#elementary-number-theory
1 messages · Page 13 of 1
Oh wait is it because the lcm has 2^3 and since x only had 2^2 then that means y must have a factor 2^3? Otherwise the lcm could just be reduced by 2^1?
Ohhhh so we've increased the gcd by a factor of 2 right?
Well, necessarily the power of 2 in the gcd must be 2
So ig by multiplying by 2^2 instead ur kinda exhausting it
Exhausting is not the word but like u get wat i mean right 💀
The more correct way to see it is that if x contains some power of a prime - say p^a - and y contains some other power of the prime - say p^b - then gcd must contain p^{min(a, b)} and the lcm must contain p^{max(a, b)}
In our case, we require that min(a, b) = 1 and max(a, b) = 3
For the power of 2
So if you know that x is not equal to gcd and the power of 2 is different, then it must necessarily have 2^3 in its factorisation
(and that means you multiply by 2^2)
You can do the same for 5, 7, 11 and see which one gives you a smaller value for x
and it’s not hard to see that you need to multiply by 2^2 to obtain the smallest value for x
Yeah this makes a lot of sense, thank you! Idk why i was so confused over this
Guess not doing maths in over a year made me braindead lol but yeah appreciate the help
I'm having trouble understanding the expansion
It doesn't make sense to me
They just threw it out of nowhere
why is $\prod_{g \in G} g= \prod_{g \in G} f(g)$?
plazzi
Let $G=(\mathbb{Z} \setminus 5)^{\times}$ wouldn#t be $\ P= \prod_{g \in G}= 1 \cdot 2 \cdot 3 \cdot 4? \$
plazzi
Compile Error! Click the
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(You may edit your message to recompile.)
But $\prod_{g \in G} f(g)= x \cdot(1 \cdot 2 \cdot 3 \cdot 4)$
plazzi
no, $\prod_{g\in G} f(g) = (x\cdot 1) \cdot (x\cdot 2) \cdot (x\cdot 3) \cdot (x\cdot 4)$
denascite
which you can check by hand for eg x=2 is again the product 1*2*3*4 just in a different order
you are multiplying over the same elements because f is bijective
@sacred junco
This helps, ty
this looks like #prealg-and-algebra not #elementary-number-theory
Does someone know how to work with Galois field in matlab?
hi can i ask what background should I have to learn number theory?
elementary number theory doesnt require any specific background, other than arithmetic and highschool algebra
why are titu's books so damn expensive bro
thanks
like why is structures and examples and problems 7k inr???
what does | vertical line mean in number theory? for example p|a if p is prime
Divides
Why is $\ \sum_{d |n \cdot m^k} \varphi(d)= \sum_{d|n} \varphi(d) + \sum_{i=0}^k \varphi(d \cdot m^i)? \$
I don't get it
plazzi
varphi(d) is the euler phi function
Shouldnt it be instand of $\sum_{i=0}^k \varphi(d \cdot m^i)$ be $\sum_{i=1}^k \varphi(d \cdot m^i)$?
plazzi
Instead*
This notation doesn't make sense as d is unbound in the second sum.
perhaps this is meant to be:
$\sum_{d |n \cdot m^k} \varphi(d)= \sum_{d|n}\left( \varphi(d) + \sum_{i=0}^k \varphi(d \cdot m^i)\right)$
Borty
But this too is false.
Firstly, as you point out, we would need i=1 to k
But also this is simply false unless m is prime.
This could be written must better as:
$\sum_{d \mid np^k} \varphi(d) = \sum_{i=0}^k \sum_{d \mid n} \phi(d p^i)$ where $p$ is prime.
Borty
Thanks. How can i prove that $\ n= \sum_{d|n} \varphi(d)$?
plazzi
Without using $\varphi(mn)= \varphi(m) \varphi(n)$
plazzi
You need to refer to the definition of phi(n).
using ||a relevant partition of {0, ..., n-1}||
This problem looks miserable
i define phi as ||the degree of the nth cyclotomic polynomial
||
Let $p\geq 2$. Prove that if $2^{p} - 1$ is a prime then $p$ must be a prime.
Proof: Suppose $p$ is not a prime then there are integers $m,k < p$ such that $p =mk$. Now, notice that $2^{m}-1$ divides $2^{mk}-1 = (2^{m})^{k}-1^{k}$ and $(2^{m}-1) < (2^{mk}-1)=2^{p}-1$ which shows that $2^{p}-1$ is not a prime and we are done.
Am I missing something in this proof? I can't point out exactly where we used $p\geq 2$ here. Could anyone check this please?
pikapikapikapikachu
I dont understand the last part.
Your first part is the right idea.
If you can write $2^{m \cdot k}-1$ as a prodouct of two integers, $2^{mk}-1$ cant be a prime
plazzi
We need 2^m - 1 to be a number other than 1 :)
Because 1 is not a prime since 2^1-1=1
No, that's not why
oh right
It's because finding a nontrivial factor prevents something from being prime
A trivial factor of n is 1 or n
So exhibiting a factor that is not 1 or itself is necessary.
This is why we need p >= 2.
But p is a prime?
That is the goal of the proof, not the assumption.
Ah yes
In fact quite the opposite: in the contradiction, we assume that p is not prime!
I am using that $x-a$ divides $x^{n}-a^{n}$ there
pikapikapikapikachu
Your proof was fine chikapu, you just missed out what I pointed out.
ah thanks 
I think you may be missing some information, suppose p were of the fom 4k+1 but we know that 2 is a prime and not of the form 4k+1
does the set S have a name?
We would write it in ring theory as S = (a) + (b), not that it matters.
Wait, not quite
Because it's in the positive integers
Perhaps we would call it the set of positive integral linear combinations of a and b.
That intersect Z+
ye
what about $\gen{a,b}$
nixxy nilpotent hhhhhhh
would that notation be equivalent
hi

I have a hint for this excercise that says an integer is congruent mod 10 to its units digit
but how is that even possible if all the digits of an integer is going to be less than 10 than that would imply that the integer could have more than one remainder or least residue modulo 10
we know that each digit is a number 0,1,. . . , 9 < 10. for example 92 then by the hint 92 = 9 (mod 10) and 92 = 2 (mod 10)
which would mean both 9 and 2 are the remainders of 92 when divided by 10 which is impossible
the units digit means the "ones place", 92 = 2 mod 10 @white lion
"unit" means "one"
Oh gotcha thanks
you're welcome
Im trying to prove that $17$ does not divide $5n^2+15$ for any integer $n$. so I attempt proof by contradiciton and show that $17|5n^2+15$ for any integer $n$. Does it suffice to show a single counter example like th case of n = 2 or no?
jayzsparrow
no, cause it could be a different n
you might try to prove this with quadratic reciprocity
I haven't learnt that yet
well, I guess the easiest trick to halve the time brute forcing it would be to realize n^2 = (17-n)^2 mod 17
Okay
how did you come up with that in a less than a minute lol
experience I guss
quadratic reciprocity will be the fastest way. you just need to compute $\legsym{-3}{17}$
nixxy nilpotent
and then you can use [
\legsym{-3}{p}=1\iff p\equiv1\bmod{3}
]
nixxy nilpotent
yeah merosity mentioned that but I haven't learn that yet
thanks though
I was thinking of an easier proof I don't know if it is correct though, so I want to prove that $17$ does not divide $5n^2 + 15$. Proof by contradiction: Assume $17|5n^2+15$ for any integer $n$ then $17|5(n^2+3)$ implies $17|n^2+3$ implies $n^2 = -3$ (mod 17) implies $n^2 = 14$ (mod 17). Informally this is saying that the square of an integer must have a remainder of 14 if our assumption is true, so, this may be the part where I got it wrong but I then say that $(n+1)^2 = 14$ (mod 17) since n+1 is indeed an integer therefore it's sqaure must have the remainder 14 when divided by 17. Then it's trivial to show this will lead to a contradiciton.
jayzsparrow
at best this shows that if the claim holds for n then it doesn't hold for n + 1, from which it doesn't follow that the claim is false for all n
were you given this problem by a textbook or professor? because quadratic residues are literally all about determining if n^2=a mod p has a solution
afaik your only choice is to either check every single possibility between 2 and 8, or just use quad res theorems. the first is "easier" in the sense that you can use child scissors to trim a tree. but you could also just pick up a tree trimmer and do the problem in like one step.
I am trying to prove 2xy = x + y only has integer solutions for (x,y) = (0,0) and (1,1).
I managed to do this by analyzing y = x/(2x-1), but I think this solution is a wee bit impure and ugly.
How can one do it with more elementary number theoretic tools?
One inch of progress I made is by comparing signs, but I have not been able to pursue all the cases successfully.
For instance 2xy = x + y cannot hold for integers x,y < 0, since in that case the left-hand side is strictly positive whereas the right-hand side is strictly positive. Hence the case x,y < 0 can be ruled out. But the other cases, I have failed to treat successfully. Is there a simple way to do it? Thanks!
cant you just compare sizes? |2xy| = |x+y| <= |x| + |y| <= |xy| + |xy| = 2|xy|
(for x,y nonzero)
assuming y>0: i think you could take the equation mod y. you'd get 0=x mod y, so x=ny.
2ny^2=(n+1)y
y(2ny-n-1)=0
y=0 implies x=0 is a solution. otherwise
2ny=n+1 implies n must be odd (n=2k+1)
(2k+1)y=k+1 implies y=(k+1)/(2k+1)
the only way this can be an integer is if k+1=0 or 2k+1=+-1. so k=0 (y=1) or -1 (y=0 again)
ah very nice, are you using |x| <= |x| |y|, because y is an integer and |y| >= 1 if y is not zero?
ye
interesting, I also tried something similar and wound up with an expression like y = (k+1)/(2k+1), but I stopped there because I could not justify k+1=0 or 2k+1= +-1. I accept the conclusion but I fail to see how to justify it
for a fraction to be an integer, either the numerator is zero, or the denominator is +-1
assuming a fully reduced fraction, right?
yeah
fair, i'll see if I can prove that. maybe euclid's lemma should take care of it. thank you
Okay so we get 2|xy| <= 2|xy|, but is this not just a trivial inequality? what further conclusion do we draw to get what we seek
well we know this is actually an equality
so all inequalities along the way also have to be equalities
otherwise we would get 2|xy| < 2|xy|
oh gosh how dumb of me, right! so we get |x + y| = |x| + |y| iff y and x are proportional. I should be able to go from there
do you mean 2 |x| |y| = |x| + |y|?
Ah I see
From |x| + |y| = |x| |y| + |x| |y|
we get
|x| ( 1 - |y| ) = |y| ( |x| - 1 )
|x| and |y| are non-negative, so the signs of 1 - |y| and |x| - 1 must be identical (or both zero, which just gives x = y = 1).
But if 1 - |y| > 0 then |y| < 1 and so the only integer satisfying that is y = 0, which forces x = 0.
And if 1 - |x| > 0 we get (0,0) again.
that seems a bit overkill
x can either be 1 or -1. just plug into the original equation and get that only (1,1) works
or x=0. then also y=0 by plugging in
fair! thank you
always the trade-off between a hard abstract argument and just bruteforcing a couple of options manually
true true
out of curiosity, how about xy = x + y? this one only has (0,0) and (2,2). Analysis of y = x/(x-1) works but is ugly imo
add and subtract 1. rearrange and factor
xy = x +y
xy - x = x(y-1) = y
x(y-1) - (y-1) = 1
(x-1)(y-1) = 1
x - 1 = +-1
y - 1 = +-1
very nice, thank you 🙂
Textbook lol Quadratic residues is literally the next chapter though it did this quite a few times
oh and the original problem is equivalent to 4xy=2x+2y which you can rearrange to (2x-1)(2y-1)=1
thats probably the cleanest solution for that
yeah very nice indeed, thanks!
anyone here?

no
im not here
technically he didn't just ask to ask
guess you didn't click the link
this is the internet I aint trusting random links
this one is safe
I ain't trusting strangers on the internet to tell me what's safe and what's not!!!
expected
Prove any integer cubed is of the form 7k or 7k+1 or 7k-1
Ik How to do It with 7 cases for (7q)³,(7q+1)³... (7q+6)³ .But is there a better way to do It?
Im too lazy to write It all
And id like to know If there is a another simpler yet rigorous answer
Do you know modular arithmetic?
even if not, it might help to realise that eg 7q+5 = 7m-2. so you can reduce the cases by half with some slight adjustments
3^3 is not?? you're probably missing some hypothesis?
Sorry i forgot 7k-1
Yes
That actually helps
But im not allowed to use it yet
L
notice the pattern in (7m+n)^3 expansion using binomial theorem, it suffices to consider the cubes of n for your cases i think (altho i could be wrong, im only half awake), other than n^3, you should be able to factor out a 7 from the rest of them?
I thought about that, but i didnt think about generalizing that way. i think that works
Yea thats the best way
Thanks
i think you can do it with fermat's theorem?
if 7 divides a, then a^3=0 mod 7 implies a^3=7k
if 7 does not divide a, then
a^6=1 mod 7 implies (a^3-1)(a^3+1)=0 mod 7 implies a^3=1 mod 7 or a^3=-1 mod 7 implies a^3=7k+1 or a^3=7k-1
Idk about that stuff yet
you asked if there's a better way, and there it is
,w fermat's theorem
if you're not allowed to do it with modular arithmetic, then you're probably expected to do it by cases
fermat's little theorem is what i meant
I used pika's solution
if $a$ is not divisible by $p$, then $a^{p-1}=pk+1$
nixxy nilpotent
that's fine
fermat's theorem is the optimal solution i think, though
,w fermat's little theorem
Yay
Hi
This isn't fully a number theory question but I think you guys might be helpful...
Well I've proved for... odd... but idk about even one
This if for odd one
But... not really sure about even one
I wrote something...
About even cases which is feels very dumb
This....
Ping if you know anything...
since $\binom{n}{k}=\frac{n}{k}\binom{n-1}{k-1}$ we could simplify the earlier expression you got,
$$a_n=n\sum_{\substack{k=1 \ k \text{ odd}}}^n \binom{n-1}{k-1}\frac{\sqrt{2}^{k-1}}{k}$$
now if we consider this in $\bQ_2(\sqrt{2})$, we can see that the first term of that series is $1$ and the rest have 2-adic absolute value strictly less than $1$, so it simplifies down to;
$$|a_n|_2=|n|_2$$
which is exactly what you wanted to prove.
Merosity
maybe we can de-jargonize it into simpler terms 😬 lol
if you have any questions lmk, I realize that's probably a bit out there
how do we recover d from p and q (efficiently)
sure if you can find the inverse of e mod p-1 and mod q-1 you multiply the latter by the former to get d
but if you could compute those inverses efficiently, surely (?) you could compute at once the inverse mod (p-1)(q-1)
well, it wouldn't quite work that way since p-1 and q-1 aren't relatively prime, so you're not going to be able to use the chinese remainder theorem so well - but it doesn't matter
oh right
by having p and q it gives you the ability to think of e mod (p-1)(q-1) in the first place since we don't know otherwise "where" the inverse of e is to be taken if that makes sense
once you know (p-1)(q-1) you can use the euclidean algorithm to get the inverse which is pretty quick
(p-1)(q-1)x + ey = 1
you do a bunch of subtractions basically until you end up with y, which is really d
oh if an attacker somehow gets (p-1)(q-1) it’s gameover cuz euclidean algorithm is easy and fast
yup
there might be some more nuanced or better way of doing this in the real world, but I think this is probably bad enough
bad?
like, for the people trying to hide their stuff
good for the person trying to decrypt
oh
Thanks, but that works as well the other guy said
idk what "it" is lol
Alr thanks
you're welcome lol

what topics of elementary NT are to be expected to be comfy with in an ANT course? (edited)
reading a number theory book rn and i stumbled upon this theorem which is apparently basic (Dirichlet's lemma) but i can't make sense of it from an intuitive standpoint, despite having read both of the proofs provided:
**Let α, τ be real numbers with τ >= 1. Then there exist a in Z and q in N such that:
|α - a/q| <= 1/(qτ), gcd(a,q)=1, and q <= τ.**
and i'm having trouble grasping intuitively what that means and why it's significant -- i can only intuit that this is about approximating real numbers with rationals but i can't comprehend exactly how this approximation is meant to work
like ok i saw both proofs of it, one of which involved farey fractions and the other involved looking at the fractional parts of integer multiples of alpha
but like something doesnt quite sit right with me with the result itself
(if anyone's interested i can show a photo of the theorem as written in the book, but it'll be the exact same only with the accompanying text written in bulgarian so)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dirichlet's_approximation_theorem this is honestly the closest find I could get... nothing in wiki, wolfram yielded smth identical to it 
oh wait it's equivalent? I didn't see the gcd part 
Well, last time I recall a discussion in #proofs-and-logic regarding it, lemme see if it may help....
#proofs-and-logic message ehhh maybe not that insightful.
merooo where r u
its ok i asked elsewhere about it and kind of get it intuition-wise i think
This kinda resembles something with lattices I think
This a slide from my crypto course
I can confirm it being "basic" in number theory
the intuition to me is that, for fixed q, the k/q may not get close to alpha, but if you change q, you change where the points lie, and it sorts of ends up covering the whole line (i.e. it gets close to everywhere).
So you're bound to find an appropriate q such that the splitting of the line done by the k/q gets remarkably close to alpha
or probabilisticly (though only intuitively):
For any given n, there's something like a 2/n chance that this happens.
it's bound to happen at some point (Borrel Cantelli kind of stuff)
In that I have seen it 3 times, which is remarkable
for how much number theory we do
including it being the 2nd (of 3) questions on the 3rd exercise I ever did in undergrad
So it holds a bit of a special place in my heart
Guys If an integer is a square and a cube i need to show it is not of the form 7k-1
Any hints?
guys
I am stack on this problem
I tried brute forcing but without any finds,
tried also to decrease q and found results that means greater q makes the problem harder
I want to solve it for q = 2^64
what are the possible values of squares mod 7 ? Of cubes ? is -1 a value for both ?
based on yesterday's problem, cubes are of the form 7k, 7k+1,7k-1. So do a similar analysis for squares (upon dividing by 7) i guess and see where you can go from there??
ah lol too late
I Just did
We get 7k,7k+1,7k+2,7k+4
We dont get 7k-1 that is congruent to 7k+6
I miswrote
there's also a very quick trick in this case using some elementary number theory
in Fp, if -1 = a², then -(1)^(p-1 / 2) = a^(p-1) = 1
Here p-1 / 2 = 3, and (-1)^3 = -1 != 1 mod[7] hence -1 is not a perfect square
can I have guide for this?
I wish I could help, but this looks kinda random
actually wait
There's the very trivial
a1 = 1, ai = 0 for i >= 2
Then s = 49, p = 49
duh
intended ?
Q2) is the same but you pick an odd prime number
Wdym more than number ?
for example a list with 3 non zero numbers verifies the condition
This is a surprisingly trivial example that works for any nonempty set of xi
yeah
a_1 = 1 and the others are 0
I am looking for a list with at least three a_i are nonzero
indeed
i think this problem has relation complexity, since brute forcing is hard to perform
I might have an idea to find large, nontrivial solutions
Finding cases where s = 1 mod q
Then it's a 6th power and Fermat's little theorem applies
It may not be obvious for them to show it's a 6th power but I like the idea
I guess if we want to get crazy we can say the exponent is 0 mod 2 and 0 mod 3 so using CRT we have that it's 0 mod 6
I kind of did that actually. I just looked at each individual p-adic valuation and said it's both a multiple of 2 and 3
I think the problem is like
a(n) is the smallest integer equal to the sum and the product of the same n positive integers: a(n) = i(1) + i(2) + ... + i(n) = i(1)*i(2)*...*i(n).
in OEIS A104173
is this supposed to be a programming problem
what is S anyways
random odd numbers in some arbitrary range lol
hey can someone help me what is going on with the first equivalence? how are they going from a^2 + 2 = 0 to (2a)^2 + 8 = 0?
2a-1 = 0 mod 2a-1
yes but where is this 8 popping up and the factor of 2 inside the square?
,w a^2 + 2 + 2a - 1 complete the square
4a^2+8 = 4(a^2+2) so u would guess multiplied both sides by 4
right 
you're not meant to guess, you're just meant to use intuition (quite literally) to find a way to manupulate this to make it something easier to compute/solve
in this case yes
the idea was to make it congurent to narrow down the options
you want to get 2a because then it simplifies to 1 mod 2a-1
and the equivalence is guaranteed by the CRT since 2a-1 and 4 are coprime
.
say that $\a$ is a solution to $x^q\equiv1\bmod{p}$ ($p,q$ are odd primes such that $p=qk+1$). does this imply that all solutions to $x^q\equiv1\bmod{p}$ are of the form $\a^c$?
nixxy nilpotent
its clear that powers of alpha will be solutions, but im not sure how to prove that they comprise every solution
would it be sufficient to show that
$x^q-1\equiv \prod_{i=0}^{q-1}(x-\a^i)\bmod{p}$?
nixxy nilpotent
or i suppose equivalently that $\a^i\neq\a^j$ for $0\leq i<j<q$?
nixxy nilpotent
where alpha isn't 1 ofc
The set of solutions is the set of elements of order q of Fp
This set is a group since Fp is abelian.
Since q is prime, each element must have order q (or be 1).
Since they're the roots of X^q - 1, there's at most q elements.
So any alpha != 1 in that group generates a subgroup of q elements, which is the whole group itself
QED
makes sense ty
yw, interesting question
Didn't do anything like that in well over a month or two
Nice refresher
Though I did spend like 15 minutes looking for a counterexample before attempting the proof lol
haha
i shoulda known that the easiest solution would be just a basic group theory proof though lol
it keeps happening
I think this question should be simpler but my brain is failing me
if $q$ is a prime and $p=q^2k+1$, then what can the remainder of $p\bmod{q^3}$ be such that $p$ is prime?
nixxy nilpotent
for q=2, the remainder can be 1,3,5,7
q=3 I think it's just 1 and 19?
and q=5 I think 1,51,101? not sure if 51 is valid...
ok so 51 is valid bc 51+125(8) is prime
is it all remainders of the form $q^2(2\ell)+1$?
nixxy nilpotent
for q odd i think
Just saw a problem about showing $7 | 1+2^{2^n}+ 2^{2^{n+1}}$
CoffeesPurple
My approach was ||by induction and for induction step I factored as $(2^{2\cdot 2^n}+1-2^{2^n})\cdot (2^{2\cdot 2^n}+1+2^{2^n})$
Since second term is assumed true it shows that n+1 is divisible by 7. However this factoring took me lots of trial and error and|| im curious about other approaches people would take. I thought of an approach by trying to find patterns with bit multiplication. I also considered looking up modular arithmetic theorems to approach the question. Curious about other’s thoughts
CoffeesPurple
I just took the braindead approach
suremark
by inspection
Is it just me or is elementary number theory not an early university topic
As in, it was only at the end of my second year there was even a mention of Gauss’s law of reciprocity
Even by itself the scope of elementary number theory is pretty small
Summarised by Fermat Euler theorem, Wilson’s theorem and reciprocity with Euler’s criterion and so on
It is just you. There's plenty of people who take it. It's true that there's not much content, but many people still see it in undergrad
It's also a great way of talking about finite groups, fields, and nonzero characteristics
i think in some universities it appears much earlier than others. at my undergrad it was only available as a spring semester only upper division course. but imo it's relatively basic enough that a simplified (abstract algebra free version) could be taught at lower division (i'm sure they do that somewhere). i think it could replace linear algebra as a student's first proof based math course.
but yeah this was pretty much the bullet points extent of that number theory course. plus primitive roots.
are you allowed to use modular arithmetic?
No
that sucks lol
well, I guess you've gotta do something by induction, give that your best shot and show where you get stuck
Ok
I just solved it by induction, it's not toooo bad but might be tricky
maybe as a hint, I used the fact that 27=25 + 2 at one point
Cool, you're welcome 👍
How'd you use mod to solve this tho
well basically I just think of 3 as -i and 2 as i, then plug it in
$(-i)^{3n+1}+i^{n+1} = -ii^n + ii^n = 0$
Merosity
Wtfffffffffffff
basically that's what I'm thinking anytime I'm in a finite field, all the nonzero elements are roots of unity
Bigbrain 😭
3^3=2 so you have 3(2^n)+2(2^n)=0. thus, 3^(3n+1) +2^(n+1)=0 mod 5 so 5 divides it
whenever i see (n divides stuff) i usually go straight to stuff=0 mod n lol

Please tell me you have a PhD cuz that’s diff
mero's actually just big brain asl
yeah i have a phd in elementary number theory 
realistically if you spend enough time thinking about finite fields this will come natural to you I think
two relevant facts are:
Any finite subgroup of the multiplicative group of a field is always a cyclic group.
"The" algebraic closure of a field with p elements has its multiplicative group all the roots of unity with order not divisible by p
What about 24|2*7^(n)+3 * 5^(n)-5
So
$$
2 \cdot 7^{n}+3\cdot5^{n}-5=24c,c\in \mbb{Z}
$$
oxil764
If i assume its true for n
But its not clear what to do here
Because these factors in the way
If try multoplying by 7 i get
$$
2 \cdot 7^{n+1}+21\cdot5^{n}-35=24c\cdot 7
$$
oxil764
Then 7=2+5 and
$$
2 \cdot 7^{n+1}+3\cdot5^{n+1}+6\cdot 5^{n}-35=24c\cdot 7
$$
oxil764
$$
2 \cdot 7^{n+1}+3\cdot5^{n+1}-5=24c\cdot 7-6\cdot 5^{n}+30
$$
oxil764
But i cant factor 24
@mighty fable Can i ping you when i have a question?
Depends how interesting it is
If it’s silly computations or number theory problems like this please don’t
But if it’s like yesterday
Where you wanted to learn what open sets were
Then by all means please do
Though be aware I’m on vacation rn so it might be a while before I respond bc I don’t always have WiFi LOL

Nvm im done here
this is trivially true for even n (why?). if n is odd (say n=2k+1), then you can show it becomes independent of k and is also easily shown to be true.
I proved It with induction
And with the fact that d|ax+by and d|ax imply d|by
that's fine. but you could have also noticed that 7^2 and 5^2 are one above a multiple of 24. god why are they asking you to do this without modular arithmetic it makes it a million times easier
Pset section 2.3 of elementary number theory by burton
there may be some mistake when I translated this sorry. Can someone help me solve this?
With $n\geq2$, given that $a_1, a_2,..., a_3 ∈ Z; p_1, p_2,..., p_3$ are distinctive prime numbers. Show that if $p_1|a_1 - a_2| = p_2|a_2 - a_3| = ... = p_n|a_n - a_1|$ then $a_1 = a_2 = ... = a_n$
Atom
My take at this problem:
Let P be ${p_1}\cdot{p_2}...\cdot{p_3}$
Let f(n) be $\frac{P}{p_n}$
Let x ∈ Z be some integers
Hence:
$p_1|a_1 - a_2| = p_2|a_2 - a_3| = ... = p_n|a_n - a_1| = P\cdot{x}$,
$(a_1 - a_2) = ±xf(1)$
$(a_2 - a_3) = ±xf(2)$
...
$(a_{i} - a_{i+1} = ±xf(i)$
...
$(a_n - a_1) = ±xf(n)$
This implies: $(a_1 - a_2) + (a_2 - a_3) + ... + (a_n - a_1) = (a_1 - a_n) = ±xf(1) ±xf(2) ±...±xf(n-1) = P\cdot{x}(±\frac{1}{p_1} + ±\frac{1}{p_2} + ... + ±\frac{1}{p_{n-1}})$
$-(a_1 - a_n) = (a_n - a_1) = P\cdot{x}(±\frac{1}{p_1} ±\frac{1}{p_2} ± ... ±\frac{1}{p_{n-1}})$ (Since it's plus/minus)
But then: $(a_n - a_1) = ±xf(n) = ±x(\frac{P}{p_n}) = Px(±\frac{P}{p_n})$
$\implies ±\frac{P}{p_n} = ±\frac{1}{p_1} ±\frac{1}{p_2} ± ... ±\frac{1}{p_{n-1}}$
Atom
Compile Error! Click the
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(You may edit your message to recompile.)
My take at this problem:
Let P be ${p_1}\cdot{p_2}...\cdot{p_3}$
Let f(n) be $\frac{P}{p_n}$
Let x ∈ Z be some integers
Hence:
$p_1|a_1 - a_2| = p_2|a_2 - a_3| = ... = p_n|a_n - a_1| = P\cdot{x}$,
$(a_1 - a_2) = ±xf(1)$
$(a_2 - a_3) = ±xf(2)$
...
$(a_{i} - a_{i+1} = ±xf(i)$
...
$(a_n - a_1) = ±xf(n)$
This implies: $(a_1 - a_2) + (a_2 - a_3) + ... + (a_n - a_1) = (a_1 - a_n) = ±xf(1) ±xf(2) ±...±xf(n-1) = P\cdot{x}(±\frac{1}{p_1} + ±\frac{1}{p_2} + ... + ±\frac{1}{p_{n-1}})$
$-(a_1 - a_n) = (a_n - a_1) = P\cdot{x}(±\frac{1}{p_1} ±\frac{1}{p_2} ± ... ±\frac{1}{p_{n-1}})$ (Since it's plus/minus)
But then: $(a_n - a_1) = ±xf(n) = ±x(\frac{P}{p_n}) = Px(±\frac{P}{p_n})$
$\implies ±\frac{1}{p_n} = ±\frac{1}{p_1} ±\frac{1}{p_2} ± ... ±\frac{1}{p_{n-1}}$
Atom
hmm interesting problem
Here's what I came up with:
Without loss of generality assume $p_n$ is the smallest prime that occurs, then $$|a_n-a_1| \le |a_1-a_2| + \cdots + |a_{n-1}-a_n|$$
Substitute in the fact that $|a_i-a_{i+1}|=\frac{p_n}{p_i}|a_n-a_1|$.
$$|a_n-a_1| \le \frac{p_n}{p_i}|a_n-a_1| + \cdots + \frac{p_n}{p_i}|a_n-a_1|$$
Multiply through by all the primes and divide through by $|a_n-a_1|$ explicitly assuming that it's nonzero:
$$p_1\cdots p_{n-1} \le (n-1)p_n$$
But since $p_n < p_i$ for all $i<n$, the sum of $n-1$ copies is less then the product of $n-1$ things bigger than it, which is a contradiction. So it must be that $|a_n-a_1|=0$ which implies all the differences are $0$.
Merosity
prove that if $p,q$ are odd primes and $p\eq1\bmod{q}$ then
$$x^{q-1}+x^{q-2}+\ldots+x+1$$
splits over $\bF_p$
nixxy nilpotent
I'm stuck and not sure where to start. i don't think I can quite do induction can i? any help appreciated
i also need to prove that
$$x^{q-1}+bx^{q-2}+\ldots+b^{q-2}x+b^{q-1}$$
splits over $\bF_p$ as well.
nixxy nilpotent
not sure if it's easier to start with b=1 and use that to prove the general case
second result follows from a substitution, if you call the first f(x) then the second if b^{q-1} f(x/b)
this happens to have a name btw, homogenization
I think you can probably squeak the first result out by simplifying the geometric series and using fermat's little theorem, maybe there's some extra details to iron out
by geometric series do you mean like writing
1+...+x^(q-1)=(1-x^q)(1-x)^(-1)?
yeah
I think I have a full proof, have just sketched it out a bit, might have used a slight trick too, it's debatable
I'd be curious to see it
the original problem came from trying to show x^q-1 splits over Fp so I'm not sure how to proceed
sure, you know x^{p-1}-1 has all elements except 0 as factors in Fp right
actually let me give a hint instead of outright answering it
$$\frac{x^{ab}-1}{x-1} = \frac{x^{ab}-1}{x^a-1}\frac{x^a-1}{x-1}$$
Merosity
notably it shows that the polynomials with integer coefficients on the right divide the polynomial on the left
in case it's not clear, suppose you know the polynomial on the left splits entirely - use x^(p-1) - 1
so using that
1+x+...+x^(p-2) splits? into (x-2)...(x-(p-1)) im guessing.
then that equals
(1+x^q+...+x^(qk-1))*(1+x+...+x^(q-1))
which is something times the desired sum. the desired sum divides something that splits, so the desired sum splits?
is that the basic idea or did i fuck up somewhere
yeah that's it
cool yeah that works thanks
yup you're welcome
so the answer to this is 6, but i can't figure out the more clever (formal?) way of doing this, any hints?
Ive concluded upto here
Now I just have to prove, it's a integer for some a,b any idea?
yeah I don't think the point of this is to find a clever answer, I'd say the point is to weed out a misconception people sometimes have over euclid's proof of the infinitude of primes
see how much progress you can make if a=1 and b=1

_basudev
This ig?
guess again
_basudev
So let me explain
your original formula isn't wrong
but what you're doing by plugging in is horrendously wrong
You said try seeing it for a=b=1
start from a=1, b=1 then what's n
N=2
you're not thinking about what you're writing, you're mindlessly plugging and chugging without thinking what you're putting down

Alr cool
Let me explain how I come up to that
So I used this fact
Since the number of divisor will be (a+1)(b+1)
The A.M =
_basudev
Applying the Expansion I get
Now let's test for a=b=1
This is true... for all distinct prime except 2...ig
How do I continue from here now?
idk what have you tried

you tried nothing and are all out of ideas? i hope not
I tried what you said dude
Yes, I'm out of ideas dude that's the reason why I'm here for help 
it would be ideal if this was already an integer. what would you have to show for that
For that I've to show it should be divisible by 4
If you're talking about this
I am
.
The only even prime is 2
2+1= 3(odd)
Odd+1 = even
So
2 | odd+1, 2 | odd+1
4 | (odd+1)(odd+1)
great so if both p and q are odd then you are done. so now you reduced the problem to either p=2 or q=2
Alr let's take q=2
we get
{3×(q+1)}/4
So, 4 doesn't always divides "q+1" for some prime "q"
let's take q=2
we get
{3×(p+1)}/4
So, 4 doesn't always divides "p+1" for some prime "p"
yes for p=2 or q=2 you cant just choose a=b=1. but maybe some other choice
Yes, so what do I conclude from here...
.
Can I say?
For if p,q are odd then a=b=1 gives us an integer...
For p = 2 or q = 2 some other value of a,b gives us integer
Or perhaps
For if p,q are odd there exits a,b such that it gives us an integer...
For p = 2 or q = 2 some other value of a,b gives us integer
wow, thanks!
Are there infinitely many nontrivial (i.e. not just scalar multiples, permutations etc) positive integers $a, b, c, x, y, z$ so that $$a+ b + c = x + y + z$$ and $$\frac{1}{a} + \frac{1}{b} + \frac{1}{c} = \frac{1}{x}+ \frac{1}{y}+ \frac{1}{z}$$
الله أكبر
I've been stuck on this for a while now at first I tried to take the reciprical of the second equation which gives you terms that resembles coefficients of a cubic(via VIeta formula) but that didnt go anywhere
then I tried to use an argument with arithmetic and harmonic mean which also didn't go anywhere
I was told that this problem can be reduced to a subtle number theory problem
any hint will be appreciated
Yeah, you're welcome
Look at each factor mod 3. One must be zero
I'd do it by contradiction
thanks
pigeonhole principle. nice
If a is any integer and n is a positive integer, prove gcd(a,a+n)|n
Ik there exists integers x,y such that gcd(a,a+n)=ax+(a+n)y=ax+ay+ny
Hint: divisors of x and y are also divisors of integer linear combinations of x and y
Ik
Great, then this should be a breeze for you
is that, um, bezout identity or smth
No
crap
But it's still also known as Bezout identity.
,w bezout identity
I didnt know that had a name
Frenchman spotted ?
No I just like writing peoples’ names correctly
damn
imagine writing Weierstrass the german way
indeed
it's just cleaner
Sure thing nerd
I guess I gotta accept the nerd title now, being a CS major
so like, divisors of x and y are divisors of nx and cy?
Then gcd(a,a+n)=a(x+y) + ny and because It divides a, it must divide n
Even simpler
gcd(a, a+n) divides a and a+n by definition
Therefore it divides a+n-a = n
You do not need Bézout.
damn
Clever
Any good recommendations for number theory books?
I think Jones & Jones' book Elementary Number Theory is a good start
Burton number theory
Danke
idk, I'm just trying stuff like reducing mod 2 and reducing mod x
when we reduce mod x we get y!=1 mod x. If we assume x<=y then it would make x | y!, so y!=0 mod x, contradiction. So must be that x>y
dunno just keep trying random ideas and see where they lead
🤔
this is a bit whacked out maybe, $$x^y=-1 \mod \prod_{p\le y}p^{\lfloor \log_p(y)\rfloor}$$
Merosity
dunno if that's useful to us, just taking the idea that for each $n\le y$ we have that $x^y=-1 \mod n$ and then I'm just clustering up all that info together with the CRT
Merosity
oh, I should also say that product of p<=y means I'm taking a product only over primes <= y
How can I show that if $a,b\in\mathbb{Z};;2|a,a|b$ and $b|2 \implies a=b=2$?
schoolunchbug
For positive numbers, it's sufficient to note that x|y means x <= y, that simplifies things
you could write 2|a as a=2x for some integer x. similarly b=ay, and 2=bz then plug them all into each other to get 2=2xyz. Then dividing out 2 you get 1=xyz. From there it looks like there are 4 ways to solve that depending on how you distribute +1 and -1 in there.
thank you!
Then must be a mistake from the author
my guess is that they specified positive integers or used N instead of Z. but we cant know without seeing the problem
kind of fun offshoot of this problem, if you have $a_0 \ne 0$ and $a_i|a_{i+1}$ with it periodic like: $a_n=a_0$, then how many solutions are there?
Merosity
Doesn't it have to be fixed between 2 values a0 and -a0 ?
Still infinitely many solutions though
Since |an| is increasing and periodic
for a specific n
and, ig, for a specific a_0
The need to avoid smaller periods makes it at least pretty difficult I think
It's not hard.
Requires more thought than I'd probably be able to give it given how many drinks I took
maybe work it out in the n=2, 3, 4 case and see if you can find the pattern
I think you missed a couple cases
Called it
Though I'm not sure what I missed
I don't think you have to avoid any smaller periods
like n=2 you have ++ and -- (if I understand your notation correctly)
I said wlog a0 = 1 = +
Then any pattern works and it's kinda lame
wdym any pattern works
then you can have any sequence of n-1 terms and call it periodic of period n
any? like 2,3,4 would work?
any sequence a0,.., an-1 can be extended to be n-periodic
I mean ofc it's still just + and -, so you have 2^(n-1) possibilities
good thing I specified that 😌
ok now generalize to the arbitrary ring of integers of a number field now... lmao
I'll take care of the case when the unit group has rank 0, you take care of the rest 
Well don't you only need the number of invertible elements ?
Since divisibility is still almost an order ?
yeah, rank 0 I'll just say there are d distnct units, so there's d^{n-1} solutions
idk I haven't really thought this through
I don't know what "rank of the unit group" is so ...
the units are the invertible elements of the ring
and the rank is basically the number of elements that are invertible but generate a subgroup iso to Z
that's phrased poorly
so you have your standard roots of unity, those are finite order elements
So of infinite order ?
yeah, the rank is the number of generators you need for this infinite subgroup of units
How does that match ?
Wait isn't it 0 or infinite
By this definition
see this comment
Yeah
So that's the definition?
Cause I only took basic group theory
maybe it's better to just give an example
let's say u and v are units, then you have ..., u^-2, u^-1, 1, u, u^2, u^3, ... and 1, v, v^2, v^3, ... and neither of these sets of integer powers of u and v have any nontrivial intersection, then the rank is at least 2
the unit group is going to be isomorphic to some finite group with a direct product of finitely many copies of Z
the number of copies of Z is the rank
what's of finite type
oh I'm not assuming but I see why you say that
Dirichlet unit theorem proves this is finitely generated
if I recall it follows from doing some fundamental cell shenaningans with the Minkowski bound
point is, it was proven to be finitely generated yeah good point though
also if we want to get even crazier with the original assumption we might start devolving away from number fields which have number rings that are dedekind domains and start looking at more general cases and recast the divisibility criteria in terms of ideals and try crying about class numbers or whatever
not something I'm that familiar with
but maybe a simple enough vehicle that's "natural" enough to suck us (me?) in
Besides the potential for a ring to be principal, to have a gcd and all that
the name 'ideal' I believe originally came from them being thought of as "ideal numbers"
Gonna have to read a group theory group at some point
Was stuff from Gauss
To solve stuff with radicals
I think
came from a lot of people, I'm just talking about the etymology
I think it might have been kronecker? idk who it was
You mean he did more than a symbol? /s
yeah kronecker iirc
like if you start thinking of them as ideal numbers you can get away with a handful of operations on ideals as if they are numbers
came about in non PIDs i think?
I have yet to find a nontrivial example (besides stuff like Z^2 x Z/nZ)
That's where my mind left
yeah I can give an explicit example
if you want a nice example of non principle ideal i like to use (2, x) in Z[x]
I think Z[sqrt(2)] has 1+sqrt(2) and all its powers are units
so Z/2Z part is {1, -1} and the Z^1 part is <1+sqrt(2)>
1+sqrt(2) has norm -1, so should be good I think
you can tell it's a unit cause it has norm (1+sqrt2)(1-sqrt(2))=-1, so not too hard to see the inverse of 1+sqrt(2) is -1+sqrt(2) there
you can keep raising it to powers and prove it'll have larger coefficients too
yeah, it's not something I think about much so its good for me to say some stuff lol
I feel like I'll regret becoming a CS major if I don't keep studying math
idk, in some sense you're more free to study whatever you want at your own pace in math now
Yes
But will I find the strength
Cause then the ressources kind of need to be self-motivated
But I def wanna learn more group theory, Galois theory, complex analysis
Some set theory
my approach is just, I do it if I want to do it, and I don't if I don't actually want to do it, but I can see how that doesn't work for everybody
I get a bit of an itch if I just sit around doing nothing for too long you know
Yes
If there exists integers x,y such that ax+by=gcd(a,b), show gcd(x,y)=1
What i thought so far
Let d=gcd(x,y)
then d|ax+by
I wanna show somehow that d=1 and there are integers q,p such that 1=xq+yp
Hint: a, b have a common factor, namely...
Write a=Ad, b=Bd, then your assumption is Adx+Bdy=d. Divide through by d.
Ah i get it
gcd(a,b) divides a and b
So a/gcd(a,b) and b/gcd(a,b) are integers
Hence 1= (a/gcd(a,b))x+(b/gcd(a,b)y
Thus d=1
Right?
Well yes, if you redefine d on the fly to mean gcd(x,y) instead of gcd(a,b) ...
Thats what i defined d to be initially
Sorry, it's me who cannot read.
Thats why i thought this was weird ig
Yeah, I see that was confusing because I thought d was gcd(a,b)...
not sure where to put it, but are there any nice/cool properties of a prime * prime + 1
are the primes the same or distinct?
distinct
it's a perfect square iff they're twin primes ig
I assume you're more interested in things relevant to cryptography since it's nearly a semiprime
I need to show If a is odd then gcd(3a,3a+2)=1
If a is odd, the a=2k+1 for some integer k. I know gcd(a,b)=1 iff 1=ax+by for some integers x and y.
Let d=gcd(3a,3a+2)
So d=3(2k+1)x+(3(2k+1)+2)y
d=6kx+3x+6ky+5y
d=6k(x+y)+3x+5y
If i want to show d=1, i have to make x+y=0 and 3x+5y=1
But the solution to that system is (-1/2,1/2), which is not integer. This is where im stuck
I'm thinking I'd try to use the euclidean algorithm directly, like gcd(3a,3a+2) = gcd(3a,2) since you can subtract 3a from 3a+2
euclidean algorithm?
The 3 seems like a red herring: What you're really showing is that if n is odd then gcd(n, n+2)=1.
n=3a for a odd is just a particular case of odd number.
eh more like just gcd(n,m)=gcd(n,m-nk)=gcd(n-mk,m)
you can use that to simplify gcd problems (and that principle underlies the euclidean algorithm)
but i should be able to solve this without the euclidean algorithm
that's what i'm saying
just use those gcd properties to reduce the problem to gcd(3a,2)
i'm just explaining that those properties are what the euclidean algorithm is based on
but thanks y'all
I didnt see that in the book so far so i proved it
But im still stuck
14.c.First we have to prove that If $d=\gcd(a,b)$, Then $d=\gcd(a,b+na)$ for any integer $n.$Because $d=\gcd(a,b)$, It follows that there are integers $x,y$ such that $d=ax+by$. By adding and subtracting $nay$, we get
$$
d=ax+by+nay-nay
$$
$$
d=a(x-ny)+(b+na)y
$$
Because we know $d|a$ , and and $d$ divides a linear combination of $a$ and $b+na$, it follows that $d|b+na$. But notice If $c$ is a divisor of $a$ and $b+na$, then $c|d$. Therefore by definition,$d=\gcd(a,b+na)$.
Now let $d=\gcd(3a,3a+2)$, where $a$ is odd. So $a=2k+1$ for some integer $k$.
By our previous result,
$$
\gcd(3a,3a+2)=\gcd(3a,2)
$$
So there are integers p,q such that
$$
d=3ap+2q
$$
$$
d=3(2k+1)p+2q
$$
$$
d=6kp+3p+2q
$$
oxil764
Is this right?
I still cant find integers such that d=1
Wouldnt p have to be 0 and force q to be 1/2, a non integer
If a=2k+1, then try (1+k)a - k(a+2)
Well, 3a = 3(2k+1) = 3+3k*2
So, gcd(3a, 2) = gcd(3+3k*2, 2) and you could apply your newfound property again
Now let $d=\gcd(3a,3a+2)$, where $a$ is odd. So $3a$ is odd,hence $3a=2k+1$ for some integer $k$.
By our previous result,
$$
\gcd(3a,3a+2)=\gcd(3a,2)
$$
So there are integers p,q such that
$$
d=3ap+2q
$$
$$
d=(2k+1)p+2q
$$
$$
d=2kp+p+2q
$$
Now Let $q=-k$ and $p=1$
So
$$
d=2k+1-2k=1
$$
Therefore $\gcd(3a,3a+2)=1$
oxil764
i don't think you can just set values for p and q. you know they exist, but you don't know what they are necessarily.
i think an easier way is just to say that 3a=2k+1. then gcd(3a,2)=gcd(2k+1,2)=gcd(2k+1-2k,2)=gcd(1,2)
or you can say that a=2k+1, then do gcd(3(2k+1),2)=gcd(3(2k+1)-2(3k+1),2). same thing
idk if you need bezout for this at all
funny enough, by subtracting off multiples from each element, this is basically just doing the euclidean algorithm lol
Honestly i was using It because It is pretty much the only tool i have so far
Next section is on the euclidean algorithm
But in this case, If i can find values of p and q that give me 1 then It means the gcd is one
yes, that is absolutely true. if you can find an integer linear combination that gives one, then the numbers must be coprime.
so you could do the argument like this
[3(2k+1)]1+2(-(3k+1))=1 therefore gcd(3(2k+1),2)=1.
or go back to the beginning i guess
3(2k+1)(2+3k)-3(2k+1)+2=1
So is my proof valid?
this is how you can get that using the euclidean algorithm
so is your proof what?
Srry
I meant valid
a^2=7+2b^2
clearly a=±3,b=±1 are solutions, but how can I find out if there are any others?
sorta boils down to finding the units in Z[sqrt(2)]
I believe 1+sqrt(2) generates all of them but since (1+sqrt2)(1-sqrt2) = -1 you'd want to square that and then multiply or divide your found solution of 3+sqrt(2) by it
I think probably i am not saying the essential fundamentals of this too, like how we use the norm function and Dirichlet's unit theorem
I think there's also a way to get the solutions via continued fractions/pell's equations discussion too so maybe that's more elementary/easier
maybe someone can say this more coherently than I just did but in short, x = (3+sqrt(2))(3+2sqrt(2))^n multiplied by its conjugate should get you all solutions
1+sqrt(2) can't generate all of them because it's positive
It is the fundamental unit though.
Can i get some feedback
Prove that if $a$ and $b$ are odd integers, then $8| (a^2 -b^2)$.
Let $a=2k+1$ and $b=2n+1$,where $k,n\in\mathbb{Z}$.
Then $(a^2-b^2)=(a+b)(a-b)=(2k+2n+2)(2k-2n)$
And we have
$$4(k+n+1)(k-n)$$
If $k$ and $n$ are both even or both odd, then $k-n$ is even and by factoring we conclude $8|(a^2-b^2)$.
Without loss of generality, assume $k$ is even and $n$ is odd. So $n+1$ is even and $k+n+1$ is even too, hence by the same as above,$8|(a^2-b^2)$. Therefore it is always the case that $8|(a^2-b^2)$.
I just wanna know if I am writing correctly
oxil764
Yes, what you have done is correct
Thanks for the feedback!
So we know that for p prime and $(p,10) = 1$ there exists integers k and y such that $yp = 10k +1$ this is trivial to show, Im trying to prove the following, Let $n = 10a + b$. if p is a prime with $(p, 10) = 1$ then $p|a$ if and only if $p|a - kb$. I did the following, suppose $p|a$, since yp = 10k + 1 (since this is of the form 10a + b and $p|a$) then $p|k$ then it follows $p|kb$ and finally $p| a - kb$. I am confused about it because since yp is of the form 10a + b and we know then that would neccesarily imply that 1 is a multiple of p which is impossible.
jayz
how did you get that p|k?
if we assume p|a for any integer of the form 10a + b. then yp = 10k + 1 and p|k
...oh so you're assuming that for all integers of the form 10a+b, p|a?
in that case what you have is a proof by contradiction that no prime number can have that property
I think what I described there addresses that
I don't really get the example why is p ≠1 mod q^2 important?
Could someone give me an example?
1.4.3 example
well if p = 1 mod q^2, then p-1 = 0 mod q^2, so (p-1)/q is divisible by q, and then q^-1 mod (p-1)/q doesn't exist
Three non-negative integers A, B, and C are given such that A <= B <= C. You can either subtract 1 from two of the integers of your choice, or subtract 1 from all of the integers. If if A + B +C = 2x + 3y for some nonnegative integers x and y, and C <= A+B, does it guarantee that by applying these 2 operations (as many times as we want/need to), we can get all 3 integers to 0?
yes, ||subtract one from all of them A+B-C times; then A is C-B which is nonnegative, B is C-A which is nonnegative, C is 2C-A-B >= 2C-2B = 2(C-B) which is nonnegative. now subtract C-B from A and C, and subtract C-A from B and C, now they're all zero||
well if C is A + B, then subtracting A from A and C, and subtracting B from B and C, solves it
so we want to reduce anything else to that easy case
if C is less than A + B, then the amount that it's less will go down by 1 every time we subtract 1 from each integer (because A+B contains two integers and C contains 1)
mmhm...
then once you've had that idea it's just working out what the formulas actually are and how to verify that you're not taking an action a negative number of times
.... the rlly rlly funny thing is that
the min amt of moves u need to take to get all of these 3 numbers to 0, assuming that they can be reduced tot aht
is literally jsut the largest number

Does $\sum_{n=1}^{k-1}(\zeta_{k}^{n}) = -1$ , where $\zeta_{k}$ is a primitive nth root of unity?
I know that $\sum_{n=0}^{k-1}(\zeta_{k}^{n}) = 0$. So simply subtracting 1 on both sides yields $\sum_{n=1}^{k-1}(\zeta_{k}^{n}) = -1$.
Sapphire
yeah, by the exact logic you described
what's the source of this?
@verbal cedar Abstract Algebra Paul Garrett
Is there any way to figure this out without using the equality fact?
@blazing mist Ask in #advanced-number-theory
I don't usually allow people who violate servers rule to stay for long but since your new here ill let it slide
uh, sorry..
well if you prove the equality, then it's a trivial result. you just subtract 1 from both sides.
yeah, there are two ways you could go about proving it, you could:
evaluate it as a geometric series directly
or
call the original sum S, multiply by zeta_k, and see that zeta_k * S = S and since zeta_k != 1 it means S=0
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mathmajo...
i dunderstand the sequence substitution
from 5:40
Why is this true (Grey circle)
Every positive integer 1 ≤ m ≤ n has a greatest common divisor with n. So when you take the union of the S_d, each m will be in (exactly) one of the S_d
is there a special name for the even number between two twin primes? or like what should i call this number if i wanted to reference it for arbitrary twin primes
Thank you
#help-13 message lol someone else asked about this too (and it is resolved there)
Idk, their average? I think since you have 6n+-1 as the primes you can refer to it directly as 6n so not super necessary to name it
fair enough
If $\gcd(a, b) = 1$, then $\gcd(ac, b) = gcd(c, b)$.
By hypothesis, there exists integers $x,y$ such that $1=ax+by$. Let $d=\gcd(ac,b$). So there are integers $p,q$ such that $d=acp+bq$.
Now Let $n|b$ and $n|c$. So $n$ divides any linear combination of the two, hence $n|d$. Thus $d=\gcd(c,b)$, by definition.
oxil764
Yes, it is wrong.
What did i do wrong?
Your final conclusion that d = gcd(c,b) is unjustified. You need to actually prove not only that it is greater than all common divisors of b and c, but also that it is actually a common divisor of c and b!
Ah
That makes sense
But if I prove that it is a common divisor indeed, would the proof be right?
If!
Hint: show that every common divisor of ac and b is also a common divisor of c and b, and vice versa.
Why do i need to show the converse?
This is what i came up with
If $\gcd(a, b) = 1$, then $\gcd(ac, b) = gcd(c, b)$.
By hypothesis, there exists integers $x,y$ such that $1=ax+by$. Let $d=\gcd(ac,b$). So there are integers $p,q$ such that $d=acp+bq$.
We know $d|b$ by definition of $d$.
Notice that If $d|b$ and $d|cx+by$ for arbitrary integers $x,y$, then $d|c$, so $d$ is a common divisor of $c$ and $b$.
Now Let $n|b$ and $n|c$. So $n$ divides any linear combination of the two, hence $n|d$. Thus $d=\gcd(c,b)$, by definition.
oxil764
Doesnt this show its a common divisor of b and c as well?
This proof is still insufficient
Why?
You have said:
Notice that If $d|b$ and $d|cx+by$ for arbitrary integers $x,y$, then $d|c$,
so $d$ is a common divisor of $c$ and $b$.
But you (1) do not explain why the first line is true, and (2) do not prove that the assumption of the first line is true.
So your conclusion, the second line, is completely unjustified.
I think you know what a correct proof looks like so I don't want to keep pointing out these errors.
I think you should read my hint again and think about it a bit.
So this means they share the same set of divisors, so the gcd of on is the gcd of the other, right?
$$
1=ax+by
$$
$$
c=axc+bcy
$$
Then $d|c$ because c is a linear combination of ac and b
oxil764
So that does it ig
Yup
Thanks!
hi
im not quite sure how to go about (d), could i get a starting point please?
The order of such an $x$ is $8$. Hence $8 \mid p-1$ which is a contradiction since $p$ is NOT of the form $8n+1$.
RickC137
OH that was fast
thank you very much sir 
Let $p$ be a prime. For given nonzero $a,b,c\in\mathbb Z/p\mathbb Z$, define
[n(a,b,c)=#\left{(k,\ell)\in(\mathbb Z/p\mathbb Z)^2:ak^2+b\ell^2\equiv c\pmod p\right}.]
I think it's the case that $n(a,b,c)$ is independent of $c$ (as long as everything is nonzero). How do I see this?
dfoiler
change of variables shows that n(a,b,c) at most depends on whether or not c is a square, but I do not see how to complete the argument quickly
I think I see an argumeny by explicitly computing n(a,b,c) (roughly speaking, it suffices to determine how many x have x^2-a equal to a square where a is constant)
so I guess I'm hoping for a proof which does not explicitly compute n(a,b,c)
yeah I think I have it for the most part, I'll go ahead and divide through by a and write -b/a=d and suppose that d is not a square in $\mathbb{F}p$. Then the norm function from $\mathbb{F}{p^2} \to \mathbb{F}_p$ is $N(x)=x*x^p$. If we exclude 0, then we can think of it just as a homomorphism of the multiplicative groups and since an element of order $p^2-1$ will be raised to the $p+1$ power, it is still order $p-1$, which means this map is surjective. So then Lagrange's theorem partitions it out into equal sized cosets, which is what we wanted to prove.
Merosity
I didn't end up using z=x+sqrt(d)y at all I realize I was doing some scratch work figuring it out and just typed up some useless stuff there lol whoops
it's funny how $x-\sqrt{d}y = (x+\sqrt{d}y)^p$ by frobenius so I let myself go down a silly path prior. Actually I guess the thing I did would only be for when d is not a square, if it does factor we're not in a field extension, idk I just assumed that would be easier I'll worry about that later lol
Merosity
I guess nothing happened since then here, but I just came back to thinking about the case when -b/a is a quadratic resudue, then it's of the form x^2-r^2y^2=c and we might as well absorb r into y for convenience and have (x+y)(x-y)=c and we now have uv=c with u=x+y and v=u-v. Simply fix v in F_p and then this determines u=c/v. Invert the system of linear equations for x, y again for an explicit solution, although for the sake of counting solutions we have exactly p-1 possibilities now, so that wraps it up.
oh yeah this is essentially the combinatorics I had in mind when I sent this message
I mean this message here
the case where d is non-square seemed harder, but rearrangement allows combinatorics still
the lagrange's theorem approach is better though
thank you
cool yeah, you're welcome. Also for fun, I think these proofs also generalize to arbitrary finite fields, but haven't thought it through to check. I'm also slightly interested in how far this sort of proof can be pushed to other things too since the fact that I used the norm as a group homomorphism suggests we might be able to get more milage from it if that interests you
actually I have to dig but since it was brought up in #advanced-number-theory I am pretty sure I know a way to count the points with gauss sums and a fourier transform with that, but I'm busy at the moment so I'll come back if you're interested in that and I can remember how that goes.
uh
my original question was one of Gauss sums, which I then translated into point-counting and asked here
kind of at least
:/
but like I genuinely wanted a combinatorial solution to the combinatorial problem
also yes this works for finite fields
nothing in the proof changes
I am of the opinion that it would be rather difficult to write down an algebraic statement which works for finite fields of prime order but not of general prime-power order :/
yeah I think you're right, I just didn't want to think it through, easier to just give the disclaimer lol
is this correct?
Yes
Okay thanks !
am a bit confused if im understanding the problem correctly
is this just asking me to use induction to prove that this is true? just formulated weirdly?
like would this be valid in that case? or am i misunderstanding something
that's not really using induction
Rather, letting Sn be such that a^n - 1 = (a-1) Sn, you use Sn rather the the ...
Then a^n - 1 = a^n - a^(n-1) + a^(n-1) - 1 = a^n - a^(n-1) + (a-1)S(n-1) and work from there
sorry i am confused on what youre going for there, wym work from there?
Nvm I misread the ...
That's actually good
My bad
If im checking inequality statements with induction
do i need to like go step by step in finding bigger and bigger functions or something like that
or can i just check if the desired form holds the correct inequality? like i did under the "need to check if true"
like is it necessary to rewrite the expression into the deisred form step by step
how does the last inequality follow from the previous ones?
typically it's bad form to jump to the final answer, the whole point of a proof is to show the reader why this holds. Skipping huge chunks of reasoning doesn't do that.
Is there a name for composite numbers whose prime numbers in their prime factorization all have exponent equal to 1?
Squarefree
do you mean jump in this step?
no, that's what you should be trying to prove. How does the rest of the inequalities imply the last one?
I don't know if this is the right channel for this, but does anyone here know sth abt the Continuum Hypothesis and how it was proven? I'm doing a school project on it and I'm kind of stuck at the part how it got proven that it wasnt provable. How Gödel and Cohen did that.
#proofs-and-logic and iirc it's true iff zfc is consistent?
well it's independent of zfc, iff zfc is consistent
if zfc isn't consistent then you can prove CH and you can also prove ¬CH
"Proof?"
"It was revealed to me in a dream"
Cohen’s forcing is a related topic, I believe
yeah it is indeed
do you know more of what forcing is/could you explain?
what book is it?
Oh nvm
what ?? hahahah, it wasnt even hard to find the pdf lmao
Elementary Number Theory, Seventh Edition, is written for the one-semester undergraduate number theory course taken by math majors, secondary education majors, and computer science students. This contemporary text provides a simple account of classical number theory, set against a historical back...
It’s still expensive
I got it for like 10$ somehow brand new
But it says Indian edition lol
very.
80 usd at my uni shop
the list of proofs that amazon is a scam grows 
the entire university coursebook industry is a scam tbh
Math books are just expensive for some reason
well, because not many buy them.
Like every publisher want to charge 50$ minimum
Yeah
That is a reason
But also probably because they have monopoly
Cause Dover books are cheap
And can be good sometimes
Ofc they’re less recent
you can always "borrow" a book, and just scan every page
top 1 best side hustle
Of course only do this for the books out of copyright
Or for your own writings
Stealing is very bad
<@&268886789983436800>
handled
thank you
actually dami handled but I'm taking credit :^)
i can only hope i can unburn that image from my eyes lol thank you all
what happened
I need help quick
$$a and b are integers, prove that |a+b| + |a-b| {/geq} |a| + |b|$$
Atom
$a$ and $b$ are integers, prove that $|a+b| + |a-b| \geq |a| + |b|$
bee [it/its]
I'm guessing something like: play around with signs to say why you can take a, b to be positive without loss of generality with a>b then use that to throw away all the absolute value bars
I think that works, weirdly enough at no point do I use that they're integers, they could be real numbers I think, so I imagine there's a simpler proof that leverages the fact that they're integers rather than noticing the 2-3 cases which are equivalent by symmetries
I don't think this is useful, but tangentially related: 2*max(a,b) = a+b + |a-b|
I proved it and explained the outline of what I did to prove it in my first message
wait how can we be sure that the WLOG here works-
Ah right... if b > a then |a-b| would just "flip"
