
Multiply by g on the right
from gallian
It's the same thing as that definition yeah although this one is a bit clearer imo
based
SL2(R) is a group under addition right?
I'm trying to see why every abelian group admits a unique Z-module structure
I know how to find the module: just define scalar multiplication as n * g := (g + g + ... + g) where there are n g's
I'm not sure how to prove that this module is unique
I think its just because 1*v should be v, and Z is generated by addition from 1
ohh
that makes sense
this is an alternative proof that I'm trying to understand
it's the same for the most part except it uses the "endomorphism ring of a group"
I'm not sure what they mean by "By applying this to End(G)...", could anyone explain?
can anyone find the wiki for this? im dying to get information on it i know its all the 2x2 matrices with det not equal to 0 but i cant find visual confirmation of it anywhere
usually M_n(F) means all n by n matrices with entries in a field F
sometimes M_{x, y}(F) means all the x by y matrices with entries in a field F
maybe here it is the latter and they forgot the comma
if you don't want matrices with det equal to 0 you usually notate this as GL(R, n), the "general linear group"
so in this case, theyre talking about GL(2,R)
no where do they say the det has to equal 0
so this
like H very clearly has elements with det equal to 0
if H very clearly has elements with det equal to 0 then how is it a subgroup since it's inverse would be 1/det
the group operation in M_{2, 2}(R) is addition
that's why it also has people with det equal to 0
whereas GL(R, n) doesn't (group operation is multiplication)
so is the identity for this group 0? or (0,0,0,0)
the identity is the 0 matrix, the matrix with entries all equal to 0, but it is very common to denote the identity in groups with an additive structure as just the number 0
I'm confused
isn't R the set of two variables polynomials in x and y
so like some sum a_{i,j} x^i y^j
and then the ideal generated by x, y is I = {ax + by | a, b \in k}
for a module to be free over R, it can't be isomorphic to any power of R (definition)
why is I not isomorphic to any power of R?
do you understand why a Z-module structure on G is the same as a ring homomorphism Z -> End(G)?
yes, it's like currying
walter that graduate+ role looks mighty fine on you
z -> (g -> g) is equivalent to (z, g) -> g
Do you understand why there's a unique ring homomorphism Z -> End(G)?
could i possibly bother you about some grad-related questions? i have an important decision to make soon and ive been told talking to other students is a good idea
i'm not a grad student lol
is a module over itself, so that ideal is {ax+by with a,b in k[x,y]}
oh ah I see it now
oh yeah
that
nvm lmao
i also realize im doing the literal "hey can i ask u dis help me pls urgent" but talking to literally anyone would be helpful, dont kill me mods
but isn't that just k[x, y] without elements with constant term = 0
if (x, y) were free, what do you think the rank would be?
in deed
(x, y) is the submodule generated by x, y? (the same one as above)
yeah
i would think the rank is 2
in fact i don't know why it isn't
isn't it by definition generated by a two element set
it is not difficult to prove that in general, a free ideal over domains are generated by just one element
well
I have two definitions of free module rn
so, if a,b are distinct elements, then a(b)+b(-a) is linear depende, and therefore these cannot form a basis.
But then it reduces the problem to prove that (x,y) is not a principal ideal in k[x,y]
"isomorphic (as modules) to some power of the ring it is over"
and
"has some finite basis"
is {x, y} not a basis for the submodule we just generated by definition?
which you can do using coprimality of the variables I think
You have to be careful, we are considering as a module over k[x,y]
ok let me write up a proof
Did you get the idea?
I think
this is honestly a bit confusing, a lot of variables and I'm not sure what i should work with
consider the module k[x, y], and the submodule {a*x + b*y | a, b \in k[x, y]}.
wait shit
we only showed {a, b} isn't a basis
we didn't show there exists no basis
Potitov06 explained why if I is an ideal which is a free module, then I must be principal
ah ok I see
another side question
R is clearly free over R for any ring R
by the definition "must be isomorphic to some power of the base ring"
but how do I see this from the definition "has a finite basis"
what's the basis of the R-module R
{1}
oh true
Is there a way to construct a homomorphism based on what properties must be conserved?
maybe?
How about an homomorphism from a space onto itself?
whos gonna stop me if i do?

if i have an element lets say A with order n, and an element B with order m can AB be infinite?
Yes. Consider the group G with presentation <A, B | A^n = B^m = e>
Alternatively, you could probably construct some examples with small matrices
yeah ive got a matrices problem where the order of A is 4 and order of B is 3 but it feels like it doesnt make sense because when i take AB then find the order it turns to be infinite but shouldnt AB just be 12? 4*3?
No, you can't expect that to be true in general when your elements don't commute
so A^12B^12 =/= (AB)^12?
Right
if my elements dont commute?
Exactly
And you can see this very explicitly by just writing out what (AB)^12 is; it's just (AB)(AB)...(AB) 12 times
You can't necessarily rearrange this to be A^12 B^12 when A and B don't commute
What are the properties a subset of G needs to satisfy to be a subgroup?
non empty, has the identity, a,b belongs to the subset then ab^-1 must belong there too
but here, do i prove its a subgroup of H or G, since if its a subgroup of H then its a subgroup of G but here they're talking about x in G and h in G
You prove it's a subgroup of G. In fact, K is not necessarily a subgroup of H. As it's defined, K is the set of elements x in G such that x = aha^-1 for some h in H. However, there's no reason aha^-1 should be in H if a is not in H.
if we take the inverse of x=aha^-1 it'll be a^-1h^-1a right?
how is this possible?
The inverse they compute is correct. Try multiplying it out to see why and note that inverses in a group are unique
wdym multiplying it out?
Just multiply x and x^-1 to see that the inverse they computed is actually correct
sound good? @agile burrow
please use LaTeX
Using desmos to write math is the funniest thing I ever seen
If you want something external then you can write in markdown or on a whiteboard... or a piece of paper
In #resources there's a cheat sheet about how you can type in LaTeX, here directly using a bot
omg
${\bZ}_{1009}$ means a ring of integers with addition mod 1009 right?
Neamesis
Yes, sometimes.
It may also mean the 1009-adic integers, which is a quite different beast.
so i saw a problem "find the multiplicative inverse of [17] in ${\bZ}_{1009}$"
Neamesis
Lol
Definitely integers mod 1009 then.
so how would multiplication work in that? also mod 1009?
i thought it really depends on the context
Yes.
okay thanks
hey u became mod 
Indeed
If there's a "[17]" in the context, then p-adics looks unlikely.
what do the brackets signify?
Residue class
The congruence class of 17, i.e. the set {..., -992, 17, 1026, 2035, ...} of numbers congruent to 17 modulo 1009.
that seems right
hm i see
And I'll say equivalence class of 17 just to be different
And I'd just abuse notation and say 17
Yeah, the brackets are only really used in introductory texts that need to emphasize how things work formally.
If alpha is the real sixth root of 2 and zeta = exp(i * pi/3) is the primitive 6th root of unity, then I know that Q(alpha, zeta) is the splitting field of the polynomial x^6 - 2. We can define the automorphism sigma : alpha -> alpha * zeta; using this, how can I show that the fixed field Q(alpha, zeta)^{<sigma^2>} = Q(sqrt(2), zeta)?
The generator <sigma^2> gives the set of automorphisms: {id, sigma^2, sigma^4} I think
no, take everything to e
i get the feeling you meant to write more than "homomorphism"
what is the "category theory definition"?
f : G -> G is an endomorphism though
to be distinguished from "automorphism"
yes
homomorphism: G -> H
endomorphism: G -> G
automorphism: G -> G, bijective
isomorphism: G -> H, bijective
monomorphism, G -> H, injective
i feel like you're not really addressing the point illuminator
Nobody likes ur boy epimorphism 😔
Oops I thought this was discussion myb
the morphisms in this definition are not going to be the morphisms of the corresponding group, but the elements of the corresponding group instead
... something like that
so you might say that the morphisms of the corresponding group are "morphisms of the morphisms of the groupoid" or something
there's probably some category theory jargon for this but i don't care
there's a reason people typically learn about groups before they do categories
i didn't say you haven't
$n\bZ + k = { nz + k | z \in \bZ }$?
illuminator3 (#eric4honorable)
Yes
Disjoint union
what's that
A union of disjoint sets
what's a disjoint set
Two sets are disjoint if they have no common elements
ah
why do we include H itself in G/H where H is a subgroup of G
I don't know what you mean by that. H is annihilated under the natural map G -> G/H
Oh are you saying why we consider H as a coset of H?
Because H = e.H 🤓
and in fact for any h in H, H = h.H
It is natural and turns out to be important as a coset.
I mean, there's no particular reason for that
ah
We just use congruence classes as elements of G/H, but we could use something else
like representatives of such classes
it just feels weird cuz left coset is linksnebenklassen in german which translates as like left classes besides
if $|G/H| = 1$ then $G = H$?
illuminator3 (#eric4honorable)
I mean it's beneficial to represent them as whole congruence classes since then it's clear how can we act with G on elements of G/H
Yes
ahhhhhh wait I think I finally understand what G/H is
G/H are H and the different disjoint sets needed to represent G?
I don't like that interpretation particularly
G/H consists of equivalence classes of G. These classes are elements of G that differ by something in H.
equivalence classes?
Equivalence classes.
it's because you're quotient by a normal subgroup, you really are quotienting by a relation generated by it
Slow down there, we haven't seen normal quotients yet
This is just an arbitrary subgroup H
oh wait. My bad lol
still though, what you really are doing is quotiening by a relation, which says that x ~ y iff xH = yH
what's an equivalence class
A set of things that we consider "the same" up to some definition of what we mean as "the same"
You likely know about equivalence relations
an equivalence class is just a set of all things which are equivalent to each other under an equivalence relation
These classes are elements of G that differ by something in H.
Also see Blitz' messages
Because this relation is on G. By itself it doesn't mean anything
maybe they should teach group actions before introducing quotients 
I don't understand that sentence
like uh
how can a class be an element of a set
isn't a class a set itself
or am I misunderstanding what a class is
because then I could just say that G/H for some group H is what you obtain when you want to act with G on some quotient of G by an equivalence relation
which kind of justifies the need to quotient by stuff
everything is built from sets
but how can a class be an element of a set that e.g. only contains numbers
numbers are sets
It means that elements of G/H consist of subsets A of G such that any two elements of A differ by something in H
but then the subsets aren't disjoint anymore if they only differ in one element?
wait
you misunderstood me. I'm not sure what you understood, but it's not what I'm saying
yeah
so for any two elements a_1 in A_1, and a_2 in A_2, a_1 = h \circ a_2 for some element h in H?
no, a_1 in A and a_2 in A, a_1 = a_2 h for some element h in H
That is quite the opposite of the definition
if A_1 and A_2 are distinct classes, there should not exist an h for which that works
Yeah. I'd give you something non-commutative but I'm not sure of a good early example, but do try this on G = Z and H = 2Z
that's the example they also used in the lecture
I'm sorry but I have no idea what you guys are saying :c
I still don't know what "equivalence classes of G" means
.
it means we are thinking of some equivalence relation, and under this equivalence relation, they are equivalence classes of G
what's 'they' here?
elements of G/H
Illuminator, do you know what an equivalence relation is?
uh I don't think I know exactly what it means
So the answer is no
yeah
You are likely to have seen it before if you are doing a math degree, but iirc you're not are you

This is an OK introduction. https://byjus.com/maths/equivalence-relation/
you should probably go and read some set theory introduction
Woah even better: http://www-math.ucdenver.edu/~wcherowi/courses/m3000/lecture9.pdf
this one works
OK then just use the PDF I linked :)
lemme read it
If you have questions about equivalence relations and classes, ask them in #discrete-math as here is not the right place.
alr
equivalence classes in(?) what equivalence relation?
.
mhm alright
thanks
another question
what's this operator here
the disjoint union with the dot on top
people, usually in probability, denote this to mean the sets are disjoint
it's just a normal union
and what about this one
so this one is disjoint union
and this one is regular union?
both are regular union
wait I think this one is regular union
and this one is disjoint
both are regular unions
the dot is only an additional information than those sets are disjoint
same with square unions
than or that?
that
ahhhhh
yeah
that's what I meant
probably used the wrong terminology
alright
thanks
what's $\bZ_k$? like how is it defined in set builder notation
illuminator3 (#eric4honorable)
Do you mean like $\bZ_n$?
$\bZ_n$ = /{0,1,…,n-1}

Idk how to have the brackets.
backslash them
oh thx lol
addition is modulo n
go to #latex-testing
Ok anyways what’s the picture above?
That’s just Q(-1) lol
ok how about like
Q(zeta 5 + (zeta 7)^2)?
If I have G a group and x->x^3 a surjective morphism. Is G abelian ?
what does this notation mean? K is a field
i think <x1,x2> is the ideal generated by x1 and x2
we denote ideals with ( )
here they re defining a quotient K<x_1,x_2>/ (x_1x_2-c)
Might just be the field of rational expressions in x_1 and x_2 over K, but I usually see that as K(x_1,x_2).
Or might even the polynomial ring K[x_1, x_2].
Typically K<a,b> is the ring of non-commuting polynomials
so it's one in which ab is not ba
So K<a,b>/(ab - ba) = K[a,b] (isomorphic)
Yeah, if indeed this is the notation intended. It is a bit hard to tell without more context though
free associative (not necessarily commutative) K-algebra on {x1,x2} ig
What is this and how would I find the minimal polynomial?
Two very different questions in one. Are these squiggly symbols roots of unity or smth?
Roots of unity
Can someone please help me with this question
algebraic numbers, i would think
I'm not sure but note that it implies that ab and ba are conjugates. Maybe that's important
not clear what the subscript is to me though
looks like zeta with subscript, this notation is commonly used to denote roots of unity of order equal to the subscript
How ?
ab = x^3 y^3 = y^-1 (yx)^3 y = x (yx)^3 x^-1 = y^-1 ba y = x ba x^-1
look at GL_n(ℂ) maybe
or some subgroup
GL(n, ℂ) works as every matrix here have a cuberoot, so x ↦x³ is surjective
i don't think x^3y^3 = (xy)^3 is true in GL(n, C) though
morphism of groups surely
forget it then
well can't hurt to look for a counter example maybe to prove it wrong I guess lol
I think the result is right
Anyone know
I know it’s zeta and the roots of unity, I just don’t know how to find the minimal polynomial of Zeta.
one way to try to do it might be take $\alpha-\zeta_5$ and plug it into the cyclotomic polynomial $\Phi_7(\alpha-\zeta_5)=0$ and then try to work further on playing with the $\zeta_5$ terms to simplify more until it's just $\alpha$ in terms of rational coefficients, then you can gauge to the degree of $\bQ(\zeta_5,\zeta_7)$ to see how good you are to try to see if you can simplify it some
Merosity
maybe there's a better way, but this is something to get started
Thanks! 🙂
Suppose it was principal and use the fact that x and y are irreducible
if i have 1->A->G->H->1 a group extension and A abelian, why is the action h*a=h'ah'^(-1) an action on A by H with h' s.t. pi(h')=h ?
i am trying to check the identity requirement but im not sure why e*a = e'ae'^(-1)= a ?
Let P be the submodule generated by x, y in k[x, y] (as a module over itself)
how do I show that P is not generated by a single element
in fact it isn't free, and I was able to show the rank can't be greater than 1, but I am stuck now
in other words, I want to show P is not a principle ideal
basically trying to understand this @wicked zephyr
Over the past 24 hours I learned what ideals and principle ideals were
As soon as you prove that it cannot be generated by a single element, it is non-free
suppose (x,y)=(f)
I was trying to show f + 1 isn't in (x, y)
then $x\in (f)$ and $y\in (f)$
Potitov06
wait actually that isn't true (my comment)
so $f\mid x$ and $f\mid y$
Potitov06
so...
wait
x = af
y = bf
x + y = (a + b)f
what's the problem
oh but
we have
bx = ay
so a = b = 0
yay!
@wicked zephyr
thanks
hmm
that is not the point
$f$ is common divisor of $x$ and $y$... What are those?
Potitov06
x and y are multiples of f
that's why I wrote
x = af
y = bf
and then from this you get bx = ay (for some nonzero a, b) because we're in a commutative ring
and then that's clearly impossible
right?
oh shit
so, certainly xy=yx
but that is not the point
f divides x and f divides y
and the only common divisors are constants
sorry, units
so then (f)=(x,y)=k[x,y], which is not ture
the only common divisors between x and y are units?
i've never talked about divisors of elements in a general ring
but intuitively it's 1 and x
yeah, or 1/2 and 2x
ky and k for all nonzero k
wdym
im a little confused with this problem
the given solution is (x-1)^2(x-2) but i dont see how that could be possible given that 2 isnt a zero of this polynomial
the units of k[x, y]
Potitov06
Potitov06
Potitov06
contradiction
an ideal is closed by multiplication
Let $I$ be an ideal that contains a unit $u$. If $a$ is any element of $R$, then $a=u\cdot (u^{-1}a)\in I$, so every element is in the ideal.
Potitov06
oh hmm
i think i understand
wait i'm going to try to give an overview of the proof from the beginning
can you see if my ideas are right
question: prove that (x, y) = {fx + gy | f, g \in k[x, y]} is not a free submodule of k[x, y] (as a module over itself)
proof:
assume (x, y) is free
if it has rank > 1, then we can easily produce (b)a + (-a)b = 0 for some a, b in a basis
if (x, y) is generated by a single element, then that element divides both x and y
but the only common divisors of x and y are units
but a unit clearly generates the entire ring, done
this is the only shaky part for me
i'm trying to rigorously classify all divisors of x and y and am struggling
well actually since deg(fg) = deg(f) + deg(g), I know the divisors must be of the form ax + by + c, for some a, b, c \in k
but if fg = x, and f = ax + by + c, by the same degree thing above, b = 0
so the divisors of x are of the form ax + c
if fg = x, and f = ax + c, then g = d for some nonzero d \in k
but fg = (ad)x + (cd) = x, so we must have either a = 0 and c \neq 0, or a \neq 0 and c = 0
this gives what I had earlier
I was also going to ask why why the units in k[x, y] are only the constants, but that again is true because of the degree thing
nice
it is simpler, if fg=x then f or g is a constant (ny taking degrees). suppose f is the one of degree 1 and write f=ax+by+c, and g=d. Then x=adx+bdy+cd, so b=c=0 and ad=1, so a is a unit
thus if f divides x, then f is a unit or a unit times x
got it
Can someone explain to me the connection between the transpose of a linear map and the transpose of the matrix corresponding to the linear map (wrt some basis) if any
reminder: the transpose of a linear map A from vector space V to vector space W is the natural map from W* to V* that takes an element f in W* to f ○ A
@hollow mica the transpose of the matrix representation of a map is the matrix representation of the transpose in the dual bases
in symbols: if $T\colon V \to W$ is a map and $\beta,\gamma$ are bases of $V, W$ with dual bases $\beta^,\gamma^$, then $$\left([T]\beta^\gamma\right)^T = [T^*]{\gamma^}^{\beta^},$$ where $T^*\colon f \mapsto f \circ T$ is the transpose
TTerra
If H, K are subgroups of G with H intersect K = {1}, then is the product map p: H x K --> G, (h,k)-->hk bijective?
Bijective to G? No you need further assumptions
well the book proves it's injective
it's injective yes
Don't you need normality for this also?
there are some elements of g which can't be written as a product of h and k
for injective no
ig you don't NVM
If k is an algebraically closed field such that char(k) != 2, then x^2 - 1 has two distinct roots, right?
yes
Sure, do you want me to check it?
sure!
if $\alpha^2=1$, then $\alpha\neq0$, and $-\alpha$ is another root of $x^2-1$. Suppose for contradiction that $\alpha=-\alpha$, then $\alpha+\alpha=2\alpha=0$, and $\alpha\neq0$, $k$ is a domain, so necessarily this would imply $2=0$, which is not true if $\mathrm{char}(k)\neq2$
cucaracha
Yep!
thx
This works for x^2 - r for any nonzero r, yeah?
But actually in the specific case of x^2 - 1 we can be more direct
the roots are always 1 and -1
I think so, yea
You can also use the old derivative trick
yeah, also that
In general, what conditions do I need to put on an algebraically closed field k so that k has n distinct n-th roots of unity?
Does it suffice to take char(k) > 2?
no
that char(k) does not divide n
I didn't think so
Like for example
this makes sense
field of char p
Do you know what a separable polynomial is?
yea
x^p - 1 = (x - 1)^p due to freshman's dream, right
yes
Do you know how to check if a polynomial is separable via the derivative?
I vaguely remember learning about that
sorry, it's been a while since I took algebra
Sure, so p(x) is separable iff p is coprime to p'(x)
oh right!
this is because of the product rule
yes I remember that now
If p has a double factor x-a, so p(x) = (x-a)^2 q(x), then p'(x) = 2(x-a) q(x) + (x-a)^2 q(x). So p'(a) = 0
If you's seen complex analysis, this is like the order of a zero thing
Okay so
This tell us a field has distinct nth roots of unity iff x^n - 1 is coprime to n x^(n-1)
Yeah?
when is that possible?
right, when char(k) does not divide n
Yep
thanks! that was enlightening
We know the irreducible divisors of x^(n-1)
Does anyone have an example of a function between ABELIAN groups $f: G \to H$ such that $f$ sends identity to identity, for any $g \in G$, $f(g^{-1}) = f(g)^{-1}$, but $f$ is not a group homomorphism?
ScarletScorch
I don't think these conditions are sufficient to guarantee f is a group homomorphism
so i couldn't quite come up an example yet
Let G = Z_5, and define f:G -> G by f(0) = 0, f(1) = 2, f(2) = 1, f(3) = 4, f(4) = 3. Then f(2 + 4) = f(1) = 2 and f(2) + f(4) = 1 + 3 = 4.
You could put f(n) = n for integers not -1, 1 and switch 1, -1 around. In Z
f : Z --> Z sends x to sign(x) * x^2
or even easier take x --> x^3 from Z --> Z



