#elementary-number-theory
1 messages · Page 17 of 1
if there's no max = min
why?
wait what
like, not every, but it's some subset of max times some subset of min
the same subset of max that is b1
Yeah, true
Are you thinking of using this fact for the n * lcm/b_1 = 20 term or the n * a_1 = 20 one?
Yeah
each term is equal to a term in b
Yeah
And lcm(a, b) will be divisible by b_1 because b_1 is a divisor of b and b is of course a divisor of lcm(a, b)
So it will be some natural number
we just need to show it divides 20
Rather, we should do it the other way, I guess
n = 20 * b_1/lcm(a, b)
nvm
Wait what, I got 20 into the equation from the example for some reason
20 shouldn't be there
This basically proves it
Thank you!
Its Me Mario
Well there’s quite a few paths you could take
You can make more equations by finding the prime factorization of m and n
You’ll have 2 types of conditional congruences, equations that are modulo a prime or equations that are modulo a power of a prime. We can use hensels lemma to find the solutions to polynomials modulo power of prime but I’m not aware of any trick to solve for modulo a prime, if you’re lucky the prime number is small and you can plug in all the values to see if it holds
Of course there could be other complications, what if we can’t factor m or n? What if there happens to be more than 1 solution to a congruence, then we would have multiple different systems we would have to solve for
So n is a polynomial not an integer?
That conclusion in the last line doesn't exactly follow. At least from whatever you have done.
You can, at best, say that $$2^{n+1} \equiv (p-1) \equiv 0( \text{mod } d)$$.
Enemagneto
In my number theory notes, sometimes I saw $a^n \equiv 1$, where $n$ is the order of $a$ (assume $2|n$), then $a^{\frac{n}{2}} \equiv -1$ but I found that sometimes it may not be true. In what scenario this would hold?
hoifanrd
modulo a prime it's always true, so needs to be some composite number at a minimum. For instance, mod 8 you have 3^2=5^2=7^2=1 but of course only 7=-1 mod 8 so 3 and 5 are some examples
I can't find any proof for it online🥲
Do you mind having a proof of it?🤔
proof of what
Under modulo p prime, that property holds 
It sorta depends on what angle you want to prove it from, but let's call b=a^{n/2} then we know b^2=1 and mod p we have a field so (b+1)(b-1)=0 forces b=1 or b=-1
we know b=1 can't happen since the order of a is n not n/2, so it must be b=-1
Hum we didn't talk about field in number theory 🤔
yeah I thought you might say something like that, we can prove it from that angle, because in a sense we'd basically be proving it's a field and I'm taking the lazy way out and I'm tired lol
It's ok haha
I think Silverman covers this in his Friendly Introduction to Number Theory book in one of the quadratic reciprocity chapters
or something similar enough
Ok thanks!
yeah 😎
I am asking this question actually because I am having another unsolved problem
sure sounds fun
I am having a question asking me to prove that the congruence $5^x \equiv -1 ( \text{mod } m)$, where $m = 2^\alpha, \alpha \geq 3$ is not solvable.
hoifanrd
I have already proved that the $O_m(5) = 2^{\alpha - 2}$ in the previous sub question.
hoifanrd
My current idea is that
If it's solvable, then $x = 2^{\alpha - 3}$, which should lead to some contradiction
hoifanrd
oh I have a different approach entirely
I suppose your way might be possible too though, it seems harder to me though
What would be your approach? 🤔
I'm thinking if you had any solution for alpha > 3, it would still have to reduce down to a solution mod 8
Ohhhh
from there I would do a binomial expansion of (1+4)^x and notice what happens to the higher terms, it simplifies
or I guess you can brute force through it too
well you have to actually check it one way or another but yeah
I can just say if there exist a solution, then 5^x = -1 (mod 8)
then check that there is no such x (just 1 to 8)
funny we proved something stronger than we were asked to lol
alpha >= 2 yeah, very nice
Because it's having other subquestions haha
But others are fine :P
Thanks a lot 
yup you're welcome
I hope I will be fine in tomorrow's number theory makeup midterm 
good luck!
yeah i ended up figuring it out, i wasn’t sure how to make the last implication but i first had to show that d=2^(n+1 ) and then everything worked pretty smoothly
What I asked in #proofs-and-logic would probably also fit here
Show that the equation $ 5x^3 + 11y^3 + 13z^3 = 0$ has no integer solutions.ive assumed that $gcd(x,y,z)=1$. Also, modulo 3 you can get that $x^3 + y^3 \equiv z^3$ but that isn't really that helpful any ideas?
bathroom mug
I just did one where you had to show that 15x^2-7y^2=9 has no integral solutions and I just kept looking modulo different integers and got a proof.
So, y = 0 (mod 3), then you get x = 0 (mod 3) then you have 15a^2-7b^2=1 which means 7b^2 = 2 (mod 3) which can't happen so there are no solutions.
This was possible because I had 2 variables, so if 2 terms are 0 mod something then the other term is forced to be 0 mod that thing. Not sure what I can do for 3 variables other than compute the possibilities for y and z modulo some integer given some x value
you can turn it into 2 variables reducing mod 5, 11, or 13
that means neither of the two variables left can be divisible by your prime, otherwise the other is which violates the gcd condition
I might have a stronger gcd condition in mind based on thinking about descent, since it looks like we can actually force x,y,z to all be pairwise relatively prime
unless I've made a mistake, this is how I solved it
yo
we are doing elliptic curve cyrptography
which is basically just finding points of elliptic curves over a finite field
is there a way to know if an element is a quadratic residue?
ie for example y^2 = 7 mod 29
is there a way i for sure know this exists?
i know this is related to quadratic residue stuff ( which i did not study much ) so thats why im asking heree
What I asked in #proofs-and-logic would probably also fit here
yeah the shortcut is knowing quadratic reciprocity
in short (7|29) = (29|7) = 1 means 7 is a quadratic residue, there are a few rules you have to learn to do that cause it isn't just always "flip em"
I'm only showing how quick it is for me to see that, not explaining any steps so that you have an idea what it looks like so you might be motivated to read about it more
but after you read some stuff about legendre symbols, their properties to simplify like quadratic reciprocity and the special rules for 2 and -1 you can ask about whatever is tripping you up still
yea i figured i could ask here
isntead of trying to build the whole theory on my own lfmao
but yeah any quick notes for that or resourceds?
or just google legendre symbols?
brilliant.org probably, idk just don't have time to explain everything but I can help with details
@torn escarp
if y^2 = a mod p
now
can i say that
if the equivalence class of a does not contain (p-1)^2 or any b^2 , where b is in Z/pZ would that imply that this has no solutions?
what i mean is
in mod 7 for example
i know the biggest square would be 36
so a + p, a+2p ,...
if that exceeds 36 without being a square
would that imply its never one?
I don't really think of "biggest" when talking about equivalence classes since 36 is in the same equivalence class as 1, they're all the same to me
typically you just fix some set of representatives like {0,1,..., p-1} and interchange freely
to me that basically answers your question, doesn't matter how big it is as an integer
you can brute force see all the squares in Z/pZ by looking at 1^2, 2^2, ..., ((p-1)/2)^2
because x^2 = (-x)^2 = (p-x)^2 you can stop halfway
not sure I answered your question or not but maybe that helps you to reask your question @inner mist
aha
yeah
i should have thought about that
like basically its just this crypto class
no proofs or anything
and i just want like a way to verify if i should stop looking in the equivalence class
or just keep adding
like y^2 = 2 mod 7 is y^2 = 9 sorta thing
but then y^2 = 3 mod 7 has no solutions
not sure what you're doing here
how would you solve y^2 = 2 mod 7
probably brute force check 1^2, 2^2, 3^2
although I know 1^2 wouldn't work for obvious reasons and 2^2 wouldn't work cause it's a field, so it has to be 3, but that's over thinking it
yea
got it
ty
sm
what i was thinking was
abit stupid
just look at [2]
and if theres a square there then its the root of that square
and im done
as in 2+7 , 2+2*7 , 2+..
yeah I was thinking you might, seems annoying to go that route
if the numbers get larger I might try other tricks, like probably worth knowing that QR x QR = QR, NR x QR = NR and NR x NR = QR
QR meaning quadratic residue, NR being non quadratic residue
really this is just the homomorphism f(x)=x^{(p-1)/2} that maps f: Z/pZ* => {-1,1}
this is the euler form of the legendre symbol, or whatever they call it, its' the same thing
what is [2; 3, 5, 7, 11...]
2.3130367364335829
Nothing special about that number?
should there be
Idk, there could be
is there anything special about the power series 2+3x+5x^2+7x^3+11x^4+...
lmk when you find something
I'll see you in a few years then
sounds good
I was just curious if there were any known properties of it, or anything at all
A search didn't give anything
you need a hook of some kind
learn more about continued fractions and learn more about primes, right now the only relation between the two is a continued fraction holds an infinite sequence in it and the primes form an infinite sequence, past that I don't see much to do
I finished my midterm🥲
I got two questions unsolved lul
And I would like to discuss them here
that's what the channel is for lol
If $p = a^2 + b^2$, where $p$ is an odd prime, I have already proved that \
a) $(a, b) = 1$ \
b) $p \equiv 1 ( \text{mod } 4)$ \
And the remaining one is prove that at least one of the $a$ or $b$ is QR in mod p
hoifanrd
I'm thinking we can use the fact that since p=1 mod 4 there's an element we can call i such that i^2=-1 mod p
Yes and that element is ab^-1
I only see how to get partial result so far
Wait maybe I can use Jacobi Symbol 🤔
if i is a NR then a=bi gets us one or the other is a QR, and when i is a QR then either both are QRs or neither is
Hum no it doesnt seems to work lul
what'd you try
ah, that's what I'm doing here
Yup same idea
basically we're at (i/p)=1 we need to show (a/p)=-1 can't happen
Yup
I guess that means we actually have to have x^4+y^4=p
well, I guess not
something can be a QR mod p and not be a perfect square
but we do have x^4+y^4=0 mod p
idk just trying to understand this situation better
p=1 mod 8
that much we do know
that might tie back into QR
if we can get (2/p) to pop up
well one is even wlog that be b. so p-4b^2=a^2 , as we know there exists integer x such that x^2=-1(mod p) it sufficies to show there exists integer y such that y^4=p-4b^2(mod p)<=> y^4=-4b^2(mod p)<=> (y^2/b)^2=-4(mod p). as b due to contradition is a NQR[if p=1(mod 8)].let i^2=-1(mod p) be one solution so y^2/b=2i or y^2/b=-2i. we now have to determine if 2i is QR . if p=1(mod 8) 2 is a QR so if we show i is QR. thats what i can think of
so we have to find (i/p) basically
so like
y^4=-1(mod p) show contradiction or something
ok ya
ord_p(y)=8 we can write it like that
as p=1(mod 8)
as fermarts lil theorom also we can use
we can guarentee i is qr this way
but y^2 is NQR contradiction
if p=5(mod 8) then what happens
2 is nqr
and (i/p)=-1(mod p) due to similar order argument i think
again contradiction
I am thinking if there any other way🤔
e.g. (a/p) = -1, then (b^2/a) = -1
So (b/a)^2 = -1 which is impossible...
I am feeling something's wrong tho
Yea because one of a or b may be even
So cannot directly apply with the law of quadratic reciprocity
maybe ur using the law of QR version of jacobi symbol
i think that most prolly works
(b^2|a)=(p|a)
b^2 does not divides a since (a, b) = 1?
ya
So we assume a is odd and (a/p) = -1, then (b^2/a) = -1 which is impossible.
How about the case that a is even and (a/p) = -1🤔
Is there a name for $(-1)^{\Omega(n)}$?
nHail
Oh wait so thats it
Liouville function
Right that's it
ya that works
Since p is odd, at least one of a or b is odd, let a to be odd and a is NR, then -1 = (a/p) = (p/a) = (b^2/a) which is impossible. QED
thats a nice approach
Ok here's my last unsolved question :P
Calculate $$\sum_{k=1}^{111} \left(\frac{k}{2k+1}\right)$$
hoifanrd
This thing is so cursed 
idk is there some trick where we can approximate the sum 1/(2k+1) and have it be exact
I'm thinking $$111 = 2x + \sum_{k=1}^{111}\frac{1}{2k+1}$$ where x is your sum
Merosity
I feel like this isn't much better
maybe we can take case x=1(mod 4),x=0(mod 4),x=3(mod 4),x=2(mod 4)
for odd cases prolly use jacobi reciprocity thing
for like x=2(mod 4) set x=2u where u is odd
love that moment of rediscovering something very well known
which you already knew
but somehow not noticing it was the same thing
I will say it again, jacobi/legendre symbol should be $\left(\frac{a}{b}\right)_L$
Make sense
nHail
Ok 🙏
Someday I will make this notation widespread, mark my word
I guess you could use [1 + \sum_{k = 1}^{111} \frac{1}{2k + 1} + \sum_{k = 1}^{111} \frac{1}{2k} = \sum_{k = 1}^{222} \frac{1}{k} = H_{222},] where $H_{222}$ is the 222nd Harmonic number
The second sum simplifies to 1/2 * H_{111} so I suppose you could write it in terms of the Harmonic numbers 
Again: the "fraction" in the question is the Jacobi symbol 
lmao
ok ya ig that works if
k=1(mod 4)
(k/(2k+1))=(-1)^((k-1)/2*k)=1
k=2(mod 4) set k=2u
The term simplifiles to
(2/(4u+1))=(-1)^(((4u+1)^2-1)/8)
k=3(mod 4)
then ig simplfiies to =-1
if k=0(mod 4) then also this can be simplified depending on v_2(k)s parity i think
actually case 4 and case 2 can be treated at same time i think
oh wait that simplfiies to some constant in case 4 pretty sure
as (8k+1)^2-1 is divisible by 16
so pretty much the only case of importance is case 2
which is dealt with by the parity of u
so again break the summation
these are kinda similar to oly probs
This makes sense now that I think of it lol because in the last one 3 divided the other two terms so looking mod 3 was very nice. I think i could get something from here now
cool, lmk how you solve it curious to see
$5x^3 +11y^3 \equiv 0 (mod 13)$. Let $F(x,y) = 5x^3 + 11y^3$ Now make a table of all possible values of F(x,y) (mod 13) and amazingly it turns out that both x and y should be 0 (mod 13)
bathroom mug
Yes I made a table with 169 entries yes I have quite the time to waste
I genuinely think it took lesser time to write this out than it would've taken to program it
I did check with a calculator
Any reason as to why this is happening?
what I did was solve for (y/x)^3 = -5/11 = 9 mod 13 and check that 9 is not a cube mod 13
$ python3
Python 3.10.12 (main, Jun 11 2023, 05:26:28) [GCC 11.4.0] on linux
Type "help", "copyright", "credits" or "license" for more information.
>>> for x in range(13):
... for y in range(13):
... if (5*x**3 + 11*y**3) % 13 == 0:
... print(x,y)
...
0 0
Oh wow, descent works here since now you'll have that if (x,y,z) is a solution, x ,y and z are all divisible by 13 which contradicts our original assumption
yeah, I should have been more explicit when I mentioned it earlier
This is cool, but why mod 13?
I calculated tables mod 5 and 11 but didn't get anything of this sort
probably cause 13=1 mod 3
that at least chops (13-1)/3 = 4 down into only four possibilities which is less likely
the cubes are 1, 4, 8, 12
1 and 12 are obvious, 8 is obvious once you get 4
Yes
or rather, 4 is obvious once you get 8=2^3 lol
so that's how I enumerated them to see "ah 9 don't work"
mod 5 and mod 11 don't have a third root of unity, 3 doesn't divide p-1, so cubing is just a permutation so it's basically like solving a linear equation in those circumstances
Yeah that makes sense
good question, I didn't really think it through "why" myself I just sorta looked at 5 and 7, but in hindsight probablys hould be thinking if p=1 mod 3 when dealing with cubics
I had tried 7 since 3=(p-1)/2 so it also cut down our choices to -1, 0, 1 for what x,y,z could be
just a similar idea maybe, but failed attempt
You get this stuff when dealing with square roots
yeah, I was thinking about quadratic reciprocity
I'm not too good at python but 0,0 is the only pair giving 0 mod 13 right?
yeah
Thats what I'm reading the code as
it loops through x=0 to 12 and similarly for y
Yeah
and then checks if (5*x**3 + 11*y**3) % 13 == 0 the ** is exponentiation and % is mod
then prints, exactly just to confirm what you're thinking
yeah, definitely useful to know a little coding and try to use it
I could've skipped some columns in my table though since values repeat
any time you would spend writing out tables of junk you can spend, maybe even a little more time learning how to code it
but at least once you get it, everything after becomes faster
Not some, 8 of the columns were redundant lmao
you can just steal my code and reuse it for other stuff by changing a few numbers
Yeah, the last time I coded was a long time ago
Stuff like nested for loops are obvious once you see someone use them
yeah, also could just make the table itself with code too if it's not so obvious
at least you can focus on generating a lot of different examples
just wrote a program now to give some more examples for you, this one lets you check any number, if you save it as thingy.py and run it, it'll run through and print out all the possibilities for 5, 11, 13
def f(x,y,z):
return 5*x**3 + 11*y**3 + 13*z**3
def check(n):
print(f"Checking {n}")
for x in range(n):
for y in range(n):
for z in range(n):
if f(x,y,z) % n == 0:
print(x,y,z)
check(5)
check(11)
check(13)
or you could even make another loop and put check(n) in there to check n from 2 to 20 or whatever
Thanks!! I don't have access to a PC or laptop at the moment but il run this when I can
I should only expect (0,0,13) when check(13) gets called, right?
5 and 11 should give more solutions
output is:
$ python3 examples.py
Checking 13
0 0 0
0 0 1
0 0 2
0 0 3
0 0 4
0 0 5
0 0 6
0 0 7
0 0 8
0 0 9
0 0 10
0 0 11
0 0 12
yeah for 5, and 11 it's significantly longer
it's literally brute force checking and only printing the solutions yep
sagemath is also something good to look into since it's python + a bunch of math libraries and a little more interactive
I've heard of sage, seemed overkill for my use case so I never bothered to look more into it
anyways point is, getting more comfy with python is a good investment no matter what imo
Agreed
yeah can be overkill for sure
my main reason for learning was just my hands hurt from writing too much math lol
Ouch
I've never done that much math
Proof based higher level math needs more writing ig
just over time
use { }
what is {}
instead of () to keep the exponent
OK thanks
Rainstop
use CRT
102=2* 17 *3
mod 2 its 0
mod 3 its 1
mod 17 2024=1(mod 17)
so x=0(mod 2),x=1(mod 3),x=1(mod 17)
x=1(mod 51),x=0(mod 2)
x=52(mod 102)
Are there any theorems similar to warning's or chevalley's theorem but the degree of your polynomial is greater than or equal to the number of variables?
I'd recommend also asking that in whichever advanced channel you deem most appropriate (probably #groups-rings-fields ?)
It takes a ton of guts I think to post ur first doubt in advanced channels , without ever putting it in first in the non advanced channels 💀
coz we can imagine someone popping up and say "this prolly belongs to #elementary-number-theory " 
Lmaoo
I usually don't send anything there because I just assume il have to get to college atleast to learn something "advanced" enough to be sent there
ya same
Yeah but sometimes you just stumble upon some obscure stuff
Multivariable polynomials aren't much of a topic of study in undergrad
You see them, but not much about them
Until you take a proper algebra class, and then the contents of the class belong in #groups-rings-fields
When I see a question about a part of math I know almost nothing about, I don't feel inappropriate redirecting them to an advanced channel
Especially #groups-rings-fields , there's some early undergrad stuff in there sometimes
yo is this where you post stuff about different bases?
probably not, I'd say that's more #discrete-math or just general help channels like #❓how-to-get-help stuff
Yeah, this topic seems pretty obscure-ish
Compared to other number theory topics that is
it's more mainstream/fundamental past undergrad though if you're looking at algebraic geometry
Me: When x = 1... 
0 isn't an integer it's nothing! lol
maybe they mean it's never a natural number when x, y are natural numbers?
defining natural number to be integer > 0
agreed
this is just false lmao
once you realize x^2-1 can be made divisible by any number arbitrarily, you just pick the divisors of the denominator
for instance, y=1 gets you 5 in the denominator, so you solve x^2-1=0 mod 5 and one solution is x=6
or hell, substitute x-1 = 2y^2+3 or x+1 = 2y^2+3 lmao
Yup I think there's some problem with this question
Gonna ask the instructor for it lul
Does anyone have an idea on how to do this?
I tried to simplify the statement but idk
I think what is after the "or" might hold always for m>n
but then you can forget about the N_i, but the n_i are not "free", so should still be 1=n_1<n_2<...<n_k<=n, and so you cannot remove much of i
I'm thinking that's fake now (it's true, I eventually proved it)
I got a question would like to ask:
Let $q > 2$ be an integer, not necessary be a prime, assume $a^m \equiv -1 (\text{mod } q)$, does that mean that the order of $a$ must be $2m$?
hoifanrd
No
(-1)^3=-1 for example
what if we added the restriction that m was the smallest integer such that a^m = -1 mod q, would it hold then?
Hum I am thinking about this too
I think if it's smallest then it would hold
smallest positive integer? Under the assumption that such a m exists yes I think .
because first m<order of a
a^(2m)=1(mod q)
so if I let order = k
k|(2m)
(2m)<2k
And k|(2m)
implies k=2m
I think such a m exists iff order is even
If we wonder about when that happens I think that's like write q=(p1)^(a1)p2^(a2).... *pn^(an) as it's prime factorization
And if a happens to not be a quadratic residue modulo some (p_i)^(a_i) and is also coprime
Let a_1 < a_2 < a_3 < ... < a_n be odd positive integers.
Prove that 1/a_1 + 1/lcm(a_1,a_2) + ... + 1/lcm(a_1, a_2, ..., a_n) < 3/2.
is there a simple way to convert every number of base 10 of : a congruent to b (mod m) into another base? say hexadecimal?
What is the number of square free numbers (squares greater than 1) that are less than or equal to 200
Please answer if you are only 100% confident, I just had exam
I got 200-78
Fuck I just realised the answer is 77 numbers divisible by squares instead of 78 fuck me ded
Have you looked into the am≥gm≥hm inequalities? That seems like it could help
Also $$\prod_{i=1}^{k} a_{i} \geq lcm(a_{1},a_{2},..,a_{k}) $$
smidgin
hint :- || induction ||
like
given a1
try to find how to set a2,a3,... to maximize the sum
that is to minimize the lcms
for example
a1|lcm(a1,a2)
if lcm(a1,a2)=a1
then a2|a1 however a_2>a_1
lcm(a1,a2)=2a1 is not possible, as a1,a2 are odd
so lcm(a1,a2)=3a1 is the lower bound here
i am pretty sure u will in the get the GP
$\frac{1}{a_1}(1+\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{9}+.....)$
lucid
which is less than or equal to 3/2 cleary
bashy nt ☠️
this sometimes makes me hate some nt of objective stages of math oly o
Paul must make an estimation for the installation of solar panels on the roof of a house. He has the dimensions written on the diagram opposite and he knows that the west facade has an area of 22.86m2. What are the dimensions of the roof ?
Hello u have to use the Pythagorean theorem
Can someone help me plz🥺😭😭😭🥺🥺
?
Have you tried opening up a help thread?
Les Français n'acceptent pas d'aide
Where can I read about general approaches to solve n degree polynomials congruent to 0(mod m) where m is some composite number? I am reading Niven's book but I am looking for something that goes into a bit more detail.
Well by Chinese remainder theorem we may assume m is a prime power but that can still be tricky
So, Niven kinda summarizes the general steps in this para from the end of the section on CRT:
Also, if you are doing Niven, you may find Borcherd's playlist useful (esp on quadratic residues and forms), Niven is the reference he mentions: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=E-6llnLZ7J8&list=PL8yHsr3EFj53L8sMbzIhhXSAOpuZ1Fov8&index=21
This lecture is part of my Berkeley math 115 course "Introduction to number theory"
For the other lectures in the course see https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PL8yHsr3EFj53L8sMbzIhhXSAOpuZ1Fov8
We study the solutions of a polynomial modulo a prime, and prove Wolstenholme's theorem.
The textbook is "An introduction to the theory of numbers"...
When you learned hensel's lemma, did you learn it in "cases" for a root?
Like, if a is a solution to f mod p^k
a is in case 1 if it can be uniquely lifted to p^k+1
case 2 if it can be lifted non-uniquely
and case 3 if it can't be lifted
I learned it first as you can lift if you find an x such that f(x)=0 mod p and f'(x) !=0 mod p.
Then after that I learned the more general, if you can find an x such that |f(x)| < |f'(x)|^2 then you can lift it to a unique point in the open ball of radius |f'(x)| centered at x.
I don't think I see a reason to really emphasize those cases, basically you can or you can't is kinda how I feel about it
once you start just thinking with Q_p, you have a field, so you're not mucking around with any kind of annoyances of the rings Z/p^kZ with multiple solutions that kinda get blended together but go away as you lift higher.
Thanks a lot, like, a lot. Seriously.
yeah that's case 1
Here it is straight from our notes
I don't really have anything to add
phi(N) given that N = pq for p and q are distinct primes is (p-1)(q-1) = pq-p-q+1 not pq-p-q-1 right?
Yes
if we have p, q primes st 3 <= p < q, how do you prove that if R >= (p-1)(q-1) then there exists m, n in N such that R = mp + nq ?
been struggling with that but it doesn't seem hard at all
Not sure why you need that condition, since p,q are coprime, can find ap+bq=1 so Rap+Rbq=R for any R?
he wants them positive
Ah ok
see Chicken McNugget theorem for extra info
seems weird to have to use this in the exam i'm working on but as it's the 1st question and the theorem completely answers the question i will take it, thanks 
let m', n' be a solution given by the Bezout/Euclid algorithm
Then R = (m'+ qk)p + (n' - pk)q is also solution for every integer k
if m' + qk and n' - pk are never both positive
let k be the smallest for which m' + qk >= 0 and n' - pk < 0
then m' + qk - q < 0 and n' -pk + p >= 0
that means m'+qk < q
So R = (m'+qk)p + (n'-pk)q <= (q-1)p + (-1)q = pq - p - q
Yet (p-1)(q-1) = pq - p - q + 1, so R > pq - p - q
Contradiction
so you can prove this very intuitively from just looking at what happens
and prove that it's impossible, in one jump from a solution to the next closest, to change both signs (to not have 2 positive coefficients) and still have a big enough sum to equal R
alright i see the outline of the proof thanks a lot 
No how ? Plz help meee 🥺🥺🥺😭😭😭😭😭😭
@tacit sinew
Haha aide moii stppp @nova maple 😭😭😭
😭😭😭
@urban dust hey plz help meee
To ask for mathematics help on this server, please open your own help channel or help thread. See #❓how-to-get-help for instructions.
chicken nugget theorem but no bbq sauce lemma?
Is that actually a thing ?
I was messing around on desmos during my discrete math class and I found that the numbers of divisors of 0 mod m in each column of a*b mod m will always be factors of m. Why is this?
if an integer is say n = 0 mod m that means n|m by definiton of modulo hence m = nl for some integer l
what's m?
where is the fraction by multiplacation center?
Thats because a and b have to multiply out to a multiple of m. So either a or b has to be atleast a factor of m, if not a multiple of m
Since your a's and b's are coming out of the set {1,2,..,m-1}, both a and b have to be factors of m such that ab=some multiple of m
i don't get why does this imply the statement. why can't there be 2 factors that become not a factor modm?
i don't understand what the table is
it's multiplication table mod 10?
it clearly doesn't work for any number
mod 4 you get 10 3 5 3 10 3 5 3 10 3
the divisors of 0 include 0 and are closed under addition and negation (if a*b = a*c = 0, then a*(b+c) = 0 and a*-b = 0) which makes them a subgroup of the additive group of integers mod m, then apply lagrange's theorem
in other words: each value that occurs at all in a column occurs the same number of times, so the number of unique values multiplied by how many there is of each must be the total size of the column which is m, which means both of those numbers divide m
oh right lagrange theorem
yeah size of a subgroup devides the size of the group itself
If there is a coset that within the group hides, the coset compared to the group size devides.
yes
so I can use a generalization of fermats to get 7^12(17-1) is congrutent to 1 mod 17
You can use the bog standard version of Fermat's little theorem.
im not sure I know that one
So you only know special versions of it? 😕
wait no you mean the regular theorem I just dont know what you meant by bog
Sorry, that might have been too colloquial language.

https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/bog-standard, for what it's worth.
The versions I know are
a^p-1 congruent to 1 mod p
a^p confruent to a mod p
a^n(p-1) congruent to 1 mod p
The first one is what you want here.
oh I see yea I've never encountered that lol
The hint points out that 7^193 = 7^16 · 7^16 · 7^16 · ·· · 7^16 · 7^1.
ohh okay
im not really good at modular arithmetic so im still kinda lost about how to proceed to be honest
What does the little theorem say about each of the 7^16 factors?
Yes.
Okay that makes sense thank you, I guess I just am still confused about the whole equivalence part of congruence in the same modulo
so with a^(n(p-1)) = 1 mod p
id just have 7^(12(16)) = 1 mod p I could just multiply both side by 7 to get the same result
by the reverse of the cancellation law
How do i prove that if d divides n then one of d or n/d is less than or equal to sqrt n
Towards a contradiction, suppose that d and n/d are both > sqrt(n). Then n = d * n/d > sqrt(n) * sqrt(n) = n which is a contradiction
if a,b,m,n,p,q are positive integers and gcd(ma+nb,pa+qb)=gcd(a,b) then |mn-pq|=1, its true?
mka + nkb + pha + qhb = (mk+ph)a + (nk+qh)b
Let i, j in N, we want a solution to mk+ph = i, nk+qh = j
That will exist (probably iff) gcd(m,p)=gcd(n,q)=1
Doesn't quite look like your expression.
Let a = 2, b = 3
m,n,p,q = 4,5,6,7
ma+nb = 23, pa+qb = 33
gcd(ma+nb, pa+qb) = 1 = gcd(a,b), yet |mn-pq| = 22 != 1
pro tip, we can always reduce the exponenet modulo phi(m) for a given congrunce modulo m
Thank you
Oh thanks😳
Hello people, I have an elementary question about group, what are left coset and right coset really ?
I found a bug in the question 4.2!
Can I just say that the even number 0 has infinite representation as difference of 2 primes?
atleast
Is there any closed form for the sum of two continued fractions?
If $[a_0;a_1,a_2,...]+[b_0;b_1,b_2,...]=[c_0;c_1,c_2,...]$, can you write the $c_k$s in terms of the $a_k$ and $b_k$s?
nHail
I doubt it
it is an interesting operation tho
Say you have two continued fractions [1; X] and [1; Y], and add them together. The first term will depend on whether [0;X]+[0;Y]<1 or not.
if it's <1 then it's two, if not, then idk what it is (although it will be strictly in between 2 and 3)
But it could be anything between those two values, and then it is not very clear what you are supposed to do afterwards
if you add two periodic continued fractions, then the result will still be periodic, tho
anyway
look at this
,w continued fraction of 1+sqrt 2
,w continued fraction of (1+sqrt 5)/2
,w continued fraction of 1+sqrt 2+(1+sqrt 5)/2
oops nvm that is wrong
very wrong
because when you add two quadratic irrationalities they need no longer be quadratic irrationalities lol
the above example is one
@tough condor
yeah
wait I goofied a little bit here, if [0; X]+[0;Y]>=1 then the first term will be 3
Yep
I don't even see how it would be just slightly helpful to know the continued fractions of x and y to calculate that of x+y
I think it may be more fun to look at it the other way around: Is the operation [a0;a1,a2,....]+[b0; b1,b2,....]=[a0+b0;a1+b1,a2+b2,...] any meaningful?
or can you characterize it in terms of the numbers involved? probably not but idk
How to evaluate $\sum_{a+b=1} \left(\frac{ab}{p}\right)$ where a,b run through Z/pZ
Croqueta
I know one way which is to rewrite it as $-p+\sum_{a+b=1}\left(1+\left(\f ap\right)\right)\left(1+\left(\f bp\right)\right)$, and then $\sum_{a+b=1}\left(1+\left(\f ap\right)\right)\left(1+\left(\f bp\right)\right)$ counts the number of solutions to $x^2+y^2=1$ but the point of writing this is to count the number of solutions to that equation mod p, so it would be redundant
Croqueta
nvm I think I got it
$\sum_{a+b=1} (a/p)(b/p)=\sum_{a+b=1}(ac/p)(bc/p)=\sum_{a+b=c} (a/p)/b/p)$ whenever $c\neq 0$. Thus $p\sum_{a+b=1} (a/p)(b/p)=-\sum_{a+b=0}(ab/p)+p\sum_{a,b}(a/p)(b/p)=-\sum_{a+b=0}(ab/p)=-p(-1/p)$
Croqueta

Hi, been stuck on this one :
if we write $<p, q>$ for the set of all positive integers of the form $mp + nq$, with $m,n$ positive, and we call $S(z) = \sum_{s \in <p,q>} z^s$ then how would i go about proving that $(1 - z^p - z^q + z^{p+q})S(z) = 1 - z^{pq}$
Extends
I've tried writing the left hand side as (1-z^p)(1-z^q)S(z) and finding some factorization of (1-z^p)S(z) to get something along the lines of (1-z^q)*some factorization that equals the sum from 0 to p-1 of (z^q)^k but that's about it
(forgot to said it but 3 <= p < q with p, q primes)
I'm almost sure you need to allow m,n >= 0 instead of requiring them to be positive. If <p,q> doesn't contain 0, then if we plug in z=0, your goal ends up claiming 0 = 1.
Idea: since p and q are coprime, you can replace the sum over <p,q> by a sum over 0 <= m < q and 0 <= n, which generates each element of <p,q> exactly once as mp+nq.
Then you can multiply (1 - z^p - z^q + z^(p+q)) into each term of the sum and possibly hope to find an argument that all terms of it except the stated ones telescope.
yeah sorry might be language barrier, when I mean positive I mean >= 0
I think you can calculate z^pS(z) in terms of S(z) + something else
Another way to state this would be to factor S(z) as (1 + z^p + z^2p + ... + z^((q-1)p))·(1 + z^q + z^2q + z^3q + ...) and use the formulas for finite and infinite geometric series to get both of these to closed forms.
ah yep this looks promising, thanks
Hint: gcd(a, b) = gcd(a + b, b) = gcd(a + 2b, b) etc.
It's a hint, so I want you to think about it
For the first one I think use Z[i] is UFD?
or if you know this https://mathworld.wolfram.com/SumofSquaresFunction.html for r_2 , though it's a result of that only
The number of representations of n by k squares, allowing zeros and distinguishing signs and order, is denoted r_k(n). The special case k=2 corresponding to two squares is often denoted simply r_2(n)=r(n) (e.g., Hardy and Wright 1979, p. 241; Shanks 1993, p. 162). For example, consider the number of ways of representing 5 as the sum of two squar...
How do I prove that the sum of two positive integers is larger than each of those integers with the normal ring axioms and things like that (not Peano arithmetic)?
Or is it generally just taken as an axiom?
with the normal ring axioms, you could also have Z/nZ you know, or even weirder stuff
- it's not like you necessarily have a notion of order with the ring axioms
Well, I mean there are a few axioms about the inequalities.
what axioms are you talking about then?
I'm going through Spivak's Calculus book and a number theory book and I was wondering. Here are Spivak's axioms and definitions of the inequality signs:
P is the positive integers.
yeah well that's not part of the definition of being a general ring
that's specific to integers
Are those axioms enough to prove it?
wait there's multiplicative inverses also in your axioms
Oh, that's for the reals.
you're talking about real numbers aren't you ?
Hmm.
would make sense for spivak
OK, how would you prove that the sum of two positive reals is larger that each of them?
Hmm, I think I see a way.
a > b if a - b is in P.
a and b are in P.
So, (a + b) - b = a is in P, so a + b > b, and then you can just do the same thing for a + b > a.
yeah
OK, thanks.
Hey, I have a task that basicly boilds down to solving a system of equations that looks like this:
x = 3 mod 17
x = 4 mod 11
x = 5 mod 6
or written differently
x = 3+17a = 4+11b = 5+6c with a,b,c in N
How would I solve these?
I have this task in Algebra, but I was told in that channel that it belongs here.
I'll have a look
I just sort of brute forced it with python. The answer is 785
lowest answer*
Thank you : )
What people refer to the The Chinese Remainder is actually really tedious to try and use to solve a system of congruences (but it does tell us if there exists solutions). A better method would be find the set of solutions for the first congruence and then dropping all the solutions for the first congruence that are also not solutions for the second congruence e.t.c
You can do this really fast by first saying that (for example in your case) that the for the first congruence all the solutions are x = 17k + 3 for all k. Then we plug this into the second congruence 17k + 3 = 4 (mod 11) and solve for k, you’d get k = 2 (mod 11) and so 17(2) + 3 is a solution for the first and second congruence and you can continue like this
is actually really tedious to try and use to solve a system of congruences
What one does in practice for n, m coprime is:
Once and for all, use the extended Euclidean algorithm to find p and q such that pn + qm = 1.
Then we have qm == 1 (mod n), qm == 0 (mod m) and also pn == 0 (mod n), pn == 1 (mod m).
Now if we want x such that x == a (mod n) and x == b (mod m), just set x = aqm + bpn. Reduce modulo nm if desired.
maybe this is just personal preference
but extended euclidean algorithm by hand is a pain in the ass
well sure but if you did the other method you would also have to do it to solve the equations like 17k+3=4 mod 11. well if the numbers were bigger of course
CRT and Euclidean division can be avoided in this case. It's a matter of choosing the right equations to work with and being a bit lucky.
@dreamy silo
write x=11a+4,
plug it in the third equation: -a+4=5 (mod 6), so a=5 (mod 6), thus a=6k+5, so x=66k+59
now plug this in the first equation, thus getting -2k=-56 (mos 17), and since -2 is invertible mod 17, we get k=28=11 (mod 17).
Finally, x=66(17t+11)+59=1122t+785.
if you're good at solving linear congruences its not that bad
if (x, y, z) is a primitive pythagorean triple how do you show: (all positive)
$\cancel{\exists} w \in \bZ^+ : x^2-y^2=w^2$
CoolShot
i think this is equivalent to showing $2x^2 - z^2$ can not be a perfect square
CoolShot
but im not sure how to proceed with that
hii
can anyone help me with this
i tried some other stuff but it did not help
i tried using the general solution of x^2 + y^2 = z^2
but it didnt help
since (x,y,z) is a primitive then we can conclude that x is even and y is odd or x is the odd and y is the even. separate those cases and try solving it that way
Thanks, that's basicly how I attenpted to solve but for me it didn't seem to lead anywhere 😅
When we have something like $\mathbb{Z}/3\mathbb{Z}$, would it be right to say that this breaks up $\mathbb{Z}$ into equivalence classes? As in, would we say $\mathbb{Z}/3 \mathbb{Z} = $ a set of equivalence classes?
JJCUBER
Yes
Is there a notation as to how one would represent said set? (As in, some expanded form involving the descriptors 0, 1, 2?)
I see, thank you! I probably should have surmised that on my own now that I think about it. (This was brought up in my linear class when we were going over stuff like direct sums and quotient spaces — $V/W$.)
JJCUBER
You're probably aware that V/W is constructed exactly the same way, then
As a complete outsider with no real knowledge of number theory outside of the basics, has the teaching of the subject shifted toward algebra? Pretty much every book or resource I look into uses algebraic ideas like rings, fields, etc. in order to qualify number theory.
In the same way that there's algebraic number theory, etc., is there something like "numerical number theory" which attempts to strip all of the algebra away? I love algebra, but I'm curious if number theory is even teachable without algebra.
I don't know what you think ‘numerical number theory’ would be. We have plenty of analytic number theory though, wherein we use methods from analysis to understand number theory.
If you're asking for something like a non-algebraic interpretation of modular arithmetic, this is a bit silly as this is in some ways the prototypical example of an algebraic structure.
Im going to assume you're talking about elementary number theory, but yeah you defintely don't need to know what a field, group or ring is
yeah, but I would finish it off by reducing 289 mod 21 to a number in the range 0 to 20
also the line where you squared it looks a bit off, but you worked it correctly in the next step, specifically it looks like: $$17^{12^2} = 1^2 \mod 21$$ but it should be $$(17^{12})^2 = 1^2 \mod 21$$
Merosity
oh gotcha
thanks
yup you're welcome
There's analytic number theory. There is computational number theory too, but it still uses a lot of algebra whenever useful
Look up Apostol's book for analytic NT, for example
so 11 is a symmetric algorithm key?
also
does this work if p=q or do the primes have to be distinct
it doesn't work for p=q
check: p=q=3, r=1, a=4
btw, it works for any coprime integers p and q, not necessarily primes
gotcha
also can someone give me a hand solving
I'm having difficulty with the mod power of prime
I was thinking I should apply euler's theorem but I dont know how I can easily calculate totient(49) since I cant use (p-1)(q-1)
phi(p^k) = p^k - p^(k-1)
hmm okay I'm not sure thats a property I can use though
I haven't learnt it
then refer to the definition: phi(n) is the number of elements in the set {1,2,...,n} coprime to n
for n=49 these are all the numbers in that set, except for 7,14,21,28,35,42,49 (multiples of 7)
ohhhh
okay that makes sense
I thought u meant to brute force it but I guess by applying FTA we can clearly see all the non coprimes are those that are factors of 7
though this method wouldn't work well for higher powers but I guess then you can prove this property
yeah, it's the same idea: not being coprime to some power of p is equivalent to being a multiple of p
gotcha thank you
Does the Chinese Remainder Theorem have any applications outside of algorithms?
yes very much
by algorithms u mean solving congruences?
u can use it for example to derive a closed form of the number of quad residues of a natural no n using its prime factorization
it is used for example in , forming explicit constructions to provide examples sometimes ,converting composite numbers to power of primes
counting things like the previous example
u maybe want go through some of these https://web.evanchen.cc/handouts/CRT/CRT.pdf
I think I meant, non number related things. Like something I can relate it to for a nonSTEM major.
oh then I don't really know
I just discovered the identity $2^{jk} = (1 + 2^k + \dots + 2^{(j-1)k})(2^k -1)$. Is there a name for this, or a derivation that's easier/more enlightening than just multiplying out?
sheddow
Shouldn't LHS have a -1? and isn't it just the geometric series sum?
As was said above, this is the basis of geometric series, but nice
I think just seeing that stuff cancels when you multiply out is the most enlightening way to prove this
Yeah, I guess there should be a -1 on the LHS. Thanks 👍
How can I approach this question: Find all number n such that all it’s positive divisors can be arranged in a rectangular grid such that the sum of all rows and the sum of all columns are equal
Well have you tried making any trivial examples?
very interesting problem
how tf could n be prime
hello
I'm reading Euler's theorem proof but there is something that is not clear to me but seems obvious
Surely n being prime doesn’t work because u need at least 4 divisors?
this part
or in other words:
yes
Like I got that 6 works
how does 6 work
but the sum of all the columns are not equal
I think I misunderstood
Okay yeah
I’m struggling to come up with an example tbh

how big is the grid, and wdym by the "sum of all the rows must be equal to the sum of the all the columns" as in if you sum up the rows or the sum of each row should be equal to the sum of each coloumn?
and is it an nxn grid?
grid can be of any size
is it n by n?
no im pretty sure u can only use each divisor once
Im aware but the question says rectangular so i want to know if there are any restirctions on the dimension of the grid
Find all numbers, if any, such that all of its positive divisors can be arranged in a rectangular grid, with each divisor only used once, where each row has a constant sum and each column has a constant (not necessary distinct from the sum of the rows) sum.
like this is how its meant to be stated
i think
If $(a,n)=1$ $aa_i$ will also be relatively prime to n. And, the $aa_i$ are all distinct coz if $aa_i=aa_j$ then $a_i=a_j$. So, the $aa_i$ are the same numbers $a_i$ in some different order (as you have noted they are permutations of each other). So, their product mod n will be the same.
JS
https://projecteuler.net/problem=864
C(n) is the number of 1 ≤ k ≤ n s.t. k²+1 is square free. Problem wants you to compute C on a stupidly big number, so basically find a simpler expression for C. So far, I've noticed C(n+1) is either C(n) or C(n)+1. If the first thing happens, say that C staggers on n. Looking at the distance between when staggers happen, it seems to be at most 14 and 14 and 11 occur a lot at least in the first 1000 n. Fun problem, though idk number theory so maybe there's something obvious I'm missing
A website dedicated to the fascinating world of mathematics and programming
I'd probably start thinking about the gaussian integers and see if that leads to any insight
also that if p^2|k^2+1 for some prime p <=> 4 is the order of k mod p^2
No matter which row or column you’re summing over it has to be the same
Sorry for the confusion
And one row works
So, the $aa_i$ are the same numbers $a_i$ in some different order (as you have noted they are permutations of each other)
.1
I can't get why 😦
I know both sets are reduced residue systems, but why each element of one set has to be congruent to another element of the other set
When both sets are a complete system of residue It make sense, but this is not that case
the claim in yellow is what I don't get
@oblique wigeon the point is there are exactly phi(m) residues mod m coprime to m
because a is relatively prime to m, if r_i and r_j are different residues mod m then ar_i and ar_j must also be different residues.
since you have listed all the residues already, each ar_i must correspond to some r_j you already listed
it's the same as for a complete system of residues. Note that the reduced residues are mod m. So any full set of reduced residues mod m will be the same set (in possibly different order).
JS
what is N supposed to be here? i could not find it in my notes anywhere and its clearly not the norm map on Z[sqrt2] either
rest of sol:
it is the norm map
it is? but surely N(3 + sqrt 2) would thus be 11 not 7
and also, N([3+2sqrt 2]^n) would not be 1^n either
show your work computing it
i thought N: Z[sqrt d] -> Z is defined as N(a+bsqrtd) = a^2 + db^2 if we take N to be the norm map? which would mean N(3 + sqrt2) here would be 9 + 2 if it was to be the norm map
if it were, not was even
nope this is not the definition N(a+bsqrtd) = a^2 + db^2
the definition is multiply it by its conjugate
yeah you're welcome
oh i understand why i thought it was so hahaha
because im also taking an algebra class and we only really looked at Z[sqrt(-d)] for d>0 for that class
yup mixed up the real with imaginary quadratic 😛
even with the hint idk what to do
@keen pagoda using the hint, you have x^(4n+2) = 1 (mod p)
now use the equation to conclude that x^(4n+2) = -1 (mod p)
I have absolutely no idea how to do that
Oh actually
I think I do
I don't.
the second part comes from x^(4n+2)=(x^2)^(2n+1)=...
Ah I'm dumb
Very
Extremely
I completely forgot how exponents work
I would never get to the answer lmao
Yikes
Prove Fermat's Little Theorem: $n^p \equiv n \pmod p$ for all prime $p$ and $n \in \mathbb Z$. \begin{enumerate} \item We could perhaps try to do this by induction. After $p$ it doesn't make sense, but after $n$ perhaps? Though [(n + 1)^p \equiv n + 1 \pmod p] doesn't seem to get resolved from [n^p \equiv n \pmod p.] \item We could try to binomial expand it? [n^p = \Big(\frac n 2 + \frac n 2\Big)^p = \sum_{k=0}^p \binom p k \Big(\frac n 2\Big)^k \Big(\frac n 2\Big)^{p - k}.] Though that doesn't seem very useful. \item Perhaps we could try something like rewriting this as \ $p \mid n^p - n$ and try to use Bezout's lemma?\end{enumerate}
induction could work, consider binomial expansion on (n+1)^p
That's [\sum_{k=0}^p \binom p k n^k]
yeah
you could continue from here
you're modding p so you'd consider divisbility by p instead of n
not equal to 0
Or else it cancels
Also k not equal to p
Though, how can we be sure that (p - 1)!/(p - k)!k! is an integer?
We could prove that p!/(p - k)!k! is, but what about this
pCk is an integer, and clearly the denominator doesn't divide p, so we can take p out and it is still an integer
(since p is a prime)
this is not true if p is not a prime, for example 4C2 is 6 but 6/4=1.5 is not an integer
Oh
Right, thanks!
But then, the induction is useless. We could go with my approach 2.
We have a p choose k term there too?
no, you use induction
(n+1)^p = n^p+1 mod p by binomial
and use induction hypothesis on n^p
Yep
Oh, true
Yeah, it'll be n + 1 on the RHS
Thanks!
Do you think one could make my approach 2. work somehow too or not really?
i doubt
since n need not be even
you can use Euler's theorem if you are allowed to use it?
Ah
What is it?
True, we'd have to show that that becomes an integer after all too, right?
$a^{\phi(p)} \equiv 1 (mod p)$
you can't really consider divisibility when not everything are integers
JS
Yeah, we'd first need to show it's an integer
And then consider divisibility
Right?
What does phi denote?
Totient function. I guess if you are not there yet, then you want a proof without it 😄 so I guess you can't use it yet.
you could morally make the 2nd approach work, but it's in the same spirit as induction. It's worse than the first approach since you'd have to split into cases, when n is odd and when n is even
Yep, true. Thanks
I've heard of it but my lecture notes didn't cover it, so I assume I shouldn't use it right now
Thanks
People are generally not allowed to use theorems that are simply stronger versions of whatever they're proving
yep makes sense 👍
if i remember right Niven/Zuckerman prove Euler first and then use it to prove Fermat's little so wasn't quite sure which comes first. 
History doesn't matter much in the face of the mathematical state of things
yes in niven
heyo, i got a lesson in diophantine equation earlier and i still can't understand it, can anybody help me understand its concept or how it works?
no one can help if you don't post it
wdym exactly?
hey, could i get some help with a few problems please? ill post them in succession and where exactly im struggling with them:
here is the first one; i've seen similar problems before but i'm kind of stuck with going about them,
my first attempt was considering x^2 + (p+1)x + 1 to make the coeff. of x even and thus i'd be able to complete the square, but it doesnt seem like this helps with anything
next thing i tried considering working back and thinking where (-3/p) = 1 could lead instead but to no avail; it doesn't seem to help at all once more
so to sum up; im not sure how to remotely get close to anything that would lead to the condition that -3 is a QR mod p
could i ask for a hint or starting point please?
See if you complete the square perhaps? with integer coefficients
@thick panther multiply the equation by 4
also notice that 4 is invertible modulo p
this is important because it guarantees that the equation you get is equivalent to the initial one
means you need to be more specific, what exactly are you confused with, in regards to Diophantine equations
Why is it a meaningful question to ask what percent of integers are even,
But it’s not meaningful to say what percent of prime numbers are comprised of only 1 digit? (Like 2 , 3, 5, 7, 11, 1,111,111,111,111,111,111 )
It hasn't been yet proven/disproven whether there are infinitely many such primes as far as I'm concerned
I think it’s proven there is infinite
But what I’m saying is with even numbers we can say 50% of integers are even
Then they have the same cardinality as the integers, but where have you seen the proof?
But with prime numbers even though it’s infinite we can’t put it in percentage terms
Saying it's 50% of integers is kind of worthless, that could be said about any countable set
Since 2|Z| = |Z| so to speak
And you should be careful when doing arithmetic on cardinal numbers
look into the 'natural density'
Yeah I just thought about instead taking the limit of density
Interesting
if the original question was asked based on seeing something that was based on natural density, then I'm guessing that means the liminf and limsup are provably different
like plausibly assuming the assertion that it wasn't meaningful originally came from somewhere and they're coming here asking about it
Anyone can ask whatever question. You may wanna look into repunit primes.
I came up with the question myself, I guess I meant not meaningful because I was wondering why you couldn’t attribute a percentage to it
Yeah i agree, but do you disagree with the statement that 50% of all integers are even?
Not really
There is the prime number theorem....
the set of all odd numbers is a countable set right?
Right
hol on to start with we need to define percentage here i think as its only defined for fininte sets?
Or even sometimes
when we count things such as percentage of primes
like pi(x)/x
we use limits to be more formal
but set of integers ? That does not have a lower or upper bound so how r u defining the progression of the limit firstly
This is definitely more appropriate in a help channel
And when you post there, show your working don’t just ask someone to do it
It can be checked that $2a_i + \lfloor 2 a_i/10 \rfloor$ mod 10 is the same as the permutation $\sigma$. And, it is similar to saying "multiply the digit by 2 and add the digits of the result" which might be how they came up with it. You may see the first answer here for some more info or look up Luhn's algo. https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3251960/how-does-luhn-algorithim-actually-work
JS
Theorem 1: If $\binom{n}{r}$ denotes the number of r-combinations taken from a set S of n elements, then
$\binom{n}{r} = \frac{n(n-1)...(n-r+1)}{r!}$
Autumn
Prove theorem (1) using the principle of mathematical induction in conjunction with exercise (3)
Exercise (3): Prove combinatorially that
$\binom{n}{r} = \binom{n-1}{r} + \binom{n-1}{r-1}$
Autumn
Autumn
When n=1, $\binom{1}{r} = \binom{1}{r!}$
Autumn
I don't know how to do (1 r)
If we assume theorem 1 is true for n, then we try to show $\binom{n+1}{r}$ is true, by using
$\binom{n+1}{r} = \binom{n}{r} + \binom{n}{r-1}$
Autumn
How do we prove for $\binom {n}{r-1}$?
Autumn
Since we assumed (n r) is true, but it's not mentioned about (n r-1)?
I feel confused if induction is supposed to be on n or on r.
Find the number of pair of primes $(p,q)$ for which $p^2+2pq+1$ is also prime
Heckin' Beluga
Find the number of pair of primes $(p,q)$ for which $p^2+2pq+1$ is also prime
Do you have any ideas?
p must be 2, if I'm not wrong
Because if p^2+2pq+1 is a prime, it must be an odd prime.So, p^2+2pq must be even <=> p^2 is even <=> p is even
Since p is even and a prime, it should be 2
ya that's clear
but it's hard to go from 5+4q prime
for q prime
There is a theorem of dirichlet that says there will be infinitely many primes of this form, but you cant say anything about q from it
yes
actually
There is also a open problem
are there infinitely many primes p, q such that p=1+2q
I belive
these two look similar
I think this can be converted to some quadratic residue condition
I forgot the details
maybe applying it here helps
(5|q)=(5|(4q+5))
I think
2
3
17
23
47
59
83
101
107
Here are a few values of q
No real patten
I did a check for q under 10000 and it goes on till 9941
I suspect there are infinitely many
The difference of the 2kth solution and the 2k-1th solution seem to be a multiple of 6
that's because all of the solutions are one less than a multiple of 6
excluding 2 and 3
Why?
all primes (excluding 2 and 3) are either one less or one more than a multiple of 6, otherwise it would be a multiple of either 2 or 3
Oh right
if it's one more than a multiple of 6, then 4(6n+1)+5 = 24n+9 is divisible by 3
Yeah makes sense
When you subtract the solutions either the 9 goes away or it becomes an 18 both give multiples of 6
this feels like the kind of thing where the answer is in fact that there are infinitely many but it's ridiculously difficult to prove
same as how fermat's last theorem was a conjecture for hundreds of years and then proved using modular curves or something, except we're conjecturing it now and it gets proven in 2300 using complete semistable riemannian monoidal algebras or whatever
Yeah
2300 💀
@merosity weren't we playing with this same exact equation a while ago? or atleast on similar to it?
this isn't even true
e.g.
a = 2 and p = 3 has counterexamples for both directions
x = 1, y = 3 is a counterexample to =>
x = 1, y = 4 is one to <=
2^2 = 2^4 modulo 3.
no but x = y (mod phi(p)) follows
not even this is true
counterexample: p=7, a=6, x=2, y=4
all you can conclude is that x=y (mod ord_p(a) )
where is the a coming from?
I'm probably missing something very obvious here but
for n= 3
aren't all the possible functions simply
so |s| = 6 not 2^3 = 8
but the question is telling me its true and to prove it so something must be flying over my head here
A function is defined on the entire set not only on single elements.
@urban dust can you give me an example with n=2
f(1)=0, f(2)=0 is one function. f(1)=0, f(2)=1 is another and so on...