#elementary-number-theory
1 messages · Page 76 of 1
The coefficient of (p r) contain a factor of p
what is (p r)
The coefficient of n^r in expansion of (1+n)^p is pCr
what is C in pCr
Yea,That works too
i never heard of a C
ohhh :P
thx
i need to learn elementary number theory :P
always been my weak point
@sleek cove Puella Magi Madoka Magica
it's a very very very very deep anime
makes you think
it's the type of anime that makes u think about it for a week after watching
but u gotta watch till the end

i hate weebs wtf
ur so cring pls stop

Lmao, I once saw someone's list of top 10 films and they were all serious good films and then.
10: I know it's not a film, but Puella blah blah.
Then I googled and saw it's just little girls and I laughcried
bro it's so good. its deep and intellectual
someone recommend number theory book
i wanna learn this next year
I didn't read it but my professor was very enthusiastic about An Illustrated Theory of Numbers by Martin H. Weissman
"A Classical Introduction to Modern Number Theory" by Ireland, Rosen
what is it asking me to prove with $0_R=1$ and $1_R=2$ ?
cRaZyNiChOlAs12
does it want me to prove that its additive identity is 1?
alright, is the additive and the multiplicative identity always denoted as $0_R$ and $1_R$
cRaZyNiChOlAs12
yes but depending on context people just write 0 and 1
and is the first problem really just 2+3-1? or am i missing something
yeah thats it
is there a reason profs will give easy problems like that? Cause i always feel like the super easy problems are overthought
I mean, just to get you comfortable with the operations I guess
what is the difference between like [a] and a
in what context?
Usually [a] denotes the equivalence class of a under some equivalence relation
Uh, there's no equivalence relation? You're just working with the integers
I'm not really sure what you mean
i think i get it, if it was a ring like Z6 then it would be [x] whatever x is in Z6
Right
because we usually think of Z6 as Z/6Z
so you have an equivalence relation on Z where x ~ y if x = y (mod 6)
ah alright thanks lol
how is this divisible by p?
well, the original problem is
his translation isn't
rip
$(n+1)^p=n^p+\binom{p}{1}n^{p-1}+\binom{p}{2}n^{p-2}+\cdots+\binom{p}{p-2}n^2+\binom{p}{p-1}n+1$
Whoever
Then, you also know $p\mid\binom{p}{k}$ when $0<k<p$
Whoever
is there a formula for finding d(p^r) and sigma(p^r)?
1, p^1,....,p^r
whenever i open this chat and see a much more advanced problem than mine it scares me
can a subring have multiple solutions to a identity? like in this it is asking me to prove that $Q sqrt{2}$ is a subring of $Q$ and $Q sqrt{2}=a+b sqrt{2}$
oh yea they have to be rational duh
and since sqrt2 isnt irational wouldnt a nonzero rational x irrational gives u a irrational number
*nonzero rational
lol
could someone go through an example with the kronecker symbol with me, lets say Q(root(-7)), for a = 67?
i got 1
nvm i found that the FTA doesnt hold
trying to gauge the difficulty of a problem I came up with, give it a shot:
Suppose $n,m$ is a solution to $n!+1=m^2$. Show that $n$ is less than the smallest prime divisor of $m$.
Merosity
||n! + 1 has none of the non-trivial factors n! has , so m^2 doesn't have them, so m doesn't have them?||
||so m doesn't have any non-trivial factors up to and including n, so n is less than the smallest prime factor of m?||
yeah that looks pretty good to me
fun one
is there a way to check that a number is not a multiple of squares besides testing all the squares?
if it helps im taking a cube of an integer + 1 but i want to make sure that this isnt a square or a multiple of a square
anyone have any tips to solve this, I'm normally pretty good at number theory stuff but I'm honestly lost for this one
Try looking at the residue classes individually (or in pairs)
Eg. Start off by looking what happens if n = 0 or 3 mod 6
if it's 0 or 3 mod 6 then we have a multiple of 3 as the sum of the digits so it's divisible by 3 correct? and thus not prime
Try some small examples
I feel like they're divisible by 11
but idk why
I'm struggling to remember divisibility rules other than 3 lmao
Lets look at 1111 and try to find if its a multiple of 11
Note that 1100 = 11×100
And so 1111 = 11×100+11
Can you extend this idea
seems like a trick question?
the fact that it's a repunit has basically nothing to do with it
so like for 11111111 we have e.t.c 11 * 1000000 + 11 * 10000 + 11 * 100 + 11
Epic
so that's gonna be divisible by 11 yeah nice
I read it wrong first dont worry
great, thanks man
Np
so when proving that something is a subring and doing the inverse step is it legit just putting negatives in the equation where they negate the original equation given so that it equals 0?
like $a=x+y\sqrt{2}$ and then to prove the inverse $-a+a=0$ so like $-x-y\sqrt{2}+x+y\sqrt{2}=0$
cRaZyNiChOlAs12
or for a subring do u only need to prove it is closed by addition and subtraction?
You are assuming negation for real numbers x and y. You must PROVE the negation for the elements of the group.
yes
follows from eulers theorem
not sure if 3 is a primitive root mod all 10^n
but thats different from your question
let me check that i understand the question
you wish to show that the powers of three are periodic modulo 10^n?
engineers induction
not like this
have you heard of eulers totient theorem
yes
and for any a coprime to n, we have $a^{\varphi(n)} \equiv 1 \bmod{n}$
Pappa
Pappa
and \phi(100) = 40
wait no
ok this is slightly bad
it is 40
well we can show that its periodic
let me think for a moment
okay
i think ive got it
have you heard of the lifting the exponent lemma
its quite common in comp math
also the pattern does not hold
you can check that 3^2500 != 1 mod 10^5
how to solve this problem?
If it were 1 then 3 would have a period of 2500, which is what your engineers induction predicts
So i can show that the highest power of 2 dividing 3^(4×5^n) is 16
Not sure really
It could be phi(100000) or it could not
I dont think there are any general results that would instantly give you the period
What is the quadratic field generated by, $$\prod ^{n}_{i=0}\left( \xi -i\right) $$ multiplied by a non-linear factor?
ohNoiAmHere
What exactly do you mean by this?
like i have the polynomial e(e-1)..(e-n)*P(e), where P(e) is nonlinear, is there a way for me to ignore the linear factors?
in making a quadratic field
I still don't really understand what you're trying to do
Are you looking for the splitting field of this polynomial?
yes
I mean
The splitting field of that polynomial is just going to be the splitting field of P(e) so
yea, so thats what i thought, but i wasn't sure cause i couldn't prove it or find it online
thanks :)
LEt R be a ring and a,b be in R. (a+b)(a-b)=?
what is this even asking lmfao cause my brain just says immediately to foil but that isnt right
i found a answer on google now but why does it add a and b into the equation? like (a+b)a-(a+b)b why are we allowed to multiply by a and b?
That answer on google is just foiling or distributing I guess
Foiling is right, it actually follows from the distributive properties of a ring
so my textbook asks for the answers if r is not commutative and then if it is like it says just "(a+b)(a-b)" "then what is the answer to a if R is commutative
how would it be that they arent commutative though?
It's still the exact same
or well, the first step is the same
You're still going to use the distributive law to get (a + b)a + (a + b)(-b)
And then use it again to get a^2 + ba - ab - b^2
So if your ring is commutative, then ba and ab cancel out
but if your ring isn't, then this is all you can do
right
E(15) is isomorphic to $E(3) \times E(5)$ which is isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}_2 \times \mathbb{Z}_4$ right ?
Otoro
Yes
Thank you very much
Can you write out what equation must hold?
Also, this stuff is more appropriate for #groups-rings-fields
Yes the polynomial is reducible
have you learned gauss's lemma?
Just plug in the numbers that the rational root theorem tells you to, and see that 1/3 is a root
Hey
I need help
107*7 = 1 (mod 187)
I take everything to the 7th power
and for some reason when i plug 184 back in, I dont get 6
im not sure what im doing wrong since all my steps seem correct
It's not true that you can reduce powers by the mod
It's not quite as straightforward as that
What? It's still true that there's a unique solution
It's just that your method for finding the solution is not valid
I'm trying to understand this, why does it work in this case?
and not the case I have above
What's the difference
Read that first sentence
exponents behave mod phi(105) = 48
In your case, phi(187) = 160
oh
so exponents behave mod 160
i remember
not 187
no problem
beeswax
But I'm not quite sure how to use the inductive hypothesis
I wouldn't prove it by induction
I just observe that divisors come in pairs and sqrt(n) is the middle
Wait, what do you mean when sqrt(n) is in the middle
anyone have any ideas on how to show this?
I can tell that for any composite number, (n-2)! would contain all of its factors so it would be equal to itself * an arbitrary x and would therefore be congruent to 0 mod n
but I don't see how a prime number would be specifically 1 mod p
Have you seen wilson's theorem before?
i feel like the odd requirement is extraneous
Write down the factors of n and order them, sqrt(n) will be in the middle of that ordering
To Wilson's theorem, yes, but it would seem to me to be a good place to start to tackle this problem
no I don't know abt wilson's theorem
Do you know about inverses mod p?
pog just proved wilson's theorem independently
very sweet
very lovely
one of these days i will actually learn number theory
my bad I went afk I had to take care of something
alright so we just have to divide this by n-1
Uh
i mean just prove wilson's theorem it's quite nice
Do you know that you can divide by n-1
I'm not sure im kinda confused
Mm
One way is to note that n-1 = -1 (mod n)
So if you take wilson's theorem and multiply both sides by -1
i mean.
everything has an inverse mod p, so you can divide, right? have you covered that stuff?
What if sqrt(n) is not an integer? Are we allowed to consider noninteger factors?
I sort of see what you mean now. Like for example, n=5, we have d(n)=2 and sqrt(n) is in between 1 and 5. But I’m still unsure how to build a proof around it.
Would we set 1 as our minimum divisor and n as our maximum divisor and then have 1<sqrt(n)<n?
I’m not quite sure how to factor in d(n)
show that if you have a*b=n then when a<= sqrt(n) then b>= sqrt(n)
What I meant was if you can find a factor x less than sqrt(n),you can always find a factor y=(n/x) greater than sqrt(n)
And for each factor > sqrt(n) you can find a factor < sqrt (n) similarly
i.e,There is a bijection from the set of factors < sqrt (n) to the set of factors > sqrt(n)
Is there a simple criterion for the sum of two unit fractions to be a unit fraction?
yes
Set them up as 1/a + 1/b = 1/c
do a little fiddling, should work out
I only get a + b | ab, which isn't particularly useful.
if 1/a + 1/b = 1/c, then we can see that ab - c(a+b) = 0, for a,b,c unequal to zero, try from here
surely ab = c(a+b) would be better?
much better I think
i was thinking ab - ac - bc + c^2 = c^2 or (a-c)(b-c) = c^2
isn't mod a and then mod b better?
most likely yea
Also (a-c)(b-c) = 0
i was thinking of getting to 1/n = 1/n+1 + 1/n(n+1)
I was thinking 1/2n+ 1/2n = 1/n
yea thats probably better
mm no yours is pretty good
maybe better
I can't tell
yeah yours is better in terms of motivation
can someone help me find solutions for, a^2 + b^2 + c^2 = d^2 + e^2 + f^2 and a + b + c = d + e + f, in the positive integers?
hmm interestingly, if (a,b,c,d,e,f) is a solution so is (a+k, b+k, c+k, d+k, e+k, f+k) for an arbitrary k
you can get this by adding 2k of the second equation to the first and 3k^2 to both sides then you get a bunch of a^2+2ka+k^2 + ... which gets (a+k)^2 + ...
this means without loss of generality we can assume something like a=0
cant we also get that $ab+bc+ca = de+ef+fd$
Pappa
just by $(a+b+c)^2 = (d+e+f)^2$
Pappa
sure
does that follow from what you just wrote or is it something you got randomly
from what I said, using that there are infinitely many more
just subtract or add 1 to every number in it
(1,5,6,2,3,7)
tried to put it in ascending order as best as possible with a=1
and call this like "primitive form" or something
I like what you said about pythagorean triples, we can always just use any two pythagorean triples to produce a solution
well, I guess we also need that extra condition
interesting, I think it can be simplified quite a bit
we can assume they're all relatively prime, this means there's at least one odd number on each side of the equation. If they're the same we can remove them and we just have a sum of two squares on each side.
so let's assume they're not equal, without loss of generality suppose the odd numbers are a,d and a<d
now we can translate by - (a+d)/2 and we will end up with another valid solution
we will end up with a becoming (-n)^2 and d becoming n^2 which again cancels out
so we can focus on just solving b^2+c^2=e^2+f^2
thank you thats really helpful
oh I should mention, solutions to that last one can be be boiled down to looking at the factorization of an integer in the gaussian integers
the number of ways to factor a number as a sum of two squares boils down to basically checking stuff about what the prime factors are mod 4
So, I'm trying to prove $$p^2 \mid n \implies n \nmid \phi(n) \sigma(n)+1,$$ and I'm trying to prove the contrapositive. I tried to write n as a factor of primes $p_{i}$, but I'm kind of stuck. I was wondering if someone is able to help me out with the proof
beeswax
<@&286206848099549185>
Note that $\phi(p^k)\sigma(p^k)=p^{2k}-p^{k-1} $
Now let's say n=p^k q^m...
Weird
Now if n divides $\phi(n)\sigma(n)+1$
DrunkenDrake
That implies $p^k \vert \phi(n) \sigma(n)+1 \implies p^k \vert (p^{2k}-p^{k-1})m +1$ where m is a positive integer (more specially it is $(q^{2m}-q^{m-1})...$)
DrunkenDrake
That implies $mp^{k-1}-1=0 \mod p^k$ that is $p^{k-1}$ is a unit in $Z/p^kZ$
DrunkenDrake
But that is possible only if k-1=0 since otherwise p^{k-1} and p^k are not coprime
Implying k=1
That is n is squarefree,since this can be repeated with any prime in the prime factorisation of n
This works because \phi(n) \sigma(n) is multiplicative
For this, we're using the fact that $$ \sigma(p^k) = \frac{p^{k+1}-1}{p-1} $$ right?
beeswax
DrunkenDrake
Why do p^{k-1} and p^k have to be coprime?
If a is a unit in Z/bZ (a,b)=1.
Suppose ak=1 mod b this implies
ak=1+bn for some n which implies 1=ak-bn which implies gcd(a,b) divides 1,i.e., gcd(a,b)=1
(or -1)
To begin, let us first "re-word" what the problem is asking for. Instead of proving the fact that the number $2^{2^n} + 2^{2^{n - 1}} + 1$ has at least $n$ $\textbf{prime}$ factors, we can instead prove that it has at least $n$ positive factors, not necessarily prime. This is because, if a value it not prime, it has at least $2$ prime factors, meaning $n$ positive factors will surely suffice.
Now, let us factorize our value. To do so, let $a = 2^{2^{n - 1}}$. Substituting this in, we get the following:
$$a^2 + a + 1.$$
Note that our first term is $a^2$ because
$$2^{2^{n - 1}} \cdot 2^{2^{n - 1}} = 2^{2^{n - 1} + 2^{n - 1}} = 2^{2 \cdot 2^{n - 1}} = 2^{2^{n}},$$
by exponent properties. Let us now create a perfect square by adding and then subtracting an $a$ to get the following:
$$a^2 + a + 1 + a - a = a^2 + 2a + 1 - a = (a + 1)^2 - a.$$
Notice, however, that we can rewrite this expression as such:
$$(a + 1)^2 - a = (a + 1)^2 - (\sqrt{a})^2 = (a + \sqrt{a} + 1)(a - \sqrt{a} + 1),$$
by difference of squares. It is now time to substitute our value back in, giving us
$$(2^{2^{n - 1}} + \sqrt{2^{2^{n - 1}}} + 1)(2^{2^{n - 1}} - \sqrt{2^{2^{n - 1}}} + 1).$$
Now we must ask, what is $\sqrt{2^{2^{n - 1}}}$? We note that
$$2^{2^{n - 2}} \cdot 2^{2^{n - 2}} = 2^{2^{n - 1}},$$
thus $\sqrt{2^{2^{n - 1}}} = 2^{2^{n - 2}}$. Using this, we get the expression
$$(2^{2^{n - 1}} + 2^{2^{n - 2}} + 1)(2^{2^{n - 1}} - 2^{2^{n - 2}} + 1).$$
We now utilize induction to finalize our proof. We begin by testing our base case, $n = 1$. When $n = 1$, we have
$$(2^{2^{0}} + 2^{2^{-1}} + 1)(2^{2^{0}} - 2^{2^{-1}} + 1) = (2 + \sqrt{2} + 1)(2 - \sqrt{2} + 1) = (3 + \sqrt{2})(3 - \sqrt{2}) = 9 - 2 = 7.$$
Notice that this checks out, as $7$ does indeed have at least one prime factor (in this case, exactly one). Suppose that, for some integer $k > 1$,
$$(2^{2^{k - 1}} + 2^{2^{k - 2}} + 1)(2^{2^{k - 1}} - 2^{2^{k - 2}} + 1)$$
has at least $k$ positive factors (by our argument at the beginning of the solution, proving this will simultaneously prove the problem statement). We now prove that, for $n = k + 1$,
$$(2^{2^{k}} + 2^{2^{k - 1}} + 1)(2^{2^{k}} - 2^{2^{k - 1}} + 1)$$
has at least $k + 1$ positive factors. We notice something beautiful here. Our first trinomial in the factorization, $2^{2^{k}} + 2^{2^{k - 1}} + 1$, is exactly $(2^{2^{k - 1}} + 2^{2^{k - 2}} + 1)(2^{2^{k - 1}} - 2^{2^{k - 2}} + 1)$, the expression from our induction hypothesis! Finally, we conclude that $n = k + 1$ does in fact give us at least $k + 1$ factors, as we have $k$ at least $k$ factors from our first trinomial, and at least one factor from our second trinomial! Thus, by mathematical induction, this concludes our proof. $\blacksquare$
Did I write this correctly?
Im not reviewing the proof because that looks fine, but a stylistic decission i choose to make is to minimize the us of "we can see" and similair expressions and just go to the point, it helps with flow. But it looks good 👏
I guess what im trying to say is the proof is wordy
Thank you
Are you sure it's written as 3 * 0.5? And not 3 * (1/2) or 3 * 2^{-1}?
yes im sure
ig they were just taking 0.5 = 2^-1 = 3
Anyone has any tips for this one: For any integer $a \geq 1$, there are infinitely many integers $n$ such that $a \mid \sigma (n)$, where $\sigma$ is the sum of all positive divisors of $n$?
Jing
I can only think of using multiplicatity of sigma function
Solving for a being prime powers is enough to solve the general case
Let's say a=p^m
Consider n=p^{m+1}k where k is coprime to p
That should be enough to solve the problem
Oh thanks for the suggestion. I thought about prime powers, but in the form of a or n as product of prime powers
No, sigma, the sum of divisors of n. It's also multiplicitive
Still you only need to consider prime powers since multiplicative
Yeah
For "p" in this one, do you in fact mean another prime "q"?
Ok,That solution is completely wrong(Assumed that was phi function)
Just take a different prime q,such that p doesn't divide q-1(This is sufficient to make sure that (q-1) does have an inverse in Z/p^mZ)
Now (1+q+q^2...+q^{k}) mod p^m=(q^{k+1}-1)(q-1)^-1 mod p^m
Now you can clearly find a k such that q^{k+1}-1=0 mod p^m(if q!=p)
n=q^k m where k is a number that satisfies that condition and m is coprime to q^k should be enough,I think
Thanks, I will think about it
Ok,I have a much better proof:
Take q!=p and consider the set
{1,1+q,1+q+q^2,1+q+q^2+q^3...}
Now,There are finite no of remainders under division by p^m
So,There are 2 elements which leave the same remainder by pigeonhole
We learned Dirichlet theorem on APs and I thought of perhaps using that
i.e.,p^m divides (q^k+q^{k+1}...q^{n}) for some k,n
But I think yours works as well. We don't necessarily need to use Dirichlet.
How were you planning to use Dirichlet here?
That didn't work out very well
So you mean if there are two such numbers, m and n for m > n, then p^m divides m - n?
of course
Thank you @leaden swan , I just worked it out. It's really a clever and smart argument. It reminds me of some math-competition-flavor problems I have seen.
But that only implies $\sigma (m) - \sigma (n)$ is divisible by $p^{m}$, it does not tell us what is the number, say $x$, such that $\sigma (x) = \sigma (m) - \sigma (n)$.
Jing
You understood this step?
Now p^m does not divide q^k
Because p!=q
So p^m has to divide (1+q+q^2...q^{n-k}) which is sigma(q^{n-k})
i.e., There's a r such that p^m divides sigma(q^r)
For any prime q!=p
Now,To finish this for general case, let's say a=${p_1}^{n_1}{p_2}^{n_2}...{p_k}^{n_k}$ consider the numbers of the form
${q_1}^{r_1}{q_2}^{r_2}...{q_k}^{n_k}, \text{where } {q_1}!={p_1},{r_1}: {p_1} \vert \sigma({q_1}^{r_1}),q_2: q_2!=p_2,{r_2}: {p_2} \vert \sigma({q_2}^{r_2}) \land q_i !=q_j \forall i!=j$
DrunkenDrake
Well that times m, where m is a number not containing any of those prime factors
Well q_1!=q_2(and so on) because then sigma(n) decomposes nicely into sigmas of prime powers
Thanks! This is the step I missed.
What do you mean by $r_{1} : p_{1}$?
Jing
r_1 such that
Should have used |
My bad
q_i =q_j only if i=j,btw forgot to add that
Dirichlet is kinda overkill but it will work like this: Note that for any prime $p$, $\sigma(p) = p+1$. Now $a | \sigma(p) = p+1 \implies p \equiv -1 \bmod a$, for which we have infinitely many solutions by dirichlet.
Pappa
I also think that all numbers of the form $p^{\varphi \left(a\right)-1}k{,}\ \gcd \left(a{,}p-1\right)=1$ work
Pappa
Wow, this is really really short...
i cant personally find any errors with it
only problem is that it uses a super strong theorem in dirichlet
Well, we covered this theorem this week, so using it is anticipated... One hint from previous problem is "here and in some of the forthcoming problems use Dirichlet’s Theorem."
well then its fine ig
any help for this question?: x^12 = 23 mod 41, given 7 is prim root of 41
solve for x
I think i found out since 23^40 = 1 mod 41, and gcd(12, 40) = 4, then 23^10 = 1 mod 41 and there are 4 solutions
but im not sure where to go from there
By calculation, you should be able to find that $7^{4}\equiv23\mod41$. Thus the question becomes to solve $x^{12}\equiv7^{4}\mod41$, given that $7$ is a primitive root of $41$. This should be somewhat easier. @keen ivy
Bannanachair Monarch
oh true
thank you, what does 7 being a primitive root imply tho in terms of what you suggested
so x^3 = 7 mod 41?
The fact that 7 is a primitive root means that every number in $\mathbb{Z}/41\mathbb{Z}$ can be written as a power of $7$. If you know any abstract algebra, it means that 7 is a generator of the cyclic group of order 41, and that 7 has order 41.
Bannanachair Monarch
That is, $7^{41}=7$, and there is no $n<41\in\mathbb{Z}$ such that $7^{n}=41$.
Bannanachair Monarch
y is that entire K[x]? (K is a field, irr_K(a) is minimal monic polynomial of a over K)
K[x] is a PID
oh ok ye so its sth like since irr doesnt divide g then g = f*irr + element of K therefore element of K is in the ideal so 1 is as well?
uh, how do you know it's + element of K? I'm not sure that's true
oh wait ure right, just of deg < than deg irr
Think about it like this, since its PID, you know that that ideal is generated by one element, say h(x)
so that means that h(x) divides both irr_K(a) and g(x)
yeah
Is it possible to say when the equation x^2-dy^3 = n has infinitely many solutions for fixed d and n
im not looking for a complete criterion, as that would probably be exceedingly complicated
but if there exist infinitely many solutions in specific cases
Does it ever have infinitely many? By Siegel's theorem, elliptic curves only have finitely many integral points @inner anchor
I guess this only works in the case that n is not 0, since otherwise the curve is singular
if n = 0, then you always have infinitely many solutions
for fun, when $n=0$ the general solution for integers $k, z$ is $x=d^{3k+2}z^3$ and $y=d^{2k+1}z^2$
Merosity
oh the k is redundant, w/e
Can this be done with Chinese Remainder Theorem?I got f(x)x^100+g(x)(x-2)^3=1 but couldn't proceed
nah use euclidean division
I'm not sure how brave that actually requires you to be 😳
maybe there's a trick, where did you get this problem
yeah there is a trick using p' and stuff
i was wondering if the euclidean way is always this hard
it's from CMI entrance
yeah I worked it out with a calculator too that's why haha
at least that's possible to write down
$$p(x)=\left(\frac{2525}{2535301200456458802993406410752}x^{2} \ -\frac{1275}{316912650057057350374175801344}x \ +\frac{5151}{1267650600228229401496703205376}\right)x^{100}+1$$
Merosity
whatever
if I were to try to reverse engineer some trick I'd start looking at the prime factorization of those numbers or something, idk any method
what's the trick with p'? something to do with the repeated root in (x-2)^3?
the denominators are all powers of 2, I'm guessing shift both polynomials by 2 possibly
p' has a factor of x^99(x-2)^2 so it's some constant times that
Since x^99 and (x-2)^2 are factors of p'(x) and they're coprime
So integrate p'(x) and you'd get p(x)
To find integration constant c and the constant k (p'=kx^99(x-2)^2) we'd use p(2)=2 and p(0)=1
Let $g(t+s) = g(t)g(s)$ for $s, t > 0$. I should show that $g(\frac{p}{q}) = g(1)^{\frac{p}{q}}$ for $p, q \in \mathbb{N}$. I can get $p$ into the exponent easily however im lost on $q$ any ideas?
I feel like im missing something number theory related
how can you get p into the exponent?
$g(p * \frac{1}{q}) = g(\frac{1}{q} + \frac{1}{q} + ... + \frac{1}{q}) = g(\frac{1}{q})^p$
Right, now try to do this "backwards" in some sense
you have that $g(1) = g\left(\frac{1}{q} + \cdots + \frac{1}{q}\right) = g\left( \frac{1}{q}\right)^q$
Zopherus
I am working on this proof, and I was wondering if someone could help me out. I’m not quite sure where to go next. Would it help to write
ak=b?
Well it’s probably useful to write the formula for phi a bit differently
Right now they are product of rational numbers
But you want to prove something about integers
It’s better to write $\varphi(p^k)=p^{k-1}(p-1)$
Whoever
DrunkenDrake
Where q is a number coprime to all those primes and $\beta_{i} \geq \alpha_{i} \forall i$
DrunkenDrake
@grave carbon
Why $\beta_i \geq \alpha_i$ and how does that factor $q$ help?
beeswax
That's by defn of divisibility
If a|b b should have higher prime powers for primes present in a
Because you can't reduce prime powers by multiplying with an integer
That q is for all the prime powers that exist in b but not in a
Like 2|12 and 12 has 3^1 in factorisation while 2 has 3^0
I see. I'll work with this and come back if I have more questions. Thank you!
Proof: If p is a prime number descirbed as p =3k-1 k element N, there is a k' element N for that p=6k'-1
I got no idea , how to start this proof. could anyone try to explain me pls
look at it mod 2
motivated by the fact that we're trying to show that k is really an even number 2k'
so i have to show that 2|6k'-1 ?
no, definitely not
6k'-1=p
p is a prime, it's not divisible by 2
I assume you left out that p is a prime not equal to 2
since it's false in that case
2=3*1-1 here k=1 and there's no k'
like I said, look at p=3k-1 mod 2
we're trying to show k is even
ok great thx!
I’m having some trouble on the inductive step, so I was wondering if someone could help me on this one
did the prof/book want you to use induction
It was just a hint, but it seems like a good approach
Is there an easier way?
Is it something about expanding that product?
Induction on number of primes in n?
Like say that result is true if there are k primes in prime factorisation of n
And show that implies the result if n were made up of (k+1) primes
Yeah, I'm a little stuck on this step
i would have figured you could manipulate one side somewhat "easily" to the other. you usually can w these
induction will probably work, as you will only have to sum over all squarefree divisors of n, but cant you just use the fact that $\mu(n) \varphi(n)$ is multiplicative to prove the statement for prime powers
Pappa
some sort of inclusion-exclusion will probably come up in the induction
question : why are there $2^{n-1}$ quadratic non-residues of $p=2^{n}+1$, where p is prime
Otoro
<@&286206848099549185>
half of all invertible elements in Zp are quadratic residues and so the other half are nonresidues
for a proof the existence of a primitive root should be enough
Hi there, can anybody help me with this question? It is on analytic number theory: Primes in arithmetic progression
@unreal canopy what have you tried?
I have managed to find a solution from Tom Apostol's Introduction to Analytic Number Theory. Thank you for the help
thank you @light flicker , and @fervent crest
For an odd prime p, if $p \equiv 2 mod 3$ then there is p-1 cubic residues and 0 nonresidues. But $(p-1)^{3} \equiv (-1) mod p$ so is p-1 a nonresidue or what does this means
Otoro
But isn't the residues congruent to 1 instead of -1 ?
Or is that only the case for quadratic
@leaden swan
What's your defn of residue?
afaik, a number p is a cubic residue in mod a if there is a number x such that x^3=p mod a
Ohhhh cause in my head Euler's criterion stuck with me so i memorised 1 and -1
Ahhhhhh so $p-1 \equiv (-1)^3 \equiv -1 mod p$ hence a cubic residue
Otoro
Gotcha thanks @leaden swan
I have one more question. Why do a lot of these proofs regarding residues start with letting g be a primitive root ? Is this a common technique, because as far as I know, primitive roots are not residues right ?!
No worries thank you though
Number theory (or arithmetic or higher arithmetic in older usage) is a branch of pure #mathematics devoted primarily to the study of the integers and integer-valued functions. Number theorists study prime numbers as well as the properties of objects made out of integers (for example, rational numbers) or defined as generalizations of the integer...
Working with primitive roots is quite convenient in this case
Like the product of residues is a residue and so on
Primitive roots are just super nice in general
So in a way it simplifies the working ?
Yeah
Up to a_k-1 to how would I find a soltution in the integers with this equal to zero?
kind of
kind of?
so i looked only at the case of k = 3, i did something like this;
q^2 - (a + b + c)q + (ab + bc + ca).
Notice that if we pick two integers N and M and want to get q^2 - Mq + N as the interesting factor what we need to do is to solve the system (in integers!) that follows:
a + b + c = M
ab + bc + ca = N
and if you substitute c = M - a - b into the second equation, we get that the condition on a and b is
a^2 + 2ab + b^2 - M(a + b) + N = 0.
That is, (a, b) is an integer solution to the equation
x^2 + xy + y^2 - M(x + y) + N = 0. And solved this new equation.
I want to move this same method up to higher k
should be -M(a + b) I think
Don't know if anything will work for higher k
yeah I mean, this kind of question falls into the realm of hard arithmetic geometry questions usually
falting's tells us that in a lot of cases, there are only going to be finitely many solutions at least
yea, i found infinite solutions for when it is k = 3 but for the rest im not sure yet
yeah this seems pretty hard in general
Is this the right place to go for talk about sets?
basic questions about sets is probably better in #discrete-math or #proofs-and-logic
Thank you.
Let n1 < n2 < · · · < nφ(m) be the integers between 1 and m which are relatively prime to m including n1 = 1. Let
N = n1n2 ···nφ(m)
be their product. Show that either
N≡1(modm) or N≡−1(modm)
how would i get started with that?
it seems similar to wilsons theorm
Did you try using Wilson's theorem?
the heck this place is called elementary-number-theory and im in elementary school and wth is all this
i came here for elementary stuff xD
undergrad≈elementary school
^
Anyway, how would I find the number of integers $n \leq 1000$ that have a primitive element in modulo n without using brute force?
beeswax
Well integers modulo n has a primitive element iff n is 2, 4, p^k, or 2p^k where p is an odd prime and k is positive integer, so you can first list all primes under 1000 and see what power of it exceeds 1000. I think this is probably the best you can do
This might be helpful
product of 2 cyclic groups is cyclic iff gcd of their orders is 1
Use the idea of wilson's theorem's proof. An element is either equal to its own inverse or not. If it is not equal to its own inverse then it cancels in the product. So N is just the product of all elements that equal to its own inverse. See that these elements satisfy x^2=1 (mod n). Use chinese remainder theorem to reduce this equation to modulo prime powers. Then show that x^2=1 (mod p^k) has solutions {-1,1} if p odd or p=2 and k=2; {1} if p=2, r=1; and {1,-1,2^{k-1}-1,2^{k-1}+1} if p=2, r≥3. Then use this result to say something about each coordinate of element x in the ring shown in (1) in #elementary-number-theory message. Then conclude
Actually, this is overkill
just pair x with n-x
they are always distinct and coprime with n iff the other one is, and their product is -1 so the overall product must be (-1)^k for some natural number k
Hey can someone help me?
I have zero idea how to proceed with this problem
unit means relatively prime to pq
generator means primitive root
nvm this problem is literally guessing and checking ugh
that was so obnoxious
I’m not really sure how to start this. Would like some help
@grave carbon try some examples maybe to see what happens?
Is there a notation which describes each integer similarly to this:
\begin{itemize}
\item 0 is shown as 0 \
\item 1 is shown as $(0,\cdots)$ \
\item $i$th prime number is shown as $(\underbrace{0,}_{i-1 \text{ times}}, \cdots)$
\item $2^3 \times 3^5$ is shown as $(3,5, \cdots)$
\end{itemize}
what's "..."?
and no, probably not, but looks like you just invented it, you don't need permission to make things like this
although it doesn't seem particularly well defined so far
JohnDark
... means infinitely many zeroes
I see, your ith prime number should have a 1 then, you're making infinite sequences where each entry is the exponent on the prime factorization
According to the fundamental theorem of arithmetic, such representation is unique
you could extend this to rational numbers too, so you have multiplication of numbers corresponds to addition of these sequences
You are correct
you could extend it to 0 by putting infinity in all the entries too I suppose too, sure why not
It would be 1
what would be
sure, 0 is divisible by every prime infinitely many times
well, it's kind of a joke, there's no reason to extend this to 0 I think because it doesn't really have a prime factorization
you might also add an extra place to the left which can take on 0 or 1 as a value to represent (-1)^n being positive or negative
If such notation already existed, it would save me from the need to explain the notation in detals
Well, thank you anyway!
there's nothing to explain
I'm going to perform some arithmetic in such notation
you're just representing the exponents of a prime factorization in a sequence
I'm given a task to show how to perform Gauss-Jordan elimination on integer matrices and show when it is possible at all, which I suppose means that I have to show some magic with divisibility
Smith normal form might be related to that question
May I ask about course of values recursion here or should I probably try it in advanced number theory?
guys what exactly is zorns lemma
What do you do once you have the fundamental solution to Pell's equation? e.g. $x^2−37y^2=1$ and now you want solutions to $x^2−37y^2=27$
WhiteBerry
You need a particular solution of the second equation, (a, b). Now (a+b sqrt(D))(x+ysqrt(D)) is a solution, where (x, y) is a solution the first equation
Finding every family of solutions is probably very difficlt
Mathematical contests. Interactive tests. Collection of problems from mathematical competitions.
This is actually pretty good
@next thunder I don't have rights to access the advanced channel, but why don't you just prove that J is an ideal of R using the definition?
I don't think J is equal to R
At least the set of elements is not necessarily equal
J has an additional property that the right product gives the 0 element so why would they be "equal" as you claim?
,iamadvanced
You already have the selfroles Advanced, do you want to remove them? (y(es)/n(o))
(Tip: use ,iamnot to remove roles without this prompt.)
Do that to gain access
Session timed out waiting for user response.
Does anyone have any hints for this problem: Prove that among three consecutive integers there is always one with at least two different prime factors, except the triplets 1,2,3; 2,3,4; 3,4,5; 7,8,9.
I tried to use proof by contradiction: Like first two numbers are prime powers, and the third one cannot be, but couldn't prove so. I also thought about sieve method, but we haven't covered that
contradiction seems good
by our contradiction assumption we have 3 consecutive numbers, each of which is a prime power
not quite
so you know that the middle number has to be even, and is therefore a power of two
Ok, Here's a simple proof
Note that a number out of those 3 is divisible by 3
If that number is not a power of 3,we are done
also by 2, since 3 consective numbers are divided by 3! = 6
Now take cases
Sorry, but why is this so?
if the first number is even, then so is the third number as well
both would have to be powers of two
which is impossible, for our smallest number is greater than 7
probably here letting the middle number be 2^n and looking at cases when n is odd and even is the way to go
yeah thanks, I will think about this approach
when n even you have that 2^n-1 is divisible by three and is therefore a power of three
Showing that the only solution to $|3^n-2^m| = 1$ is $n=2, m =3$ is enough
Pappa
Which isnt too bad
Do you mean we get this ("is therefore a power of three") from assumption?
Yes
Do you mean that if it's a power of 3, then the number before/after it is even and cannot be a power of 2, so we are done?
As a full proof?
No, as two separate proofs. Do I miss something in other one?
im not sure you motivate this without finding the solutions to this: Showing that the only solution to $|3^n-2^m| = 1$ is $n=2, m =3$ is enough
Pappa
Yea,Do that
With this as a lemma or a special case of Catalan
are you allowed to assume catalan
its a bit of a nuke
this can be shown with the classic tools of casebash and checking moduli
Thanks. Yeah I'm not sure, so I sent prof an email asking for clarification, but you are right that it can be proved with elementary tools
How would I find the number of $i < n$ that can be written $p_{1}^a * p_{2}^b = i$ for two primes greater than zero?
ohNoiAmHere
do you have any other requirements?
you probably wont get anything too nice
when a and b are fixed to be 1 you want to find the number of semiprimes less than n, which is apparently given by this
pi_2 is the semiprime counting function
maybe asymptotics or densities would be more manageable
here is a stackexchange thread that comes somewhat close to what you are asking
thank you!
also check out the hardy-ramanujan theorem
okay it isnt super close to what you are asking
It does tell you that the density of numbers that have only two prime factors is zero in naturals
Can someone explain this?
why does 17 = 1 mod 8, mean this will have for 4 solutions
and is this true for all quadratic questions
discrete root problem
i solved the question on the HW
im confused on why 17 = 1 mod 8, mean that x^2 = 17 (mod 8) has 4 solutions
idk what you've done in your class but the idea is that
x^2 = a (mod 8) with odd a has solutions if and only if a = 1
and in that case, there are 4 solutions, x = 1,3,5,7
Say a is a number which cannot be written as sum of 2 squares. Can a(b^2+c^2) be sum of 2 squares?
no
a number can be written as the sum of two squares if and only if the primes of the form 4k+3 in its factorization have even powers
Ok,That follows from Z[i] being a UFD right?
is there anything special about the set of integers whose base 3 representation contains no 1
you could also see this as a consequence of the group structure of numbers of the form a^2+b^2
simply put a(b^2+c^2)=u^2+v^2 then b^2+c^2 has an inverse so a = (u^2+v^2)*(b^2+c^2)^-1 which means a is a number of the form a sum of two squares
no nevermind that group structure only exists for rational numbers not integers whoops
I thought about this for a second more, and this follows from the fact that the product of two numbers which can be written as the sum of two squares is in turn the product of two squares
So you only need fermats theorem on two squares for primes
Rip you dont get the converse though
How can i prove that k!(p-k-1)! Is congruent with (-1)^(k+1) mod p when p is prime? I dont need all done, just give me a hint on what the path is
looking at the binomial coefficient $\binom{p-1}{k}$ is a way
ɐddɐԀ
That's a very cool soln
I cant with this one, im stupid
You can write a/b mod p as (a/b)(bc) mod p where bc=1 mod p and rearranging this gives you ac mod p=1
If a/b is an integer
It should be read as a percentage
So 1/ln(100)=0.217..., so that means about 21.7% of the positive integer between 1 and 100 are prime
That's the best interpretation of that statement I think
this is more appropriate for #groups-rings-fields
it follows from just using the approximation from before. no?
Isnt that the weight you need for the weighted counting function to asymptotically grow as fast as n
the probability that a number about as big as n is prime is 1/log(n)
to answer your second question, this kind of thing happens a lot. You want to weigh something based on how likely it is to occur
Maybe this is bad intuition, but there are a lot of examples in math where when you count some set of objects, you weigh each object depending on how many automorphisms it has
The hurwitz class numbers for example do this, and you can also count how "many" finite sets there are by doing this
https://www.reddit.com/r/math/comments/55raqj/how_many_finite_sets_are_there_there_are_e_of/ explains this a bit further (which is written by someone in this discord)
127 votes and 29 comments so far on Reddit
yes
the post was written by Bunchos Bananas so maybe they could explain further
ɐzɹᴉɯ oɥɔunq
yeah, that makes sense
ɐzɹᴉɯ oɥɔunq
2[x/2] differs from x by either 0 or 1
at least, when x is an integer
it doesn't really matter, the difference between x/2 and [x/2] is at most 1
so the difference between x and 2[x/2] is at most 2
Dont you just sub x/2^j into x
How do you get that psi is bigger than that
Yeah, it's the exact same argument using the upper bound for T(x) - 2T(x/2)
ɐzɹᴉɯ oɥɔunq
You can pair up terms like psi(x/3) and -psi(x/4)
The difference is always nonnegative
And so the entire tail is nonnegative
This is why analytic nt is the wrong ant
Log x/log 2 = log_2 x, so that - 1 is the largest value of for which psi(x/2^(j+1)) > 0
Also you get the inequality by just doing what is said, adding up all the inequalities and stuff telescopes nicely
Rip
Show that if $x,y,z$ are integers such that $x^3 + 5y^3 = 25z^3$, then $x = y = z = 0$.
Let us begin by reducing the equation modulo $5$ to strive for infinite descent:
$$x^3 + 5y^3 = 25z^3 \implies x^3 \equiv 0 \pmod{5}.$$
This tells us that
$$x^3 = 5^{3(e_1 + 1)} p_2^{3e_2} \cdots p_k^{3e_k},$$
for distinct primes $p_i$ (not equal to $5$) and non-negative exponents $e_i$. Thus,
$$x = 5^{e_1 + 1} p_2^{e_2} \cdots p_k^{e_k},$$
telling us that $x = 5x_1$, for some integer $x_1$. Plugging this in to our original equation, we get
$$125x_1^3 + 5y^3 = 25z^3 \implies 25x_1^3 + y^3 = 5z^3.$$
We can reduce mod $5$ again;
$$y^3 \equiv 0 \pmod{5} \implies y = 5y_1,$$
($y_1$ is some integer) by similar reasoning. Plugging this in, we get
$$25x_1^3 + 125y_1^3 = 5z^3 \implies 5x_1^3 + 25y_1^3 = z^3.$$
Given the equation, it is easy to see that $z^3 \equiv 0 \pmod{5}$, so $z = 5z_1^3$. We have
$$5x_1^3 + 25y_1^3 = 125z_1^3 \implies x_1^3 + 5y_1^3 = 25z_1^3.$$
Thus, we have found our infinite descent. We will finish our proof by seeking for a contradiction.
LifeSource
First, we will tackle the case where we deal with the smallest positive integer solution. Suppose $x = p_1, y=p_2,z=p_3$ is the smallest positive solution that satisfies our original equation. Recall that, by the Well Ordering Principle, there should always exists such a solution. However, by our infinite descent equation, we get that $x = \frac{p_1}{5},y= \frac{p_2}{5},z = \frac{p_3}{5}$ is also a solution! This is a contradiction, since this value is smaller than the solution we assumed was the smallest.
Next, we deal with the case where our smallest possible solution is negative; specifically, suppose $(-n_1,-n_2,-n_3)$ is the smallest negative solution, where $n_1,n_2,n_3$ are positive integers. Let us scale our original equation with our smallest solution by $125$ as such:
$$5^3 (-n_1)^3 + 5^3 \cdot 5 (-n_2)^3 = 5^3 \cdot 25(-n_3)^3.$$
Since $5^3$ is clearly a perfect cube, we can bring it into the cube, giving us
$$(-5n_1)^3 + 5(-5n_2)^3 = 25(-5n_3)^3.$$
However, since $-5n_i < -n_i$, for $1 \leq i \leq 3$, this solution is smaller than the one we assumed was the smallest! Thus, this case also results in a contradiction.
In conclusion, since we have shown that having non-trivial solutions results in a contradiction, we have shown that only the trivial solution works.$_{\blacksquare}$
LifeSource
Is this fine?
what do you mean by "smallest negative solution"
Also it doesn't seem like you've handled the case where say x is negative but z and y are positive for example
Then can't you just use the argument that you can't divide by arbitrarily large powers of 5?
yeah a similar argument would work
I'm just saying what you've written down does not cover that
Let us begin by reducing the equation modulo $5$ to strive for infinite descent:
$$x^3 + 5y^3 = 25z^3 \implies x^3 \equiv 0 \pmod{5}.$$
This tells us that
$$x^3 = 5^{3(e_1 + 1)} p_2^{3e_2} \cdots p_k^{3e_k},$$
for distinct primes $p_i$ (not equal to $5$) and non-negative exponents $e_i$. Thus,
$$x = 5^{e_1 + 1} p_2^{e_2} \cdots p_k^{e_k},$$
telling us that $x = 5x_1$, for some integer $x_1$. Plugging this in to our original equation, we get
$$125x_1^3 + 5y^3 = 25z^3 \implies 25x_1^3 + y^3 = 5z^3.$$
We can reduce mod $5$ again;
$$y^3 \equiv 0 \pmod{5} \implies y = 5y_1,$$
($y_1$ is some integer) by similar reasoning. Plugging this in, we get
$$25x_1^3 + 125y_1^3 = 5z^3 \implies 5x_1^3 + 25y_1^3 = z^3.$$
Given the equation, it is easy to see that $z^3 \equiv 0 \pmod{5}$, so $z = 5z_1^3$. We have
$$5x_1^3 + 25y_1^3 = 125z_1^3 \implies x_1^3 + 5y_1^3 = 25z_1^3.$$
Thus, we have found our infinite descent. We will finish our proof by seeking for a contradiction.
The infinite tells us, given a non-trivial solution $(n_1,n_2,n_3)$, it holds that $\left(\tfrac{n_1}{5},\tfrac{n_2}{5},\tfrac{n_3}{5}\right)$ is also a solution. Notice, however, that this implies that we can divide our solution by five infinitely, which is a contradiction since we cannot evenly divide any finite number by infinity! Thus, the only solution which allows for this to occur is the trivial solution, $(x,y,z) = (0,0,0)$.
This should suffice
yeah seems fine
you might want to emphasis that (n_1/5, n_2/5, n_3/5) is an integer solution
Maybe a bit more white space
which is why you can't divide by 5 infinitely
I kind of hinted at that when I stated "evenly divide" at the end
LifeSource
@hollow bramble what was that challenge about that the dude came in here with, did you complete that HTB challenge? Got a pic of proof you solved it?
just check the htb account called ariana or smt
it was the latest crypto
something about ecc+rsa
quite simple lmao
@hollow bramble ah I want to try it where your link?
@hollow bramble I solved it 🙂 That was easy, I made a fake flag here and did it locally, you can check by decrypting it and finding my fake flag as proof i solved it, interested to see how you did it, can you show me in DM?
Encrypted flag: a752766c41d8a68f42990d226687706878ec07874dfadc36e3dceb5d0d812284
IV: 57ed026bc0da9388e3093318ba195cd1
N: 6827076977564466462577263968415631302860330562726553599817987882255347352992442280551383388422646750100033731018684434197009482516123334730890481178806949
ECRSA Ciphertext: Point(x=842605147643980772943316338732602260884313273856516816980398584164108391704385766783085909112744346456411341661270670057595634379235141819095994733960865, y=5512633349934149752209783896871625235905184988960793639794687086942197310993130029788782138347546856527901890330759779220708609199938110761514847881447732)
Would you like to test the ECRSA curve?
[y/n]> y
Generating random point...
Point(x=5323773559988395618847479461096323703865464530378002129976061900244495764995207144409611273717581587824966347890570619231510007691366227595146878103703901, y=3342787172246370387243051338484351500478558899952472483769367109298099575022387092997406683752049096963603393861368302059887991044708416164218151356235407)
Decrypt that as proof
@hollow bramble Yeah lets move it to DM
I only got to something like $\alpha = s/t$ then $\sum \frac{1}{a_{i}} = s/t * \sum \frac{10^{i}}{a_{i}^{2}}$ and don't know how to go from here. Or is it the wrong approach?
Jing
I'm thinking it's going to hinge on the fact that rational numbers have eventually repeating digits which maybe leads into an argument where you can over estimate every possible substring of digits that might appear and it will still converge
This exactly
I think that this should work: Let the period of the decimal expansion of $\alpha$ be equal to $n$. Now note that the number of possible substrings in the interval $[10^{n-1}, 10^n)$ is at most $n$, and so our sum is bounded by $\sum_{i=1}^\infty \frac{n}{10^{n-1}}$
Pappa
there may be some off by ones but i think the idea is there
@inner anchor For example n = 2, so we have [10, 100). Isn't the number of possible substrings is 3? For "98" we have "9", "8", and "98"
k could be a negative number
In that case a^(k phi (n)) exists iff a^-1 exists
So,you could rewrite a^x as a^y a^(k phi(n))
oh right I think I see it from there
damn I get that step but from there I don't see how the totient function plays into anything
since gcd(a, n) = 1, phi(n) is gonna be at least 1
yeah idk where I'm going
appreciate it tho thanks
If our rational number is eg 123/999 = 0.123123123..., then the substrings of length 1 are going to be 1, 2, 3, the substrings of length 2 will be 12, 23, 32, and the substrings of length 3 will be 123, 231, 312, because only cyclic permutations are allowed, instead of all permutations
also there is a typo in the thing is posted
$\sum_{i=1}^\infty \frac{n}{10^{i-1}}$
Pappa
so they're (3k+-1)^3
then k^3 and k^2 it's trivial
for k, there's the one factor of 3 from the one factor of 3k
and then that's x3 because the binomial coefficient
so like generally for n, the LCM of everything other than the constant term in the expansion of (nk+-1)^n is n^2? that sounds plausible
because one factor of n from one factor of nk, and one factor of n from n choose 1
Could someone point me towards the right direction for the inductive case? Not quite sure what to do with the assumption that $a_n$ coincides with the $n^{th}$ prime.
beeswax
And then proving it for n+1
feel like this problem is missing a condition, you need to assume that the a's are at least 2 otherwise you can just have all the a's be equal to 1
but anyways, you want to use strong induction here basically
assume that a_1, ...., a_n are the first n primes and try to show that a_{n+1} must be the next prime
Yes
Is this valid?
If $a_n$ is the smallest integer such that $gcd(a_i,a_n)$ for all $i<n$, then the same should be true for n+1
beeswax
I mean, that's how the a_{n+1} are defined yes
but how are you showing that a_{n+1} is the next prime
That's given
Again, that's how you define a_{n+1}
as the smallest integer that satisfies that property
What you're trying to do is show that a_{n+1} is the next prime
Assume for all k<=n,a_k is the kth prime. Now,let a_{n+1} not be the {n+1}th prime,which would mean a_{n+1}<{n+1}th prime,which leads to a contradiction
hello, can i get some help with this?
i'm not exactly sure how i should do this
i think ill be able to use bezout's theorem here somehow but im not exactly sure how
(a, b) denotes gcd(a, b) btw
Ok so that's definitely not the cleanest way of doing it
but you could decompose in prime factors
so like you'd have a = d x prod(p_k^a_k) and b = d x prod(q_k^b_k)
and now try to compute both gcds
Or show (a/d , b/d) divides that and vice versa
yeah that'd work too, and may be cleaner 
To show (a/d,b/d) divides that expression, write the steps for computing (a,b) using Euclidean algorithm and divide everything by d
Oh thanks
yup got it ty
I must calculated a modulo of factors product:
(a1^b1 x a2^b2 x a3^b3 x ...) % (c1^d1 x c2^d2 x ...)
if RIGHT > LEFT = LEFT
else I'don't know
I can't transform theses products into integer
(a, b, c, d are integer)
Assume that such an $n$ exists. Now you know that $n$ is divisible by 5, so write $n = 5^k m$, where 5 and $m$ are coprime. Now use the given relation to find a condition on $m$, and then show that the existence of such an $m$ is a contradiction.
Pappa
How can i prove that if a≡a^p mod q and a≡a^q mod p then a^pq≡a mod pq whenever p and q are prime?
Ok i just saw it btw ctr go brrr
I was trying to disprove
$$ \forall n \geq 1, n^2 - n +41 \text{ is prime.}$$
I found a value (n = 105) where the statement holds false, but I was wondering if there is a more efficient way to figure out a counterexample
beeswax
just get n such that 41 divides n^2 - n
i am not too sure about how to solve this. I know that you need Wilson's Theorem
The thing that confuses me is the sequence not being factorial
You can write it as something like this $$1 \cdot 3 \cdot 5 \ldots (p-2) = \frac{(p-1)!}{\prod_{k=1}^{\frac{p-1}{2}}2k} $$
andreO
woah thats weird is that supposed to divide out every other term?
yeah the even ones
got it and i guess from there i would use wilson's theorem?
i know (p-1)! itself is congruent to -1 (mod p)
would i just divide -1 by that product on the bottom?
would that give me a?
Basically, $$1 \cdot 3 \cdot 5 \ldots (p-2) \prod_{k=1}^{\frac{p-1}{2}}2k = (p-1)!$$
So if you can find the multiplicative inverse of the product, you'd be done
andreO
that is find x such that $$x\prod_{k=1}^{\frac{p-1}{2} } 2k= 1 (mod p)$$
andreO
does that essentially mean a number that when multplied by every even term would give a remained of 1 when divided by p?
yup
is there a number that satisfies that condition for every even number?
not every, the product
okay the way i am trying to approach this is to choose a prime number p and seeing how i would form a product with an even number to have a remaineder of 1 when dividing by p
would that be the right way to look at it?
$$\prod_{k=1}^{\frac{p-1}{2} } 2k = 2^{\frac{p-1}{2}} \left( \frac{p-1}{2} \right)!$$
andreO
can you explain how you got to that step from the previous =1 (mod p)
im lost sorry
It's an intermediate step on the way to find such an x
if you notice that the product has the above form, can you now use Wilson's theorem somehow?
$$ (p-1)!\equiv 1\cdot(-1)\cdot2\cdot(-2)\cdots\frac{p-1}{2}\cdot\left(-\frac{p-1}{2}\right)\pmod p$$
andreO
okay i get that you are grouping the terms so that the negative congruences match up
so would you just do the same for p-1/2?
That gives $$(p-1)!\equiv (-1)^{\frac{p-1}{2}}\left(1\cdot2\cdots\frac{p-1}{2}\right)^{2}\pmod p $$
andreO
oh and the right term can be rewritten as the factorial p-1/2?
indeed
but its squared right?
is this supposed to devise a way to substitue what we have originally with p-1 !
yes
you can further write the last step as $$ \left[\left(\frac{p-1}{2}\right)!\right]^{2}\equiv (-1)^{\frac{p+1}{2}}\pmod{p}$$
andreO
ah so this proves that p-1/2 ! is congruent to just 1
you cant just root it right
originally the problem asks for the square of (1.3.5.....) so it all lines up
no worries
yup
yup
yup seems so
anytime 🙂
do you mind if i add you as a friend and if i reach out if i have number theory related questions?
sure
okay ty again
np
that was a fun detour, but I guess a more straightforward way would be to note
$$\left (1 \cdot 3 \cdot 5 \ldots (p-2) \right )^2 = (1 \cdot 3 \cdot 5 \ldots (p-2) )(-(p-1))(-(p-3))(-(p-5)) \ldots (-2)$$
andreO
$$= (-1)^{\frac{p-1}{2}}(p-1)! \pmod{p}$$
andreO
whats the name of a number theory problem where you have to find the mod for a given equation to work
$$a=b (mod\ n)$$
gaborit
find n
Can you use the fact that there are infinitely many primes?
@worn pine
Then just take a prime number with enough digits that even if they were all 1, it would still be greater than k
what if every prime greater than some k is of the form 1000..0001
Is it right to just say that for any positive integer k, 9998k + 9999 contains an infinite number of prime numbers (due to Derechlit's) and has a sum of decimal digits greater than k hahaha
your idea is basically right but you need to fix it a bit
lol I think you're not reading the context that came before it
What part do I need to fix? Thank you so much!!
you're sorta double using k here to mean two different things
also why did you pick 9999? whey not 99999 for instance
you need to think about how you're picking these numbers better
Ohhhhh I get it, it kinda seemed uncanny to just pick numbers out of nowhere haha
Do you have any hints on how I can best make use of Derechlit's to show that the statement is true? thank you!
still no idea 😢
Does anyone have some good papers to read about the splitting property of primes over higher degree polynomials (preferably 5 and up)
Denote $a = 999\ldots 9 \ (k \ 9's)$, and $d = 10^{k}$. $a$ and $d$ are clearly coprime.
Now consider the arithmetic progression: $$ a , a +d, a+2d, \ldots $$ and Dirichlet's theorem.
andreO
Is there a clear cut difference for what an affine line and what a projective line is ? Google isn't helpful
P.S. are those conditions for a,b,c define what the case (affine or projective) is ?
a similar case is presented where the equation $y^3 = x^3 + 1$ is affine and is converted to a projective equation by subbing $y = \frac{v}{w}$ and $x = \frac{u}{w}$ to get $wv^2 = u^3 + w^3$ BUT the author adds that the same can be achieved by `inserting powers of w to make all terms cubic' which yields : $wy^2 = x^3 + w^3$
Any idea what is going on here ?
xi64
those are the same up to changing out what you're labeling the variables @sacred junco
