#elementary-number-theory
1 messages · Page 34 of 1
Interestingly, it does form a monoid under elementwise addition that's isomorphic to the natural numbers with standard multiplication (or polynomials with addition)
isn't this just $\bigoplus_{n \in \bN} \bN$?
ExpertEsquieESQUIE
yes
Coolempire93
its basically the set of elements of sequences of natural numbers for which only finitely many entries are nonzero
aka the possible set of sequences of the exponents you could have in the prime factorization of natural numbers
and the addition of those sequences is exactly what you get when multiplying the relevant natural numbers
@sharp shadow thanks. is the goal of a proof like this to convert one form of the equation or inequality into another form? if you can convert the equation or inequality into the final form then you've effectively proven it? I think I'm still weak with proofs. I think I can follow the above logic, but I have no idea how I'd find a uniqueness proof from there. like, somehow I'd have to show that q and r are not equal. q and r exist, but they must also not be equal to each other.
a typical way to prove uniqueness is to assume that there are different values q,r and q',r' that both satisfy the conditions, and then show somehow that q=q' and r=r'
woohoo, I finally proved that! I was silly and didn't notice that there was a useful theorem at the end of the chapter
As a bonus I also proved that there is infinite number of primes of form 4n+3 (actually I started with that, because it doesn't require any additional quadratic theorem)
here are my proofs (somewhat long...):
and another one, Problem 49 from the problem set above, it's about 4n+1 primes:
that was somewhat tricky, happy to have done it!
Now do it in general
I bet that must be hard, even Niven and Zuckerman don't prove it in the book, saying that it uses techniques beyond the scope of the book (I assume you mean Dirichlet theorem)
well, let's start from the beginning. The problem says: prove that there exist some numbers q, r satisfying some property. How can we prove that?
We need to just show such numbers, i.e. find them somehow, and also show that they satisfy that property
but how do we find them? We need to start from somewhere, something similar. And we have a similar thing, this "division algorithm" that was described in the book. It says that we can always find numbers q and r satisfying another property, slightly different to ours, but similar
now, the idea is to use that as a starting point, and somehow derive the numbers that we need for our problem from the numbers that are given by "division algorithm"
and that's what I did. I started with q and r that are given to us by the division algorithm, and transformed them to other numbers: q' and r', that satisfy the conditions of this problem
so now, I can just show those found numbers q' and r' to anyone interested, and they will satisfy the criteria specified in the problem, so I solved it, woohoo
the only remaining bit is that the problem asks us to show that those q' and r' not only exist, but are also unique, i.e. that there is no other pair of numbers (say, q'' and r'') that can satisfy the same criteria. Only our previously found q' and r' can
Does that make sense?
(I am off to sleep, so will check tomorrow :)
Interesting way to express
Is there anything special about the polynomial part that I mentioned
Sequences of natural numbers for which only finitely many entries are nonzero sounds quite isomorphic to $\ZZ[x]$ (or $\mathcal{P}(\ZZ)$? tbh I don't necessarily know the difference)
Coolempire93
P(Z) has cardinality equivalent to R
Not referring to the powerset
Its pretty much the same.
Nothing fun or interesting since polynomials have a slightly different idea of what multiplication entails once we move to the ring structure?
You are only using the additive structure in what you mentioned
That's why I brought up Z[x] I wanted to see if I could bring in any form of multiplication operation
I think the structure here is kinda wierd
x^i*x^j=x^(i+j) would translate to p_i*p_j=p_(i+j) which would certainly be weird
I doubt this would be in any way useful
you could try checking what e.g. (1+x+3x^2)*(2x+7x^5) would correspond to
but its probably nonsense
Well the set of sequences of integers with finitely many non-zero entries is the ring Z[x] if you define the product of 2 sequences the right way
idk if that's what you were looking for tho
What is the Royal Road to Algebraic Number Theory? Currently I see it as this: study rings in a typical algebra introductory course, study ENT to get some idea what it’s all about in the simpler setting, then read some chapters from Ireland/Rosen to revisit NT from a more general rings perspective and maybe read Marcus “Number Fields” or Stewart “ANT” as an intro to ANT proper. Is this reasonable? (I suspect Galois Theory, Complex Analysis and a deeper dive in Commutative Algebra might be handy too, but not strictly necessary?)
And in general: is ANT exciting for you? Are there interesting unexpected results or problems? Or it’s not that fun actually?
Yup
This seems reasonable to me. The roadmap that I followed in a curriculum to an intro in ANT is as you say: study ENT and abstract algebra to build the machinery and intuition for studying ANT. You’ll see analogs of many different number theoretic results in different fields; for example, the Chinese Remainder Theorem is studied in context of Z/mZ in number theory but you can extend that to arbitrary rings with ideals. You should generally conclude a first course in algebra with an intro to field theory. Naturally, ANT extends upon this through the study of field extensions. Indeed, solving NT problems with algebra often means looking at field extensions and studying properties of field extensions (norms and traces). You’ll see this in the culmination of ANT through Dirichlet’s unit theorem and how it can be used to obtain solutions to Pell equations
We used Marcus’ Number Fields book and it served as a good intro to the field, so you shouldn’t go wrong with it
Galois theory would be quite doable to do alongside ANT since they cover pretty similar topics but their motivations are largely distinct
Thank you!
Yeah either some very hidden insight or useless and likely the second xd
azart
forget about it, I found the counter-example
Yeah a=1 and b=1.
I just got a copy of the elementary number theory book by rosen. I think I'm going to try to work through it. it looks cool.
That’s the one I learned from
I liked it
I found that the chapters were pretty self-contained as well
It has been proven, by James Maynard that there are infinite number gap sizes of g<246 within the prime number sequence.
Many people think that this can be reduced further. I proved by calculation exhaustion that the lowest this bound can come down to is g<54.
There are 4 different types of intervals within the prime number sequence, and each one has a maximum bound. I will list them:
(+,-) g<54
(-,-) g<54
(+,+) g< infinity
(-,+) g< infinity
In other words, moving forward in the prime number sequence, the prime gaps are unbounded. The bounded gaps are when you move backwards because there is a limit on how far you can go backwards while still generating a new prime that is still bigger than the last prime.
This theoretical hard limit of g<54 is less than the smallest proven known gap sizes of g<246 and the technique that I used has nothing to do with sieve theory.
But what I’m saying is this, the gap size of g<54 is the limiting factor for the smallest size of gap that can be “proven” to happen infinitely many times.
While most mathematicians think the twin prime conjecture is true (gap size of 2), I’m saying, even if it is true, you can’t prove it. The gap size of 54 is the lowest bound that can exist. This bound cannot be improved upon. It is the hard limit.
So for gap sizes of g<2 , g<4, g<6, while these gaps probably do happen an infinite number of times, it is impossible to write a proof for them. The best we can do is g<54 and that is it.
Let me know if anyone wants to confirm my result.
even if it is true, you can't prove it
which specific theory did you show can't prove it?
> tagged with undergraduate math
> claims to have improved a result by James Maynard
> without sieve theory
looks like AI slop
May I ask what LLM did you use for this?
no
This was a paper I wrote with the assistance of Grok xAI, but the idea should be pretty novel.
When you are generating prime numbers, the next prime that you generate can only go “backwards” in the sequence so far (this is not necessarily true the with forward generating primes) and because of this, these particular types of intervals have a maximum size of gap=54.
I used the AI to brute force the max bound by extensive calculations.
I will attach the paper.
It is AI slop? I don’t it know…it might be, but it might not. If someone can confirm my findings then, the idea in the paper is probably correct.
The power of any tool is based upon the user.
bro is 👍ing his own message
it is AI slop
This has nothing to do with AI slop or not.
In math and science, when someone proposes an idea, you either:
A: Confirm it to be true.
B: Prove that the claim is false.
In this case, this AI tool was only used to brute force millions of calculations, but the idea is totally mine.
If a person were to play a game of chess with an AI bot, such as Stockfish and were beaten, nobody would ever say “I was beaten by AI slop”.
Instead, they would say, “I was beaten by one of the best artificial players in the world”.
The reason why people use the phrase “AI slop” is because anyone can sit down and generate a result with it, because most people are “mediocre” they produce a work that is of “low quality output”.
But in regards to my paper, I don’t think this is a low quality effort.
Well, let me rewrite it for you, it is nonsense.
The reason why we don't say that stockfish is not AI slop is because we can measure how good stockfish is, there's a certain parameter. For llms most of the times it just produces random nonsense.
It takes an expert actively curating, searching and discriminating information produced by a llm to get some good results. And I don't think nobody respectable is using them to solve an impossible problem like Goldbach conjecture.
LLMs like ChatGTP is actually solving unanswered math problems such as the Erdos problems.
It’s true that you can get these AIs to spit out nonsense, that is not relevant.
My claim is that there are an infinite number of bounded gaps size 54 and the only matter now is to either prove or disprove the claim. Opinions about LLMs are not related to the claim in the paper.
You haven't prove nothing.
Can we keep #elementary-number-theory clean please? The AI slop is ruining it
imagine a dude microwaving a meal and then proclaiming himself a chef
your pdf explicitly says that the "results" are just empirical data, lists the statement that would imply that there are infinitely many gaps of size <= 54 as a conjecture, and concludes with "Although a rigorous proof remains elusive, [...]"
also the fact that you can get AIs to spit out nonsense is relevant, because in the real world, we do not have infinite time to consider every argument that anyone puts forward and so sometimes we have to use crude heuristics to decide what's worth spending time on
also isn't ai slop against the server rules?
iirc there was like a clause in #rules
Someone ask a question about solving equations of the form a^2-db^2=p to clean this
This was a cool chanel to go to every now and then, but yeah AI slop has ruin it.
I miss when cranks didn't use ai
This week I teach some guys about the case d=-1. And they really loved it
what primes are of the form x^2 + 14y^2 then?
They asked me about other cases and I told them that there's a subtle relationship with complex multiplication. But I didn't have too much time to explain it
tfw Q(sqrt(-14))
👍
tfw j invariant is scary
it is scary
but I am more scared of modular forms
one day I will get over it xD
I assure you modular forms are not scary. Maass forms is what you should be scared of
ignorance is bliss
elementary number theory
modular forms
so elementary
I mean it's the 5th operation right (Enpeace reminded me)
you summoned enpeace
I'm always watching
these days everyone is becoming nt pilled huh
i know where you stole this line from
lwk only in it for the geometry
Modular forms are elementary.
If you don't know them in elementary school you are wasting your time

So the other day, I posted a claim about certain gaps being maxed at 54 as a gap size.
Everyone said “this is AI slop” then called it a day.
After further looking at the problem, it turned out that all 4 gap cases, indeed were unbounded, it’s just that there were some cases that grew so slowly that you have to look at thousands of cases to see the growth rate.
So the whole claim of gap<54 was false, however still when you do good research, you just focus on trying to prove or disprove claims.
Tools are little exactly what they are…. Tools.
The term “AI slop” is referred to, because it’s easy for anyone to spit out large volumes of low effort content.
But if used in the right hands, could produce novel results.
Imagine this, you are a carpenter who builds wooden chairs at your wood shop.
It takes you 1 week to build a single chair, but the quality is really high.
Then another woodworker sets up shop nearby. He can crank out 1 chair per day, however the chairs are low quality.
So one day, the true craftsmanship guy walks over to the newcomer and says “Hey that’s wood slop”.
But at the end of the day, they are both using the same tools. The only reason why the true woodworker says “wood slop” is because his competitor can crank out massive amount of poorly made chairs, which undermines his own high quantity work.
I don’t normally use AI to solve math problems, but for some problems involving heavy computation, such as calculating 5 million primes, it seems somewhat useful.
Also in every field, using a bot, or advanced tool can actually be beneficial.
I solve sokoban puzzles, someone’s I come across sokoban puzzles online and for this one website it will tell you if nobody has solved it before. Sometimes I crack these with Jsoko, a sokoban solving program. Why? Because there is a reason why nobody has solved them on the website….. because they are hard.
AI slop is AI "slop" largely because of the people who use it in the way they do.
so are we just going to ignore the fact that you called a your own paper, which you wrote, so you should have a clear understanding of its contents, a "proof" when the paper itself says that a rigorous proof remains elusive and all it does it do a check of 5 million primes to see if your result holds?
Is it not low quality slop if the author himself doesn't even make the effort to understand what his own AI generated paper just spat out?
Using AI for heavy computation 
What is python for?
you say that as if you are the so-called "right hands" to process the AI's work, yet clearly no processing has been done as evidenced by your language contradicting that of your paper's
python is for training ai models
you are the woodworker who cranks out the low quality chairs btw. enough said
i sure can feel your anger in this rebuke...

just use brainpower to do the heavy computations, you dont need anything else fr
It has been proven, by James Maynard that if it holds for 5 million primes it holds for all primes so im right suck it bitches
I'm bad at English, but I'd like to know how many people know that Fermat's little theorem is topological.
)
I don't, so that's 0 / 1 now
Are there any resources on that btw? It sounds interesting
I can only send you a short article by Academician Arnold in Russian. In short, it discusses a directed graph mapping a certain set onto itself. In theory, the same idea is in the book "Topology of Numbers."
thanks
We've been using computers in math for a very long time... You are at least 30 years late to the controversy, yet that doesn't make your work valid. Math requires you to be humble, If you want to learn math, there's a very nice theorem called "prime number theorem" which tells how prime numbers grow, there's a very elementary proof and it would take you around 1 year of learning and hard work to completely understand it but I guarantee that you would learn a lot more than doing whatever you are doing right now.
Like, you can pick a book, read it and post your questions here and we will help you.
But please, stop trying to solve this conjecture, you will not solve it.
what do you mean by topological?
I just sat down to figure it out and here it is
Arnol’d calls Fermat’s little theorem ‘topological’ in the sense that it describes the cycle structure in a monad graph: elements of the multiplicative group under the map x->ax mod p form a closed cycle, which he refers to as a ‘topological circle’. Here, ‘topological’ means a discrete, combinatorial analogue of a topological structure, not classical topology
I'm not really sure how "topological" this is. Well, at least it sounds interesting.
lets use c then 
(for computation)
<insert rant about pari macro based whatever tf am i even looking at at this point here>
Reminds me of #computing-software who was like can my python run with no C please
I mean, once it's compiled it's no longer c, right? 
I mean, that's one way to say it. But if just feels wrong to say it is topological.
Is that Arnorld the same "Bunch of hard problems" Arnorld? Like the mathematical physics guy?
Idk, I would say that there's something more on the fourier side than the topological say when it comes to fermat's little theorem.
Yes, you're right. I didn't expect that topologicality in this sense was simply a term invented by Arnold. On the other hand, I thought, "That's just his style."
Are you talking about Vladimir Arnorld?
Yes
It kind of feels like the opposite of what he would say tbh
Well, here he clearly doesn't mention this fact, but he does in his lecture on Number Hydrodynamics. (That's where I learned about him and started looking for what he wrote back then.) There are also two lectures on this article, if I'm not mistaken.
uhh that makes more sense
I final finished my power point on the prime number sequence. This is a pdf. Human created.
Let $n = a_1a_2a_3$ be a three-digit number (where $a_1, a_2, a_3$ denote its digits).
Define the number
[
N = a_1a_2a_3a_1a_2a_3,
]
obtained by repeating the digits of $n$ twice.
For example, if $n = 504$, then $N = 504504$.
Prove that $N$ is always divisible by $143$.
Rodro
what can you say about the number $a_1a_2a_3000$ ?
Denascite
Yeah 1001=143*7
which answers the question
can i check if the following is true
Let $n, k \in \mathbb{N}$ with $k \neq 0$. Then $\forall m \in \mathbb{N}, n | km \iff \frac{n}{\text{gcd}(n, k) } | m$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
I'm sure you can
Anyway
$n|km \implies \frac{n}{(n,k)} | \frac{km}{(n,k)} \implies \frac{n}{(n,k)} | m$ is one direction
Coolempire93
in the other direction if n/gcd(n,k) divides m then n divides m * gcd(n,k) which divides m * k
$\frac{n}{(n,k)}|m \implies n | m\cdot(n,k) | km$
ah yeah
Coolempire93
Nice
The second implication uses Euclid’s lemma right
Idk what euclid's lemma is 😅 but I use the fact that if a and b are coprime, then $a | bc \implies a | c$
Coolempire93
That’s Euclid’s lemma i believe
Youre writing an article about it but wasn't sure how to prove it? Or wanted to see what way was easiest
The latter
My next article will be baby Yoneda 4, on Adjunctions
Oh lord 
And this seems like a cool example of an adjunction to use
I hope it will be approachable though
This is a nice example
why does euler's totient function work?
Our book (Rosen ENT) developed it really nicely
A whole chapter on it starting with multiplicative functions
If no one explains by the time I come back I'll run through it
let $a, b, c \in \mathbb{N}$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
it's true that $a \leq b + c \iff \max(a - b, 0) \leq c$, right?
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
yes
cool cool
just split into cases a <= b and a > b
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
if $b > c$ this is impossible
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
and if $b \leq c$ then it's just $a + b \leq c \iff a \leq c - b$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
yeah... I don't think there is more to this
xD
why did I expect pseudo to ask a question about something related to local cohomology
sorry what
What are you writting about anyway? I'm curious
this is going in the next article in the baby yoneda series
on adjunctions
And how does your questions relate to this?
so, this says that addition by $b$ on $\mathbb{N}$ has a left adjoint
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
whereas this shows you don't get a right adjoint
I think I see it
there's also a multiplicative analog of this
$n | km \iff \frac{n}{\text{gcd}(n, k) } |m$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
nvm
Can I read your article once you finished it?
yeah ofc, it'll go up on my blog after all#
how does, 5 | x , 2 | x imply 10 | x because gcd(5,2)=1?
how to prove
5 | x and 2 | x => 10 | x
maybe, because gcd(5,2) = 1 then we can use bezouts identity
1 = 5a + 2b
10 = 50a + 20b
(a,b) = (1,-2)
what
you are jumping to conclusions
am I? what do you not understand?
after here how you continue
.
x = 2y = 5z for some y,z and then you have 5ax = 10ay, 2bx=10bz
The easiest way is by considering prime factorisations
care to elaborate
"x = 2y for some y" is just the definition of 2 | x, and similarly x = 5z for some z because 5 | x
or an alternative proof: 2 | x implies x = 2k for some k, so 5 | x implies 5 | 2k, and because gcd(5, 2) = 1, this implies 5 | k
the last step uses a generalisation of euclid's lemma: if a | bc and gcd(a, b) = 1, then a | c
(you can prove it using bezout's lemma: given ax + by = 1, we have a | axc + bcy = (ax+by)c = c, so a | c)
I didn't get to it yesterday but I'm here today, what aspect of it are you referring to by 'work'
why is it true? how does the function actually compute the amount of numbers relatively prime to it?
Ah
This'll be fun because the book presents it in the opposite direction
No matter
All we need is totient multiplicative on the primes and it all comes together
alr
So first let me lay out the formula so that we have the same starting point
Where $n = p_1^{a_1}p_2^{a_2}\cdots p_k^{a_k}$ is the prime-power factorization of $n$, $$\phi(n) = n(1 - \frac{1}{p_1})(1 - \frac{1}{p_2})\cdots(1 - \frac{1}{p_k})$$
Coolempire93
yeah
Great
So let's break it down a bit
\begin{align*}
\phi(n) &= n(1 - \frac{1}{p_1})(1 - \frac{1}{p_2})\cdots(1 - \frac{1}{p_k}) \
&= p_1^{a_1}p_2^{a_2}\cdots p_k^{a_k}(1 - \frac{1}{p_1})(1 - \frac{1}{p_2})\cdots(1 - \frac{1}{p_k}) \
&= (p_1^{a_1} - p_1^{a_1 - 1})(p_2^{a_2} - p_2^{a_2 - 1})\cdots(p_k^{a_k} - p_k^{a_k - 1})
\end{align*}
Coolempire93
Do you see how I got there
isn't $\phi(pq) = (p-1)(q-1)$
Yes that's what's coming next
yes
xtea418
So now comes how this becomes the number of numbers<n relatively prime to n
\begin{theorem}
If $p$ is a prime, then $\phi(p) = p-1$
\end{theorem}
Coolempire93
Do you see why this is true based on the formula
Okay, how about $\phi(p^a) = p^a - p^{a-1}$
Coolempire93
Do you see also how that comes from the formula
gimme a sec
wait yeah
i see it
Now let's take multiple primes, say p and q
What's left to show is that $\phi(pq) = \phi(p)\phi(q)$
Coolempire93
This is the multiplicative property (when extended to any relatively prime integers anyway)
this, again, i can get why is true
Ah, well if you understand that, then you are essentially done
Going back to the theorem
This is definitely the number<p of relative primes to p
wait, if p=q, this is false, right?
They have to be relatively prime, so yes, different primes
oh wait ye
Let's consider why this is the number of numbers<p^a relatively prime to p^a
Well, p is the only divisor of p^a
So the only ones not relatively prime are multiples of p
There are p^a numbers <= p^a so all we need to do is subtract from that however many multiples of p there are <= p^a
Based on this, there should be p^{a-1}, can you prove it? 👀
p^(a-1) numbers relatively prime?
oh wait ye
p^{a-1} multiples of p less than or equal to p^a (so not relatively prime)
so p^1 up to p^(a-1)
p^0 is relatively prime since it's 1
mkay, changed it
The multiples of p are all the numbers of the form k*p
So
p, 2p, 3p, 4p, etc.
There are p of these before p^2
There are p^2 of them before p^3
etc.
So p^(a-1) such before p^a
So yes yu are correct
but that's only a numbers
wait, p,2p,3p...p^(a-1)*p
Are all the multiples of p
mhm
yeah
👌
So that means
\begin{theorem} $\phi(p^a) = p^a - p^{a-1} = $ the number of numbers$<=p^a$ relatively prime to $p^a$ \end{theorem}
Coolempire93
Great 👍
So we have that Euler's totient counts the number of relatively primes for prime powers
Next comes the final step, why we can multiply them
Consider $n = p^aq^b$
Coolempire93
mkay...
(With p and q different primes)
We want to count the number of relatively primes to n
Which is p^aq^b - (multiples of p or q)
We already know how this goes though
so if you have pq numbers, pq-q-p+1 (from PIE) is the number of them coprime to pq?
That's essentially what we plan to do ✅
ok alr
so we can apply multiplicativity repeatedly
Yes, as we did before
I'm trying to come up with a way to express the overlap in a table so it's easier to visualize
But we know already as before
For higher powers, it looks like
$#{1 \leq k \leq p^{a-1}q^b} = p^{a-1}q^b$ is the number of multiples of p less than $p^aq^b$ (we can write in the form $kp$)
Similarly, $p^aq^{b-1}$ is the number of multiples of q less than $p^aq^b$
Coolempire93
The overlap will be $p^{a-1}q^{b-1}$ such that
\begin{align*}
\text{relatively primes to } p^aq^b &= p^aq^b - p^{a-1}q^b - p^aq^{b-1} + p^{a-1}q^{b-1} \
&= (p^a - p^{a-1})(q^a - q^{a-1}) \
&= \phi(p^a)\phi(q^b) \
&= \phi(p^aq^b) = \phi(n)
\end{align*}
✅
so it's basically proved now?
Yes, this is essentially how the proof goes
oh ok, great!
Coolempire93
thank you : )
I remember being like wtf this crazy formula does what the first time I saw it too 
But yeah essentially you can show that
- Crazy formula is multiplicative for prime powers
- phi = relative primes for primes (and then prime powers)
- Since every number has a prime-power factorization, show that by PIE, the formula works for the individual parts, and factors into each multiplicative term of phi
yep
It's easier from the other direction (start by supposing phi counts the number of relatively primes, and then show that it is equal to the totient formula) I will say
This direction requires more combinatorics

i'm not the best at it 😅
thx tho
Nobody is 😔 but that's the fun of it! 💃
No problem 🙂
Since you spend a lot of time in the calculus channel you may find interesting https://categorified.net/CombinatorialCalculus.pdf
ty
btw since you are talking about euler's totient function, here is something nice related to it: \For any positive integer $n$, the following holds:$$\sum_{d\mid n}\varphi(d)=n$$
ali yassine
thank u
np, there are other functions which have nice properties too if you want to look them up
an example is something called the mobius function
you can check many nice properties of such functions, called arithmetic functions, in something like apostol's "introduction to analytic number theory" if you want
this starts in chapter 2, if you get more interested then ig continue with the book
Yeah this is what I was really asking about as the other possibility for saying the totient 'works'
This one has just as interesting a proof in our book
Apostol is probably a better resource than my recommendation of chapter 7 of the ENT book
Which covers the big multiplicative functions but then suddenly detours to combinatorial number theory 
And generating functions
does the proof go like this: you partition the set ${1,2,...,n}$ in the following way: let $A_d={k\in {1,2,...,n}\mid (k,n)=d}={k\in{1,2,..,n}\mid (k/d,n/d)=1}$, then the sets $A_d$ form a partition of ${1,2,..,n}$ and you get $\sum_{d\mid n}\varphi(d)=\sum_{\frac nd\mid n}\varphi(\frac nd)=1$?
ali yassine
Yep
ohhh i see, yea thats a nice proof
i remember that i found it really nice when i saw it for the first time
As a combinatorics enjoyer I find it particularly nice
A partition into easily countable sets
horrible work
have you seen stuff with the mobius function too?
its a very nice function
like mobius inversion etc..
Yeah
Like I said the book covers the major multiplicative functions
Although I didn't really get to get super into it
I'll probably add it to my list to reread this week and then @ you if I have anything interesting to say 
alright feel free to ping me whenever you want
Let $n \in \N^{\times}$ and $(r_k)_{k > n}$ be a sequence contained in $[0, 1]$. Consider the function $\beta:\Z/n\Z \to \N \cup {\infty}$ given by
$$\beta(s) = \inf \left{k \in \N_{>n} : r_k + \frac{ks}{n} \not \in \Z + \frac12 \right}.$$
Does $|\text{Im}(\beta)| \le 3$ for every sequence $(r_k)$?
apolus_
lord
wdym by N^x?
This is phrase in a really weird way, but consider n=8 and r_k=1/8 (the constant sequence) then beta(1)=4
it's not "for all x in im(beta), x <= 3" but rather whether the cardinality of im(beta) is <= 3
There's an inf right there
But sure. This should work to disprove that as well.
Just take n=16 and r_k the same sequence
I'm just thinking of beta as a map from N to N. I have no clue why do they take Z/nZ
there must be a reason innit
I think this example doesn't work
Not really
why not?
how do you know that
The quotient is not well defined
Technically you need 4 different s_1, s_2, s_3, s_4 with β(s_j) ≠ β(s_i) for i ≠ j
Which s_1, s_2, s_3 and s_4 you think should work?
Taking n = 16 and r_k constant = 1/8
they're just taking $[x] \in Z/nZ (\text{for }x < n) \mapsto x$ and then composing them implicitly, it's no big deal
sigmund
uhh, not really
I'm too drunk rn to think of a specific reason
thats fine
But, this is just phrase really weirdly
it explain things, really
β(1) = 17 and β(2) = 17 for this example bro
man your bolts are just misaligned, get less drunk before trying to help ppl out mate
What?
Yep, the least possible value for β(s) for n is n+1, I'm restricting to k \in N_{>n}
Let me work out this example. Take rk=1/13, and n=13 then
s=1 we have
{2/13, 3/13,...,} so beta(1)=12
s=2
{ 3/13, 5/13, 7/13, 9/13, 11/13, 1} so beta(2)=6
s=3
{ 4/13, 7/13, 10/ 13, 1} so beta(3)=4
s=4
{5/13, 9/13, 1} so beta(4)=3
this is a counterexample
β(s) is always greater than the n you're taking, it cannot be 6, 4 and 3
If you're considering n = 13
I'm still better than you in your best day.
dont need to be mean my dude
It is not mean to tell the truth.
alr alr
well in my best days i can usually provide with actual working examples
doesnt seem to be the case for you right now innit
Still, that doesn't change that the original post is phrase in a confusing way.
And my idea still works.
what in heavens do you have against the letter d omg just say PHRASED in a confusing wayyy
So I'm calling it a day.
dkeopfkpweoikfoiwp
Yeah, english is my fourth language. I have no respect for this language
and english is my fifth language, smh
👍
This is not true btw. Since even if you have taken k bigger than some n. The effect on the denominator is still the same.
\beta(s) is greater than n by definition tho
man i'm much better than that in my good days
The idea of chossing 13 is choosing some element n such that n-1 has a lot of divisors then the divisors of k of n-1 should kill the denominator at n-1/k
Take n=2
bro it's the infimum restricted to {n+1, n+2,...}
lemme snatch it away
It's a problem that came up in his research
yeah it's like a minor problem but it's got its importance in its own right
not a major thing whatsoever anyway
I probably don't need to ping a third time
I guess I do
<@&268886789983436800>
because the other two disappeare dbut not that one
what happened?
i see
No
Yes
no, it fears me instead
WAIT...now that i think abt it smth powered smth plus smth powered smth will always result in smth powered smth damn
Unless c is specified to be smth unique
You should see if you can write a proof of it
Bruh ik the story of some japanese mathematician developing a whole branch of mathematics just to prove that
And I am just a mere grim reaper
How would one go about simplifying the expression $\sum\limits_{m\mid n} \frac{2^{\omega(m)}}{m}$, where $\omega(m)$ is the number of distinct prime factors of m?
KnightWatch
maybe try sone small examples to see how it behaves
Yeah I've worked it out now. Thanks
I just had to recall how to sum a multiplicative function over the divisors of a number. Hadn't done that in quite some time
That is Shinichi Mochizuki and his "proof" of the abc-conjecture
Its a bit of a rabbit hole though
No, it won’t. For example 2^2 + 3^2 =13 , and 13 is not “something powered”
well it could be 13 powered 1 :^)
Well, but then we can just say that he discovered a mind boggling fact that a + b = c :) which is hardly worth a “WAIT” exclamation:)
come on now, this is only elementary number theory
Oh yea lol i got the wrong idea i forgot n is the same everywhere
sorry ill go back to bashing my head on primitive roots
The Last Fermat theorem says that “there are no integer solutions to that equation for all n > 2”, not that every combo of a, b has a corresponding c
Oh
Ty for correcting me :)
I just forgot it straight out of nowhere 😭(the fact abt n)
Btw is number theory only abt numbers?or does it hold surprises like algebra
You there?
Yes, it progresses to algebraic structures
That are generalisations of integer numbers
Ahh i see
So like there isn't smth crazy like transformation of *space type stuff right?
Nvm i just googled that and I see RINGS
Not sure what you mean by “bending space”, but yeah, space transformations are not a subject of number theory)
For that you likely need to go to linear algebra, topology and some geometry
Fields?
And there are also some surprising connections to complex analysis
Another algebraic structure
yeah , it simplifies things heavily there
Ohh got it
I see
Anyways that means that i got a lot to learn then
Let's see how my journey unfolds
Ring is basically like a number that supports three operations: +,-,*, and a field also supports /
You take the essential axioms that capture the essence of those operations and voila! You’ve got a generalised structure that behaves like a number
For example a polynomial: it can be added, can be subtracted, can be multiplied
So it’s an example of a ring
Ohh
It can’t be divided nicely though, so it’s not a field
So any ring which can also be divided, can be called a field?
Essentially yes. There are some technicalities, but they don’t matter much
I see*
Fun fact: field is called “body” in some languages, for example in German
Lol
But anyway, thus channel is about Number Theory so I should stop rambling:)
Yea lol but no problems tho ig
I just don't know like there is so much math everywhere and I am liking every math for some reason
And you felt like a very serious person at first lol,but turns out I was wrong:)
I am very serious, why!
ehh, calling + and - different operations feels weird, additive inverses and multiplicative inverses arent exactly a different operation
Wait like are you admitting or asking?💭
Anyways now you feel like a fun person:)
Thanks :)
But i don't think there's any harm to that
Yeah, I see where you are coming from. But if we just look at it from an elementary perspective I think this is a good explanation
I mean it's understandable
the interesting thing about going from a ring to field isnt the concept of being able to divide
Why not?
Even Wikipedia highlights this idea
I mean, of course you can look at all those boring axioms, inverses and stuff
sorry, yeah, that is the main part about fields. i misspoke. i guess ive never really abstracted a ring to 3 operations like that, but it works
But I think what I said captures the essence well, and for technicalities one can look at definition and axioms
You see, so you learnt something new too ;)
😄
So quick question (I just want to clarify that my knowledge is correct) on how we describe GCDs and LCMs of any integers a and b in terms of p-valuations--
Since we can clearly express a and b in terms of factorizations of a prime p--
we can express the GCD as the integer we get from \pm \prod_p{p^{\min(v_p(a), v_p(b))}}. This is because, considering the p-valuations for all common divisors of a and b referred as d\prime and how the gcd d implies that d | d\prime, we get v_p(d) \le v_p(d\prime).
(I apologize in advance if the latex comes out bad btw)
In the future, please put $ on each side of your latex so it actually renders.
Because d is the greatest common divisor, you should have that d’|d not d|d’.
Ohhh, oops yeah made a bit of a mistake in my notation. Thanks for the heads up on how the latex bot works, appreciate it.
are the following manipulations correct
$a | m \text{ and } b | m \iff b | m \text{ and } a | b (\frac mb) \iff b | m \text{ and } \frac{a}{\text{gcd}(a, b)} | \frac mb \iff \frac{ab}{\text{gcd}(a, b)} | m$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Why does second <=> hold? Can you elaborate on that?
Other <=>’s are trivial
So it’s a general fact that $n | km \iff \frac{n}{\text{gcd}(n, k)} | m$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
The proof is as follows
$n | km \iff \frac{n}{\text{gcd}(n, k)} | \frac{k}{\text{gcd}(n, k)} m$ first, by cancelling common factors
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
But $\frac{n}{\text{gcd}(n, k)}$ and $\frac{k}{\text{gcd}(n, k)}$ are coprime
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
So we can apply Euclid’s lemma to deduce that $\frac{n}{\text{gcd}(n, k)} | \frac{k}{\text{gcd}(n, k)} m \iff \frac{n}{\text{gcd}(n, k)} | m$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Yep, sounds good to me
I suppose this result generalises Euclid’s lemma
Cause that applies for gcd(n, k) = 1
Anyway I was just trying to prove $\text{lcm}(a, b) = \frac{ab}{\text{gcd}(a, b)}$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Yeah, but you also proved that all common multiples of a and b are also multiples of lcm(a, b)
Which might be useful
Ah, right. If we take a definition that is the smallest multiple, then this property becomes something to prove
But if we take the definition that LCM is a multiple that divides all other multiples, then your whole chain of arguments is not really needed?
well my chain of arguments it to show that lcm(a, b) actually exists
Well, it’s needed for proving relationship to gcd
and is equal to ab/gcd(a, b)
Yes
i may try to include this in my next article
I need to explore your blog more closely
Looks interesting

i have been on this "baby yoneda" series for a while
it's a simplified version of the yoneda lemma that requires you to learn a lot less category theory
but still has plenty of interesting consequences
Cool!
Oh you wrote the category theoretic argument for why preimages are so good!
You must be stopped /j
(To expand on the joke: I think this is a good gateway into category theory, but not so helpful if you just want to know why preimages are so nice. The best explanation is "preimages preserve information in a way that forward images do not, unless they are injective". But I appreciate that may not have been your aim!)
My point is understanding why that statement is true
Not just “that” it is true
Like, the point of the article is to explain why preimages preserve information in a way that forward images don’t
Maybe I am too far removed from when I didn't understand it, but it seems like it just follows from the definition, and a few examples of forward images having "collisions"
To me, “preimages are precomposition and subset operations are postcomposition” is what made it click
That absolutely tracks with your username lmao
I mean is that not intuitive
Forward images don’t have nearly as nice a description in terms of just composition
I agree that it is if you are leaning towards a category-theoretic framework anyway. I haven't, traditionally, but maybe I should 
Function composition isn’t even intrinsically category theoretic
So I’m not sure what you mean
Category theory studies composition, sure, but that’s hardly unique to category theory
Not intrinsically, no, but the diagrams fall into what I'd call a "category-theoretic paradigm"
I mean I guess?
As a mentor of mine once said off the cuff (!), "The category-theoretic paradigm has had trouble gaining a toehold in the undergraduate zeitgeist, for a range of reasons."
They’re not really more complicated than flowcharts
Well not to you or I, no - I am wrapped up in thinking about how to communicate these ideas to undergrads when I teach discrete
I suppose my point is that it is misguided to equate “category-theoretic paradigm” with “difficult or abstract”
The concept of a flowchart is not something that requires an undergrad math degree to understand
No, but I think the computer science students in my discrete class would lead a revolt if I sent them the article unfortunately 😭
(They should think more about composition but that culture change is beyond my ability to instigate, alas)
How come?
(I mean this sincerely, my exposition is by no means perfect and I’m always open to ways to improve)
Possibly because they are mostly data science-brained, so this level of abstraction (which, yes, to a math major, wouldn't be much!) is not easily received. I think they are just not the target audience for your exposition, which I would peg as "for the category-theoretically curious"
Hm, by “this level of abstraction” - could you be more precise? Do you mean using arrows to represent functions, for example?
No that's fine - I will have to comb through and think about where I'd lose them
Interesting
Would you say that’s because the diagram appears elaborate?
Like, that there just happen to be lots of points and lines?
Because that might be more to do with the way I present the concepts than the underlying difficulty
I think this diagram in particular would lose a lot of people. It's not at all clear to someone not familiar with commutative diagrams that this is equivalent to (a o f, b o f) = (a, b) o f
As a comparison, here is the diagram for the construction of a regular pentagon with ruler and compass:
I mean I just keep coming back to this. It's embedded in the definition that preimages preserve information while forward images lose it. I would show two of the definition chasing proofs and note how similar they are, to highlight that something deeper is going on. Then I'd do a few counterexamples of images behaving badly, to contrast with what's going on with preimages. Then the "information preserving" idea should be grokkable.
The category-theoretic framework is neat, but in a class that doesn't otherwise make use of it feels like lipstick on a proof, so to speak.
Mhm - is there anything I could do to make that more clear?
I just realized what board we're in (oops!) so I will just say that I think the exposition is great, I just think we disagree about who its target audience is
I mean you say this but, in my undergrad, I remember seeing how the preimage proofs were “definition-chasing” and similar, but overall felt unenlightened
Those kinds of “symbol-chasing” proofs were the ones I disliked the most, I guess
I think "sets as predicates" is a really good insight, and could be used to explain why the definition chasing proofs all look so similar without further diagrams
Sure, but I guess in my mind that’s a stone’s throw away from “preimage is precomposition, subset operations are postcomposition”
I don't have any specific suggestion, but I think it should be possible to explain simply. And also maybe give an explicit definition of (a, b) : X -> {0, 1}^X, because a beginner might not be able to fill in that definition automatically
I don’t see much of the utility in viewing subsets as predicates if you don’t also cast preimage in that light
If you mean the “packaging”, that’s covered earlier on
Hence why the double arrow is labelled “package”
How about coloring the double lines to highlight them, then just write something like "we want to prove that package o compose = compose o package"?
I think a bit of color could go a long way to help a beginner keep track of difficult diagrams
I’ll keep that in mind
Hmm, I don't know why my eyes skipped over that part 😅 but I think it's a sign that it maybe isn't highlighted clearly enough
I’ll keep that in mind too - sometimes I have a tendency to go into long prose
Wait, where do you define (a, b)? This is the first mention I can find, but you only give the domain and codomain
Hm, I thought I had given a link to products, categorically
In that case I will edit the article at some point to give the actual definition of packaging
Perhaps after finishing the baby Yoneda series
It shouldn’t be hard, it’s just $(\alpha, \beta)(x) = (\alpha(x), \beta(x))$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
I'm sure this could be a great article for explaining preimages, I think it just needs a few modifications for it to be easily digestible for a beginner. Your article on products was great btw, no notes 💪
Thank you! I’m writing down all these suggestions so I don’t forget when it comes time to actually writing them
Yep, it's not hard, but someone who's learning about preimages might not have seen that exact notation before
I also want to rework the way my images are done
Currently I just make them in quiver, take screenshots and upload
If $F(n)= \sum_{d\mid n}f(n)$ then for any positive integer $m $, $$\sum_{i=1}^m F(i)= \sum_{k=1}^m f(k)\lfloor \frac{m}{k} \rfloor$$ I am not sure how to do this
like neither i am able to understand what is happening
AlienX
i mean u can think about tau as f for reference but i amnot able to do that either
i can imagine some form of matrix but cnt get it completelly
Count how many times each f(i) appears in the double sum
Hey, I hope this is the right channel for this. How would one approach a problem like this one?
In my discrete mathematics class, we've gotten into the properties of integers and divisibility. I'm trying to tackle some problems similar to this one, but I kind of just stare at the screen and my mind blanks, so I'm looking for some starting points.
In general I would say a starting point is the definition
For example, if my definition of divisibility is $$a | b \text{ if there exists an integer } k \text{ such that } ak = b$$
Coolempire93
Then I might write
What I have
a | b
c | d
What I want to show
ab | cd
So what this means to me is
There is an i such that a*i = b
There is a j such that c*j = d
What I want to show is
There is a k such that ab*k = cd
Which would by my starting point for a proof, to see if I can manipulate these two equations to come up with one that looks like the last one
Even before this though what I really should begin with is considering some examples
Since it says the statement may or may not be true
I want to gain an intuition/understanding of what I'm working with
So let's choose integers a,b,c,d such that a | b and c | d
Say, a = 2, b = 4 and c = 3, d = 6
We can see that a | b is true and c | d is true
But ab = 8 does not divide cd = 18 and we have a counterexample
Really most numbers for this will give you a counterexample
so if you just try a few examples you'd end up at one quickly hopefully
So yeah that would be my process
- Try some examples to get a feel for the problem
- If none of the examples give you a counterexample, try to construct one (based on what knowledge you have gained about the problem, are there any integers you think that the statement might not work for? If not, skip this step)
- Set up to prove, beginning by writing your assumptions, and using the definitions to get them to a form you can work with, and then write your final goal (as you get more familiar with proofs, you will be able to start skipping this step)
- Attempt to prove the statement; if you can get from your assumptions to your conclusion you are done; if not, see where in the proof failed - can you come up with a counterexample based on this?
As an example, say I had tried to prove it
I know $a\cdot i = b$ and $c \cdot j = d$
So $ab = a^2 \cdot i$ and $cd = c^2 \cdot j$
I want to show that for some integer $k$, $ab \cdot k = cd$
Which would mean $a^2 \cdot i \cdot k = c^2\cdot j$, or in other words $$k = \frac{c^2 \cdot j}{a^2 \cdot i}$$ must be an integer. Now I can just choose an example carefully, let $a = 2$ and $i = 2$, $c = 3$ and $j = 3$. Of course, $k = \frac{9}{4}$ is not an integer in this case, so $a = 2, b = a \cdot i = 4$, $c = 3, d = c \cdot j = 9$ is a counterexample.
Coolempire93
ok thank you so much for that. I'll try some problems (after I finish lunch hehe) and I'll come back here if I get stuck again
Sounds good 🙂
Is there a specific notation for "does not divide"? For example, if I said 4|6, that's false. How would one go about writing that?
As a related question, when we say a|b, is it sort of implied that it's saying "a divides b as long as the result is also an integer?" Because in my head, 4 does divide 6, with the result being 1.5 . (I hope that makes sense, I have a very specific way of thinking about things sometimes)
Coolempire93
$a \nmid b$
Coolempire93
There we go
thank you
As a related question, when we say a|b, is it sort of implied that it's saying "a divides b as long as the result is also an integer?" Because in my head, 4 does divide 6, with the result being 1.5 . (I hope that makes sense, I have a very specific way of thinking about things sometimes)
Yes, again the definition is
a | b if there exists integer k such that ak = b
That is b/a = k is an integer
The idea I used here
Selecting numbers so that cd/ab is not an integer
So yes, you are correct
thank you
How do I count again?
You just did
Oh my god, thank you. I've been trying to figure out a way to make my latex notation more clean whenever I talk about divisibility.
Can somebody please give me a hint as to why 2r and r^2 - Ds^2 are in Z implies that r + s \sqrt{D} is in Z[\sqrt{D}]?
I think it's as a result of this if you have something like this anywhere
Oh wait I read your question wrong
Disregard what I just said
Hmmmmm
I think this notation is unfamiliar to me 
What part of the notation confuses you?
I don't think I've seen S[number] before
Is that just polynomials using power of number with coefficients in S
are you trying to show the hint given by the author?
if yes then the first direction, ie r+s\sqrt D is an algebraic integer implies 2r and r^2-Ds^2\in Z follows from exercise 5
for the other direction, if 2r and r^2-Ds^2 are in Z, what can you say about the polynomial x^2-2rx+r^2-Ds^2?
yes
S[a] is the set of polynomials in a with coefficients in S (assuming that S is a ring)
you can generalize this in the following way: let A be a subring of a ring B and let S be any subset of B, then A[S] is the set of all not necessarily commutative polynomials in elements of S with coefficients in A. "not necessarily commutative" because the elements of S may not commute with each other
tho if you take B (and hence B, A and S because A,S\subset B) to be commutative, you can drop the "not necessarily commutative" part
Okay then the new suggestion i was going to give would have been righf
I stopped before I did it because I was annoyed I whiffed the first and wasn't completely certain
ohhh, what was your suggestion
How trivial is it to prove the bezout identity? If I haven't proved it in 2 hours should I keep trying?
have you seen the euclidean algorithm?
you basically apply quotient remainder theorem repeatedly
Yeah the quotient one i came up with a proof that was maybe a bit not 100% rigorous but this can't figure out
Ai is telling me its more complicated then euclid algorithm is that not true?
like, you can do something called the extended euclidean algorithm that exactly gives the identity
let a,b be non-zero integers and consider the set S={ax+by| x,y in Z and ax+by>0}, this set has a least element by the well ordering principle which you can denote by d. Now write a=qd+r for some integers q and r with 0=< |r|<d. What can you say about r? similarly write b=q_1 d+r_1 for some integers q_1 and r_1 with 0=< |r_1|< d, what can you say about r_1?
Finally let c be a common divisor of a and b, prove that c|d
also i dont recommend spending this much time on a problem before asking for a hint or looking at a solution
because sometimes you would be missing something important for the proof and you wouldnt be able to proceed if you dont look it up
that being said, this doesnt mean that you should ask for a solution/hint after thinking about the problem for a few secs
like give it a good thought for a few mins, if you still cant proceed then ask for a hint or something like that
Oh wow that fast after a few min?
BTW are you a ring theorist?
What if you still can't figure out with a hint
no, i am a 2nd year undergrad student. What made you think that i am ring theorist tho
you ask for another one or you just search for the solution
I googled your name that's what I found
Is it fine if when I read the various proofs I dont fully follow parts? Like is it ok if it takes me a few hours to get it?
yeah lol there is no issue
it's usual to get struggling with understanding/following stuff
Ok ai told me bezout is much harder then eucluds lemma not sure if its true or not. Should we prove the statements in text ourselves or just the exercises should be fine?
well anything is okay
you can prove the theorem first, and do the exercises
but similarly, you can do the reverse
struggling with exercise and sometimes that gives you the idea
which allows to understand the proof easier sometimes
What i mean is it ok to read the proof if you will be doing the proofs in the exercises? Whats the difference btw the two
Like proofs in the text provided vs proofs that are exercises
well if you are caring about proofs that are left as exercises then you should try to get an idea at least, by trying to make examples and play around with them
it's still okay that you end up with proving nothing but at least playing around examples helps a lot
Not sure i understand what you mean. My question is basically what's the difference btw trying to prove the statements proved in the text vs the proofs that are in the end of the section left as exercises if any
basically reading the proof for that theorem first and trying to do proof exercise is like there is no point, kinda
Are the proofs in the text vs proofs in the exercises different in sone way just trying to get how they are the same or different
i dont get what you mean lol
I guess proofs that authors give directly in the text are considered something that you are not meant to come up with yourself
Ok in the actual chapter there are theorems stated and proved as part of the text. At the end of each section/chapter there are exercises many of which are proofs (usually no solution provided). I am trying to understand what's the difference in doing the proofs in the text on your own vs those in the exercise if they are roughly the same or not. If doing 1 without the other us sufficient
You just learn by reading them and trying to understand
And the proofs requested in the exercises is something that you are expected to be able to prove after reading the relevant chapter
Of course there might be easier or harder exercises, and it is also possible to try to prove things in the main text yourself before reading the author’s proof
It all depends on your style, concrete book and other factors
Are the proofs the authors put harder/easier and different then the exercises?
It depends
There are books with devilishly hard exercises
Sometimes they are rated
I guess you can just try and see for yourself:)
Next time you see a theorem in your book: do NOT read the proof
And try to prove it yourself
Then compare with the author’s proof
Note the difficulty
is what I do almost always
Usually either the author did it in a different and insightful way or they omitted stuff that I would liked to have seen in my proof 
I see so just depends on the textbook
I wasn't asking now about my vs the authority proof though I always wonder about that. I mean difference in difficulty of exercises vs proofs in the actual text
Yeah, I sometimes do this too. At least it makes me understand the theorem statement well and be alert to various subtleties, even if I don’t manage the proof myself
I don’t spend a lot of time on this, just seeing if I can spot the idea of the proof
Yes. Did you really expect that is a general convention on this for all math textbooks?
I think I'm the opposite, I basically write every proof possible by hand as long as I have time in my schedule
my method of taking notes
Does it often take you guys long to prove stuff and even just understand given proofs?
I do that for exercises
And only occasionally for proofs from the text
If a theorem and/or proof is particularly puzzling :)
Yes, sometimes it takes days
And then I come here and ask for hints :)
Just depends on how novel the field is for me I suppose
Like linear algebra proofs either feel like magic or ingenuity to me
But analysis proofs so far have been really routine
I guess I mean more on more beginner stuff like elementary number theory
You guys are undergrads?
Bezout is cool, I think that was the first unexpected result in Elementary number theory for me
ENT wasn't too bad for me, I had to take it independent study (and I hadn't joined this server yet), so I basically learned it all on my own
This
So it didn't take you hours to understand or prove anything?
Don’t compare yourself to random people on Internet, maybe I am a future Fields medalist 
Yeah I just feel dumb now cause I tried to prove it for 2 hours didnt get far been looking at proves dont get it yet
There will always be someone significantly smarter than you, no need to worry about that
Some things did, especially the theorem that led to bezout
Euclids lemma seemed way easier
What’s your proof for Bezout?
mine or michael's
Is it just plug and chug in Euclid’s algorithm or the proof based on sets of integer linear combinations?
Both :) but mainly Michael
Because I think you are already sorted with your proof long time ago
you could use the well-ordering principle
Time to get to work!
Yeah, that’s the other approach that I meant
But just to get it done piggybacking on Euclid is much easier
Good old Euclid, what would happen to us all without you
The ai gave me 7/10 on euclid saying I need to improve rigor. What do you mean by piggybacking
forgot to spoiler
AI grading for proofs - sus!

AI is so rubbish at this…
Asked today: give me conjugacy classes of A_4
And both Claude and ChatGPT gave me wrong answers, very persuasively, as usual
yeah I basically only use gemini now
Wait but it can solve the easy erdos problems and imo
Surely it can check elementary number theory proofs
As those are much easier in comparison
Also I check on that halmos website made by mathematicians
Hallmos
Sadly when it comes to AI that is a logical fallacy 😔
Guys lets not talk about ai
Surely it can do a harder thing does not imply it can do an 'easier' thing from a human perspective
Because the AI doesn't reason or build on easy to get to hard
Well, it can’t do elementary algebra proofs unfortunately, it gave me 7 wrong proofs in a row and then said that I spent all my free tokens
glad I've never gotten an incorrect proof from gemini, I would use szl.ai for an ENT proof though
Depends on which model too
You are saying it can do imo but not way easier stuff you sure??
Anyway here is that bezout proof, now with spoiler
If your bar is imo then there is something that has gone deeply wrong in your studies
Nice handwriting!
oh I included the corollary
Well the next corollary was bezout
But it's on the next page 
What do you mean? I said if it can do imo surely it should be easily able to handle basic proifs?
Again
Fallacious logic because an LLM doesn't learn in that manner
Hmm not sure lol if one day it proves the remaining hypothesis you will say it can't do college math
If one day it proves the riemann hypothesis I would be very interested in the training data
I’d recommend posting your proofs here instead
If you are unsure about them and want feedback
Maybe we will give you 10/10 

Yeah I should
Watch the Collatz Conjecture visualized. Every positive integer spirals inward through a logarithmic manifold toward n=1, caught by an inescapable network of mathematical "funnels."
INTERACTIVE VISUALIZATION:
https://discomath.com/elements/collatz_spiral_visualization.html
Proof: https://zenodo.org/records/18626114
JSON version: https://github...
This person claims collatz is solved lol
21 hours ago?
We prove the Collatz Conjecture by establishing the Conformal Mixing Lemma through asymptotic funnel density analysis. Building on the conditional framework from, we demonstrate that as integers grow, the probability of catastrophic descent into laminar channels (high powers of 2) increases without bound, making sustained divergence measure-t...
Here is the linked proof by the way?
Didnt read it yet but thought it would be funny to post here
is that real or is it AI slop
It's AI slop
tragic
all of the citations of his work are him citing himself
also the publish dates are wild

yup ignore
"why is my paper getting ignored? 😭 " - bro who generated his whole paper with claude after generating the last 3 with claude as well
WHERE DOES IT SAY THAT plagplaeg
or does it not actaully say "why is my paper getting ignored"
I think they said that in response to my comment about all of his citations being from himself
well anyone claiming they solved collatz is literally false unless it's Terence Tao

Has anyone yet noticed that 11^37 is very close to 2^128, admitting a relatively compact representation of a (non-trivial prime power) finite field with a non-power of 2 order?
Would such a thing be useful for anything, practically speaking?
(Thinking perhaps PRNG stuff or fields for polynomials or elliptic curves for cryptography or other similar uses)
I believe my advisor mentioned something about something like this when going over RS and BCH codes but I can't remember 🫠
Hey guys, I am currently doing some reading on class field theory and I would like to get an intuitive overview of how the main results were arrived. Hence, I am working through many different sources but have mostly landed on weil's basic number theory focusong on the explicit central simple algebra approach (as right now, the cohomological approach seems entirely mysterious to me)
However, even for this, I do not really understand the motivation for introducing these objects. My understanding for the local case is as follows: for a finite extension of local fields L/K and each character chi: Gal(L/K) --> C, of course the image of Gal(L/K) is a group of roots of unity because Gal(L/K) is finite, and groups of unity are cyclic, so the kernel of chi gives a normal subgroup H s.t. the fixed field L^H is a cyclic extension over K. To this cyclic extension L^H/K and to an element a in Kx, we can choose a generator g of Gal(L^H/K) define a certain central simple algebra over K that embeds L by introducing an element y which implements g as an inner automorphism: yly^{-1} = g(l) and satisfies y^n = a. Then, we have a function inv on CSAs --> Q/Z which we can exponentiate to give a root of unity, and define a pairing of the characters on Gal(L/K) and Kx by this. My question is simply: why consider this construction of a CSA this way, why is it interesting, why does this give the correct correspondence thta in the global case is the artin symbol. What's the intuition for coming up with it and working with it in the first place
if you are doing something similar/higher than algebraic number theory or analytic number theory, like these better to go to #advanced-number-theory
this but also I can answer
Have you gone through the motivation of "why class field theory"?
fwiw look at #book-recommendations message
Thanks, I’ll move the convo there
I realised something interesting, the binomial formula works for rising and falling powers too
Is this the umbral calculus they talk about?
yes
modern umbral calculus is basically about treating polynomial sequences that behave like powers under translation as if they were powers
sakura a sequence ${p_n(x)}$ is called of binomial type if
[
p_n(x+y)= sum_{k=0}^n binom nkp_k(x)p_{n-k}(y)
]
Oléagineux Distilliànus VIVII
falling factorials are the natural basis for the finite difference operator
I know what you are talking about, is this related to the whole binomial thing though?
I wonder what kind of "umbral" calculus leads to $e^t = \sum_{z = 0}^{\infty} \frac{t^z}{z!} \Leftrightarrow \tilde{\Gamma}(z) = \int_0^{\infty} t^ze^{-t} dt$, with big quotations around the equivalence sign
PKThoron
like screw bound variables and discrete vs. continuous, we're making this work!
I have just started studying elementary no. Theory by David m bruton and feel a little lost on the preliminaries section concerned with the well ordering theorem and induction I read the proofs I think I get em but minutes later I feel like i don't understand anything what to do
Ping me please if u can help me out in any way
Honestly I felt the same way in the preliminaries of my ENT class
Then what should I do
Like im doing it from self just using books
Should I just stick to it?
Like keep rawdogging it?
I think having someone on here guide you through it will be helpful (since WOP proofs are special) but yeah I had to independent study mine as well (no class, just exams) and the rest of the book was honestly easier 
Than getting familiar with the new technique
Having someone outline the process for you will probably be good for you though
I would do it but I have to run
For instance I uh learnt the principle behind mathematical induction that if for a relation A, we have a set of natural no.s till n then it must also hold true for n+1 thus proving the statement or relation for all positive integers but I tend to forget it again and again
Lmao okok
I think I will raw dog it and if I get stuck on trying to prove SMTH myself I will just create a help channel
Thanks tho
Speaking for myself, teaching myself, I copy out the worked examples from the textbook, making sure I fully understand each step going from one line of working to the next. Then I do the exercises, modelling my solutions on the way the worked examples went.
There is just no substitute for getting the practice in from the exercises
ohkk
Hi Cohle, is there an induction question you are stuck on?
I am new here. Hi! I taught Maths and tutored Maths at high school and college. I am retired now
I am currently teaching myself Multivariable Calculus
not really a question but when i read proofs i think im just rote learning instead of actually understanding
Cohle, I think I could help you but we need to work on examples together, discuss, and attempt questions
Honestly for me, I learnt from the very same book.
The preliminaries were quite easy.
It's literally Induction and Binomial Theorem
Learn WOP. Then, we prove various properties that follow from WOP, like Archimedean Property, First Principle of Finite Induction, Second Principle of Finite Induction, do some problems, and yeah. If you are trying to prove anything by Well-Ordering Principle, try proof by contradiction by taking a subset of the non-negatives, taking a least element, trying to find a element less than the least element, and by contradiction of the principle, proving the original statement.
For Binomial Coefficients, learn the expansion. Pascal's rule follows simply. The Proof of Binomial Theorem follows from Induction.
The Book explains it very nicely in my opinion.
Whenever the book explains hard stuff, the book usually brushes it over in an intuitive manner. So its a more intuitive book than a rigorous book. For example Dirichlet's theorem. It offers no proof of that.
For example, here.
thats the problem whenever i read or reread i feel as if im just memorising stuff instead of learning it
I mean memorizing is reading without understanding
If you understand the proof, if you can do it on your own, whenever asked, and if you genuinely understand the various paths we follow to prove theorems related to WOP, then you are good.
how to do that
Try to prove the theorems yourself, before reading the book.
And use the theorems on examples
Also, do a LOT of problems. You already have exercise problems
Try them.
okay
But the book does a very GOOD job if you read it
Its very intuitive.
After Chapter 10, you have full choice to do chapters in any ORDER.
Think of induction as a ladder: if you can get to the first step and can climb from one step to the next, then you can get to any step
It’s hardly possible to forget that
nice analogy
ill lock in then, your making me pretty excited lmao
I don’t know if this counts as number theory but can someone help me with proving that the first n digits of an irrational number r, multiplied by 3, are determined by the first f(n) digits of r
I have a homework assignment about proving that multiplication by 3 is computable on irrationals and it boils down to this being true
In order to determine the first n digits of 3r you need to know the carry into the n-th digit, and that carry can be only 0,1,2. The carry is uniquely determined if the (n+1)-st digit is 0,1,2 (giving carry 0), 4,5 (carry 1), 7,8,9 (carry 2). If the (n+1)-st digit is 3 or 6, then you must examine the (n+2)-nd digit in order to determine the correct carry into the n-th digit. The process then continues in the same way. Therefore, I believe your function f(n) should be defined as f(n)=n+1+t(n), where t(n) is the length of the consecutive block of 3s or 6s starting at position n+1. Say, if r=0.3336623337... we get the sequence f(n)=5,5,5,7,7,... for n=1,2,3,4,5,... (n=1 corresponds to digit 0)
@fresh sand
It’s interesting that Aluffi likes to prove things using Well Ordering Principle as opposed to induction. In his book “Algebra. Notes from the Underground”, he writes: “Several proofs in what follows could be handled by induction or interchangeably by an appeal to the well-ordering principle. Which to use is essentially a matter of taste. I will often insist on using the well-ordering principle, to stress that we are really using a specific feature of Z. Also, I often find it somewhat easier to write a lean, rigorous argument by directly invoking the well-ordering principle rather than induction”.
And since the number is irrational, the sequence of $3$s or $6$s has to be finite. $f(n)$ even is partial recursive (but not primitive recursive). It seems then I can extend the result to rationals that are not of the type $\overline{a}.\overline{b}(c)$ where $c \in 3, 6$
Ted
Yes, I think so
Whoever created number theory deserves a Darwin
If I were allowed to swear, I would do that to number theory.
LMFAO
What’s up with this unlove for number theory, didn’t Gauss said that it’s the Queen of math
it is the queen
It's just people learning number theory the wrong way
true, they need to start from weil conjectures
or modular forms, CFT, or whatever
For problem practice, they should lean towards Goldbach conjecture. Really strengthens your number theory skills.
The best way to get in to something is to begin with the best it has to offer
Thats why your first number theory book should be Modular Curves and the Eisenstein Ideal by Barry Mazur
Stifel's relation ☝️
<@&268886789983436800> spam
<@&268886789983436800> spam
No see the difference is that the Eisenstein ideal paper is actually good
He is also the youngest Fields medalist ever (at 27), so must know how to write to appeal to younger students of mathematics
Hi, is there an intuitive way of understanding equivalence classes?
It’s like equality in a way: equivalence classes are subsets of elements that are “equal” (equivalent) in some sense. Those classes also partition the original set in disjoint parts
But I’m not sure what exactly you mean by intuitive understanding, what is your current issue with understanding of equivalence classes?
Why is it not intuitive?
I mean, i find it as a concept that I have to memorize but it's not "tangible" nor easy for me to think about it
there's a third perspective that might be helpful
what about the partition perspective then? I think it's quite tangible. Basically, you can just partition any set into disjoint subsets and declare them equivalance classes, and it will work for some relation, namely "x and y are equivalent if and only if they are in the same subset"
and this "naming function" that @lilac bronze writes about is also a very nice way to think about them, I like how it was neatly combined with Poincare's quote about mathematics and thus raised to a meta-level :)
one nice thing is that a lot of equivalence relations in practice arise from such naming functions!
e.g. the equivalence relation for modular arithmetic comes from the function sending an integer to its remainder modulo n
in this case, your naming function sends x to the subset of the partition it lies in
yeah, after all they just alternative ways of looking at equivalence. We can also say that we partition objects in such a way that they have the same "name" or property (remainder mod N, in this case)
I just feel that the parition is the most "tangible" way, because it literally takes a set and splits it into parts, what can be more intuitive than that? We are doing it with sets of apples or whatever since we were kids :)
naming is also intuitive though
the only problem with all of this is that it was already intuitive for us, but not for @lunar laurel :)
so let's see what he thinks
I mean, i see that the concept is easy, but its not intuitive as other things😅 , atleast for me
in any case, i'll study it more and see if I can get to some point
thanks to both of you
It would help if you can actually discuss it, ie say what questions you have, challenge the required properties (like why on earth does equivalence relation has to be transitive? What happens if it’s not?) or rephrase the definition in your own words or restate that blog post or something like that. Instead of simply saying that “it’s not intuitive”, because this gives almost zero feedback to us
I mean, I understand the properties, but I find it hard to imagine what is a class of equivalence, I know that a class of equivalence is a subset of equivalence relation, but, I don't see any easy example to imagine it, I just see a definition