#elementary-number-theory
1 messages Β· Page 4 of 1
the reason the coefficients pop out is due to the p-adic absolute value's competitivity
the edges not necessarily
it might help to show me a concrete example you're looking at and confused with
its with puiseux-series, but it should the same idea, the roots of P(y) have the valuation of 1 or -1/3 and i dont understand how exactly these values show up as the edges
I can show you how to derive the slope if that's what you want to see too
yeah sure
it has 3 roots of valuation -1/3 and one root of valuation 1
I don't know what you mean about "edges" exactly
i got the hang of how to use the polygon, i want to understand it better
like where the slope changes or the slopes themselves
maybe I should just walk through how I derive the newton polygon, maybe that helps?
sure
I take a polynomial and imagine I'm in the algebraic closure so I have all the roots
so I have say, the root x, with f(x)=0 and I see that 0 = |f(x)| = |a_nx^n + ... +a_0|
|.| is your ultrametric absolute value here
|x| = e^{- ord(x)} to be clear
so the ultrametric absolute value has a specific property that if $|c_1+c_2+\cdots+c_n|=0$ then it must be that there's an $i \ne j$ that makes $|c_i|=|c_j|$, so we can prove that real quick
Merosity
assume not, then pick the maximum $|c_i|>|c_j|$ for all $j \ne i$, then $$0=|c_1+c_2+\cdots+c_n|=|c_i| \ne 0$$
Merosity
because the strongest win properties of the ultrametric absolute value forces for |x|>|y| that |x+y|=|x|
that gave us a contradiction, so that means some |c_i|=|c_j|, we can then just use that with the terms of the polynomial
$$|a_ix^i| = |a_jx^j|$$
Merosity
rearranging this gives you the slope formula, maybe writing it in terms of the order would help
or maybe this doesn't feel deep enough to see it pop out of the algebra after this point, and that's just unsatisfying to you
I've said a lot of stuff so probably I lost you at some point too, so feel free to ask
i got this for once, i have the slope formula. maybe im just stupid and dont see it. im going to experiment a little more on paper, but you gave me a couple of ideas
thx :D
yeah, good luck, feel free to ping me if you have more questions
alright
there's more to say, you could look at Alain M. Robert's A Course in p-adic Analysis chapter 6 section 1.6 for some more info
im still a little lost.
where is the context between the slope (e.g. -3, for i=0 and j=1) and the geometric shape.
I draw the polygon as the lower half of the convex hull of the points (i, v(a_i)).
the values for i and j only work if they are "on" a line of the polygon
mainly its this part here, why must (i, v(a_i)) and (j, v(a_j)) belong to an edge of the newton polygon
@torn escarp
@wanton viper that was part of this argument here, which led to two terms being equal, you can think of the "smaller terms" are the ones that get thrown up above the newton polygon, and aren't part of the convex hull
another book to look at would be Gouvea's p-adic numbers book he goes in depth too, but
to see that the valuation lies on the newton polygon, that's all here to do with the ultrametric absolute value's properties, I think it's probably the main thing that's confusing, the fact that |a|>|b| implies |a+b|=|a| when you might suspect the weaker statements |x+y|<=|x|+|y| or |x+y|<=max(|x|,|y|), we actually get equality
i think i start to understand it now. any slope between point a and b would give me a result that equals $i \cdot v(y_0) + v(a_i) = j \cdot v(y_0) + v(a_j)$ but for the requirement that $i \cdot v(y_0) + a(a_i)$ is also the minimum for all i, the slope has to be on the edge of the polygon, where it is the steepest it could get
[Hyp] Deutschland
@torn escarp
surely the hint should contain mod 7 not mod 6??
then you get $10^4\equiv 1 \mod{7}$ and $10^100=10^{98}\times 2^2 \times 5^2$ so the power is a multiple of 4 so the answer is thursday
Max..
but i dont get why they used mod 6 in the hint
7 days means we need 7 least residues, mod 6 has only 6 least residues
hi i have a question how would one write x^2+y^2+x=c where c<0 as the sum of squares??
complete the square of x^2+x like the last problem
(x+1/2)^2+y^2-1/4=c but then the problem would be we move 1/4 to the other side and wed get (x+1/2)+y^2=c+1/4
my q is "observe that the polynomial can be represented as a sum of squares of polynomials. Conclude that the equation has no real solutions and therefore no integer solutions." so if i have -1/4 when completing the square i cant conclude that x+1/2)^2+y^2-1/4 is >0 if that makes sense
because of the -1/4
but i have no idea on any other way of making it sum of sqs?
well c+1/4 is a sum of squares so it must be >=0
so c+1/4 >=0 makes -1/4 <= c < 0, about as good as you can do
hmm but then im not sure i fully understand becuase arent we tryna make contradiction that c>=0 but we are told c<0 ==> no int sols
if c>=-1/4 it has real solutions, no amount of factoring can change that
so it a trick q?
well, is there any more information
if c is an integer that would be enough to solve it this way, but for all I know it's a rational number
since the interval [-1/4,0) contains no integers
actually I don't think that's enough, I'm distracted but
maybe there's a typo or some information you left out on accident maybe? I'm in a call right now sorry
hmm lemme show u the problem
theres no notes for this but then im thinking itd just make the 4th one also wrong
alright no worries if u in call
but yh thats the thing theres no proper notes at all on this eithr which is annoying
ok i think im just overthinking this a lot
im just gnna go with c being an integer and gna use what u sed about completing square then (x+1/2)^2+y^2>=1/4 so (x+1/2)^2+y^2-1/4 must also be >=0 if we rearrange as that works n makes sense
Thanks so much for the help and time too @torn escarp π
yeah you're welcome, glad to hear you sorted it out
Given that n=p_1*...p_t, t is even.
Could someone help me with this? Seems that the answer is 0, but I can't strictly prove it. Tried saying that sqrt n > p_1...p_t. If I prove, that there is no dividers of n between sqrt n and p_1...*p_t, then the answer is easy to get, but Its not true
do the primes need to be distinct in n? for instance, n=4=2*2 gives you mu(1)=1
Yeah, sorry for the late answer. p_i != p_j, i != j
Okey, I solved it
Note that aaβ = 1 (mod p), so 1 = (1/p) = (aaβ/p) = (a/p)(aβ/p)
Multiply both sides by (aβ/p) and use the fact that (aβ^2/p) = 1 to get the result
wait what does it mean with the parentheses
It's the Legendre symbol
[ \left(\frac{a}{p}\right) = \begin{cases}0 & \text{if } p \mid a, \ 1 & \text{if } a \text{ is a non-zero quadratic residue mod }p, \ -1 & \text{if } a \text{ is a non-zero quadratic non-residue mod }p.\end{cases}]
cvisnt this enough?
oh wait
Indeed
Once you're there, you're effectively done
[ 1 = \left(\frac{a}{p}\right)\left(\frac{a'}{p}\right) \implies \left(\frac{a'}{p}\right) = \left(\frac{a}{p}\right)\left(\frac{a'^2}{p}\right) = \left(\frac{a}{p}\right)]
oh, neat
what kind of stuff have you been learning about in class, trying to not use crazy ideas to solve this if I can help it
basically like up to this stuff
we're on pythagorean triples rn!
maybe try translating f(x-b/(2a))
idk, I think there's some easy trick to do this problem, I'm a bit busy right now and tomorrow but maybe I'll find time to think about it if no one else pops in
@dusty dragon any idea β€οΈ
that doesnt sound like number theory
try #math-discussion I guess, but what you're saying sounds wrong
maths is theory
no you don't even neet time on your axis's, for example y = 2x where x is apples and y is money, there isn't any time in this equasion
say b and d are integers, b>0, and d is fixed such that 0β€dβ€10. if b divides both d and 10-d, then what can I say about b?
If b divides d and 10 - d, then b divides 10. To see this, note that 10 - d = bk for some integer k. So 10 = d + bk = bm + bk for some integer m. In other words, 10 = b(m + k) => b | 10
Since b > 0, this means that b \in {1, 2, 5, 10}
@verbal cedar in case you still needed it
ah ofc. that's so obvious now that i see it lol
it happens lol
I sometimes forget that gcd(a, b) = d implies that d | a and d | b

is there a way to know which numbers will have a square root in a modular ring? say for Z/nZ. are there tricks that work for certain kinds of n? such as if n is prime?
I guess another way to phrase your question is to determine which numbers are quadratic residues? If x \equiv y^2 (mod n), then x has a square root y in Z_n?
what grade is this for?
as suggested by this being in the "early university" section, the main target audience of this section is university-level elementary number theory questions
but if youre a high school student and have a number theoretic question, you can ask it here
(if it doesn't fit, we'll redirect you)
factor n into powers of primes mod p^k, then you can reduce to the prime mod p and solve there, then hensel lift back up to p^k, then combine with the chinese remainder theorem.
if you're just checking if it has a square root, you just need to reduce to the prime and show that it satisfies the condition of hensel's lemma (which is a sufficient, but not necessary, there's a bit more general version of hensel's lemma that you can use)
How should I study number theory for olympiad, if I can't solve most of the problems?
I'm reading modern olympiad number theory, but the book is getting harder and harder, almost can't keep up with the pace
What does this notation mean?
It doesn't look like standard notation; card(...) is sometimes used to signify the cardinality of a set, but more context is probably needed to make out what the rest means
i would wager its meant to be the cardinality of the set of functions β β β?
usually thatd be denoted β^β, not ^β β
but same gist
help i need to solve and reduce A, B and C
Is the sieve of eratosthenes still relevant?
this is not number theory, try #prealg-and-algebra or a help channel
define "relevant"
We can use programming tools to find if a number is prime or not.
the sieve of eratosthenes is definitely not the fastest way to determine primality - its very bad at that
it also isnt a particularly fast way to determine the nth prime (the reason it exists), but it isnt that bad either
its merits are being simple and intuitive
I meant to ask if we still use it in today's world of mathematics
it is used as an example
it is not used, like, algorithmically
besides maybe in teaching intro programming students how to use loops
that said, sieves ARE used in proofs
the most famous example here is probably euler's proof of the riemann zeta primes identity
you wont find too many opportunities to prove things using the sieve of eratosthenes specifically
but sieving in general is a powerful technique in number theory
the modern "optimized" version of the sieve of eratosthenes is https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sieve_of_Atkin
That gives a lot of insights, very helpful, ty!
i say "optimized" but this is only asymptotically
for non-astronomical inputs the sieve of eratosthenes is faster
What are some nice applications of number theory other than cryptography?
Is it more inclined to being 'pure mathematics'?
it's very pure, yes.
indeed, prior to the invention of cryptography, it was seen by many mathematicians as the "purest" field
turns out that cryptography is actually very useful
and a lot of developments in number theory have inspired developments in other stuff that turn out to be useful
(one can draw a direct lineage from early analytic number theory to most of modern mathematical physics, for example)
(because it inspired a lot of the development of complex analysis and differential geometry)
but number theory itself isn't all that applicable.

also in terms of theoretical interest, the sieve of eratosthenes-legendre, which is just a formalized version used to simply count the number of primes instead of determining primality, is a good starting point into more powerful sieve methods
Guys any book recommendation to start number theory my own?
Qualifications: almost a highschool passout
did you check #books-old
i like silverman's friendly introduction to number theory
Oh I didn't, will
Thanks will check it out for sure
If I am to perform a calculation with "3-digit chopping", 22/7 becomes 3.14 or 3.142? I think it's 3.14, but I'm sanity checking myself. π
wdym by 3 digit chopping
It's out of my Numerical Analysis book. Truncation vs rounding.
oh ok nvm
How do this
Does this set notation describe all positive even numbers? If not, how is it wrong?
in order for x/2 to belong to N. x/2 must be an integer, let's say k
x/2=k, then x=2k. which is an even number as long as k is an N number
Hi there, I have a question, but I'm not sure it fits in here directly (since I'm not professionally trained), please redirect me if it isn't appropriate (trying to avoid posting in adv)! My question concerns the argument for claiming that "there aren't enough names for the reals, since countable infinite text (names) with a finite alphabet can't be mapped onto the reals (via diagonal argument)." While I see that much ink has been spilled about that already, I would like to ask for help pointing me in the right direction to answer this question. In many discussion the argument quickly changes to definability or computability. Where can I look up how to properly answer this question (possibly that giving names necessarily leads to definability) and the connection between these topics (name, model & proof theory, definability). Thanks in advance!
I think this is more a #proofs-and-logic type of thing, you might get better reception there, or they might forward you somewhere better.
@torn escarp thanks a lot!
i have to prove that this will never give me a prime number , n is Natural number
how do i do it ?
try simplifying it and factoring it
how could you factor it?
you are overthinking it if you cannot figure it out
i know it look simpel but like i have no ideas come to my head if how i should do it
what are the factors of 55?
5*11
yep
someone help
what should i do after that hhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhh
my hw
11 times something greater than 1 is not prime
yep ^-^
I also like this book, and A Book of Abstract Algebra because of the short chapters that introduce one idea at a time and exercises related to those ideas that were introduced. I'm wondering if there are other books like these two that I could learn from, but for other topics like combinatorics and such.
the question seems incomplete, you refer to 'x' but never use i
nvm i have solved it
if a man has to work 5 days in 31 days, without working 2 consecutive days, how many arrangements are possible for his days of work?
it might be easier to find the number of arrangements where the man has to work 2 consecutive days
i tried
too difficult
Think of it similar to how you would solve the problem where two people have to sit next to each other
(i.e. start by fixing the 2 consecutive days and then figure out how many arrangements you have to fit the remaining 3 days)
How can we find all positive integer solutions of the equation $2(x^3-x)=y^3-y$
Amorous aka Lucifer
is analysis number theory?
No
Try factoring both expressions and reducing modulo 6?
Idk if itβll work but just an idea
Im not able to do ,much even after this
It's an elliptic curve as verified by Sage
maybe do $2x(x^2-1)=y(y^2-1)$ and then break these up into smaller factors and use coprimality to set different factors equal to each other to get solutions?
valley
not sure if it'll work, js a thought
i have a set with two elements {a,b} and im looking for a set thats something like a hybrid between the powerset and all possible permutations of a set. id like to theoretically have all arrangements (permutations) of elements, such that:
{
{a}, {b}, all "1-element-permutations"
{a,a}, {a,b}, {b,a}, {b,b}, all 2-element-permutations
{a,a,a}, {a,a,b}, {a,b,a}, {a,b,b}, {b, a, a}, ..., "3 element permutations"
{a,a,a,a}, {a,a,a,b}, ...., "4 element permutations"
... up to k-element permutations
}
whats the mathematical operation im looking for here?
or structure?
maybe something about permutations of multisets?
thanks, i didnt find out but figured out how to implement it in python!
ah great ^-^
Idk if its correct in english but when they ask u to define a function explicitly what do they mean?
I have this problem
And they ask u to define f^-1 explicitly
And this is the solution and i didnt get why the teacher use a b c and why is he using the congruence system
Do we need like the direct image of the xβs for it to be defined explicitly is that what we should do?
Define a function explicitly means to write down the output you get explicitly , in this case we know that there is a isomorphism f^- , we just didnt write it down explicitly as opposed to f which is clearly defined as f(x+165Z)=(x+3Z,x+5Z,x+11Z) <-- (we have an explicit formula for the output in terms of x)
notice f^- is from (Z3* ,Z5* , Z11* ) to (Z165*) meaning we take 3 elements from each set (in this case we call them a+3Z ,b+5Z and c+11Z)
and send them to (x+165Z)
or more concretely f^-(a+3Z,b+5Z,c+11Z)= x+165Z , now we insert f on both sides and we get f(f^-(a+3Z,b+5Z,c+11Z))=f(x+165Z)
since f is bijective we get (a+3Z,b+5Z,c+11Z)=f(x+165Z) =(x+3Z,x+5Z,x+11Z)
notice that a+3Z=x+3Z implies a and x are in the same congruency class modulu 3 , and thats where we get x cong a (mod3)
Aw man
Thanks
That was a really good explanation
Btw i saw u like measure theory i have a class and im struggling in it can i ask u later if im stuck on something? Were just having basic stuff on it
ye of course i can try to help if i can ,altho i have started learning it not so long go lol ,currently working on outer measures and caratheodory's criterion proof
Have I done this right?
i put triple no for injective,surjective and bijective since the relation R is not a function ?
actually mbe it is functional
and surjective?
i Think its a better idea to post in #advanced-analysis , there is plenty people here more competent than me in measure theory
, but i usually do lurk on the analysis channels so ile notice if you post something that i can help with.
Alright thank you π
yoohoo
by the division algorithm, we have $n \pmod{d} = n - d \left\lfloor \frac{n}{d}\right\rfloor$
Pappa
Does anyone have a hint?
If d | (3 * 10^499), then d | (3 * 2^499 * 5^499). You can now independently choose the number of 2's, 3's, and 5's to appear in your factorisation
Thanks!
Does anyone have a hint for doing this induction? I can't figure it out
Note that $a_{n + 1} = 2^{2^{n + 1}} - 1 = (2^{2^n})^2 - 1$. This is just a difference of two squares, one of its factors being exactly $a_n$.
This may be a stupid question, but do the relative prime numbers of a number n generate the prime numbers as n tends to infinity?
for reference, it was the "kleene star" i was looking for:
In mathematical logic and computer science, the Kleene star (or Kleene operator or Kleene closure) is a unary operation, either on sets of strings or on sets of symbols or characters. In mathematics,
it is more commonly known as the free monoid construction. The application of the Kleene star to a set
V
{\...
Not really sure you mean by "generate the prime numbers"
You'll always omit all multiples of n for any n
And whenever you get an even number then only odd numbers can be coprime to it and so on
ohh cool π
Given that $\phi=\frac{1+\sqrt{5}}{2}$. Let $$n=\frac{1}{1}+\frac{1}{1+\phi}+\frac{1}{1+\phi+\phi^2}+\frac{1}{1+\phi+\phi^2+\phi^3}+\dots$$
The value of $\lfloor2n\rfloor+\lceil2n\rceil$ is $\dots$
Amorous aka Lucifer
Please anyone help
guys i am in 7th grade and i dont understand any of this help pwease
Think about bounding it somehow
Welcome
Hint π, I've seen the answer before but forgot 
iirc the general topic was determinants
if we set $f(x) = lhs - rhs$, we get $f(x) = (x-1)^2(x^4+2x^3+4x^2+2x+1)$
for the record, this could actually work
note that we must have x>0 for a solution
but then if x =/= 1, we see that (x-1)^2>0 and (x^4+2x^3+4x^2+2x+1) > 0, so f(x) > 0
so the only solution is x=1
How do you get the 2nd inequality with the quartic
x > 0 and all the terms have positive coefficients
π€
did I misread something
im thinking
right x > 0 is necessary (missed that earlier). nice one
(and yh, Q shouldve stated x in R)
so x>=0 obv has no solutions (except x=1), to show the same with x<0:
x^4+2x^3+4x^2+2x+1=(x+1)^4-2(x^3+x^2+x)=(x+1)^4-2x(x^2+x+1)
x^2+x+1>0 for Vx, but when x<0, -2x(x^2+x+1)>0, and weβre done
oh wait x>0 is necessary
Lol
Its necessary becsuse in the original equation the LHS is strictly positive.
yeah whoops
all that work for nothing lolz
Its fine
happens all the time π© sometimes i delve too deeply and miss a trivial insight
A nice tip before doing algebraic manipulations is trying to input 0 and 1
and then notice degrees
The degree on LHS is gigantic while RHS is half that
so if we know that they are equal at 1 then we can assume they dont intersect again after that.
the way i can justify this is sorta like this
we know the degree of LHS is 6 so we can say that the equation is approximately x^6+C=4x^3
it definitely simplifies the problem + provides groundwork to a potential solution
yeah how much time did you have for the problem?
i think i spent like 5 minutes on it, did it while eating breakfast
i just saw it randomly and decided to give my thoughts
but as you can see, i missed the big picture ;-;
okay maybe big picture wasn't the right phrase - i missed a simpler approach to prove that x > 0 is necessary
for what reason?
x^2y^2+x-1=3y-1?
yea lol
there are infinitely many solutions, do you want a general form or smth
yes
EzMoneyBois
yeah this is right
Why is this true $$\frac{2015^{2017} + 2^{2017} - 2017}{2017}\equiv -1 + \sum_{k = 0}^{2017}(-1)^k(-2)^{k}2^{2017 - k} \pmod{2017}$$
kappa
consider $2015^{2017}=(2017-2)^{2017}$
EzMoneyBois
@tacit heart
I think -1 from -2017/2017 and then consider the binomial formula expansion of something related to the remaining expression
Hey
Thanks
Nvm I donβt understand, could you elaborate
$2015^{2017}+2^{2017}-2017
=(2017-2)^{2017}+2^{2017}-2017
=\left(\sum_{i=0}^{2017}(2017)^i\cdot(-2)^{2017-i}\cdot\binom{2017}{i}\right)+2^{2017}-2017
=\left(\sum_{i=1}^{2017}(2017)^i\cdot(-2)^{2017-i}\cdot\binom{2017}{i}\right)+(-2)^{2017}+2^{2017}-2017$
EzMoneyBois
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
can you finish from there?
math
Yea thanks
<@&268886789983436800>
Thanks
what is the 100s digit of 44^44
you posted in the other thread. modulo 100 and you can just use eluers totient theorem to simplify
Is this from OTIS?
You were also curious about the summation so I asked. I am kn07
I'm uncomfortable with this justification for the set of rationals being countable because it can be shown that a bijection exists between the natural numbers and the grid of p/q for all p, q in the integers
Namely, if there's redundancy in this construction, how is there a bijection?
lol like believe they're countable ... but this argument with the redundancies has me feeling π
you could say that the above shows Zx(Z/{0}) is countable, and you can construct Q to be a set of equivalence classes of Zx(Z/{0}) for the relation (n,m) ~ (p,q) <=> mq = np, and so should also be countable
well the above actually shows NxN is countable, but you could build the same argument for Zx(Z/{0}) im sure
sorry for being slow to respond, im still relatively new to a lot of this jargon so brb as i figure out what equivalence classes are lol
it's essentially saying "get rid of all the redundancies" like 1/2 and 2/4
the idea is that Q will then be a "subset" of Zx(Z/{0}), and since we showed Zx(Z/{0}) is countable, Q must be as well
ah thanks for the high level strategy
note that the construction of Q above is not actually a subset of Zx(Z/{0}), but it's... isomorphic (to a subset)?
I suppose one way to think of it is, since N is in Q you have |N| <= |Q|, but this picture shows |Q| <= |N| so putting those together |N|=|Q|
@flint ivy i didn't know where to put this since the channel closed but for your problem here i was thinking of completing the square twice to rewrite it as 6(4x+1)^2 - (12y+2)^2 = 2, then this is almost an equation of form 6a^2 - b^2 = 2
and if you know pell equation stuff that can be solved
but the solutions will still be pretty complicated
and only describing the ones with a = 1 mod 4 and b = 2 mod 12 i think will make it even more complicated π₯Ή
I mean (a,b) = (1,2) is a solution
the rest of the solutions for (a,b) you can find by multiplying (sqrt(6)+2) by some powers of the fundamental unit in Z[sqrt(6)] as in normal Pell equation theory; I think the fundamental solution is (a,b) = (2,5)
if you actually write out what your solutions for (a,b) are, then you're going to get some recurrences to generate your solutions. to add congruence conditions on (a,b) to solve for (x,y), one should be able to "solve these recurrences" modulo an integer because they're periodic modulo any integer, so you can just pick out the indices you want
this is probably not the most efficient way to solve this, but it'll work
I mean you can just jump over any repeated numbers. f(1)=1/1, f(2)=2/1, f(3)=1/2, f(4)=1/3 and then f(5)=3/1. you'll obviously still hit all of them
Hello, I am not formally trained in math. Is there a name for generating all of the factors of a given number based on that number's prime factors?
well no?
there's no short equivalent for "generating all of the factors of a given number based on that number's prime factors"
Thanks, not necessarily a shortcut, but just a name for the process.
that's what i mean?
there's no other way to say it
well, you're looking for a powerset of a multiset, but it's barely a synonym
Is there a formal name for the field created by taking the remainder of an irreducible polynomial in another field? More formally, the field $\mathbb{G}=\mathbb{F}[x]/p$ where $p(x)$ is an irreducible polynomial in $\mathbb{F}[x]$.
TheUnTamed
Yes, the sometimes-used name for the specific construction where we quotient out by the ideal generated by an irreducible polynomial is called Kronecker's construction.
These days I don't think people would think of it as any more special than any other quotient of a ring. (except of course that it is a maximal ideal)
Thanks!
And this is my work
The result is weird
I tried to use fermat's little theorem
I factorised 5642 into something Γ16
Which is 17-1
Idk if its the right way
But at the end I found that the remainder is 0
there's a trick for divisibility by 4 by checking the last two digits is divisible by 4, since 5642 = 56*100 + 42 we know 100 is divisible by 4, but 42 is not divisible by 4. That means you have made some mistake here at least.
I found that 5642= 352Γ16+10
And 1035125 is congruent 12 mod 17
So I tried to use the fermat's little theorem
But I think it doesn't work here
What are power sets and multisets ?
Not sure this goes here but is anyone aware of why you couldnβt take a harmonic mean of any real numbers that arenβt zero as long as the sums dont cancel out?
my fav proof that q has the same cardinality as n uses the cailkin wilf tree (i spelled that wrong!) because it's v pretty
oh fuck i js looked it up i was rly close to the name
seems like the wrong channel, also should be no reason that wouldn't work. Might be easier to say if you describe what you're actually looking at though.
Yea wasnβt sure if this actually had some more complex to do with it? Just looking at hippocampus volume rates over time
well, what's the specific problem you're running into
the only reason you'd be unable to do it is if you're dividing by 0
I think usually the values are positive in order to be meaningful, so I don't think that should be an issue in practice
Ok just wanted to see if I was going crazy every βblogβ/se question was like you canβt use negative numbers and I couldnβt see a good reason for it in an interpretation level
you should have just asked this from the start
hi uh what's pell's equation?
it's just a type of diophantine equation
so what i was trying to say was your equation is almost of that form
after some manipulation
and also you probably can't get around doing something like this, the solutions to your equation look like pell equation solutions
yep ^-^
Does anyone have a hint for c? I can't find a pattern/integers for which the statement should hold
odd+even is odd
show that it's 0 mod 2, mod 3, and mod 7 individually, since 42=2*3*7
ye so I wanted to do it using CRT but we're technically not 'at' that point yet, so I want to see how to solve this without CRT
This isnβt really crt
Think of it as 2, 3, 7 all divide the number, hence since these are distinct primes, x_n is a multiple of 42
If you donβt believe that try to show that if a | n and b | n where a, b are coprime then ab | n
what makes a equation diophantine?
Restrict solutions to Z and you have a diophantine equation
ah okay
Thus it's diophantine if you make it diophantine 
huh I wonder if there's a diophantine analogue for differential equations, I guess you cant since you dont really have an analogue of Z for a frechet space 
Wouldn't it be more accurate to call the solutions diophantine rather than the equation? because it's just any algebraic equation no?
diophantine solutions 
You mean discrete analog?
no like diophantine differential equations
but I guess you cant really have those (or rather that doesnt really make sense)
Does anyone have their own set of rules when it comes to numerical notation?
how do I show that ${2^n \choose j}$ for $1 \leq j \leq 2^n$ is divisible by $2$?
pure for president
One thing you can do is consider $(x+1)^{2^n}$ modulo 2
Music major
Now expand this using the fact that youβre in modulo 2, and expand it using binomial theorem
Here is a combinatorial proof:
${2^{n} \choose j}$ counts the number of ways of choosing j subsets of an n element set. For each such choice there is a complementary choice of j subsets by choosing the complements of each set. This mapping shows that the number is divisible by two.
chmonkeynumber1fan
What if you have A B where A B are disjoint and union to the n elements, then the mapping will not give you a different collection of subsets though
(you can find a few proofs of a stronger statement here: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lucas's_theorem. there is also a proof by bashing everything out with computations of nu_p(n!), if I remember correctly)
(in particular, there is a combinatorial proof there)
(this should've been j < 2^n btw)
this seems kinda ironic to me lol
cuz what I'm tryna do is show that $x^{2^n} + 1$ is irreducible in $\bZ[x]$
pure for president
I used eisenstein's criterion and am almost done but just have to show that this holds
but yeah can't I just do this lol
,, {2^n \choose j} = \frac{(2^n)!}{j!(2^n - j)!} = \frac{2^n (2^n - 1)!}{j!(2^n - j)!} = 2 \frac{2^{n - 1} (2^n - 1)!}{j!(2^n - j)!}
pure for president
Ok so what you do is, notice that $(x+y)^2\equiv x^2+y^2\pmod{2}$, so $(x+1)^{2^n}\equiv x^{2^n}+1\pmod{2}$. Then by binomial theorem, $(x+1)^{2^n}=\sum_{i=0}^{2^n}\binom{2^n}{i}x^i$, so $x^{2^n}+1\equiv \sum_{i=0}^{2^n}\binom{2^n}{i}x^i\pmod{2}$, by comparing coefficients you see that $\binom{2^n}{i}\equiv0\pmod{2}$ when $1\leq i\leq 2^n-1$
Whoever
is this wrong tho?
you should explain why the number of powers of 2 in your numerator is at least in the denominator
namely, for 2^{n-1}(2^n-1)! / (j! * (2^n-j)!)
wut?
namely, why is this an integer
Nice method whoever
Thx potato
nice indeed 
$$(1+x)^{z+p^n} = (1+x)^z (1+x^{p^n})$$
Compare coefficients on the binomial expansion of $x^i$ for $i<p^n$
$$\binom{z+p^n}{i} = \binom{z}{i} \mod p$$
It's periodic with period $p^n$, take $z=0$ for the special case.
Merosity
Ohh ok
extra credit: show this forms a basis for p^n periodic maps
extra extra credit: prove Mahler's theorem
Ok buddy
Tbh this just feels like a corollary of lucas
Mahler series are kind of an analogy for fourier series in the p-adics
yeah you might be right, if I recall lucas's thm is the same except you decompose the number into base p so that all the digits come out, which is more of a hassle
like the same in terms of doing it by generating functions
the first is asking for the sum of the divisors whilst the second one is asking for the number of divisors.
$3718 = 2^1 x 11^1 x 13^12$
thats it's canonical form
so the second equation J(3718) it is [multiplication notation] (a_i+1)
from i=1 to r
so what I got was (a_1+1)(a_2+1)(a_3+1)(a_4+1)(a_5+1)(a_6+1) = (1+1)(0+1)(0+1)(0+1)(1+1)(2+1)= (4)(3)=12
am i correcr?
$3718 = (2^1)(11^1)(13^2)$
jayz
This is its canonical form, and by the formula that tells us the number of divisors
jayz
I got 12 is my anwser correct?
may i please get some help with this?
Hint: the first and last number are of opposite parity
so one of those expressions has to be 2?
Exactlyπ
How to find relative distance from 8
Hi!
(it is in French, sry), question (1), I need to prove that U with multiplication of complex numbers is a finite group (hope it is the right term)
I did something but I'm stuck to prove that U is a finite set.
z^n = 1 can be written like this: exp( 2k*i*pi /n), for all 0 <= k <= n-1
do you know the fundamental theorem of algebra every polynomial of degree n with complex coefficient have exactly n roots
z^n - 1 = 0 has n solutions
$e^{\frac{2k\pi}{n}}, 0\leq k\leq n-1 $ the number of elements in that group is the number of k values ${0,1,\cdots,n-1}$
Amer
Yes, I saw it during my first year of university
So, do I need to say something like that?
| U | = n, because [insert fundamental theorem of algebra]
=> U is a finite set => (U, x) is a finite group
After saying it is a finite set show it is a group with multiplication
If you multiply any two elements in U it shoud stay there
And it has the identity element
Got it!
How can I see that $\sum _{n=1}^\infty\frac{\mu (n) d(n)}{n^s }=\prod _p (1- \frac{2 }{p^s})$?
bert
I'd not say it's Gauss lemma, more just a general algebraic thing
Not sure how much algebra you know, but the point is that the map Z -> Z/pZ gives us a map Z[x] -> (Z/pZ)[x]
(These are both ring homomorphisms - that is, they are compatible with addition and multiplication (and send 1 to 1 etc))
I try to think backwards from any given n, what terms contribute to it from the product? In particular if n is not squarefree, then it won't appear in the sum as we expect since mu(n)=0. So now suppose that n is squarefree. You get a -2 for each prime factor, the -1 is what you normally see in the mobius function and the 2 is the same as counting that 1 and p are prime factors.
I feel like there's a simpler statement, like: suppose f has no root mod n, but f has a root r in Z. Since f(r)=0, then f(r)=0 mod n, contradiction.
Logic
Okay, so another way of saying this is that evaluating a polynomial and then taking it mod p is equivalent to taking it mod p and evaluating
So if f in Z[x] has a root, so does its image in (Z/pZ)[x]
Your phi is not well defined at x=0
also like saying `x' there means like
this just is the polynomial 1
that isn't a polynomial with integer coefficients
also like you are using Ο as like a function Z -> Z or something there in that last line, when it maps polynomials to polynomials
Like Ο has a given description (reduction mod n)
Well what you've said is a bit vague
You seem to be using Ο to mean two different things
Okay sure
So okay you seem to mean like
a polynomial p where p(0) = 0 and p(a) = 1 for all non-zero a, right?
and no such polynomial p exists
Where does that come from
But yes, that cannot be a homomorphism
Okay sure so there is more detail and it's from this
I'll make it more explicit lol
Okay so we have a map $\phi: \mathbb Z \to \mathbb Z/n\mathbb Z$ which is reduction mod $n$ and this induces a map $\bar \phi: \mathbb Z[x] \to (\mathbb Z/n\mathbb Z)[x]$. Then for any $a \in \mathbb Z$ and $f \in \Z[x]$, $\bar \phi(f)(\phi(a)) = \phi(f(a))$
potato
okay oops i've used phi and bar interchangeably to mean reduction mod n
potato
Compile Error! Click the
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(You may edit your message to recompile.)
but it becomes a pain writing it all out like this lol
but yes tl;dr evaluation and reduction mod n "commute" in the relevant sense
It isn't in textbooks?
That's not quite the same thing though
That's a stronger result, since a polynomial factoring doesn't necessary mean it has a root
Like a quartic factoring into two irreducible quadratics
Yeah
Nobody would write it like what I said though lol
but i wasn't sure if you were confused about like making it fully explicit
it means anything that doesn't require graduate level understanding about there but the line is fuzzy
Hi, I have a question: assuming G, a group and H, a subset of G
To prove that H is a subgroup of G.
Which way "is mostly better" than other one?
-> definition of subgroup
-> Subgroup theorem (Idk how to spell this theorem but you know what I meant)
When it is easy to show a-b is an element of the H I will do it but sometimes it is hard to verify that so i would show using the long way
Tbh usually easiest to just use the definition in my experience
okay! ty both for your review
is there a way to write the sum of the first n odd numbers in summation notation ?
yea that's the general form of every odd number
but if I wanted to write it in summation notation this wouldn't mean that
$\sum_{k=1}^n (2k+1) = (1 + 3 + \cdots + [2n+1])$
Amer
ok so I'm trying to prove that the sum of the first n odd numbers adds up to n^2
when using the sum of [2k + 1] I get (n + 1)^2
but when using [2k - 1] I get n^2
actually nvm I think I get what's wrong
I guess both are the general form of odd numbers
but one gives the odd number a[k] and the other gives the odd number a[k + 1]
Hey guys can someone explain how in fermats little theorem, How is a^p β‘ a (modp), simplified to a^(p-1) β‘ 1 (modp)
so getting (n + 1)^2 makes sense since we have an extra odd number in the sum
nvm i figured it out
Could someone please help me out with the following question?
Let S={x>1: lim(n->β) frac(x^n)=0} where frac(x) is the fractional part of x. Determine the cardinality of S.
Apologies for the poor formatting.
S β β, if this was not clear from the question.
The cardinality is infinite since all integers greater than 1 are in it
It is quite trivial to observe that S is infinite. I was asking how to determine whether it is countable or uncountable.
Here's my proof that the only rationals in π are the integers. Let π₯ > 1, π₯ = π + π where π β β€, π = frac(π₯) β (0, 1). Let's assume π₯ β π,
Given an π>0, we can find π such that β n > π, frac(xβΏ)< π.
Let π > π, we have frac(π₯α΅) < π. Let xα΅ = π + frac(π₯α΅), where π β β€.
frac(π₯α΅βΊΒΉ) = frac( (π + frac(π₯α΅)) (π + π) ) = frac( ππ + (π + π) frac(xα΅) + ππ ) = frac((π + π) frac(π₯α΅) + ππ) = frac((π + π) frac(π₯α΅) + frac(ππ))
where the last equality comes from the observation that frac(πΌ + π½) = frac(πΌ + frac(π½)).
If π β β with denominator π, then frac(ππ) β {1/π, 2/π, 3/π... π-1 / π} ,
We can make π smaller than 1/π.
We can also make π small such that (π + π) frac(π₯α΅) is smaller than 1/π, such that 1/π < (π + π) frac(π₯α΅) + frac(ππ) < 1, and thus frac((π + π) frac(π₯α΅) + frac(ππ)) > 1/π.
But this is contradicts the assumption that frac(π₯α΅βΊΒΉ) < π < 1/π.
I tried 
My guess is that the irrationals are also not in π, and thus π is just the set of all positive integers.
if x is an irrational, and it was in S π₯΄ nvm
lim(x^n) in Z
lim(x^{n-1})x in Z
but thats false as integer times irrational is irrational
this should work
If x is in S, then the limit (n->β) (x^n) does not exist
are you an engineering or physics major...? /joking /sorry
Thanks, I'll read through this.
This follows easily from the fact that x>1 βx β S
Where does the statement, "Given an Ο΅>0, we can find N such that..." come from?
Other than that, the proof seems to be valid.
However, I am not so sure about the validity of this guess, as I do remember reading in some text about the existence of a class of irrational numbers satisfying the property mentioned in the problem.
I made a typo on the first line, corrected: it's from the assumption π₯ β π, i.e. lim frac(π₯βΏ) β 0.
did you read this?
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/453673/fractional-part-of-rational-power-arbitrary-small
and this
https://mathworld.wolfram.com/PowerFractionalParts.html
Two interesting irrationals seem to be the golden ratio π and the irrational 1 + β2, which have accumulation points 0 and 1 and thus are not elements of π
I think that ${a^n}$ (where ${x}$ is $x \pmod 1$), where $a$ is fixed rational greater than 1 and $n$ is positive integer, is dense in $[0,1]$ is unsolved. However what about ${a^n}$ is arbit...
Hardy and Littlewood (1914) proved that the sequence {frac(x^n)}, where frac(x) is the fractional part, is equidistributed for almost all real numbers x>1 (i.e., the exceptional set has Lebesgue measure zero). Exceptional numbers include the positive integers, the silver ratio 1+sqrt(2) (Finch 2003), and the golden ratio phi. The plots above ill...
Oh ok, makes sense. Thanks.
No, I haven't read these yet. Thanks
@loud maple I just realized the stackexchange question asked exactly the same thing as what I tried to prove.
I just typeset everything in a neater way and posted my answer there, if you want for future reference
https://math.stackexchange.com/a/4596429/1129672
cool q
hellow can you help me for this please, How to show that if a prime number different from 2 and 3 then it is congruent to 1 or -1 modulo 6, thanks
Let π be a prime > 3, if π = 5 we see it's congruent to 1. So consider π > 6, π = 6π + π for some π > 1, π β {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5}. π β 0 because 6π + 0 = 2(3π) is not a prime. π β 2 because 6π + 2 = 2(3π + 1) is not a prime. π β 3 because 6π + 3 = 3(π + 1) is not a prime. π β 4 because 6π+4 = 2(3π + 2) is not a prime. Thus π = 1 or π = 5. Thus π is congruent to 1 or 5. Note that 5 is congruent to -1 mod 6, so we can also say that π is congruent to 1 or -1.
Also note the converse is not true: 25 is congruent to 1 mod 6, but 25 is not a prime.
thank you for your help but I have to find a form pn +K or not
No. to say π is congruent to π mod 6 means π = 6 π + π for some π β β€, π β {0,1,2,3,4,5}.
4 options of π can be readily eliminated because for example 6π + 0 always has divisor 2, which makes it unable to be prime. 6π + 2 = 2(3π +1) always has divisor 2 too. 6π + 3 = 3(2π + 1) always has divisor 3...
Nice, thanks.
Yeah
person2709505
Sorry, that should be "knowing 2003 and 10 are relatively prime"
My first thought was that this looks like Euclid's lemma, but that definitely isn't right
Or rather, the book I'm reading seems to suggest it follows without knowing that 2003 is prime
Test for divisibility by the factors of 10.
it is more generally true that given gcd(a,b) = 1, if a | kb, then a | k
this is an application of Bezout's lemma
Oh oops I didn't know that, thanks!
As far as I can see, this shows 10 doesn't divide 2003, which is implied by gcd(10, 2003)=1
Oh, I think I misread the question altogether. If my response was a little off the mark or seemed non sequitur, that's why. Sorry. 
Oh got it, no worries
i want to double check that the following function is an isomorphism
j : ZΓZβZΓZ, j(a, b) = (βb, a)
What will happen if Carmichael numbers were accidentally used in one or both of the $p, q$ pair that are used to form $N = pq$?
rngwn
Note: Carmichael numbers are composite numbers that passes the Fermat's test on all of its coprimes smaller than itself.
This is not true. For example, a=20, b=9, then q=2 and r=2, but gcd(a,b)=1 while gcd(a,r)=2. It is true, however, that gcd(a,b) always divides r.
you might want gcd(a,b) = gcd(b,r), which is true
Hello!
I am unsure what $\mathbb{Z}_n$ means in the context of number theory.
trololol !
It probably means the integers modulo n
apply it again, j^2(a,b) = (-a,-b) then it's obvious if you do it 2 more times you get j^4(a,b)=(a,b) so j^3 is the inverse of j, which proves it's an isomorphism.
Z/nZ
so essentially the set containing every number that has remainder 0 when you divide by n (the set [0]), the set containing every number that has remainder 1 when you divide by n (the set [1]), and so on until you reach the set containing every number that has remainder n-1 when you divide by n (the set [n-1]), all of those sets are contained with in Z_n or Z/nZ
anyone know how youd go about proving this?
I might try writing x^p = 1 + mn
so what exactly would going through with that contradict?
look at the gcd, it's larger than 1 and divides x and n and try to apply that to this equation x^p = 1 +mn
thanks
thanks
Does β(1/Ο(n))Β² converge or diverge, where Ο is the Euler totient function, and the sum is taken over all integers nβ₯1?
there are an infinite number of numbers n for which totient(n) = 1, so it trivially diverges
@loud maple
wait, no
i'm a fool
i got it the wrong way round lol
infinite number of numbers n for which totient(n) = n-1
ok
ok well we can still look at it like this
consider 2n, then this has like n numbers which are not relatively prime to it, approximately
hmmmmm
ok this is actually interesting
ok so for even numbers it's basically like sum over 1/n^2 which converges
and then for odd numbers it should be less than sum over 1/n^2 because we should expect odd numbers to have fewer factors than even numbers
so overall it should converge i think
like, odd numbers have less factors, so more numbers below them are coprime to them, so totient(n) is larger, so 1/totient(n) is smaller
It is quite reasonable to guess that it converges, that was my guess too, but I don't know how to even start a proof of this claim.
oh, i've got something
We need to demonstrate some nontrivial lower bounds for Ο(n) in order to be able to proceed, I guess. The only lower bound I know is Ο(n)β₯(0.5Γβn)
ok so let (1/totient(n)) be p(n), and then the series is sum from n = 1 to infinity over p(n)^2
then when n = 2k, p(n) < 1/k
i think
1/k is divergent anyway
Being less than a divergent series doesn't help to prove anything
so it's 1/k^2
there
or ok no i'll bake it into the p(n)
ok so
let f(n) = (1/totient(n))^2
then the series is just sum from n = 1 to infinity over f(n)
then when n = 2k, it will share a factor with at least all the even numbers below it, so totient(n) =< n
wait
ok that's worthless
i got it flipped originally is my problem
i always get it flipped, pain
I tried searching math stack exchange for this, couldn't find anything.
Is the convergence/divergence of this series a well-known result?
idk
i don't know the well-known results
ok
wait
if n = 2^k, n shares a factor with at most 2^(k-1) numbers below it; the even numbers
so t(n) = 2^(k-1)
n=2^k implies Ο(n)=n/2
sure
so f(n) = 1/2^k
so summing over k, we get just 1
if we exclude n = 1
like, all the powers of 2
What does the evaluation of this series at a proper subset of the natural numbers tell us about the entire series?
What can we conclude from this?
so now here's my trick
let's do the same for all the primes
all the prime powers
disjoint subsets of the naturals
and i pray it will diverge
maybe? maaaybe?
hmm
actually maybe it could work for composite powers as well
This converges if we sum it over all primes
ok so for general powers, n = a^k, a a constant:
n shares a factor with at least a^(k-1) factors below it, all the multiples of a
so t(n) < a^k - a^(k-1)
so f(n) > 1/(a^k - a^(k-1))^2 = a^-2(k-1) * 1/(a-1)^2
wow this is tiny
yeah
hm
well we expect it to converge anyway
i guess?
What is the conclusion here?
the conclusion is that this will not diverge
By giving a lower bound how can one show that something doesn't diverge?
well the sum over the lower bounds doesn't diverge, to be precise
so we can't show that the actual series will diverge
it's a bad lower bound, is what i mean
Right
Would this question be more appropriate for the advanced number theory channel?
man idk what goes on in there
I thought what I was asking was some trivial, well-known result that everyone would know except me because I'm a dum dum
it's not the most fundamental hypothesis to consider
that said maybe it is well-known and i just also don't know it by coincidence, hell if i know
Farewell it is, then. I leave for the advanced channel, wish me luck for my journey.
you arenβt alone
luck!
my turn to ask a trivial well known question
Any question I look at I just assume that it is high-school level, around 9th grade. Irrespective of what it is.
how would i go about showing 2^n is not congruent to 98 mod 100
for what n?
write out all of them until they start repeating π
for all n
yup
howβd you get there
just take mod 4 of both
i mean it's like
98 mod 4 is 2
For n>1, 2^n is 0 mod 4, trivial to check. Leaving the case n=1, which is 2 mod 100 and not 98 mod 100
surely iβd go about proving the first part of the statement with induction right
100k+98=4(25k+16)+2
Hence numbers of this form are not multiples of 4, which means they cannot be powers of 2 that are β₯4. And then you check that 2 is not 98 mod 100
okay that part makes sense
Number theory is taught thoroughly to high schoolers in the US right? I heard that it is a standard course offered in high schools over there that basically everyone deals with around grade 9 or 10.
LOL iβm in my senior year of college and havnt had a formal course in NT
Are you a math major?
yes
that sounds like a lie
Ohk, so I'm assuming you didn't do it in high school either?
My intention wasn't to lie, I'm sorry. Maybe the person who told me this was not reliable.
Algebra 1 and 2? Is that linear algebra and abstract algebra?
LOL gosh no
ok so
bro what did you learn in highschool
high school is for teenagers
i think you're thinking of university
or college
i think?
I know very well what high school and college are, lol
although algebra 1 does has system of equations
honestly i'm not even american
I just heard from someone that US students do all this in high school
but yeah there is no abstract algebra going on in high school
Nothing at all, unfortunately .
High school was just coordinate geometry (2D: conic sections and all that, 3D: basic stuff with lines and planes and stuff), basic computational (non proof-based) stuff involving vectors, matrices, determinants, then trigonometry and results involving triangles,calculus(very basic integral and differential calculus, not even convergence and multivariate stuff) and then some stuff involving permutations, combinations and probability
yes that sounds exactly the same as what would be expected in us afaik
i agree
Entrance exam prep sucked the soul out of me. Couldn't even do proper math
i didnβt see any matrices and determinants though
but all the other stuff i saw
does this make sense
Yeah, proof is valid.
looks good
i feel like my proof writing is terrible but the math is right thanks to you two
maybe i should show 2^n is congruent to 0 mod for for all n > 1
even though thatβs obvious
Also write why 98 mod 100 implies 2 mod 4
i mean donβt you just apply mod 4 to 98
I assume that points would be deducted for an incomplete proof right?
yeah absolutely
The question itself was trivial, but we can't just write 'trivial' can we, if we want credit
i left it as an exercise to the grader one time but she didnβt like that
If only we could
was it not as simple as taking 98 mod 4 though
No
iβm gonna be honest i didnβt know you could reduce linear congruences like that
Because if it was 98 mod x, where x is not a multiple of 4, then we can't proceed simply by doing this
but if we want to reduce 98 mod x where x is a multiple of y, we can
it's like
yeah
x = 98 mod 100 only if x = 2 mod 4
idk
i can't explain this stuff simply any more lol
so i should say something like
since 100 is a multiple of 4, we take the congruence module 4 leaving us with 2^n ect
Just write 100k+98 = 4(25k+16)+2
oh yes thatβs what you did
Which implies that 98 mod 100 implies 2 mod 4
ok so because phi(ab) = phi(a)phi(b), we essentially get that the series is:
1 + 1/phi(2)^2 + 1/phi(3)^2 + 1/phi(2)^4 + 1/phi(2)^5 + 1/phi(2)^2 * phi(2)^3 + 1/phi(7)^2 + ...
which is like 1 + a + b + a^2 + c + ab + d + ...
Only when a and b are relatively prime
This can't be an open problem though, right? It would have been much more famous if it was, I guess.
The result is probably sitting somewhere in an analytic number theory text.
yes
what function are you using as phi
Unfortunately I haven't even started with analytic number theory.
ok so excluding all the numbers such that the prime factorisation contains a power greater than 1:
(so excluding 4, 8, 9, 12, etc.)
the series is like 1 + 1/phi(2)^2 + 1/phi(3)^2 + 1/phi(2)^5 + 1/phi(2)^2 * phi(2)^3 + 1/phi(7)^2 + 1/phi(2)^2 * phi(2)^5 + ...
which is like 1 + a + b + c + ab + d^2 + ac +...
rearranging to 1 + ((a + ab + ac + abc + ...) + (b + bc + bd + bcd...) +
= 1 + a(1 + b + c + bc ...) + b(1 + c + d + cd + ...) +...
i think this rearrangement is legitimate because if it's convergent it's clearly absolutely convergent
we want to show it diverges though since we're missing terms
And? What does this rearrangement give us?
The series converges
Yup, thanks to Ramanujan.
i have literally no idea how to even start doing this
like where do formal derivatives even fit in
if you take the derivative of $m(x)^2$ and of $f(x)$ is it true that $m'(x)^2 | f(x)$?
failingphysics
so hereβs what I have so far
if m^2 | f then there exists an n: f = m^2n
my thought is that if I take the formal derivative of both sides
then because m is nonconstant the degree of fβ will not equal the degree of (m^2n)β
but I just did that and it doesnβt seem to hold up
<@&286206848099549185> sorry to ping but I gotta finish this hw tonight so I am a little panicked
If you take the derivative you get that m divides 1
@sleek onyx
$f(x)$ has a multiple factor iff $f'(x)$ has the same factor, for instance $f(x)=g(x)^n h(x)$ for $n>1$ you have $$f'(x)=ng(x)^{n-1}g'(x)+g(x)^nh'(x) = g(x)^{n-1}(ng(x)^{n-2}g'(x)+h'(x))$$
mOwOsity
but we can factor $m$ out of both terms of the formal derivative no?
failingphysics
like if $f = m^2n$ then $f' = 2mm'n + m^2n' = m(2m'n + mn')$
failingphysics
so how do we get that $m$ divides 1? or what is the contradiction here?
failingphysics
f'(x) is also $p^n x^{p^n-1} -1=-1$
Drake
Since we are in (Z/p)[x]
ahh ok
but $2mm'n + m^2n' = m(2m'n + mn')$ is not constant because none of those terms is guaranteed to be a multiple of a prime number?
failingphysics
This is the set of all polynomials where the coefficients are from Z/p
What are partial sums of 1/n^2
$$\sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{k^2} = \frac{\pi^2}{6}-\sum_{k=n+1}^\infty \frac{1}{k^2}$$
also can do a little work with either abel summation or approximating the sum as an integral to get something in terms of big O
mOwOsity
lol
take it up with the analytic number theorists, this is the best they could come up with, I'm just the messenger
what do you want to talk about
sure I'm free now
Where
@torn escarp So I think I could prove this
I was only interested in the case p=5, but I think these exact statements also hold for p any prime and 4 replaced with p-1
Also, I mention k>=3 because when k=2 you kind of have to treat it separately (because then 5^(k-2) is simply one and k-2=0), so its kinda annoying, but it is also true for k=2 and I guess for k=1, but these are no problem
Not entirely sure, but my main interest was in the case p=5, as I said. Tho to extend it to any prime p, you would need to prove some results that generalize the fact that the numerator of 1+1/2+...+1/(p-1) is divisible by p^2 and other facts that do not seem too intimidating, tho I wont try
In particular, if it were true for any prime p, then for n>= p^3 the denominator of H_n would be divisible by p, so this would yield another proof of the infinitude of primes xD
Let (n+1) is composite. Then there are natural numbers p, q such that 1 < p, q < n+1 and n+1 = pq.
Now p, q<n
Here, how can we derive p,q<n? Is it because n can't divide (n+1) so automatically none of p, q can be equal to n?
Let p=n
Then q=1+(1/n)
Since 1+(1/n) is a natural number, n=1.
This implies than n+1=2, which is not composite.
How can you quickly compute 2^103 (mod 1000) ?
= (2^100 * 2^3) mod 1000
= ((2^10)^10 * 8) mod 1000
= (1024^10 * 8) mod 1000
= (24^10 * 8) mod 1000
= (3^10 * 2^10 * 2^10 * 2^10 * 8) mod 1000
= (3^10 * 1024 * 1024 * 1024 * 8) mod 1000
= (3^10 * 1024^3 * 8) mod 1000
= (3^10 * 24^3 * 8) mod 1000
= (59049 * 24^3 * 8) mod 1000
= (49 * 24^3 * 8) mod 1000
= (49 * 8^3 * 3^3 * 8) mod 1000
= (10584 * 8^3) mod 1000
= (584 * 8^3) mod 1000
= (584 * 2^9) mod 1000
= (584 * 512) mod 1000
= 299008 mod 1000 = 8
thanks
sorry i was asking for this problem
and i just realized how it did it
thx tho
oh k
Nice proof!
Thank you!
welcome
hey guys gotta question for Y'all. what does the meaning of "number" refer to? does it refer to the index or the value? perhaps both?
I don't think this is appropiate for this channel, I don't think this question has a definitive answer either
This is kind of philosophy of mathematics
If you want to know more, you can read Hamkins or Shapiro maybe. These are the only texts on the philosophy of mathematics I know
Use the Chinese remainder theorem and Euler's theorem. Since phi(5^3)=100 it simplifies very nicely
yeah ik but how do you use that
Like how do you know that because 2^100 congruent to 1 mod 125 and 0 mod 8 that its congruent to 1 mod 1000
That isn't how it works
Some x being 1 mod 125 and 0 mid 8 specifies it uniquely and then we know we can just solve for it e.g. write x = 125a +1 and then take it mod 8 to get 5a +1 = 0 mod 8 so a must be like 3 I guess
It's 8 mod 125 and 0 mod 8, so it's 8 mod 1000.
alr thx π
Hello, I need help with this
Let x, y, z β Z be three integers that are solutions of Fermat's equation xΒ³+yΒ³=zΒ³. Show that one of the integers x, y or z is divisible by 3.
I think looking mod 3 then mod 9 gives an answer, just a guess I haven't actually done that myself
Ok,||suppose none are divisible by 3, then the equation is 1+1=2 or 2+2=1 mod 3. Wlog take the first case, since second is negative of the first, then it becomes 1+1=8 mod 9, contradiction.||
Got it thanks
I'd say #groups-rings-fields for that.
By linearity it suffices to find the derivatives of g(x)^n for a polynomial g(x)
Which probably follows from induction
There's a nice general approach here, based on the principle of permanence. It goes like this:
If we fix the degrees of f and g, and then ask whether (f' o g)Β·g' = (fg)', then that is an equation between polynomials, which boils down to corresponding coefficients on each side being equal. But each of those coefficients is some polynomial expression in the coefficients in f and g -- we don't need to figure out the exact expressions here, it is enough to convince oneself they are polynomials with integer coefficients.
So for each output coefficient we have some polynomial equation.
Now we know from calculus that these equations are always true when the coefficients of f and g are real numbers. In particular they are true if all the coefficients of f and g are distinct algebraically independent transcendental numbers. But (by definition of algebraic independence) the only way for that to happen is if each of the equations reduces purely as an integer polynomial to 0=0. And that reduction then has to apply no matter which ring we're planning to get numbers to plug in from.
the answer's 0 but how did they get there
chevalley warning theorem guarantees at least p solutions
(there is a multiple of p many solutions, and since we know (0,0,0) is one, there are at least p-1 more)
one should be able to show by hand that there is a solution to x^2 + y^2 + 1 = 0 (mod p) [by hand, i.e. with Chevalley--Warning]
namely, x^2 takes on (p+1)/2 distinct values, as does -y^2-1, so there must be some overlap
Hello
We use the construction outlined in the proof of the Chinese Remainder Theorem to solve a system of linear congruences.
Can someone explain the intermediate steps here?
how does he get 2x_1 = 1 (mod 3) from 20x_1 = 1 (mod 3)
i have a feeling it's something to do with the addition and multiplication properties of congruences but i don't see it
20 = 2 (mod 3), so 2x_1 = 1 (mod 3) is equivalent to 20x_2 = 1 (mod 3)
but if you take 10 = 1 (mod 3) and 2x_1 = 1 (mod 3) then 20x_1 = 1 (mod 3)
im not sure i understand how they're equivalent
20x_1 = 18x_1 + 2x_1 = 3(6x_1) + 2x_1 = 2x_1 (mod 3). So 20x_1 = 1 (mod 3) also implies that 2x_1 = 1 (mod 3) (and vice versa), so they are equivalent
For what values of n does there exists two distinct odd positive integers b such that 2n <= b < 3n?
Sorry
This is the correct question:
For what values of n does there exists two distinct odd positive integers b such that 2b <= n < 3b?
I guess since we just care about n, we might as well try to look at consecutive intervals to find them, since that maximizes their overlap. The intersection between [2b,3b) and the next interval [2(b+2), 3(b+2)) is 3b-2(b+2) = b-4, so in order for this to be positive we need b to be 5 or greater.
I guess next is trying to determine what integers are actually in the interval [2b+4, 3b) now for odd b >=5. I dunno if there's some great way of listing these numbers out, you can imagine them as the y values on the line y=2x+4 and up to but excluding the line y=3x. This sorta triangular segment extends out infinitely far and gets larger, seems to be the first number is n=14.
idk, do the lines get far enough apart that eventually every n large enough appears? that would be convenient
then it'd be a matter of determining that cutoff value and working out the finitely many examples below that
Yes
n>17 works
yeah, it's not hard to show, I did it earlier but was distracted but the end result is 14, 18, 19, 20, and n>=22
21 doesn't work
Oh 21 doesn't work
Ok next question, for a given n, how many b's can we find that satisfy the constraints: b is odd positive integer and 2b<= n < 3b?
interesting question, pretty fun, I think I might try to see if I can generalize this question/result while I'm thinking about it. What is this for
I was trying to prove something else and needed this condition on b
I suppose we might try to repeat the process but instead of looking at the intersection of 2 consecutive intervals do k consecutive intervals, then we basically would have worked out all integers that occur at least k times
maybe a bit roundabout way of doing it, but I think finding these sets might not be too difficult that we could sorta do this
so like call the sets S_k, we determined S_2 = {14, 18, 19, 20, and n>=22} which I was able to describe as finitely many inequalities, so S_k in general is probably of the same form
$S_2={n : 4t+14 \le n \le 6t+14 \text{ for } 0\le t \le 1, \text{ and} \ n \ge 22 }$
mOwOsity
for any n we can always just look at what the inequalities are for each S_k, since they should be pretty systematic and only finitely many of them to ever check
Can you give an expression in terms of n? Or a lower bound?
I probably could yeah, I just haven't worked it out yet
the thing is, S_k is just as easy to work out as S_2 since k consecutive intervals really only depend on the first interval overlapping with the last interval, the intermediate intervals overlap by default
it should be easy to work out the lowest number in S_k and the first number N such that n>=N will appear
what was the other thing you were proving I'm curious what this is for
I'm about to be busy for about an hour or so, so I want to think about it while I'm busy, I might not finish grinding out the details here
A certain proof by contradiction. Theres a certain 2 player game on Fibbonaci decompositions of a positive integers n that I won't define and I'm trying to prove player 1 always has a winning strategy for n large enough.
back, ok:
All elements that can be written in between at least k different b are:
n = 12k+2, 12k+6, 12k+7, 12k+8, and n >= 12k+10
from here it shouldn't be too bad to invert this as a function of n I think, but this is pretty good already
Ok think this is the final answer now, the [] is the Iverson bracket, it's 0 if the statement is false, 1 if true $$k = \left\lfloor \frac{n}{12}\right\rfloor -1 + \left[\left\lfloor \frac{n}{12}\right\rfloor \equiv 2, 6, 7, 8, 10, or 11 \mod 12\right]$$
mOwOsity
that k(n) = exact number of intervals n falls inside
thanks mero!
Yeah hopefully I didn't make any mistakes haha, you're welcome

