#elementary-number-theory
1 messages · Page 12 of 1
Yeah
For p=11, r=p-((p-1)/2), while for p=13, r=(p-1)/2
this discrepancy is because of the fact that if p=11, p is congruent to -1 mod 4, so (p-1)/2 is odd, so p-(p-1)/2 is even
and in this list we are only considering even numbers in left hand side of the congruence, so we take r=p-(p-1)/2 in this case
for p=13, p is congruent to 1 mod 4, so (p-1)/2 is even, so we take r=(p-1)/2 in this case
This one
2x4x6x...(p-1) changed to 2^((p-1)/2)((p-1)/2)!
and 1+2+3... to (p^2-1)/8
factoring a 2 out of each term
there are (p-1)/2 terms so you have 2^((p-1)/2)
and you're left with 1x2x3x...x(p-1)/2 which is ((p-1)/2)!
1+2+3+4+...+(p-1)/2=1/2*((p-1)/2)*((p+1)/2)
just using the formula 1+2+...+n=n(n+1)/2
Oh gauss sum
That's the last step
The implications are not clear
But Euler's criterion is clear
which implications
.
to get the equation
since p cannot divide the factorial
Oh yeah lol
I thought ((p-1)/2)! stands for something else
But it's just a requirement to divide both sides without getting division by 0
yes
I'll skip gauss' proof and Quadratic reciprocity law proof for now and move on to the applications.
if we have (219|383) then we can use the multiplicative property to get (3|383)(73|383) now it says
(3|383) = (383|3)(-1)^((383-1)(3-1)/4)
What did they do exactly here
(-1)^((383-1)(3-1)/4) looks like (383|3)(3|383) to me so all together
(3|383)(383|3)(3|383)
mymathyourmath
im doing some formal notes on numb theo and gonna lead into some ergoc theory/p adic stuff
*a<n
mymathyourmath
Looks fine
cool thx
Could one possibly see if they notice any pattern for:
1 - ((n-x)/(n+1))^n = ((x+1)n/(n+1))^n
n is natural and x is in (-1, n)
its worth noting that if we extend n to be negative then the limit as x approaches -1 then the intersection approaches -1 is 1 - phi
Hello, Could Anyone recommend me some books for learning differential equations from basic, elementary?
i have an exercise to prove that sum of terms in newtons binomial is $ 2^{n}$, in the answer there is that letting a=b=1 so $(a+b)^{n} = [ \sum_{k=0}^{n} \binom{n}{k} = 2^{n}$ but is this really enough?
MrTrim
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Yes, but I doubt it is intended
I think the intended way is probably double counting
double counting?
first i wanted to prove this by induction but man i don't want to write so much
which book/course did you see this problem in?
so i looked up the answer and there was: "let a=b=1"
different courses have different intended answers for this problem
it's a calculus book but in the first chapter there is some combinatorics, induction, logic, sets
I think the intended way is double counting then
Consider a bag with n distinct items, and you grab however many items you like at once. How many different combinations are there?
umm 2^n because i can grab n items and n combinations of items idk?
yes
count in another way now
consider the case where you grab k items, in a bag with n distinct items (where 0 <= k <= n)
how many different combinations are there?
k^n no?
idk man 
it should be nCk
n choose k
you should've learnt n choose k in the combinatorics part of the book, no?
yea ofc but it's just definition there one formula for n+1 chose k
the book didn't explain what n choose k means?
i doubt they could call that combinatorics if they didn't even say that
yea it's just one chapter for newton binomial
how much combinatorics did they teach
induction is considered in combinatorics yea?
I'd hardly count that as combinatorics
Ok, so they didn't teach combinatorics then
Did they teach binomial theorem then?
yes
How did they prove binomial theorem
the entire chapter is resolved around it
they didn't
it's writen "this formula can be proven by mathematical induction and proving formula for coefficients"
Think of in terms of choices
ok then probably the intended solution is binomial theorem then, letting a=b=1 is fine
nvm
though this book is quite funny
Which book is this
Could anyone give a hint? Here r_2(n) is the function that gives the number of representations of n as the sum of 2 squares
I could run through the inductive proof with u rn if you'd like
tho it ain't rlly gonna help with your understanding of nCr
I'll just explain on nCr before doing the inductive proof if you'd like. understanding nCr would make it easier to grasp ig
yea so there's multiple ways of doing the problems involving binomial theorem, one way is to produce a combinatorial proof, the other is just usual analysis, set theoretic way, either induction or just some formula (in this case just the binomial theorem formula), i've also seen some geometric proofs to combinatorial problems, you should try proving the binomila theorem yerself but #discrete-math message here's a proof and there's a more advanced proof just below this one too
yea that would help i was just given a formula but i don't know why it's so important
okie great!
so lemme explain to the best of my ability
here we go
so first things first let's ask the question how many ways can we arrange 4 items?
ok perhaps a simpler example: I have 3 ties and 4 shirts. How many possible combinations of shirt + tie can I wear?
yeah well 3
why 3?
Mmmm.... not quite
XD I think u saw it
Ok so
think of it this way
I have ties A, B and C.
and shirts 1, 2, 3, 4
so A can be worn with 1, 2, 3, 4
ye ye i assumed they were the same ties and the same shirts
12
yes
okay, now let's look at a different qn
so we have 4 objects, A, B C D. How many can we arrange them?
let's start by picking A as our 1st object
wait what how many can we arrange them?
ok ok my english went dumb
so you have 4 objects and you can swap between 4 places so it's 16 combinations no?
Mmmm, not quite. Think of it this way: I have objects A, B, C, D. How many choices do I have for my 1st object?
like, how many possible objects can I pick to be the 1st one I'm arranging?
OHH
so it's 4 right?
well for the 1st you have 4 yeah
what abt the 2nd object?
ohhhhh
for n objects
we can arrange it n! ways
NOW but what if I asked
how many unique ways can I arrange 2 items out of the 4 objects?
like
AB, AC, AD, CD...
well i assume it's 4C2 because you are explaining binomial
U could list it out
actually... not quite. that's combinations. What I'm asking for is the number of permutations
mh
the difference is that for permutation order does matter while for combinations order doesn;t
That meaning, AB and BA is counted as 1 for combinations
AB and BA are considered 2 different arrangements for perumtations
oh
so 4 are starting with A
Mmm... not quite. Just think of it this way-
We only allow 2 objects to be picked.
For our first object we have 4 possible options
for our 2nd we have 3.
so it's just- 4*3
let's do a sanity check
and see if that's right
AB, AC, AD
BA, BC, BD
CA, CB, CD
DA, DB, DC
no AA?
seems correct?
we aren't picking the same object twice
oh oke
yeah 16
ohhhhh
but that aside, this is where we finally throw in a permutation formula
n!/(n-r)! where r is the number of things we "allow" in each group
why?
don't you realise that it's just anotehr way of re-expressing
4*3*2*1, except we remove the last 2 terms since we only look at the first 2
so to "remove" teh last 2 terms from 4!
we just divide it by the factorial of the number of terms we dgaf abt
let's say from a group of 10 things we want to see how many ways we can arrange 4 objects
ohhh so that's why it's called choose?
so we know it's just 10(9)(8)(7)
because we choose the terms that we are "removing"
yeah 
lol
but now
we finally talk about
combinations
so we know the number of permuations to be
n!/(n-r)!
but we don't want this!
there's some excess terms
which are considered the same
since AB = BA when we count possible combinations
while for permutations we treat them seprartely
so yknow, it's quite the annoying issue. How would we count the number of these "repeated" elements?
mhm so permutations are useful i assume for like counting numbers because 12 is not 21
mhm
but for combinations, it's usefulbecause
for example the binomial theorem whichj we're gonna get at
xy = yx
so we WANT them to be the "same"
when we "add them up"
let's do an easy one to demonstrate what I mean
wiki has a rather good example so ima steal that
ignore the binomial coefficient
we'll get tehre
but this illustrates the idea of the case where we want xy and yx to be counted together and not separately
Guys I can't post in help
check channels and roles
mhm
okay! nice
But the qn is HOW DO WE ELIMINATE THOSE STOOOPID REPEATED TERMS IN OUR PERMUTATIONS 
let's break this down
and use the same example earlier
4 items, choose 2, but this time the order doesn't matter
AB, AC, AD
BA, BC, BD
CA, CB, CD
DA, DB, DC
can you see a pattern on which terms are repeated?
AB is repeated in BA. AC repeated as CA. AD as DA.
oh like that
BC is repeated as CB, BD is repeated as DB
I wish I am good at math 🙁
so how can I make this into a formula?
wait im thinking
sure sure
so we from the group of 4 items we want to arrange into 2 so
4321 but we need 43 s 4 choose 2 but idk i feel like im missig something here
it may be hard to see since this is a bad example, cuz the number of stuff we're choosing is the number of stuff we're nto counting, so ima illustrate it with 5 variables and still pick 2
AB AC AD AE
BA BC BD BE
CA CB CD CE
DA DB DC DE
EA EB EC ED
okay now
ok that's not the best way to observe it-
take your time
sry I myself find it hard to word my thoughts 
notice that for each of the possible permutation, we have r! number of repeating terms. In other words, the permutation we have that it "creates" r! number of repeated elements.... Um, how do I explain...
AH
Imagine I counted the permutations of n items with k elements per group.
any group of k elements have been counted k! times, which you have to compensate for.
So what does this imply abt the formula? @sacred junco
Do you understand what I mean by this?
hello guys.... I had a question

Hey had a question about a proof for this theorem
My first question is that how did the author come to the conclusion that m/2^n-1 is a divisor of m
Note (2^n-1)*m/(2^n-1)=m, and since you proved m/(2^n-1) is an integer, we have m/(2^n-1) is a divisor of m
My second question is regarding it says it proves that 0(m) is a prime by demonstrating it only has 2 divisors, but how do we know we exhausted all the divisors and that m/2^n-1 is not itself the sum of other divisors, for example the sum of the divisors of 6 = 1 + 2 + 3 + 6 can also be written as 6+ 3 + (1+2) = 6 + 3 + 3
Since $m/(2^n-1)$ is a divisor, we must have $$\sigma(m) \geq m+\frac{m}{2^n-1}.$$
Thanks, I get that part but how do we know $/frac{m}{2^n-1}$ is itself not the sum of other divisors and just so happens also to be a divisor of m
$\frac{m}{2^n-1}$
jayzsparrow
@normal heart
we don't immediately know, but from that inequality, we see that there can be no other factors
since if there were any, the inequality would be strict
but we see that it's indeed an equality, so the inequality cannot be strict
in other words there aren't other factors of sigma(m) other than m and m/(2^n-1)
@normal heart why would the inequality be strict if there were other factors?
We have sigma(m)=m+m/(2^n-1)+other factors
if there were other factors
since m/(2^n-1) is a factor of m, it must be a term of its own in the sum
Ok I see, but what if m/(2^n-1) = a+b such that a and b are also divisors of m then sigma(m)= m + m/(2^n-1) = m+ a + b
if a and b are also divisors then we have sigma(m) >= m+m/(2^n-1)+a+b
since sigma(m) adds together all divisors of m
right
@normal heart Thanks for taking your time to anwser my stupid questions appreciate it I think i got it now 🙂
Let $s_2(n)$ denote the sum of the bits of $n$. Is
[\limsup_{n\to\infty}\frac{s_2\left(n^2\right)}{s_2(n)}]
finite?
dfoiler
would also be interested if it's bounded (or converges?) for $n$ of the form $2^{k+1}-1$. approximately speaking, this should be a measure of how ``random'' the bits of $\sqrt{2}$ behave \ldots
dfoiler
can anyone help me find a proof for this question? Im trying to figure out how for given primes p,qif p>q>5 then p^2-q^2 is a multiple of 24 or 24|p^2-q^2
Im supposed to use the fact that if (a,b_i)=1 for i= 1,2,3, . . . , n then (a,b_1 x b_2 x . . . x b_n)=1
try showing that 3 divides p^2 - q^2 and 8 divides p^2 - q^2
for the first part, note that p, q are primes greater than 3 so p, q are either congruent to 1 or 2 mod 3; what does this tell you about p^2 and q^2?
for the second part, p and q are odd so what can you say about p^2 and q^2 modulo 8?
the limit is not finite, for example for every positive integer k > 1, select n as the number which in binary has its (i!)th bit set for 1 <= i <= k, it is easy to see that n has k bits set but n^2 will have k(k + 1)/2 - 1 bits set, and the result follows as k -> infinity. I think any construction with the set bits of n sufficiently far apart is enough to force the term inside the limit to be arbitrarily large
if x had 3^3 as one of it's factors it's GCD would include 3^3. same with 7
if you did so then the GCD of x and y couldn't be > 3.
wdym similar
if I choose x=3^3 and y=3^1 then the gcd could be 3^1
I suppose I could try asking my teachers this question
could the property that xy/gcd = lcm help here?
I dont think so
yeah doesn't seem like it 
But the xy/gcd = lcm is helpful for part b
Same
do you "lose" anything by clicking on "reveal answers"?
Nah it's a practice paper
ah this looks familiar
well u could ask your teacher abt it, or just reveal it. Choice's up to u
yeah so 2^2 is not possible; otherwise, it must appear in either the gcd or the lcm
think about the gcd and lcm in terms of the prime factorisation
ah.
right....
@distant sandal what opengang's trying to say is that since x can't have 2^2 since otherwise the GCD won't have 2^3 I think
or um
did I get that wrong
Consider x = p_1^{a_1} ... p_n^{a_n} and y = p_1^{b_1} ... p_n^{b_n}. How could you write the gcd and the lcm in terms of the prime factorisations of x and y?
This will tell what powers for each of the primes are possible to maintain the gcd and lcm
🤔
The 2^2 thing not being possible does make sense now
that does not look right
I saw these in math books but im not sure how i can apply it to this problem
y u mean?
either
but if x doesn't contain 2^3 y must have 2^3
otherwise, the gcd would contain some power of 2
you can divide by something smaller than 8
I'll try x=7 and y=7^2
it should be 2^3 * 3^3 * 5^2 * 7 * 11^2
u mean for x?
dividing by a power of 2 is dividing by 2^3 = 8,
dividing by a power of 3 is dividing by 3^2 = 9,
dividing by a power of 5 is dividing by 5^2 = 25,
dividing by a power of 7 is dividing by 7^1 = 7,
dividing by a power of 11 is dividing by 11^0 = 1 but this implies that x = lcm(x, y)
yeh
damn.
geez...
I've forgotten how all these prime factorisation GCD stuff works
gonna have to brush up on it.
sorry for being misleading 
average HS teacher moment
first year uni math moment
pensive
but yeah, I remember looking at this problem for the first time and getting stuck for about 5 mins
nah there's a systematic way to doing it
you just need to know how the gcd and lcm relate to each other in terms of the prime factorisation
ok new programming exercise for me
@dusty dragon the issue is this chapter preceded the one on congruences although I’m already familiar with modulo n and I can’t take for granted that all prime except for 2 are odd because I havent proved it in a theorem or corollary in the chapter.
??
I’m posting this in both #groups-rings-fields and #elementary-number-theory as my question relates to both.
does anyone know of a short pdf document (or perhaps an appendix of some book) that sums up all the number theory ‘facts’ (theorems and definitions) needed for algebra? Preferably it should include proofs, but I’d be fine with accepting many ‘obvious’ statements without proof like the division algorithm and whatnot.
Im tyring to prove that p^2-q^2 is a mutliple of 24 with the only hint being that I need to use the fact that if (a,b_i)=1 for i= 1,2,3,...,n then (a,b_1 x b_2 x . . . x b_n)= 1
what's p and q
this is trivial from the definition of prime numbers...
I couldn't have imagined how you know mod but can't use the fact that the only even prime is 2
Every even number has a factor of 2, so if a prime is even, it must be 2
I know it's trivial but from the book I'm reading it hasn't been proved and it hasn't used that fact in any of the proofs thus far
I highly doubt it hasn't used this fact
I can't take mod for granted also
well I don't know what to say, it hasn't ive done all the excercises so
but just because the book doesn't mention it doesn't mean you can't use it, your book hasn't defined addition and multplication of natural numbers probably and I doubt you wouldn't allow yourself to use it
especially when it's something as trivial as there only being one even prime
it's fine Im just trying to figure out how I can use the fact that "if (a,b_i) =1 for i= 1,2,. . . , n then (a,b_1 x b_2 x . . . x b_n)=1" to show that if p and q are primes such that p>/=q>/=5 then 24|p^2-q^2.
@normal heart
DOes +-1 divide every integer?
Yes
If a < b a,b in reals, then for n in N sufficiently large, could it be possible for any number s in N such that there exists a n that makes the following true
nb > na + s
And how would I prove that?
Example:
s = 3000, a= 5, b = 6
6(n) > 5(n) + 3000
n = 4000 satisfies as 24000 > 23000
In other words, you require that n > s/(b - a)
Oh ur right so I just choose n such that its greater than s/(b-a)
yup
Thanks lol
So, altogether... would this count as a proof?
If a,b in reals where a < b and an arbitrary s in N is chosen, then there exists n in N such that
nb > na + s
where n is chosen to be a number greater than s/(b-a) because
nb > na + s
nb - na > s
n(b - a ) > s
n > s/(b-a)
and by the archimedes property of the naturals, there exists such n in N.
Like this?
Thanks!
On a blackboard there is initally written the integer 1. If the current number on the board is x, it can be replaced by one of the following numbers: x - 5, x + 10 or 3x +1. Is it possible to reach the number by repeating these operations 2? Can this be solved using modular arithmetic? We can get to 2 from x - 5, x + 10 or 3x +1 if we can get to 7, -8 or 1/3. The last one is impossible i think.
1/3 is clearly impossible as you can only reach integers. if x is on the blackboard and y is the new number, what can y mod 5 be (depending on x mod 5)?
we have y = x - 5, x + 10 or 3x + 1 so mod 5 either y = x, or 3x + 1
we start with x=1. so at each step we can either get x again or 3x+1. what are all the possible values we can get
1 or 4?
So u want a finite nunber of steps that lead from 1 to 2 using those 3 operation. Right?
and from 4 we can get which values?
what do you mean by these operations 2?
Sorry I meant reach number 2 by these operations
wdym by getting values from 4?
So you wanna get from 1 to 2?
Yeah starting from 1 you can replace it by any one of the three numbers and the question is wether you can get to 2.
use the mod 5 method suggested above
Is it just since the values are always 1 or 4 mod 5 and never 2 we can't get to 2?
well nearly except they aren't only 1 or 4
No, but the values are always 0,1,3 or 4 mod 5
Applying the 3x+1 operation repeatedly, we get:
1 -> 4 -> 13 -> 40 -> 121
So we get all values mod 5 except 2
for fun, $f(x)=ax+b$ has a closed form for the nth iteration, $$f^n(x) = a^nx + \frac{a^n-1}{a-1}b$$
our case is $a=3$, $b=1$ and $x=1$ modulo 5, so we end up with this exponential, which can only cycle through at most 4 things, so it's impossible for it to hit all 5 remainders
merosity
Nani
Is this proof correct?? If yes then how can prove the same thing for "even" case
bro rly said nani 💀💀
if n=2m then epsilon = m mod 2, so if m is odd we're done
?
!
ah
x=y mod z means z | x-y
I feel like that's pretty terse but I'm sleepy and about to go
I dont get it quite get it.... but alr
x = y mod z means x = qz + y where q is the quotient, y the remainder
Alr
This is wrong
ouch.

oh
I see why
💀
Um
ummmm
I think um
but even then (after I edited) it doesn't show teh idea of congurence

Modular arithmetic a priori has nothing to do with remainders, too. E.g., 7 = 12 mod 5 is totally correct.
mhm
Merosity’s definition was correct, so let’s stick with that.
yea
smart
if n is divisible by a higher power of 2, just reduce modulo that power?
or
hm
yes
Alr Thanks
First n is odd and second n is even
i tried solving 3x=6 mod 10 and something about it confuses me. 3x=6 mod 10 --> x=2 mod 10 and that is the solution but notice that 3x=6 mod 10 also means by multiplying both sides by 4 that 12x = 24 mod 10 or 10x +2x = 10 + 10 +4 mod 10 simply meaning 2x= 4 mod 10 but then we could divide both sides by 2 and get x = 2 mod 5 is a solution but when putting for instance 7 which is 7=2 mod 5 it is not a solution to 3x=6 mod 10 since 3*7=21=1 mod 10 and 1=6 mod 10 is nonsense. So I am pretty confused as to why it happened i thought that the multiplication by 4 is a mistake but there is a well known statement that says if a= b mod n then ca=cb mod n.
It implies that x=2 mod 5, but that doesn’t mean x=2 mod 5 implies 3x=6 mod 10
it implies that x must be of the form x=5k+2 for some k
i know but then why would i get x = 2 mod 5 i mean while solving i used regular rules and didnt break nothing yet it looks like this solution is wrong so why would i get this solution even though its wrong
It’s a correct implication, but that’s also like saying
3x = 6
So 0x = 0 because we multiply by zero
Doesn’t mean every solution to the second is a solution to the first
But every solution to the first is a solution to the second
you multiplied by a zero divisor, and then divided it out. that's why.
3x=6 mod 10 has exactly one solution: x=2
but when you multiply by 4 (a zero divisor) you get
2x=4 mod 10, which has two solutions x=2,7
you created an extra solution because you did an uninvertible action
but i didnt multiply by 0
it's a zero divisor
4*5=0 mod 10
it's the equivalent of multiplying by a singular matrix in linear algebra
yes, and the second has more solutions than the first
I know what you mean but how come 4 is a zero divisor i mean its not like i did 3x= 6 mod 10 and then multiplyed it by 10 or 20
i multiplyed by 4
where does the 5 comes from?
It’s an example
mod 10 ofc
i did 3x*4 =12x
Right right but context clear
and 6*4=24
but x is not 5
but 7=2+5
5 going to zero is like exactly the issue you’re having
4(3(7))=4(3(2+5))=4(3(2))+3(4)(5)=4+0=4(6) mod 10
that's why you get a second solution
i mean what is wrong about doing 3x = 6 mod 10 and since 4 is not a zero divisor we can multiply both sides
that is exactly 5 above your other solution
Which part of 4 is a zero divisor are you not understanding?
a = b does imply f(a) = f(b), but not the other way around in general
i get that 4*5= 0 mod 10 but i never multiplyed it by 5
Do you know what it means to be a zero divisor?
not quite
You could have said that ages ago!
It being a zero divisor is a bit of jargon that’s pretty much summed up by this line though
An element x is a zero divisor if there exists a nonzero element y such that xy = 0.
Hence 4 is a zero divisor, since 4 * 5 = 0 mod 10
Now here's a trick:
You cannot divide by zero divisors
e.g. 4 * 0 = 0 mod 10, and 4 * 5 = 0 mod 10, so if you have 4x = 0 mod 10, you cannot conclude that x = 0 mod 10, for example.
In general if 4x = 4y mod 10, you cannot conclude that x = y mod 10.
You divided by a zero divisor!
2 is also a zero divisor, since 2*5=0 (mod 10)
so you cannot divide by it
do you guys know the book David.M.B number theory?
it's also worth noting that the zero divisors and invertible elements partition the ring. that is, an element is invertible if and only if it is not a zero divisor. and a zero divisor is any element which is not coprime to the modulus.
there is a statement here that if ca=cb mod n then a=b mod (n/d) where d=gcd(c,n)
Yes, that’s one way
Right, I see. You do get this weaker result.
it doesn’t let you go backwards
ik
but there is also a statement that if a=b mod n then ca=cb mod n
cuz if n divides a-b
We know
But you acted like it did when you brought up being confused over the additional solutions
you don't have to explain this to us.
of course it will divide c(a-b)
That’s both mod n
Not two different mods
and here $x_0=0$ is the only solution. BUT because you divided by $2$ to get to that $\bmod{5}$ equation, the general solution is
$$x=0+5t,\quad 0\leq t<2$$
nixxy nilpotent (raving lunatic)
a = b mod n does not imply, for example, that a = b mod 2n.
ik
For example 0 = 5 mod 5 but 0 =/= 5 mod 10.
giving x=0,5 to be solutions
the second statement implies that 3x= 6 mod 10 can be equal to 12x = 24 mod 10
c=4
a=3 and b = 6
Are you trolling us? It is hard for me to tell if you are joking or not.
absolutely not
It implies it yes, but it is not an “if and only if”
(-2)^2 = 2^2 after all
0*4 = 5*4 too
so what you mean is if 3x= 6 mod 10 then x=2 mod 5 but not for every x=5k+2
because its not if and only if
Yes
I mean you can literally see this explicitly, for instance with x = 7.
i know
That's k=1, if it's not clear
i did it for x=7
So you should immediately see that what you claim isn't right
i know that i could do that but i didnt quite understand why i couldnt
The original message where he mentions 7 as a problem explicitly
i did understand that x=2 mod 10 means as well that x=2 mod 5 and x=2 mod 2
and then i knew that x-7 is false
x=7
it really confused me but thanks for helping me out!
just to get it clear in order to find a solution for a congrunce i must have if and only if steps right?
if i want to get a whole answer
like an equation
you can only do invertible steps. that's a better way to phrase it
i.e. only multiply by invertible elements (i.e. not zero divisors)
Well, comparing x=2 mod 5 and x=0 mod 2 together, you do get the original x=2 mod 10
But you need both to rule out odd multiples of 5
But doing invertible steps is important
the funny thing about this is that i never get to fully understand congruences rules i mean i am learning much complicated stuff in number theory but i always have problems in congruences xd the original equation i had to solve was 4x^3=3 mod 11
(You can make my argument more general and know exactly when it works later on)
Do you know when 4*a = 1 mod 11?
i think it because once you multiply by d and if gcd(d,n)>1 n for mod n then it is a zero divisor right?
a = 1 mod 3
just a note: you can divide by a zero divisor, but you have to do this to account for all the solutions you lose by doing so
So you can multiply by 3 or 4 and keep it iff, since you can invert it
cause it ruins the uniqueness of the number in 10 divides 3x-6 once you multiply it by 4 it is obvious that 10 divides 4(3x-6) but it divides the 2 from the 10 and you get 5
if that makes sense
The product of some 48 natural numbers has exactly 10 prime divisors. Prove that among those numbers you can choose four whose product is a perfect square.
I have seen this problem somewhere and I don't think it's particularly hard but I just can't come up with a solution.
hint: a natural number is a perfect square iff all the exponents in its prime factorization are even
i think it’s still pretty tricky though

That is a pretty basic fact (that I know) but still I'm not sure how to formally do it
I just can't find a way to use the numbers 48 and 10, not sure where to even start
I'd probably try to do some kind of pigeon hole argument
it allows you to treat the exponents on each of the 10 primes in each of the 48 numbers as 0 or 1
Here's an observation: 48 choose 2 = 1128 > 1024 = 2^10 ;)
which adds an extra element of finiteness for pigeonhole principle
@analog raptor does this observation give you a hint as to where your pigeonhole argument should go?
You may need to do some casework to figure some edge cases out, fair warning.
Let me think a bit
I couldn't possibly allow that no
I know this is a good observation because 47 choose 2 < 2^10, so in fact for the argument I have in mind, 48 is the minimal example.
I understood, thanks a lot ❤️
Is 0^0 = 1 valid ?
no, at least not in general
in certain contexts, $0^0$ is defined to be $1$, eg to be able to write polynomials as $\sum_{k=0}^n a_k x^k$ instead of $a_0 + \sum_{k=1}^n a_k x^k$ and to still be valid for $x=0$
denascite
But I think it's valid in general
But still
0/0 disturbs alot
Which is kinda cannot be defined
But still I think
0^0 = 1 in general if we think differently rather than thinking x^(m - n) = (x^m)/(x^n)
Which is true if x is not equal to 0
if you want to know what "0^0" is then look at how you're defining ^ and that will tell you what it is
well at the same time, 0^x=0 for all positive x
Yeah
But I think when it comes to base and exponent both to be 0 then it kinda changes meaning. For example in terms of complex numbers exponentiation does not mean repeated multiplication but rather than it means rotating with the complex argument. So I think it's the same thing with both base and exponent to be 0 ig?
well ok but imaginary part is 0 so no rotation in sight
whoamiPwns
$e^{0\ln(0)}$
bee [it/its]
and now you run into another issue with 0*ln(0). aka 0*(-infty)
Yeah
That's what I meant
And I am thinking that it has a meaning
So we will take the reciprocal and we get 1/(e^0)
?
So it is equals 1
-infinity must mean some negative number far away from 0 on number line
So
no, infinity is not a number
ln(0) is undefined. the limit x->0 of ln(x) is -infty. you are running into all kinds of limit problems with approaches like this
limits of the form $\lim_{x\to 0} f(x)^{g(x)}$ where $f(x)\to 0$ and $g(x)\to 0$ can take on any value
denascite
depending on which f and g you choose
I know but it is considered that infinity must be a very very large number which we don't know
That's why
infinity is not a number
...no it isn't
but I am choosing f and g both to be x
which is an arbitrary choice
Yeah, if f(x) = g(x) = x then we can tell that it can be f(x)^g(x) = 1 as x->0
why not f(x)=exp(-1/x^2) and g(x)=x^2?
Then it will be 1/e
so why can't I define 0^0 to be 1/e then
But we are taking f(x) and g(x) be arbitrary
and so the limit f(x)^g(x) as x->0 (where f(x) ->0 and g(x) -> 0) can be anything
why must you take f(x)=g(x)=x and not f(x)=exp(-1/x^2), g(x)=x^2?
The point is that you cannot make a convincing argument for how 0^0 ought to be defined by considering that kind of limits, because the limit depends on exactly how the inputs converge to (0,0).
Because an identity function takes the input and spits that same input as output. And if we take some function which moves that input to different point then it will not be 1 anymore. Basically it depends what function you are taking as that limit
For example
your point is to approach 0^0, so as long as both my f and g approach 0, it should be fine, no?
Fine in which sense? Since there is one choice of f and g where the limit is 1 and another choice where the limit is 1/e, we conclude that
lim_(x,y)->(0,0) x^y cannot exist.
(This is not the same as saying 0^0 cannot have a result, mind you).
I know, I'm only rebutting @sacred junco
Sorry.
You put some number close to 0 to this. And that number close to 0 be squared and moved to some output space to some point which is even more close now. And due to its transformation it is not what it could give if we didn't have moved that input point.
so?
i know the limit is different that's the whole point
but why must you choose f(x)=x and g(x)=x?
Because it will not disturb the input point. The position of input and output will be same in input and output spaces
Try to Think functions as a way to move throughout the input and output spaces
You will know.
f(x) as an identity function will not disturb very much that point
but why is it a problem if it disturbs the input space
its an arbitrary restriction to say that you cant do it. you havent given any argument other than "I dont want it"
Your strategy to find 0^0 is by finding two functions f(x) and g(x) both converging to 0 as x approaches 0, and finding the limit f(x)^g(x) as x approaches 0. Why must you emphasize choosing f(x)=g(x)=x? In other words, why must you enforce the restriction 'not disturbing the input point'?
The reason behind this is my playful nature with this. I mean I tried to find that using a very well known logarithmic series as you know. The reason I thought to put f(x) = g(x) = x was because I stumbled over it while playing with limits and logarithmic series
Its all because I was just toying with identity function. And thought about what if we do x^x and put x to 0
Or make it approach to 0
So overall, the problem here is that you're trying to argue for a true conclusion (0^0 is usually defined to be 1) by an argument that is not convincing.
There are good reasons to define 0^0 in that way, but limits is not one of them.
But can we do it by logarithmic series
-ln(1-x) = x + (x^2)/2 + (x^3)/3 +...... Infinity
?
Because I did it by this logarithmic series only
So just asking if there is a way
By others perspective
By putting x = 1 we get a harmonic series
And by that harmonic series we can approach to the conclusion 0^0 = 1
That power series is correct, but I don't think it makes a meaningful argument either way about 0^0. It doesn't even have an x^0 term that we might need to plug x=0 into.
I know it is quite unconvincing
Very well
another fun case which is consistent with the choice $0^0=1$ is if you look at the binomial theorem, $$0^n = (1-1)^n = \sum_{k=0}^n \binom{n}{k}(-1)^k$$
When $n=0$ the sum becomes just $\binom{0}{0}=1$, when $n>0$.
merosity
But I didn't use binomial theorem for that. I just used the logarithmic series and from that I got a harmonic series, which redirected me to write this
@torn escarp
never claimed you did
I do not understand how this conversation went on for 20 more minutes after this. This is the answer.
the polynomial x*P(x)-1 has n+1 prescribed roots, allowing you to solve for P(x)
if x<y<z form a primitive Pythagorean triple and a prime p divides z then p must be of the form 4k+1 is this statement true?
!nosols
As a helper, please do not give out answers that could be copied as a homework solution. Have the student work through the problem themselves and guide them along the way.
4,5,3,3,8,3,6,9,0,7,1,5,7,7,2,9,4,9,3,1,7,7,0,7,6,6,5,4,4,1,7,0,5,6,5,5,0,3,5,2,6,1,2,6,0,8,4,8,0,8,0,4,7,8,4,3,4,4,0,2,6,6,1,3,9,1,6 next ?
Quadratic reciprocity is confusing the hell out of me. How do you deduce this
From
Did they multiply both sides of the equation by (q/p) or something?
That doesn't seem the case
It feels like black magic
yes
because (q/p) is 1 or -1, you can just multiply it on both sides and then (q/p)^2=1 on the right side
jayzsparrow
,w phi(2773)
,w factor 2005
Welp no euler throrem
159 = 21 mod 46
159 = 43 mod 58
2005 = 31 mod 47
2005 = -1 mod 59
By CRT,
x = 2005^159 = 31^21 mod 47
x = (-1)^43 mod 59 = -1 mod 59
That reduces the problem to finding 31^21 mod 47
31^3 = 40 mod 47
40^7 = 38
31^18 = 38 mod 47
so then by solving the CRT equation, we get x
I suppose 18=2^4+2^1 means you don't have to do tooooo much extra work by repeated squaring
I see
as we know, when
x = 38 [47]
x = 58 [59]
47^59 = 1 hence we find 59 = 47+12 and 4*12 = 47 + 1, hence 4*59 - 5*47 = 1
Hence x = (-1)*(-5)*47 + 38*4*59 = 9203 = 884 mod 2773
I was undeniably faster
honestly that should be in your skillset by now anyways
"Time is relative, all I rlly did was to compute it all 10cm Way from the event horizon of a black hole so as to slow time down to the point by the time I got out and returned the answer wolfram wouldn't even have computed one power"
it's subchapter 1 of chapter 1 of Knapp
Every time I hear knapp being mentioned it gives me a feeling like a sting in the ass
it's basic undergrad stuff
should be next on your list
just like linalg
except arithmetic should go first
like Knapp did
it has some advantages when tackling polynomials of endomorphisms, to really make use of the Cayley-Hamilton theorem properly
among other things
Note to all beginners: books that say ‘elementary’ or ‘basic’ do not mean that their content is easy; it means that their content is fundamental to the subject!
Also some books are just shit
soz
And I'm sure they said it accurately

Re: A course in Arithmetic
Ayo how do you simplify this: $f(x)=(2^a-1)(3^a-1)(4^a-1)...(x^a-1)\mod {m}$
aSome1gussy
Where a, m and x are integers, m is a composition of two very large primes
there's some stuff you can do but I wouldn't expect to get a cute closed form
like boil down the exponents with euler's theorem and/or use the chinese remainder theorem
might be a stretch to also try to use the lifting the exponent lemma
there's not much to show
the problem is too broad to write down a literal step like I'm describing, it'd be something you'd have to program or something but
why do you want to do this in the first place
what have you learned
do you know euler's theorem or the chinese remainder theorem or is this the first time you've heard of it
does this problem have more info
can you post a screenshot/picture of the original question
You simply cannot
<@&268886789983436800> ?
well the case a = 1 is equivalent to computing a modular factorial which is known to be hard (at least as hard as factoring, and almost certainly harder) so this doesn’t bode well for your problem
laughs in wilson theorem
heck this takes it a step further and makes it even more complicated

I did this problem just by observing that every 3rd number I was getting an even number
and then realize that 1022nd number is result of addition of an even and odd number
which gave the correct answer of 1
but I am wondering if there's some more standardized way to approach this
or there's something more I can see in it
If we look at everything mod 4, we get the sequence of remainders 1, 1, 2, 3, 1, 0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 1, 0, .. which clearly repeats every 6 terms. We have 1022 is 2 mod 6 since 6 | 102, and so f_1022 = f_2 = 1 mod 4.
This works because modular arithmetic respects addition
yeah that's kinda more straightforward than how I did it lels
how does one know how to approach it tho
You don't
I just tried something and it worked out. There is no way to tell how to prove something in general.
Before I tried to spot the mod 3 pattern, I wasted time on using the ratio and tree structures to find something lmaoooo
I certainly make dumb choices
tho
It's always a good idea to do the simplest thing first.
the ratio?
If you're using rational numbers to solve problems in modular arithmetic, something has probably gone wrong.
me: uses generating functions to set up a diffeq, expresses f_n in a closed form and then apply mod and hope something pops out
Unfortunately you can't do that with exponential generating functions. e^x mod 4 doesn't mean very much.
In any case I think even with a restricted class of ordinary generating functions where this works, you need some more theory on periodicity
yeah I should not have thought of it
Later I realized the fk I am doing
Being able to notice that is a learnable skill
I thought I'd get some cancellation and shit, but after writing it all down I realized it's not gonna get me anywhere
Euclid's Lemma: If p is a prime, then whenever p divides a product ab, p divides at least one of a, b. Prove the converse, that any natural number having this property (for any pairs a, b) must be prime
The converse is, If p divides a product ab, and p divides at least one of a, b then p is a prime
This seems like a false statement
that's not the statement they intended
they want you to prove that if p has the property that for all ab, if p divides ab, then p divides at least one of a and b; then p is prime
Hey any good YouTube channel to study Number theory? Just getting started with it
hi guys
i have heard that 0.999.... is considered exactly equal to 1
but if we do so then,
if we say
(n-1)/n =n/n (n=inf) (or 0.99.. =1)
n-1=n (multiply by inf) (could u say 1/uncountable infinity=0? no I guess 🤔)
that would be -1=0 so it should be 0.99... tending to 1?
not sure what u mean by this
but it's not limit, n is infinity here(growing infinity)
you don't "multiply by infinity"
that's... simply nonsensical. What would such a notion even mean? It's like asking what infty/infty or infty - infty is
why not
i m multiplying both sides by same infinity(n) which simply cancels out. inf/inf and inf-inf is not valid when both infinites are different . but n/n and n-n is valid since they are same.
that's not how it works
'infinity' is not something that a real number can be multiplied by, the way you have done it here
recall the definition of a limit
i wonder why not? isn't 5* inf =inf?
how do you define what kinda "infinity" you're dealing with here, and how do you "show" that they're the "same" infinity which "cancels out"?
what's "inf"? and what does it mean to multiply by it?
it should be growing infinity that is n
and it's n which is same here
what is a "growing infinity" ._.
i mean which doesn't have an end
other type would be to have an end but u can't reach it
they are same anyways i guess
infinity
what's "infinity"?
bruh
exactly
that's how bruh your question is too, since infinity literally is just "bruh" when you talk of it like that

so thats it i m just saying 0.99... is tending to 1 and can be considered 1 in our world but it should be kept in mind that it is not exactly 1
it is exactly 1
"0.999..." is exactly 1
so first things first
how do we define a number to be equal to another
does the definition "there's no other number in between them (loosely speaking)" fit well with u?
it could be any method u choose
if u wanna be rigorous abt it
by area or algebra
it can be proven by area as well bro
just like u prove 1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 ... = 2
that's geometric arguments
(wait what does it even mean for a number to tend to another number?)
but you can do it from other viewpoints
like imaging going inside number line from the left to 1
u keep on going smaller and smaller (near to 1 ) but are never able to reach exactly 1.
This isn't rigorous
going smaller and smaller
and what does it mean for a number to do this?
its obvious since there are always infinte numbers between 2 real numbers in number line
2 numbers $x$ and $y$ are considered to be equal each other if $\forall z > 0$, $|x - y| < z$ How abt this?
Kiameimon | Welt Rene (glomed)
yeah and how does it apply to 0.99... and 1
well then if we can show that no matter what z you pick 1 - 0.999.... is less than z
we are done
which... well, how abt we write 0.999 as $\lim_{n \to \infty} 1 - \frac{1}{10^n}$
Kiameimon | Welt Rene (glomed)
true but ... i didn't find anything rigorous
ok well bee probably has a more intuitive argument
time to run
well i have a different argument, idk if it's any more intuitive
so tldr, let's slap that in!
$|1 - \lim_{n \to \infty} 1 - \frac{1}{10^n}| < z$
Do you see why this is true?
When we fix some value for z, then we can always "adjust" the value of $n$ to show that it's always less than $z$
Kiameimon | Welt Rene (glomed)
if u choose 1-0.99... will be less than z (z belonging to real number )
then next u pick z to be 1-0.99... and 1-0.99.. to be less than that and well it keeps going..
...actually it doesn't really keep going
if you claim that 1-0.999... is less than itself then you've created a contradiction
but well this doesn't stop does it?
another perhaps more intuitive way is to say "there's no number in between 0.999.. and 1"
Which you can see is obv true, since well, how could there be a number x such that 0.99... < x < 1?
well we taking z to be 1-0.99..
1/(1-z)
lemme edit that
...actually can i ask
what is 0.999...? how are you defining it?
bruh u asking now
well 2 ways u can define 0.99...
(i was trying to ask them not you, i already know how you're going to define it)

there should be a channel for questions like these...
I'd believe this works? Let's see
say $z = 10^{-5}$ , so $n = 2*10^5$
so $|1- (1-\frac{1}{10^{2 \cdot 10^5}})| = 10^{-2 \cdot 10^5} < 10^{-5}$
ez
Kiameimon | Welt Rene (glomed)
Not considered
It is
The symbol 0.9999… = sum from 1 to infinity 9/10^n which is exactly 1
Indeed. An "I think I know better than mathematicians and rigorous proofs because there is no way my intuition about ambiguously defined concepts can be wrong" channel would be most welcome. Then we can isolate inane "discussions" like this from channels like #elementary-number-theory.
Questions like this from people who have no intention of being educated, and simply want to be told they are right, should not be entertained. What a waste of all your time.
Just redirect that discussion to #math-discussion when it crops up -- but do try to be polite about it; name-calling is not going to achieve anything of value.
wtf is your problem i never said I am right
this is just to discuss and increase your knowledge
i would be much happy if i can get a definite proof of this
people like you who follow every-thing they see blindly have no worth.
so stfu if you have no answer to my question
also this is convincing indeed.
As per the definition of a number by its decimal expansion, we have
$x = 0.9999\dots = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} 9 \times 10^{-n} = 9 \times 10^{-1} \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} 10^{-n} = 0.9 \frac{1}{1-\frac{1}{10}} = 0.9 \times \frac{1}{\frac{9}{10}} = \frac{9}{10} \frac{10}{9} = 1$
No debate to be had
Bezier doubt
this doesn't explain anything, you've just pushed the question about these infinitely many digits rewritten into this infinite sum but haven't explained how you get that answer, so it's not much better than saying .999... = 1 unfortunately.
I like this answer
This does assume you know the definition of the object you're talking about yes
yeah, you can't assume they know the thing you're explaining to them
One is intuitive. One is for math majors
to get on the roof of a house:
start on top of the roof
I saw that they already did all the intuitive stuff
He asked for a "definite proof", so I gave him
it's not
Obviously you can't do anything properly in math if you haven't defined things. So ofc I'm going to give a proof that uses the damn definition
the question is about an infinite sum from the get-go and not understanding how that can be equivalent to 1 because they lack an understanding of distance. Rewriting the already infinite sum in sigma notation to do your algebraic manipulation x=.999... = .9 + .099... = .9 + x/10 doesn't really fill this gap.
but I understand why this is appealing
at least we would want it to be consistent with algebra like this
Usually when people get hung up about 0.999... it's because they don't know that notation is supposed to mean a certain infinite sum. (Often they just have a vague assumption that the decimal expansion is what a real number really is). Repairing that confusion is a matter of getting them to understand that 0.999... means such-and-such limit -- after that point, actually evaluating the limit is a short and easy step.
yes true
the question would be about infinity and not 0-999.. and 1.
well lets just close this with this
but i would like to know what I did wrong here.
first thing that doesn't make sense to me that you've written is:
(n-1)/n =n/n (n=inf) (or 0.99.. =1)
why not?
isn't 1/n (n->inf)->0?
that would make it 0.9999 and so on as n tends to infinity
it is indeed true that the limit as n goes to infinity of 1/n is 0
"goes to" is doing a lot of work here
what this statement actually means is that for any positive distance ε, there is some (finite) number such that if n is bigger than that number, the distance between 1/n and 0 is less than ε
saying that n is equal to infinity is not valid, "infinity" in this context isn't really an actual thing and even if it was it's not something you can do arithmetic on
also, your conclusion, that 0.999... is "tending to" 1, doesn't make sense
the sequence 0.9, 0.99, 0.999, 0.9999, ..., does tend to 1, but "0.999..." doesn't mean that sequence, it means the limit of that sequence, which is 1
If saying I understand something because I can prove it rigorously makes me blind, then I do not want to imagine what you consider "seeing". I do not have an original answer for your question, because it was already answered about 20 times before I chimed in. I will say I am glad to see you seem to have a more open mind now. Maybe this definitely-not-#elementary-number-theory discussion can finally come to an end, after 9.9999... separate proofs of why 0.999...=1.
yes exactly i m saying the limit of the sequence is 1
and that means 0.999..., which is defined to be the limit of that sequence, is exactly equal to 1
hmm yes
@spring plume i remember struggling with this question many years ago and watching this video.
https://youtu.be/TINfzxSnnIE
Point Nine Repeating Equals One!
9.999... reasons in 9.999... minutes.
Bonus points if you can name all 9.999... lords a-leaping.
Dear YouTube, wouldn't it be nice if I could include the full script with this video? A larger character limit would not be unreasonable.
My personal website, which you might like: http://vihart.com
it basically summarizes all the arguments outlined above
ignore the video that may show up in the recommended she uploaded called "Why Every Proof that .999... = 1 is Wrong", it's an april fools video 😆
Proof by induction. Let p be fixed, and we will do induction by n. Let (n_p) denote the binomial coefficient n over p, and [n_p] the floor.
- Induction base: n=p+1 easily checks out.
- Induction hypothesis: Let the statement be true for some n>p.
- Induction step: Let us prove the statement for n+1.
3.1 p does not divide n+1: We want to prove: (n+1_p) = [n+1_p] = [n_p] (mod p). We have (n+1_p)(n-p+1) = (n_p) (n+1) = n_p (mod p) from which we can deduce what we wanted to prove.
3.2 p divides n+1: Then n=kp-1. We want to prove (n+1_p) = [n+1_p] = [n_p]+1 (mod p). We have (n+1_p) = (n_p)((n+1)/(n-p+1)) = n_p (mod p). But we also have [n_p] = [kp-1_p] = k-1 and plugging that back in the previous modular equation we get (n+1_p) = k = [n_p] + 1 (mod p) which we wanted to proof.
So, for a fixed p we proved that every n satisfies the problem, so we can just move the p along all of the prime numbers, therefore, proving the problem for all prime p, and natural numbers n.
I wanted to verify my proof since I found a different proof in my book that I got the problem from. Thanks in advance.
thanks
@patent acorn Following our conversation before, I was able to prove the converse of Euclid's Lemma
a question on the pedagogy of modular arithmetic, every time I've been taught it we begin with the definition that a is congruent to b modulo m iff m | (a-b). From what I've read this notation invented by Gauss was used to in practice to denote if two integers had the same remainder or not, which is really the core of modular arithmetic, remainders, however this fact is proved only later as Theorem. The typical definition is very confusing at first and I see no reason why we cannot instead use the much more insighful definition that a is congruent to b modulo m if they share the same remainders and then prove the fact that a is congruent to b modulo m then a-b is a multiple of m, which is a useful property in proving facts about modulo m, why isn't this the case?
this would probably be a better question for #math-pedagogy
but generally I agree. I think it's more intuitive to say
a=b mod m iff a=qm+r and b=km+r for 0≤r<m and integers q,k
Will do, thanks.
Show that the addition with rational numbers like this is well defined. How does one do that?
Show that the sum is independent of the choice of representative.
I don't quite get it.
I tried: a/b=a'/b' and c/d=c'/d' so that a*b'=a'b and cd'= c'*d. Now I tried adding but don't quite get how this does the work
You need to show that if a/b = a'/b' and c/d = c'/d', then a/b + c/d = a'/b' + c'/d'
You basically do it by expanding all the definitions
I recommend starting from the end and working back to the beginning to try to calculate everything out and then pick a new piece of paper and start writing the proof from the beginning to the end in the proper order
hello! - ive got a hw assignment on numbers, mostly just covering sets of numbers, powers and index laws, logarithms, arithmetic sequences and geometric sequences - i was just wondering if anyone had the spare time to explain a couple things to me in more detail? (:
how did you get 3780?
If x = 3780, then x = 2^2 * 3^3 * 5 * 7 in which case, what would your y be?
(note that there’s no possible way you can obtain a y that satisfies both gcd and lcm, think about why)
i thought that because the lcm has all the prime factors of both x and y, if i multiplied the gcd by the smallest prime factor then i'd end up with the smallest x that isn't the gcd (idk if this is right)
but okay so xy = lcm(x,y) * gcd(x,y), y = lcm(x,y) * gcd(x,y) / 3780 = 560290500
You’re half right, the lcm does contain all of the prime factors. Suppose that we just multiply the gcd by 2; what must the power of 2 in y be?
Here, the power of 2 in x is now 2


