#help-0
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,w sin(5pi/2)
,w sin(9pi/2)
yep that makes sense cuz of the unit circle
So if I simplify to get x, my calculator shows x = 46.944
Are you in degree mode?
yep
yeah the equation you found is for radians
OHHHH
you assumed at the start sin(x) has a period of 2π, this is only true for radians
damn it, ur right
alright so I changed it to radians and got 0.819 which I know is a solution because of desmos
how do I find the second x intercept with the first x intercept?
ye
this means that the other x intercept would be 3.181
ye
The sine curve is very symnetric
Somewhere in your book is probably the identity sin(x) = sin(π-x)
yep i know that idenity
interesting, thank you for the explanation
assuming what u said, this could work anywhere on a sine graph sine right?
the transformed sine curve will have the same kinds of symmetries as the origt
yeah
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i justr cant find the way to solve this
do i have to calculate for cookies then peanut better then
substract
and in this math i tried to first get the length of 1 euro
then get the number of euros for 10cm
ultimately my result appears in fraction which isnt in the options
one question at a time
ok the first question
you need to normalize
so like
find the calories from fat per calorie
for each food
this will allow you to compare them in the way the problem wants
for example: the calories from fat per calorie of the peanut butter is 160/200 = 4/5
every calorie gives you 4/5 calories from fat
so i have to calculate for both food food per calorie
yes
then they want you to work with a 50-cal sample of each food
you have calories from fat per calorie
so if you multiply both of these by 50 calories
here
for the peanut butter:
$\frac{4 \text{ calories from fat}}{5 \text{ calories} } \cdot 50 \text{ calories} = 40 \text{ calories from fat}$
jan Niku
just for the like
dimensional component of it, if it helps it make sense
calories cancel, leaving just calories from fat
make sense?
youll need to do an identical process for the cookies
its a similar process
they give you cm per 20 coins
so whats cm per coin?
thats enough to answer the problem
sure
then i applied howmany coins
for 10cm
it is in fraction
the answers are in ineteger
it says closest

you can probably guess which 2 its gonna be between, right
given that 20 coins is just under 5cm
you just have to check which 2 of those answers is closer
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Does this look correct?
not necessarily cuz i am on winter break
this is more so practice
Sketch the function using multiplicity of factors
Well what's the order of the function (leading term's power)
3
the leading term power is 3
@vale fjord Has your question been resolved?
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Is it possible to get some intuition on volume of the cone is 1/3 of the volume of cylinder
as in, can I fit visualize fitting three cones into this picture
i'm aware about practically verifying by seeing that it takes 3 full cones to fill a cylinder with same diameter
@barren portal Has your question been resolved?
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hello
nah i started typing beore you but ok
ill just go in another help channel
sorry
Your question is ?
$5x+4(\frac{5x-2}{-4})$
Arnab Pal
$5x+4(\frac{5x-7}{-4})$
Arnab Pal
yes correct
That's why I asked that first
Ok you could just cancel -4 and 4 first
$\frac{4}{-4}$
Arnab Pal
What will you get?
5x + 5x - 7
do you undrstand now ariff?
@rose musk Has your question been resolved?
@rose musk Has your question been resolved?
@rocky grove @alpine sable thank you will check out your explanations later I need to prepare for a test right now 
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Have I solved this problem correctly?
@median bridge Has your question been resolved?
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In an isosceles right angled triangle 📐 (pqr), PR is 10cm long (is the hypotenuse). Find the length of the two equal sides.
Thanks for your help in advance
Trigonometry
,w sin(45°)
?
In an isosceles right angled triangle, the angles of isosceles sides are equal, since all angles add upto 180 one of them is 90 and other two are equal, the basis angles for isosceles sides are 45°
Using the trigonometric ratio of sin(45°) u can figure out its value on triangle with radius 1
I'm asking for the length though
U can, multiply sin(45°) × 10 for one side and since it is isosceles, one side is equal to another side
So what would be the answer, so I make sure it's correct
10/√2
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Can anyone help me with this
@wind hornet have you done problems like this before?
Yeah
so you know about things like the number line?
Yup
and how to draw your A, B and C on it
I think so
yes, A cap B = [pi, 7/2].
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If the areas of two triangles are equal in orthogonal Cartesian coordinates, will the areas still be equal in non-orthogonal Cartesian coordinates?
What will the expression for area be?
Could we define area in non-orthogonal Cartesian coordinates as
A = 1/2 [|x1(y2-y3)+x2(y3-y1)+x3(y1-y2)|] and then just use transformation (x = u + vcosa ; y = vsina) in order to obtain the area in orthogonal coordinates?
its just a change of bases, nothing will change
What is the factor for the area change?
I said nothing will change 
Its still the same triangle
except, express in an other basis
Hm
maybe the shape will appear different if you apply a rotation or smthing else but its still the same triangle
the new coordinate
So, I could apply this result with no change?
and thinking about what I said earlier, the area of the original triangle may change, I gave a second thought
But im not sure, I dont have an example in my mind rn
Ok, but two triangle area equality is invariant, right?
depends of the transformation
@grave bough Has your question been resolved?
So, what is the expression for triangle area in such coordinate system, where y axis was rotated about the origin for some angle alpha?
I mean, you find the new coordinate of the triangle in the new base, and thats it
you use those new coordinate to find the area or perimeter, idk
And what about invariance in this transformation?
you'll see about it when you will find the new expression in the new base
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thx
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Our teacher doesn't understand english 
Oh hmm
I meant like
You have points that are on the borders exactly
Like 2.6 and 4.4
They're on the border of your intervals
Can we start from the begging please
Sure
Did the teacher tell you a specific way or can you use a way on your own to make intervals?
Like what I learned is that I take the biggest data point
4.4
And minus that from the smallest data point
Our teacher didn't tell us anything, It was online class and teacher doesn't understand english
Sooo you can imagine

Ok Ok
Minus smallest data point
I seee
We look at how far the data points are from each other
How?
Like you see if the have a difference of 0.1 or 0.2 or whatever they have in difference
There is .1
Yep
and .2 differences i guess
So from that we can say that 0.3 fits as an interval range
You can make it 0.4 if you want as well
Yep
Preferably your interval range should be a divisor of your total range
Like 1.8 divided by 0.3 gives you a whole number
6
Ohhh
Okay
I'm gonna write down everything you say
If you got a fraction, you round it up
If you got 4.2 intervals, then you take 5
It would be 6.333334
Yep you round it to 7
So we would up and make it 7?
Yep
Now if you got a whole number, like in our case, 6, you add one to keep your points within the intervals
And avoid making them on your borders
But if you had a fraction and already rounded up, you don't need to add one
So to reiterate
Okok
So 7 intervals
Yep
That's why I was asking if your teacher has a specific way to do it
If you took exactly 6 intervals, your points will be on the borders
Like 2.6 will be on the border of the first interval
If you have time, after we solve this example question together
Can so solve an actual question together
Sure

Hopefully I explain well haha
Happy about that
Now we got the intervals
I'll explain what to do in the case we use 6 intervals exactly
And what to do when you use 7
Let's start with 6
Your least data point is 2.6 right?
diviser is spelt how?
Divisor
Oky
Yep
Okay so
2.6 is gonna be our starting point
For the first interval, we will add an interval length to 2.6
And our interval length is 0.3
So
2.6 + 0.3 = 2.9
Our first interval goes from 2.6 to 2.9
Second interval picks up from the one before it
okok
Can you find the second interval?
2.9 to 3.2
3.2 to 3.5
3.5 to 3.8
3.8 to 4.1
4.1 to 4.4
Yes
Let's find the mean of each interval
Yep
Shouldn't mean of each interval be sum of all the values that go in that interval/total number of values in interval
Nope
The mean of each interval is the mean of the interval length
Which is what makes this method really good
Simplifies your calculations
So we take for example the first interval
2.6~2.9
We add them both and divide them by 2
2.6 + 2.9 = 5.5
Then we divide it by 2 we get 2.75
That is the mean of the first interval
okay
Can you get the mean of the rest of the intervals?
@humble heron Has your question been resolved?

Okay so
Now we find the frequency of each interval
And this is the hard part
If we do it correctly, we should be good
okok
Before finding the frequency for each interval though, we first should assign the limits of each interval
Which seems weird
We already did that
It sounds weird
But we didn't say if the points that lie on the limits should be included in either interval
Like let's say we had 2.9
Where should it go?
Between 2.6~2.9 or between 2.9~3.2?
Here is where we have this rule
😮
We start assigning our limits from the last interval
Our last interval was 4.1 ~ 4.4
Right?
Oo what confused you?
Oo okay
So we have our last interval
Which was 4.1 ~ 4.4
This interval will have everything that equals 4.1 and 4.4
So if there was a point with 4.1, it will go there
Between 4.1 to 4.4
Because it is the last interval
ohhh true
it would have been different if we had 1 more interval which we didn't add
Yep
Exactly why I told you about it
It will follow the same rule though
If a point happens to be in the border exactly
The rule needs some notation
Last interval will be like this
VulcanOne
Includes both borders
The interval before it should not include the upper border
So it will be like this
VulcanOne
shouldn't it be 4.1 < x <= 4.4
Hmm
Think of it like layers
First layer is the first interval
Then you lay the second layer on top of the first layer
So it takes the limit of the first interval with it
And you keep doing that till the last interval
And the last interval is the last layer
So it has the limits of both its own and the interval before it
Does this make sense?
okyy
Do you know how to get the frequency?
Ooo haha
Haha I'm super honored
Thats why I wanna use your wordings
I keep second guessing my wordings when it comes to maths
Aww hopefully you'll master the concepts in no time
Okay so for the frequencies
Any point in your data that lies in your interval goes into it
And for this you're going to need to organize your data from least to greatest to make your job easier

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slightly confused on how they went from line 3 to 4
and also should it not be a bisector?
My guess is squaring and collecting terms
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could someone tell me where these n's in the denominator have come from plz
they divided both sides by n in the very last step
oh i didnt see the n on the LHS
thx
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thats what it looks like to me lol
it means intersction of Q with the interval [1/2, 1]
so Q is all the values between 1 and 1/2 excluding them both?
no [1/2, 1] is the set of all values between 1/2 and 1, including both 1/2 and 1
idk what Q is
is Q supposed to be the set of rational numbers?
real numbers
if Q is the set of real numbers then Q intersection [1/2, 1] = [1/2, 1]
do u know about intersection of sets
yeah
is intersection
so Q is a circle
and [1/2, 1] is a different circle
$Q\cap\left[\frac{1}{2},1\right]$
SilverSoldier
is the common part of those two circles
this circle contains 1/2 and 1 both
Ohhhhhhhhhh, so the value of q lies between 1 and 1/2 including them
not all values
but some values
right?
what do u mean value of q
Mehdi_Moulati
$\Q?$
rational numbers?
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help me
anyone here ?
Nope
Yes

Don’t ask to ask, just ask
@wanton roost Has your question been resolved?
LOL
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$\frac{1}{\ln 2}\int_1^2 \ln (t^3 + 1) + \frac{3t^3}{t^3 + 1}dt$
NEONPerseus
Looking just at the second term, try integration by parts with t and 3t^2/(t^3+1)
Hmm alright
But don’t go plugging in limits yet
alright
lol when I integrate by parts it cancels out the first part
Thanks a lot
it's solved :P
$2\log_2 9 - 1$
NEONPerseus
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If any of the a1, a2 and a3 are divisible by 3, then it's clearly true, so consider the cases when some of them are congruent to 1 mod 3 and others - to 2 mod 3
Can't think of a simpler way yet
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so i did smth totally wrong nd m not sure what it is
What makes you say that
If you differentiate your answer do you get the integrand?
There's an equivalent way to express arccosh in terms of logs
So they could be the same answer
itried but if i express it that way its not the same :c
Do this then
turns out no
Are you differentiating by hand?
no
i understand how he did it, but im not sure why mine doesnt turn out correctly
@gusty coral Has your question been resolved?
@gusty coral Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185> D: sorry
Differentiate your answer then?
Find out where the derivative doesn't match up
i tried but havent been able to spot it
@gusty coral Has your question been resolved?
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hi
what rank does the matrix need to have?
well since it goes from a 3 dimensional vector space, i would say not bigger than 3?
Wait, is this right: f: R^3 ---> R^n
?
it goes from? what dimensions do the vectors need to have you multiply with?
like if you want to multiply M*v, what kind of vector does v need to be?
something like (x, y, z) ?
no wait
it has 4 columns
so it would actually be (x, y, z, t)?
@alpine sable
yes so it goes from R^4
oh yes
and into what space does it map to?
to something 3 dimentional because 3 lines
yes, so what rank does M need to have?
it must be 3 or less than 3
well if it had rank 2, the image would have dimension 2
but you want the image to have full 3 dimensions
yes and surjective means that image dim less or equal to the antecedant
no?
unless i misunderstood something
uhm
surjective means the map hits all vectors in the output space
ah yess actually
ok so it must be equal to 3
so now just apply some algorithm for determining the rank and set alpha and beta accordingly
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this isnt really a math question, but more of a physics question can anyone help me
A hint, is law of conservation of energy
the only part im confused about is the last part.
i know its not possible to create work without expensing energy
but since no energy is being used how would I explain what happens to the energy
The law of conservation of energy states that energy can neither be created nor destroyed - only converted from one form of energy to another
That end part is important
ohh would it be like I transfer energy indirectly
like i heat up the ground and the air temp increases slightly
kk thx
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Hello, I'm not very expert in maths, I wanted to know if it is possible to have the list of all the numbers Ranging from 1,111,111,111 to 2,222,222,222 Containing only digits 1 and 2
if it is possible to send it to me in file or PDF mode I will be very happy.
Or if there is a mobile app that allows you to do this kind of calculation, I am all yes. Leave me the name of the applications in private Thanks very much ..
@alpine sable Has your question been resolved?
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can someone prove that, i want a million dollars
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Can anyone explain to me how I am wrong?
the limit at -1 exists
that is what I selected
i selected that limit at -1 is 3
how can a limit at -5 exist if there are two points for -5?
one at -5 and one at -7
use the definition of limit
f(-5) has nothing to do with the limit of f(x) as x goes to -5
by doing so that means that the limit of 3 also has an answer?
No - go from the left and from the right, you don't get closer towards the same value
yea but that is the same thing for -5
Whereas when you get closer to -5, the function output gets closer to -5
the limit from the left and the limit from the right are equal
its just f(-5) != lim
Note that you don't need continuity for a limit to exist
ok so why wouldnt 3 have a limit?
is it not the same situation as -5
in which there are two points for 3 and -5
Approach from the left, you get closer to 5.something, whereas approach from the right, you get closer to 7 - those aren't the same
Whereas with -5, approach from the left, you get closer to -5, approach from the right, you get closer to -5
Not quite - what's the definition of a limit that you have? Are you familiar with the epsilon-delta definition?
i have not heard of an epsilon-delta limit haha?
Ah, fair enough, then don't worry too much about it (I'll state it anyway)
At least one of them which I'm familiar with states that $\lim_{x\to a} f(x) = L$ if for any $\varepsilon >0$, you can find a $\delta_{\varepsilon} > 0$ such that whenever $0 < |x - a| < \delta_{\varepsilon}$, you have $|f(x) - L| < \varepsilon$
chartbit
You can worry about it later I guess, but basically you aren't concerned about what the value of the function at that point (say -5) actually is, but what the value gets closer to
So it doesn't really matter that $f(-5) = -7$ and isn't the same as the limit $\lim_{x\to -5}f(x) = -5$
chartbit
Now, for continuity, you would want them to be the same
so long as x is the same number in both directions, the limit is true, regardless of if there are also different numbers?
(Short version is that continuity is saying that you have the limit at the point existing and being the same as the function value)
Basically yea - it doesn't matter if the function doesn't take that limit value, just that as you go from the left and the right, you go towards the same thing
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Let $X$ and $Y$ be random variables with finite mean. Show that $\int_{-\infty}^\infty [P(X<x\leq Y)-P(Y<x\leq X)]dx = \mathbb{E}[Y]-\mathbb{E}[X]$
Quaerendo_Invenietis
My first instinct is to break this into two integrals, but the subsantive part is reinterpreting the probabilities.
Recall that $\mathbb{E}[X] = \int_{-\infty}^\infty x P(X=x)dx$
Quaerendo_Invenietis
Maybe there's a way to change the bounds of integration.
But then again we seem to like those bounds.
@swift ice Has your question been resolved?
Is this measure theoretic probability?
I'm not sure if measure theory is necessary for this problem, though it is possible.
If you’re familiar with measure theoretic techniques you can probably write P(X < x <= Y) as an integral, then use fubini
(I personally have never learned non measure theoretic probability so I probably can’t help on that front, but hopefully this gives you something to work with)
Hm. I guess I could convert the probability into the expectation (i.e., integral) of an indicator random variable. But I'm not sure where that leads.
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Someone showed me how to do this yesterday, I already forgot 🫠
Someone on this server?
yep
You realize that discord as message history, right?
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show that the set V= r^2 for an abelian group with that vectoraddition
so i guess we have to show that it fulfills all 4 conditions of an abelian group.
if we add neutral element (0, 0, 0, ..R^n) it stays the same.
if we add inverse element it builds 0 with x
if we add a 3 rd group and put braces the end result is the same
if we change vector x1 and x2's position the endresult is still the same
did i solve this correctly
also can you show me how to solve this the formal way?
like it doesn't need to be super formal, just the correct way how you would write it down
that it's mathematically correct
a more appropriate channel may be #groups-rings-fields since this is a more advanced topic. if you don't get an answer here for a while then consider asking there instead
hmm k but usually people here can help me, it's just 1st semester uni math
@alpine sable Has your question been resolved?
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how do i solve this?
u substitution
can you help me with the substitution? its a little confusing to me
think about it logically
is there any relation between the functions 1/x and log(x)?
first of all we must clarify what exactly is meant by 'log'
i think its natural logarithm
alright then this becomes simple. very good
is there any relation between the functions 1/x and log(x)?
yes
yep
no
and that will cancel out the 2 in the denominator
yes
yeah that's definitely wrong haha
damn thats what had me confused
so my ans is correct! thank goodness
thanks a lot for your help :))
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think about it logically
yeah, that seems to be the trick haha
if the integral of logx/x is log(x), that implies that logx/x = 1/x
ive just started integration so its a little confusing at times still
lol!
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How do i evaluate this where R is the region in the first quadrant bounded by y=1+x^2 and y=8-x^2
then y will b between these 2
while x will be between the positive val here and 0
then u do ur normal integration thingy
what x values are permissible?
hm c if these 2 go below y=0 ig
else split integration a bit
lol
Its like this but idk how to write the bounds for double integral
we have to solve for the point of intersection
dy dx you mean
because we have scalar bounds for x and function bounds for y
Can you type the bounds for me I'm confused
for d its from 0 to that intersection pt u found
1+x²<y<8-x²
0<x<sqrt(7/2)
Bottom one is for outer integral right?@molten pivot
Yeah
And it's dydx
Yea
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You roll fair, 6-sided dice all at the same time. a is the number of dice you roll in this initial set of rolls. Call this initial set of rolls “phase 1”.
An individual roll is called a “success” if it falls within the range {6, .., 6-b}. So if b=2, then the range of success for any roll is {6, 5, 4}. It follows that the probability of success of any individual roll is (b+1)/6.
But whether or not you got any successes in the initial set of rolls, you must re-roll any die which falls in the range {6, …, 7-c} if c>0, but if c=0 then you cannot re-roll that die. It follows that the probability you get to re-roll any individual die is c/6.
The next set of rolls, the re-rolls (if there are any), is called “phase 2”. And so on.
In terms of a, b, and c, what is the probability of getting any successes at all?
Here’s my work so far:
Probability of there being no successes in a phase, given that there are n dice in that phase:
[1 - ((b+1)/6)]^nSince whether there will be a success in a phase is independent, then letting n2, n3, n4… mean the number of dice in phase 2, phase 3, phase 4, and so on, the probability that there will be no successes at all is just multiplying the previous probability infinitely:
[1 - ((b+1)/6)]^a * [1 - ((b+1)/6)]^n2 * [1 - ((b+1)/6)]^n3 * …
And then
1 - [1 - ((b+1)/6)]^a * [1 - ((b+1)/6)]^n2 * [1 - ((b+1)/6)]^n3 * …
gives the probability of getting any successes
The problem is that n2, n3, n4 are not determinable in terms of a,b,c. I know that the expected value of n2 is going to be a*c/6, but does that really help?
How many phases are there?
Potentially infinite
Or we can just treat it as infinite, with there being a probability 1 that there will eventually be phases with no rolls in them
And you want to know the probability of getting any success by a given phase?
The probability of getting any success at all, in terms of a,b,c
At least one success in any phase
Not necessarily
for the problem to be interesting it has to be possible to lock down a failed roll
right
otherwise success is eventually guaranteed
so the probability is 1
Well suppose a is 1
in phase 1 you start off with one roll
and lets say b is 2
so success means falling within {6, 5, 4}
let's say that your roll is a 2
what's c?
c determines the range of values for which you get to reroll
yes but in this hypothetical what is it
like concretely?
ye
xD it's a modifier in a game
hmm I see
problem was slightly different then I was first thinking
but wait why don't we have a c value
wym
to solve the problem we need to know what c is right
why did you choose values for a and b but not c
ohhhh
i misapprehended here lol
ah
and let's say that c is 1
so only 6s are rerolled
so there's a 1/2 chance here
If you get a 4,5,6 you succeed
if you get a 1,2,3 you fail
Yeah
so whatever the chance of one dice failing is
let's say p
The chance of a dice failing will be p^a
since each one is independent
yes
so if c≤b+1 then only successful dice are rerolled
which has no outcome on the final result, so the chance is the same as the chance of no successes given a dice
right
your choice of 6-b vs 7-c makes it a little weird
yea i agree. i'm doing it from my friend's game rules. i wonder if there is a way if I can make it nicer without affecting the substance of the problem
6-b and 6-c I would assumr
but anyways the remaining part here
it's a kind of problem where
the issue is he wants modifier C being 0 to mean that you can't re-roll
The chance of a failure is A
The chance of success is B
The chance of rerolling is C
A+B+C = 1
how do you know that?
Because you have to either fail, reroll, or succeed
the probabilities have to add up to 100%
but both failing and succeeding are consistent with rerolling
I mean in one roll
yea
For one given roll
And the goal is to calculate the probability of eventual success
A + B = 1 for an individual roll
no reroll chance?
there is a re-roll chance but adding it would bring you over 1
i just mean like
A chance that the roll causes you to instantly fail
B chance that it causes you to instantly succeed
C chance that it's a reroll
ah, I see
They're the 3 possibilities of a roll
I thought you meant failure as in not-a-success
ah
it's a dead end, so to speak
yeah here instant failure means not success and getting the dice locked
gotcha
So the goal is to calculate the chance of eventual success
oh wait so it does seem easier to calculate the chance of eventual success given an individual roll and then just multiply(?) that by a
take that to the power of a
yeah the multiple rolls part is an element that can be completely removed from the problem and just done at the end like that
why wouldn't it be multiplication tho
Independent events
but we're looking for the probability of the union, rather than the intersection, no?
if A,B are independent, 𝑃(𝐴∪𝐵)=𝑃(𝐴)+𝑃(𝐵)−𝑃(𝐴)⋅𝑃(𝐵)
P(A or B) = 1 - P((not A) and (not B))
When it comes to independent events it's a lot easier to work with ands than ors
so instead of asking about A or B or C being a success
I look at when A and B and C are failures
You already did this step right in your work so far
With ^n
ah so, P(success) = 1 - P(failure)^a
yeah
here success being any success
And failure meaning failure of some specific dice
@carmine reef
so i've worked out these fundamental probabilities:
probability that an individual roll is a success is (b+1)/6
the probability that an individual roll gets re-rolled is c/6
ye so you need a solution to the general win/lose/reroll problem
then you probably should be able to do the rest
Let S = success, F = failure, W = win, L = lose, R = reroll
S and F are global outcomes, W,L,R are on one roll
P(F) = P(L)*P(F|L) + P(R)*P(F|R) + P(W)*P(F|W)
You can arrive at that formula by making a tree diagram
Yeah, sure we can say first roll
ok, I'll attempt this and be back in 5 mins
gl
i split it up into W R and L at first
should I do that? it seems unintuitive to me, because neither W or L are inconsistent with R, but they are inconsistent with each other
just realized that W guarantees S
non-success rolls that still allow rerolls are R
non-success rolls that don't allow rerolls are L
wouldn't that just be global failure i.e. F?
cause we're only thinking about one die
ok lemme redo
@carmine reef my tree is infinite
also ignore my formula at this point
but keep the tree thing
right so
its infinite
but its self referential
is this right: L entails F, F entails some eventual "L" though not necessarily on the original roll?
yes
ok, would this equation be right:
P(F) = P(L) * P(RL) * P(RRL) * P(RRRL) * ...
wait no
thatd be a small number
infinitely small in fact
and RL and RRL are not independent
how does this help?
so P(L) + P(RL) + P(RRL) + P(RRRL) + ...?
do these first two terms look right 1 - (b+1)/6 + (1 - (c/6))(1 - (b+1)/6)(b+1)/6)
for P(RL) i multiplied (1- (b+1/6))(c/6), the probability I calculated for R, with 1 - (b+1)/6, the probability of any L
i'm taking P(RL) to mean P(R and then L)
doing it that way is going to be very messy
i'd recommend just finding the sum in terms of P(L) and P(R)
but no i dont think P(R) is necessarily (1-(c/6))
that would be P(W or R)
P(F) = P(L) + P(R)P(L) + P(R)P(R)P(L) + ...
P(F) = sum k=0 to inf of P(L)P(R)^k?
nope lol
do u know geometric series formula?
P(K)?


