#elementary-number-theory
1 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)
I understand the question but problem is that if we have a problem in which we can't find values by writing like this then there should be a generalized formula
Why should there be a generalized formula
There's no reason such a thing should exist for any problem unless you show it
Then I am sure there should exist one solution for this
I mean yes the solution exists but I don't think there's going to be a formula for it
The best you can do is probably write a program to find it
Yeah I try to write a program for it but it will end up with Time limit exits
Bruh then should've specified that lmao
What?
Yeah
What you can do is let i be from N to M, then find the largest multiple of i smaller than M, let this multiple be n, then you're guaranteed gcd(i,n)≥i≥N, then just loop through all such i and n and it should work
Of course keeping track of the minimum pair
What is happening here
I think I've come up with an algorithm that loops only M/N times:
- find a=floor(M/N)
- for each 1≤i≤a find (floor(M/b)*b-b) where b=floor(M/i)
- find the index i of the maximum of the above results. Output floor(M/i)
this works because b=floor(M/i) as above is guaranteed to give the maximum difference for numbers between floor(M/(i+1)) and floor(M/i)
Lmao that doesn't work
Your program seems to output the quotient when the larger number is divided by the smaller one but sometimes it's wrong
for a given n, is there a minimum power k>1 such that x^k=x for all x coprime to n in Z/nZ?
Yea. Since we have a complete description of the multiplicative group of Z/nZ you can figure out the k based on the prime factorization of n
So yes
Everything said above is true ^
but it's way simpler
The units form a finite group, so by lagrange there is some m for which n^m = 1 mod n, and then we just choose k=m+1. The existence of a minimal such k is then trivial. You don't need to know how to calculate this in order to obtian this fact.
Well I mean yes we do know it exists but since we can figure it out why not figure it out
is there a positive integer n where the greatest common factor of n,n+1 does not equal 1? I feel like there isn't intuitively but I'm not sure how to show it.
the gcd must divide the numbers' difference, which is 1, so gcd=1
oh interesting, I've never heard this property! let me make sure i'm getting this right: for two numbers, a & b, where b>a, the gcd is a factor of (b-a)?
It follows from the fact that if a divides b and c then a divides b-c and b+c
It’s like pulling a value out of brackets, you know, ac+bc=c(a+b), so c divides both of you can pull it out of brackets
Oh alright, thank you! Im will take a proofs course this fall, so i’ll be learning more about this soon
Hello! I need my proof of Lemma 4 to be checked. Though I have carried it out, it seems rather convoluted to me, and so I need some help to check all the details. I would be incredibly grateful for any assistance.
That does look very convoluted for something that looks like a counting argument
This was just something that came to my head once I thought of the statement.
Though it would be nice to have such a proof, it is more than enough to just have my proof checked.
In theory, no proof is better than another so long as both are correct. In practice, I'd rather try to work out a simpler proof than verify a long and treacherous proof
(Or „proof” if it is absurd)
Verifying such a long proof would take a lot of dedication, perhaps a bit too much for me
Could you at least rate the correctness and soundness of the general approach?
Though I agree, perhaps I am asking for too much (no sarcasm intended)
Approaching it by induction is sound
Because induction is a sound proof strategy
Whether it's efficient is another debate
Well yes, it is hard to disagree with this statement
Glad you will never have to see my other proofs 😂
\begin{align*}\rho(m,r,n) &= |{0 \le k \le n,, k \equiv r [m]}| & \text{by definition} \ &= |{r \le k \le n,, k \equiv r [m]}| & \text{because } 0 \le r < m \ &= |{r \le k \le n,, m|k-r}| & \ &= |{0 \le j \le n-r,, m|j}| & \text{by setting} j=k-r \ &= \left\lfloor\frac{n-r}{m} \right\rfloor + 1 & \end{align*}
(i'll figure it out)
Syst3ms
Now, let me prove that last equality real quick
Syst3ms
I still have to get accustomed to the notation
I made a typo
Syst3ms
Anyway, a lot of blah-blah to prove that there are floor(p/m)+1 multiples of m between 0 and p inclusive
Are you talking about your proof?
yes
To be fair, I would still use words to elaborate on some notational shenanigans
Much like in my original demonstration
Yours, however, does seem quite a good deal easier
Mine is just a little more…straightforward?
You're free to. I just use the language of sets because i feel comfortable with that kind of formality
My proof turns the problem statement into a divisibility statement using (rather) easy facts about modular arithmetic, then concludes by counting multiples of an integer in a given interval
And my question still stands 😂. I have written just a little too much to screw it all, especially if it is correct)
Thank you, nonetheless
I don't mean any offense by this (I've done it a lot myself), but your proof is what we call "bourriner" in France
"bourrin" means "rough, brute, crude"
I know that you never meant any offense. Never did I.
and "bourriner" is the fact of just bruteforcing your way through a proof or a computation by applying some method
So like, trying to prove a problem by induction and tunnel-visioning the problem using that strategy. For example, solving a problem about 2x2 matrices by just doing the full matrix multiplication.
Perhaps the reason is that the purpose of this lemma is just to clear my conscience, it is a calculus problem after all
By extension, it also refers to the result of such a method : crude, very heavy, but still correct
You would be laughing if you heard why I went through all this
I'm all ears
The problem asks me to find the n-th derivative of the function you can see written at the first page of my proof (the very top). Knowing that it would eventually boil down to the multiplication of the exponential by the sum of the first n derivatives (including the original function, the zeroth derivative) of cos(2x), which I know to be „periodic” (period 4), just with the chain rule applied. I therefore wanted to split the sum into sums of those derivatives of cos(2x) that would produce specific functions, so that I would not have to deal with all those conditions that are dependent upon the orders of the derivatives in question. Though I am well aware that I could have just split the orders of the derivatives into sets by their congruence modulo 4 (and just write the set inclusion condition in the summation signs), I tried to dig to the bottom of this and try to express those part-sums directly, i.e. with all the lower and upper limits of summation numerically defined. This led me to this completely unrelated lemma and, concordantly, to my proof.
I know this is a very handwavy explanation of what I tried to accomplish with this lemma, but pardon me, English is my second language and it gets quite difficult to express myself with so much going on there)
This should be called „how to develop a brain tumor with coffee and Mathematics”
I see
Well, I have ranted enough. Thank you!
Need help.
Trying to find a,b, and c given x values
The second picture is the original quadratic. When I’m done, I will compare the two to check if my values are correct.
Also “9” should be -9.
Hi everyone, I'm watching a video on number theory and I was very confused because I couldn't understand why this inequality is true. The prof didn't give any explanation, so I imagine it must be very basic, but I just don't get it. Can anyone help??
video is this https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=KIvuGT5V1Fg&list=PL8yHsr3EFj53L8sMbzIhhXSAOpuZ1Fov8&index=8
This lecture is part of my Berkeley math 115 course "Introduction to number theory"
For the other lectures in the course see https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PL8yHsr3EFj53L8sMbzIhhXSAOpuZ1Fov8
We discuss some applications of binonial coefficients, such as an approximate estimate for the number of primes less than n, and the Catalan numbers...
it helps to timestamp these videos: your moment is from about 26:00
anyway, he spends the rest of the page giving a proof
do you not understand his argument?
I don't understand why these two things are equivalent
what "two things"?
the times p divides (2n n) and the left hand side of the inequality
and also I don't get why the times p divides (2n n) >= (2n n) according to his reasoning
they're not equivalent. he uses them to bound the number of times a given prime divides 2n choose n.
as he says:
"for each p^k that's ≤ 2n, we're going to get at most 1 factor of p dividing 2n choose k. so if we take ALL such powers, that makes ALL these terms equal to 1, which makes this product bigger"
the point is that we can write 2n choose n as a product of SOME of these primes
but becuase, as he argues below, each "row" is either 1 or 0
meaning each prime divides the product at most [number of rows]
we have that the "right hand side" of the inequality is AT MOST a product of all these primes
whereas the "left hand side" is a product of all these primes, but it includes ALL duplicates (i.e. all rows)
for example, if n = 6, then 2^1 = 2, 2^2 = 4, and 2^3 = 8 are all ≤ 2n
so all of those show up in the "left hand" product
and if we check:
,w choose(12, 6)
,calc 924/2
Result:
462
,calc 462/2
Result:
231
as we can see, the left-hand product is more highly divisible by 2 than the right-hand side is
[sorry, slightly misstated my argument initially, fixed with edits]
that took me a while to understand, but thank you, you explained it very clearly
the point is that:
- every prime divisor of the RHS must satisfy p ≤ 2n and therefore must appear in the LHS product
- the amount of times it could possibly divide is the maximal value of k. in my example where 2n = 12 and fixing p = 2, we get that the maximal value of k is 3, since 2^1, 2^2, 2^3 are all < 12, but 2^4 is not.
- however, if we "count" the amount of times each prime divides (2n choose n) by using the rows below, we get that it's, at most, the number of rows - and the number of rows is the maximal value of k (so if we used my example, it'd be 3)
- so each prime appears "max(k) times" in the LEFT HAND side, but only "at most max(k) times" in the RIGHT HAND (becuase it could be at most 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + .. + 1, i.e. k*1 = k times, but some of those 1s might be 0s, so its an inequality)
- hence the LHS has all the same prime factors as the RHS, but potentially "more" of them
that's very clear, I didn't even think of prime factorizations before you pointed it out, I guess I should've watched the lecture more carefully....anyway thank you so much
…
Prove that $b^{x+y}=b^x\cdot b^y ::\forall:: (x,y) \in \mathbb{R}$
Amorous aka Lucifer
it isn't just for positive integers but for whole real numbers
Set theory is allowed here? Curious about the properties of A°
What do you mean by A° ? The interior of A ?
Yeeep
Why if A=R (real numbers) we get that A° is an empty set?
I mean A° is a subset of A (A=R)
And if we have numbers from 0-1 that's subset of R, so shouldn't whole R be subset of itself?
Id understand IF definition is that A° is proper subset, then if A°=R that's not allowed bcs A=A°, which doesn't make a proper subset
@floral vessel This belongs in #point-set-topology
Thank uuuuu
We don't. $\mathring{\bR} = \bR$
Syst3ms
Why tho Xd
Tell me the definition of the interior
Well, something being inside
That's rather vague
Can you tell me the precise definition, if you have learned any?
Let's move to #point-set-topology
@heady basalt how can I speak in topology? It says I have no permission
fun fact: 804792605747199194484902925779806277109997439007500616344745281047115412373646521410850481879839649227439298230298915019813108221651663659572441609408556917739149315905992811411866635786075524601835815642793302504243200000000000000000000000000000000000 is the smallest factorial number whose number of trailing zeroes is 5 mod 6.
145!
Hi, everyone!
Can someone please explain 1.2 (a) to me?
I'm currently working through Rational Points on Elliptic Curves by Silverman and Tate.
props to you by the way for being so organized with the question
thanks :)
I copied down the entire problem statement word-for-word so I just want to understand how I can approach this
The determinant uses coefficients not in the form of the Weierstrass Normal Form
- I do know that if a cubic curve has a singularity, then it implies that
fhas a double or triple root. This implies we can rewrite it in the form of y^2 = x^2(x+1) or x^2(x-1), or y^2 = x^3 through algebraic manipulation
My question is, how does this relate to the cubic curve determinant?
please ping me if anyone has some insight! I might be going to sleep soon :(
i've been trying the problem for 3-4 ish hours now? so i'd appreciate it ^^
Suppose there's a point $(x,y)$ where $F = \partial_x F = \partial_y F = 0$.
daveamayombo
mhm
Then the vanishing of the partial derivatives gives $$2ax + by + d = 0$$ and
$$bx + 2cy + e = 0.$$
ou hmm
daveamayombo
we know that y = 0 has to hold, right?
And while $F(x,y) = 0$ might look unwieldy, you'll
have more luck with $$2F(x,y) - x \partial_x F - y \partial_y F = 0.$$
(Just based on playing around and seeing what would cancel)
hmm
daveamayombo
The thing I just wrote -- it simplifies to $$dx + ey + 2f = 0.$$
Yup. 🙂
(2f?)
Sorry typo -- yeah 2f.
thanks!!
daveamayombo
btw, i have a question but
is this supposed to be high school math or...
i dunno
i got into contact with a professor and he recommended that i work through uh
the book i mentioned earlier
rational points on elliptic curves!
so i'm trying but this is harder than stuff i've been seeing in class :(
also i'm trying to create a latex document with all my work so :)
i hope it'll go well u.u
Not usually highschool-level, I'd guess. But keep with it! As long as you're still interested, it's almost certainly good for you. 😄
also i'm looking through this one but
yeah!!
i like math a lot :)
i want to be a math major when i grow up so i've been trying my best :D
what i don't exactly understand is how the x and y go away
we know that the partial derivatives yield those equations
and while they resemble the matrix that we're taking the determinant of, i don't see how we can eliminate x and y
does that tie into the idea that a singularity must have y = 0?
but that would cause some of the elements to disappear... hm.
So... here's the trick.
mhm
this is euler's identity isn't it
Take any square matrix. Pick a column, multiply it by any number (zero, nonzero, doesn't matter), and then add the result to a different column. The determinant won't change.
mhm
So if you take your matrix, add x times the first column to the third, and y times the second column to the third, the resulting matrix has the same determinant as yours. But when those three equations are satisfied, the new matrix has all zeros in its third column, so its determinant is zero (and so is the determinant of the original matrix).
Wait, why'd I say minus...
so our matrix that we made with the equations above is equivalent to the matrix w/o x and y
(Edited above -- should have been x times and y times)
Yeah. This is one of the rules for determinants. I can write it out in this case, one sec.
alright! thank you
$$\det \begin{pmatrix}2a & b & d \ b & 2c & e \ d & e & 2f \end{pmatrix} = \det \begin{pmatrix} 2a & b & 2ax + by + d \ b & 2c & bx + 2cy + e \ d & e & dx + ey + 2f \end{pmatrix}$$
daveamayombo
mhm
That's just adding $x$ times the first column, and $y$ times the second column, into the third column. The determinants will always be the same, no matter what $x$ and $y$ are.
haha latex compiling the wrong things
daveamayombo
Yeah 
We can go from $$\begin{pmatrix} 2ax & by & d \ bx & 2cy & e \ dx & ey & 2f \end{pmatrix}$$ to the one on the rigth over here?
Arkyter
right*
by adding column 1 -> 3
and 2 -> 3
then multiplying column 1 by 1/x and 2 by 1/y?
No worries! I'll explain.
alright!
so maybe it works in this particular case, but it's bad practice because it doesn't always work outside of this?
is that why i shouldn't?
The thing you wrote here doesn't have the same determinant as your original matrix.
ouch i see
And if $x$ or $y$ happens to be 0, this matrix will have zero determinant. It'll make it hard to conclude the original matrix (before we multiplied by $x$ or $y$) already had zero determinant.
daveamayombo
So instead, go directly from the original matrix to the modified one, exactly like I wrote here.
because we want the 3rd column to be 0
we don't know individually what d, e, 2f are but we want them to be 0 so we add 2ax + by etc... that kinda stuff
so that if the 3rd column is 0
the determinant is 0
and therefore that implies that there is some (x, y) that makes both partial derivatives vanish
like that? :D
We want the third column to contain the three expressions that we know will be zero when there's a singluar point.
So -- when there is a singluar point $(x, y)$, then we know the determinant will be zero. Turning that argument around (sometimes called the contrapositive statement) we see that if the determinant is not zero, then there cannot be any singular point.
daveamayombo
Math is usually like that -- hard until it's easy.
Exactly!
are you a math major?
sorry, i don't hang in this discord a lot so >w> i don't know a lot of things around here
Yeah, have a PhD actually, but love tutoring. I just found this server a few weeks ago, and I'm just here having fun, basically.
:O
wait wait whaaaaaaa
awesome....
i want to go for that too!!! well, who knows.
i enjoy math a lot but idk if i'll be able to get there hehe
we'll see in like, 10 years lol!!
Go for it! College and grad school are both tons of fun, especially if you generally like what you're studying. And be open to changing paths too -- I was originally a CS person. Who knows what you'll find to inspire. 🙂
i guess, i just dont have any interests aside from math rn haha
and well, games and anime
hehe
Oh, and never be intimidated -- lots of my friends from grad school didn't fit into the usual 'math genius' stereotypes... just people who had fun playing with math.
There ya go! 😄
c:
thanks for your help
i should sleep though, it's like, 2 in the morning
goodnight!
No prob! Friend me if you want -- if you get stuck again or whatever. 🙂
Ah, there it is. Ok, later!
I don't see how this should be doable without knowing what f is
Imagine being so terrible at math that you can’t even deduce the question
Can you translate it
i feel like something is off with this proof
I wouldn't just say 'you can remove the constant c' since that seems to be basically assuming the statement you wanna prove
I'd say - what does it mean that a = b mod mc? What does it mean to say a = b mod m?
Once you unwrap those definitions it should seem more clear
also the statement as written on your board is false
we have 3=1 mod 2, we certainly don't have 3=1 mod 4
That is also a good point
It should be n|m that's assumed
i wrote it wrong
$a \cong b$ mod $n$ is given and I have to prove $a \cong b$ mod $m$
baja blast
okok
yeah your last sentence is problematic here
i don't see any other way of interpreting it than "since the statement we have to prove is true, then our statement is true"
which is circular af
i found some other theorems that'll help me
now you haven't really looked at the modulo parts here
yeah the definition of modulos or properties of them would certainly help
i feel like it's on the tip of my tongue
if i apply the modulo definition then the divisibility definition on $a \cong b$ mod m, would i end up with $b-a=mc$?
baja blast
for some integer c, yes
you're gonna confuse yourself by using c for two different things though
could the c's be equal
they could be
you can't assume that though
anyway the beginning of your thing was alright
you could start from there
you know that a=b mod cm, and you know what mod means
???
a=b mod m
profit
that's the whole question 
i can picture it but i can't put it into words
I'm suggesting you with not much subtlety to apply the definition of mod to this statement
and see where that gets you
there are c times more solutions to b mod m than b mod n
i can prove this if i can figure out that b mod n is a subset of b mod m
wait a second
modular arithmetic is remainder division
@fathom sierra hows this
is there a general formula for $\cos(\pi/2^n)$?
Kraft Macaroni
there seems to be a nice formula involving nested radicals of root 2
by iteratively choosing the positive root in the double angle formula, it should be possible to solve this by radicals explicitly
I am not sure what you are looking for
you know that $\cos \frac{x}{2} = \frac{\sqrt{1+\cos x}}{2}$, so by induction (starting the induction at $n=2$) you get $\cos \frac{\pi}{2^n} = \frac{\sqrt{2+\sqrt{2+\ldots}}}{2}$ where there are $n-1$ nested radicals
Pappa
That 2 goes inside the square root
oh yeah sure
you know that $\cos \frac{x}{2} = \frac{\sqrt{1+\cos x}}{2}$, so by induction (starting the induction at $n=2$) you get $\cos \frac{\pi}{2^2} = \frac{\sqrt{2^1/2+\sqrt{2+\ldots}}}{2}$ where there are $n-1$ nested radicals
Geo_Stellar
How to solve the equations of the form $a^x+b^x=c$ where $a\ne b\ne c$ and $a,b,c \in \mathbb{R}$
Amorous aka Lucifer
@sacred junco you seem to be idle...can you help me with this?
i have no idea
np...thanks btw
In many cases you can show this equation to have only one solution using monotony arguments, but I doubt there's a nice closed form
can someone please explain to me why they solved it that way, and how to approach problems like these?
Given a natural number N, is there a function f(n), such that f(n) is the number of distinct ways N can be written as a sum of n natural numbers? If so, what is the expression for this function?
does anyone know what the fundamental unit of the 12th cyclotomic field is?
I mean that looks totally valid?
Reindexing improperly on the 3rd equality I think
Should have shifted n choose i
@obsidian saddle right
Haven't they just pulled out the bottom term
Wait
Yea you're right my bad
I missed the r*n
The *n
That is
What's the name of this euqality
I knew it in a past life
Right
Yea
I don't see anything wrong either
It's just ditching a bunch of terms in the binomiap expansion
Sorry can you clarify?
What exactly went wrong with the proof?
Oh it was tongue in cheek - the proof is p much fine
I was just kinda pointing out that sometimes you want to be more careful with the small cases since for example your method of proof would also show that for all $n\ge 0$, $n+1=\sum_{k=0}^{n} 1 = 1 + 1 + \sum_{k=2}^{n} 1 \ge 2$ which is false if $n=0$
potato
Obviously you can just say that the statement holds for n=0 though so it's fine
at the moment I'm doing some research on the euler totient function and I found this relation on a course. However, no proof is given. After some research it is the discrete fourier transform of gcd(n,-) but I still couldn't find a proof. Does anyone know it to give me a hint?
(sorry im french, so pgcd is gcd)
Toby
seems to be highly nontrivial
or maybe this http://pollack.uga.edu/squares-tufts.pdf, slide 11
Can 0 be a gaussian integer?
I'm not sure if I'm reading the question correctly, but for the question I read, the answer is half
Half of the nonzero residues (mod p) are quadratic residues (i.e., squares). Each residue class (mod p) is hit evenly with natural density 1/(p-1) by Dirichlet's theorem on arithmetic progression, so the set of quadratic residues gets hit half of the time.
This is of course assuming that p is fixed and we are considering all rational primes
(for example, if you are only looking at rational primes up to p, this looks harder)
my phrasing probably wasnt the best, but I was looking at primes up to p only. Though what you said about density is interesting, thanks
this is exercise 1.14 from rational points on elliptic curves by silverman and tate
does anyone have hints on where to even start?
are we supposed to show, uh...
[ \left(\frac{\beta^2 u}{(t - \alpha)^2}\right)^2 = f\left(\frac{\beta}{t - \alpha}\right) ]
Arkyter
any tips?
that took me too long to navigate
any ideas for B?
Use the fact that $\left(\sum_{i=0}^n \binom{n}{i}\right)\left(\sum_{j=0}^n \binom{n}{j}\right) = 2^{2n}$
Pappa
$\mathbb{Q}(x \sqrt6x) = \alpha^2 - 48$
Loloitsjo
Per48edjes
Ah I got it -- ignore me (not sure how to delete the rendered
above)
prove that greatest integer less than $n$ is $n-1$
Amorous aka Lucifer
any ideas?
Depends completely on which axioms and definitions you have to base your proof on.
i initially thought that we have to just prove that there is no integer between $n$ and $n-1$.....was i right$?$
Amorous aka Lucifer
Probably yes, if you already know that the ordering on the integers works like orderings ought to do.
for any n, does there exist a prime p and an integer k such that n | p^k-1?
no
counter ex?
n = 6
p=7, k=1
ok so "-1" is not in the exponent?
dirichlet theorem implies that for given n, there are infinitely many primes of form c*n+1, and any p = c*n+1 will do the job
so the answer is yes
i see
I wont do it but let j be x and [j/29] be y, then it would be a system of equations modulus 29. Solve for x and y to get j and [j/29] and j would be in the form of a mod 29. Your floor function will give you a range for j to be in so you can work out j
Also whats the difference between the field Q[root d] and Z[root d] please reply so I can see thanks!
Hello, i want to ask, if this is a good course to start with number theory: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=19SW3P_PRHQ&ab_channel=AcademicLesson
Number theory (or arithmetic or higher arithmetic in older usage) is a branch of pure #mathematics devoted primarily to the study of the integers and integer-valued functions. Number theorists study prime numbers as well as the properties of objects made out of integers (for example, rational numbers) or defined as generalizations of the integer...
or you recommends a book to start?
do you expect someone to watch this 02:30 video to judge it for you?
you have to use a book anyway to get exercises
and the first minute of the book even mentions a book
so either do both or just the book (or another one)
okay, thx
Q(sqrt(d)) is the field generated by Q and sqrt(d). More specifically, Q(sqrt(d)) contains all elements of the form a + b*sqrt(d) such that a,b in Q.
Z[sqrt(d)) is the ring generated by Z and sqrt(d). More specifically, Z[sqrt(d)] contains all elements of the form a + b*sqrt(d) such that a,b in Z.
For example, 1/2 + sqrt(d)/2 is an element of Q(sqrt(d)) but not Z[sqrt(d)].
Could you solve it for me please? I really am not able to follow here
Does anyone here know Extended Euclids Algorithm, I need help calculating beizuts identity with this formula.
probably just ask your question in full so when someone who knows bezout's identity reads they can help without asking again
Hi guys. Can anyone help with this question please? PS: Don't forget to tag me if you answer. Thanks!
Let $f$ be a quadratic form in two variables in the integers. Is f(1,0) a proper representation?
Croqueta
mod 20
i dont know why you would expect anything here?
you are comparing $\frac{a}{c+d} + \frac{b}{c+d}$ with $\frac{a}{2c} + \frac{b}{2d}$
Lochverstärker
those will be close to each other if $c \approx d$
Lochverstärker
but other than that your choice of numbers seems arbitrary and i have no idea why what you found is supposed to be surprising
@stiff rivet if have to calculate my Grand CGPA (from 6 SGPAs) by ΣCP/ΣCR formula, I am getting 9.5, while by using Σ(CP/CR) formula, I am getting 9.4. Which one would be correct?? Here I attach my result.
i have no idea how to calculate CGPA, sorry
but this also isnt the right channel, maybe try a help channel
Alright
What does $<<_\epsilon$ mean in context of analytic number theory
bert
I think f(x) \ll_\varepsilon g(x) means that f(x) = O_varepislon(g(x)), or that there is an implied constant C(which depends on varepsilon but not x) for which f(x) <= g(x) for sufficiently large x
I'd need to see more context to give you a more precise answer
Hi guys. Can anyone help with this question please? PS: Don't forget to tag me if you answer. Thanks!
how about you review what you know about primitive pythagorean triples
consider a circular sequence of natural numbers from 1 to n
let's eliminate (starting from the lowest not yet eliminated number) 1st, then 2nd, then 3rd etc
more formally, on k-th step let's list all n - k + 1 elements that are not yet eliminated
now in this list of n - k + 1 elements eliminate the one with index ((k - 1) mod (n - k + 1)) + 1 (aka kth element in a circular list)
e.g. for n = 5:
1 2 3 4 5
eliminate 1st: 2 3 4 5
eliminate 2nd : 2 4 5
eliminate 3rd: 2 4
eliminate 4th (= 2nd): 2
let P(n) be the last remaining number for such elimination strategy (P(5) = 2)
https://oeis.org/A128982 is very close to what I'm describing but shifted by 1
I wonder why:
(1) P(n) = 2 iff n is prime
(2) P(n) = n iff (n+1) is prime
it's mentioned on OEIS but I haven't been able to find the proof
a way of proving (1) based on (2) was already suggested in math-help section: #help-9 message
however a proof of (2) remains unknown
Isn't it enough to show that n - k + 1 (index of the element n) is not equal to the index we will remove which is 1 + ((k - 1) mod (n - k + 1))?
Anyone confirm I am not butchering number theory
(this is true since n+1 is prime, so no factor from 2 to n should divide n+1)
you mean if k != n and n+1 is prime, right?
yeah, we won't have k = n because at that point we've eliminated all elements, and yeah I was talking about the (2) problem you suggested
oh rip I have a mistake at the last line
n + 1 != 2k (mod n-k+1)
n + 1 != 2k + (n-k+1) (mod n-k+1)
n + 1 != n + k + 1 (mod n-k+1)
k != 0 (mod n-k+1)
is that right
yeah... I mistook a sign
No I suggested n+1 == 0 (mod n-k+1) which isn't correct
ah, that part yes
But now I am wondering if it's enough to show that k != 0 (mod n-k+1) is always true
i think it's enough but how do we show it
i'm not sure if it's even true
oh wait, it's true
wait wait k + (n - k + 1) is indeed n + 1
number theory blows my mind
yeah, though I advise that another user gives feedback just as a sanity check
at least it shows that if n + 1 is prime, P(n) = n
what about the other direction?
if P(n) = n, how do we know that n + 1 is prime?
It would be the same argument no? It would mean that the index n - k + 1 is never deleted which must happen iff n+1 != 0 (mod n-k+1)
(the steps should be reversible)
np (hopefully it's correct)
wait, can we figure out on which step is n removed?
In general?
yes
I don't think there would be an easy way since you'd be trying to solve n+1 == 0 (mod n-k+1) for the first integer k that satisfies it, which isn't an easy task
what again is the proof that such k exists?
There doesn't necessarily exist such a k for prime numbers as we've established
i mean if n+1 is not prime
you mean for non-primes?
since you are basically checking if n-1, n-2, ..., 2 are divisors of n+1
if a number is composite, at least one must show 0 mod divisor
are we interested in the greatest divisor of n + 1 (except itself) then?
I believe so, first integer k so that n-k+1 divides n+1 would be the greatest divisor
ok, thx again
np
acutally, it's n+1 - (min. divisor of n+1), my bad
it's -, not /
but we still have it
so nvm
Well I am still skeptical if this would work at all
Oh boy there might be a big flaw in everything I've written
In the original proof, the reason why I went from n-k != (k-1 mod n-k+1) to working with the whole equation in mod is because if two numbers aren't equal => the two numbers don't have the same remainder which should not be true (The reverse implication is true and used above, but we can't use the same argument for equality)
actually no it's ok, if two numbers don't have the same remainder mod smth, they can't be equal
but if we want equality, I doubt this would work
yeah i believe that's true
Check it on a couple of cases, but I don't see how it would be true
at least it seems to work up to n=10
also, interestingly enough, it implies that for prime ns they are removed exactly in the middle (k = (n + 1) / 2)
That pattern is true if you are looking at a circular arrangement, since whenever you have
1, 2, 3, 4, ..., prime The first numbers that are crossed out are the odd ones, so 1, 3, ..., and then p at the end, which leaves the rest evens
Can you check this for n=20?
k=14 indeed
k=16 in the OEIS table
checked it up to 100,000 and it works
also for some reason it corresponds to this sequence https://oeis.org/A060681
(largest difference between consecutive divisors of n)
not sure why it is always the difference between n and the largest divisor of n
Perhaps from n+1 == 0 (mod n-k+1) where n+1 is the number, n-k+1 is the divisor and n+1 - (n-k+1) = k which is the first integer that solves the problem (don't know why it's valid to work with the mod equation, nor how it relates to removing the element n)
i mean i'm not sure why the largest difference between consecutive divisors of n is always the difference between n and the largest divisor of n
oh wait it is very much so related to removing the nth element if the mod equation can be used
nvm i think i understand why
the largest divisor of n is at-most sqrt(n) which for bigger numbers sqrt(n) <= n/2 and thus it must be the biggest difference
since n - sqrt(n) >= n - n/2 = n/2
oh, it's ever mentioned there: a(n) = n - n/A020639(n) where A020639 is the least prime divisor
there can't be another pair with difference bigger than n/2 because it would contradict that we are working with the number n (and instead working with a bigger one)
i'm now tempted to search for the general formula of P(n)
i wonder if we can calculate it in O(1)
or at least in o(n)
P(n) being the formula for which position to choose to not be eliminated?
yep
I want to use the Chinese Remainder Theorem to prove that if $f(x)$ is reducible modulo $m$ and $n$, then it's reducible modulo $mn$
Michael0181
I can't figure out where to start though
What is a your personal check list when doing NT problem?, like do you have any rules or properties that you check first or you stare at the problem and try to be more intuitive
Does Lagrange's four-square theorem get any easier to prove if we use some number larger than 4 instead?
In other words, is the statement "There is an n such that every natural can be written as the sum of n squares" easier to prove than Lagrange's four-square theorem?
this seems to not answer the desired question
for example, it is easier to prove a statement like
There exists a positive integer
Nsuch that every positive integerncan be written usingNsquares
(note the uniformity of N is the point)
I would also be interested in if it is easier to prove a statement like
Every (sufficiently large) positive integer
ncan be written using(log n)squares
hello can anyone explain why 3.81^(504n+503) congruent to 3 mod 11?
3.81? that makes no sense
oh ok
i mean you can just calculate it
if you want the intended way, you use fermats little theorem
uhh
actually this is wrong
so no, nobody can explain it lol
Prove or disprove that the only solutions of
$$\begin{align}
xy = z\pmod {x+y} \
xz = y \pmod {x+z}\
yz = x \pmod {y+z}\
\end{align}
$$ in positive co-prime integers $x,y,z$ are $(1,1,1)$ and $(5,7,11)$.
My work:
The system of congruence is clearly symmetrical so we can assign the parameter labels so that $a<b<c$. In explicit form, the system of congruences can be written as
$$\begin{align}
xy = z+c(x+y) \
xz = y+b(x+z)\
yz = x+a(y+z)\
\end{align}
$$
where $a,b,c$ are integers. I tried adding and factoring these equations but nothing useful came out. I am stuck here.
Amorous aka Lucifer
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there was this question which i saw on internet
this is the work of the Op
nobody gave an answer to it
but
i have some ideas regarding it
that i would like to post here
The equations written imply that
$$\left(\frac{x-1}{a}\right)\left(\frac{y-1}{b}\right)\left(\frac{z-1}{c}\right)-\left(\frac{x-1}{a}\right)-\left(\frac{y-1}{b}\right)-\left(\frac{z-1}{c}\right)=2$$
An equation of this form i.e. $$ABC-A-B-C=2$$
has the positive integer solutions $(2,2,2)$, $(1,2,5)$, and $(1,3,3)$, and the integer solution $(-1,-1,-1)$. However, not all triples $(a,b,c)$ that satisfy
the original set of congruences lead to integer quantities in the brackets.
Another interesting implication of the three coupled equations is
$$\left(\frac{z-x}{by}\right)=\frac{\left(\frac{z-y}{ax}\right)+\left(\frac{y-x}{cz}\right)}{1+\left(\frac{z-y}{ax}\right)\left(\frac{y-x}{cz}\right)}$$
which shows that the normalized distances [$a$ to $b$] and [$b$ to $c$] add up to the total distance [$a$ to $c$] in accord with the addition rule for velocities in special relativity. (This can be seen most clearly by setting $x=\frac{1}{z}$, $y=\frac{1}{y}$, and $z=\frac{1}{x}$. )
For any integer solution $A,B,C$ of the original congruences, define
$$\begin{align}
g=\textrm{GCD}(A,B,C)\
x=\frac{A}{g}\
y=\frac{B}{g}\
z=\frac{C}{g}
\end{align}
$$
and put $M = LCM(x+y,x+z,y+z)$. It's clear that $x,y,z$ are pairwise
co-prime and that infinitely many other solution triples are given by
$$\begin{align}
A' = x(Mk+g)\
B' = y(Mk+g)\
C' = z(Mk+g)\
\end{align}
$$
where $k$ is any integer. A solution $(xg,yg,zg)$ with $g < M$ is called a minimal solution. Examination of the minimal solutions with $g=1$ shows that certain values
of $(x+y+z)$ occur frequently.
The basic equations imply that if $(x,y,z)$ are co-prime then $x$ divides
$bc-1$, $y$ divides $ac-1$, and $z$ divides $ab-1$, but this doesn't seem to be sufficient to prove that $(1,1,1)$ and $(5,7,11)$ are the only positive
co-prime solutions. It appears that for most $($all$?)$ $g > 1$ there are
infinitely many minimal solutions, but I can't prove that either.
Amorous aka Lucifer
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Hi there! I just had a quick question about a problem I got on HW. This is a review sheet and I never did solve something like this in my discrete class (we skipped it for the sake of time).
so for (a), it'll be 7x - 3 = 5k for some integer k. So then we get 7x = 5k + 3, but I'm not sure where to go from there, as x needs to be an integer
any advice on how to solve these?
Since these numbers are pretty small, the best way is probably just try 0 to 4 (or 0 to 9 for b and 0 to 11 for c), but in general you can use the euclidean algorithm to find all the solutions
thanks I'll look into it!
Since these numbers are pretty small, the best way is probably just try 0 to 4 (or 0 to 9 for b and 0 to 11 for c)
Yeah that's probably best, but our professor explicitly said to work it out and not plug and chug :/
Alright
a) you can recognize that 7=-3 (mod 5) you can try to continue from here. To argue the uniqueness of the solution try to use inverses.
b) If you write it out, you get 6x+3-1=10k or 6x+2=10k or 3x+1=5k, do you think you can solve it?
c) Again write it out and see what's happening
This way it's not just plug and chug
Thank you for the explanation!! I'll fiddle around with it 🙂
Can anyone help me with this? I'm asked to compute by hand. I've noticed 729=3^6 and 1024=2^10 but still doesn't help.
$729^{-1} \pmod{1024}$
MCHappster
extended euclidean algorithm
howdy!
How would one start this problem? Is there no solution because it's not in correct form? I can't seem to find an example online :
Start by adding 7 on both sides.
(i.e. subtracting 3)
Then everything left is even.
So you would get 6x + 10 = 1(mod 10) + 7? Wouldn't the three not be divisible still though?
oh I see (I think...)
so you can change the LHS to 2x?
no wait, it would be 8 (mod 10) at that point right?
sorry I've never worked on these lol
The "(mod 10)" applies to the entire congruence as a whole, not just to the right-hand side.
So adding 7 to both sides gives you $6x+10 \equiv 1+7 \pmod{10}$.
Troposphere
So, indeed 8 on the right-hand side.
And when everything (constants and the modulus alike) is even, you can divide by 2 everywhere and be left with just $3x\equiv 4 \pmod 5$
Troposphere
Okay I see now. Thank you so much, I think I got it from there 🙂
I think I got it! I took another direction, but it seems to be working
Thank you @wooden glen
Hey all, I've been trying to adapt this sub-linear time approach for calculating the divisor summatory function for squares to work for $$d(2n^2)$$ instead. Any suggestions on how I could go about doing that? I can see that $$d(2n^2) = d(2)d(n^2)$$ for odd numbers but still somewhat stumped on how I could tweak everything to give me a sub-linear method for calculating $$D(N) = \sum_{n=1}^{N} d(2n^{2})$$ overall
Grandmaster Shadow Morgue
Anyone got any idea how I can show the inequality portion? I think I know how to show the other two bits.
Perhaps they just want to say that you can find a solution -n/2 <= x <= n/2 (which is an interval containing n integers) because for any solution that you find, you can always shift it mod n back down to the interval between [-n/2, n/2].
that makes sense
i was also thinking it has something to do with the fact that mod n is cyclic
Lol this isn’t quite true if you have n=4, a=1, m=2, then x=2 and -2 both work, so technically you need -n/2 < x <= n/2 or -n/2 <= x < n/2
good call, the interval -n/2 <= x <= n/2 actually contains n+1 integers for even n, which makes it possible that both -n/2 or n/2 be solutions
hm, so maybe their isn’t a unique solution for even n, but only odd n
Would it also work if we factored the left as 3(2x+1) = 1 (mod 10), then multiplied both sides by 4 -> 12(2x+1) = 12 (mod 10), leading to 2(2x+1) = 2 (mod 10)?
I havent taken any number theory before, I'm just learning about it and trying ideas
The trouble there is that multiplying by 4 modulo 10 is not injective, so you'd risk ending up with spurious roots.
(That doesn't actually happen in this case, but verifying that it didn't happen will be an additional complication).
Oooh
So it could have extraneous roots to test, but it actually worked?
Like I could solve 2(2x+1) = 2 (mod 10) as an easier version of the original
I'm not sure it's actually easier, but you do have a valid ==> reasoning.
Let a, b be positive integers such that b^n+n is a multiple of a^n+n for all positive integers n. Prove that a=b.
I'm just gonna link you the proof that you found yesterday and when you are ready to talk about which steps you are not understanding about it, then we can help you https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/988167/if-for-all-n-in-bbbn-an-n-divides-bn-n-then-a-b
Hey, i'm working on this PUTNAM question and I was wondering if you could give me some hints on where I should go looking? I only have calculus under my belt so i'm guessing I need to learn some more maths for it, which is the direction I'm looking for.
the question:
Let N be an integer, and x^2 + y^2 +z^2 = N a sphere. Find the constraints on N so that the sphere has an inscribed regular tetrahedron, whose coordinates are integers
i'm guessing it's related to number theory so I've been watching richard brocherd's lecture series on youtube but so far I'm still clueless. Am I on the right direction?
In geometry and polyhedral combinatorics, an integral polytope is a convex polytope whose vertices all have integer Cartesian coordinates. That is, it is a polytope that equals the convex hull of its integer points.
Integral polytopes are also called lattice polytopes or Z-polytopes. The special cases of two- and three-dimensional integral polyt...
Seems related
Especially the in optimisation section
You start with an integral tetrahedron and then apply your spherical restriction
Well that’s the hunch I have, don’t know much about solving these kind of competition problems
Did you try #competition-math ?
oh thank you!
that's seems like a good lead, although I'm a bit scared the answer will be just there on the page
no, my fault for rushing into the discord channels 🙇♂️
that's a great approach. I was sure i had to go the other way - restricting the circle, but first looking at what I can restrain just from knowing it's an integral tetra seems productive
Yep, think the wiki mentioned using linear programming as well so that might come in handy
Here is a nice number theory problem:
Let $n \in \mathbb{Z}^{+}$. Determine all divisors $d \in \mathbb{Z}^{+}$ of $3n^2$ which are such that the number $n^2 + d$ is equal to a perfect square of an Integer.
Emmanouel
Here is what we've done so far:
Because $d \mid 3n^2 \implies 1 \leq d \leq 3n^2 \land \exists m \in \mathbb{Z}^{+}$ such that $3n^2 = dm$.
Now notice $n^2 + d = k^2$ for some $k \in \mathbb{Z}^{+}$. $n^2+d=k^2 \iff d = k^2 - n^2 \iff d=(k-n)(k+n)$.
Emmanouel
Now we are at a point where we need to reach the next step, however the vision is foggy, so we cannot easily see it...
Hmm guess we need to establish some bounds for k right
It is a nice problem
We could plug your value for d in $$1 \leq d \leq 3n^2 \implies 1 \leq k^2 - n^2 \leq 3n^2 \implies 1 + n^2 \leq k^2 \leq 4n^2 $$
Grandmaster Shadow Morgue
Also note that $\because if d = 1 \implies n=0 \notin \mathbb{Z}^{+} \therefore d \geq 2 \implies 2 + n^2 \leq k^2 \leq 4n^2$.
Emmanouel
This is getting a bit interesting...
why would d=1 imply n = 0?
$d = (k-n)(k+n)$. $\because$ For $d=1$ we have $1=(k-n)(k+n) \implies k-n=1 \land k+n=1$. Solving the system we get $\implies k-n + k + n = 2 \iff 2k=2 \iff k=1 \in \mathbb{Z}^{+} \land n=1-k=1-1=0 \notin \mathbb{Z}^{+} \therefore d \neq 1$.
Emmanouel
Prove if a|d and c|d and gcd(a,c)=1 then ac|d. I can't seem to get it
Use Bézout's lemma, and multiply d by 1 (i.e. d = d*gcd(a,c))
If you're still struggling after giving that hint a fair shake, ask again
I'm learning to solve congruences... Is there anything wrong with this method? The book says x is congruent to 4 mod 5. Is that because I can rewrite the equation 6•4=4•5+4?
It's not quite clear what your reasoning is when you're just showing a pile of formulas without any explanation of what their relation to each other is.
Oh my b
However surely you agree that x=9 also works as a solution.
I think I get it
Since you start by an assumption that's true about x=9 and end with a conclusion that's false about x=9, the step where you go from "this claim is true when x=9" to "this claim is false when x=9" must be invalid.
isn’t x = 2 and x=-2 the same in mod 4 though
for question 3b how do i prove it while also accounting for cases when n is even and i end up with a 2 as the answer?
use the binomial theorem with a clever choice of a and b @sacred junco
thank you.
alternatively, try finding a bijection between the even and odd subsets of an n element set using the symmetric difference.
proving this by cases on the parity of n is cumbersome and inefficient
and ur welcome
I was messing around with some things regarding prime moduli in an attempt to write a problem which uses Wilson's theorem. I proposed this problem: Let $p$ be a prime. For what primes $p$ is [ \sum_{k = 0}^{p} (p - k)! \equiv p - 1 \pmod p?]
Clearly, by Wilson's theorem, we have that $(p - 1)! \equiv -1 \pmod p \equiv p - 1 \pmod p$
Is there anything interesting about p = 5 and p = 7 that makes this true?
I also considered primes because I know that I can exploit the existence of inverses to derive expressions for $(p - k)!$ since we have that [ (p - 2)! \equiv (-1)(p - 1)^{-1} \pmod p,] etc
Prove $11^n - 4^n$ is divisible by 7 when n is a positive integer. I know im supposed to use induction but could I get a hint
Rishi
The base case is easy enough to check since 11 - 4 = 7 which is divisible by 7. What does your inductive hypothesis look like?
Are 3 and 2 the only primes seperated by 1?
Ah, yeah okay.
lol even sorry
Assume for induction that the nth case holds, we will use this assumption to show that the n+1th case holds
And idk what to do after that like
How do I use 11^n - 4^n is divisible by 7 to show 11^n+1 -4^n+1 is divisible by 7
Note that 11^{n + 1} = 11 * 11^n and 4^{n + 1} = 4 * 4^n
Ok
So
11^{n + 1} - 4^{n + 1}
= 11 * 11^n - 4 * 4^n
= (7 + 4) * 11^n - 4 * 4^n
Ohhhhhg
Do you think you could finish the rest?
It should fall out easily from there
Factor out a four
Yep, sounds like you got it
Tysm
How do I find the number of solutions there are to the congruency $x^7 \equiv 1 \mod{99}?$
cali5nia
It would help to decompose 99 into 9 and 11, and apply the Chinese Remainder Theorem to find solutions to the individual congruences: [ x^7 - 1 \equiv 0 \pmod 9, \quad x^7 - 1 \equiv 0 \pmod{11}]
Hausdorff
How should I do this?
Hausdorff
Let n be odd, so n = 2m + 1 for some integer m.
Then n/2 = m + 1/2
so floor(n/2) = m = (n-1)/2. QED.
thank you
Having a look at this question here: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1441359/prove-that-p-1-cdot-p-2-cdots-p-r-1-is-divisible-by-some-prime i'm trying to mine for an alternate proof my idea was to negate Euclid's lemma and induction I ended up using the negation of Euclid's lemma to prove the induction hypothesis
But i'm not sure if the idea is correct
Just need help finishing (2), the other cases seem fine
Let $C$ be the cubic curve [y^2 = x^3 + 1. ] For each prime $p \leq 5 < 30$, describe the group of points on this curve having coordinates in the finite field with $p$ elements.
Arkyter
How do I do this...???
wth does
group of points on this curve having coordinates in F_p mean
I guess you look at the rational points of this curve and examine what group do these make.
for reference this exercise is from Silverman and Tate's rational points on Elliptic Curves
oh i just don't understand what this means
why F_p?
Because each rational can be viewed as some element of F_p, right?
Say, 5/7 in F_11. This is jsut 5 * 7^(-1)
i actually don't know what F_p is
fair, but what's the 11 doing
so for F_11 is it {0, 1, 2, ... , 10}?
Yeah.
i see
so this means
each P = (x, y) on the curve has x, y \in F_p
if x and y are rational you can treat them as elements of F_p.
Height?
as in x = a/b for coprime a, b. then height = max(a, b)
You reduce mod p.
3/11 has height 11
what do u mean?
Yeah I don't know how 3/11 would work in F_11. But for example, 3/12 would be 3/1 in F_11.
They are as different as 6 and 10 are in say Z_4.
oh hmm
but if we're looking at an elliptic curve are we like
how would i visualize this...
drawing an elliptic curve in F_p
Are you sure you have enough background for this book? Not wanting to sound rude, but I thought it's quite advanced. And Im sure you probably have some theorems to work out this problem.
oh, i definitely don't have the background for it. im a high school student! im working through it for fun
and i got past chapter 1 and did almost every exercise
im on ch. 2 now and im just confused
because it feels like there's a big jump
i learned what holomorphic and meromorphic meant earlier, so im trying exercise 2.4 but i got confused heh
idk how advanced it's meant to be...
the book discussed the nagell lutz theorem, but I don't think that applies here
since it discusses points of finite order
not finite field
in fact ch. 2 never talked about finite field so i got confused
i imagine that if we have a curve C in F_p it implies we can only look at (x, y) where x, y have height less than p (i think)
Maybe someone else can help, I myself haven't learned that stuff yet. Although I really should, it sounds interesting.
thank you!!
i really want to go into number theory in the future so I'm trying my best here hehe
Well, don't want to discourage you on reading this book, but I think it would be better if you learned a decent amount of abstract algebra/nt beforehand.
yea i figured :3 i had to distract myself from the book to learn more of that
i might do that again, considering I can't grasp the idea of finite fields yet
Yeah, well, you have all the time in the world to learn this Id say. If you want to get into number theory then you will have to learn abs algebra at some point. I think a book by Dummit Foote is great for selfstudying, it goes through most stuff you will need.
alright I'll check it out
I believe I need to begin with binomial expansion
@vernal void try that
Thank you @vivid zephyr 😄
I mean, what are you unsure about with the binomial expansion?
like
if it was
(n+1)^2 then i'd write
(n+1)(n+1) but here i don't know what to do
because it's to the n power
Expand it out
For these sorts of things, I like to start with a small n to see what happens.
Perfect example is letting n = 2 as you have
Yeah, so you can factor an n out. Try again for n=3 and n=4
in which case we know that n^2 + 2n = n(w) for w integer
Yeah, it's a bit of a pain as you increase that exponent. I'm just trying to see if you can find the pattern.
let me try with 4
yes
aalways has a +1 at the end
which is then deleted by the -1
so always has n in it
so obviously always divisible by n
Yeah!
cause the other stuff is integers 😄
WOW
thank you!
Tho i am so new to proofs ahah
So now you just need to formalise this for all n
That's fine. We'll go through it. Are you familiar with the binomial expansion?
Thanks haha
I can't call right now. Shared office and all.
all good
Are you familiar of the general way of determining coefficients for binomial expansion?
Like for an arbitrary n without needing to multiply and add up a bunch of stuff
i am not my good brother
No worries. I'll recite it here
i should be able to infer from ur above messages but no, off the top of my head, i am not familiar =[
It's usually read as "n choose i". So if you have n objects, how many combinations of length i can you form from them.
Usual example is something like poker. If you have 52 cards, how many different 5-card poker hands are there?
Anyway, you can compute this. $\binom{n}{k} = \frac{n!}{(n-k)!k!}$
IamDerek
where n! = n(n-1)(n-2)...(2)(1)
gotcha, okay
Going back to your problem, all of our a's are n's, and all of our b's are 1. So you can expand that puppy out you should see that you get something like
a bunch of powers of n along with a b^n at the end, where b = 1 in our case.
😄
You can also see that anything of the form $\binom{n}{k}$ has a factor of $n$ for $k\neq 0,n$.
IamDerek
But you should work that out (again, try a few small n) to convince yourself.
So basically use this to try and re-compute your n=2,4 examples to see if they match up.
If you want more on binomial expansion: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Binomial_theorem
In elementary algebra, the binomial theorem (or binomial expansion) describes the algebraic expansion of powers of a binomial. According to the theorem, it is possible to expand the polynomial (x + y)n into a sum involving terms of the form axbyc, where the exponents b and c are nonnegative integers with b + c = n, and the coefficient a of each ...
They explain it better than I ever could
great, let me check that out!
Well thank you
I can figure it out from here
Tho derek i will say that
i will probably need help on so many problems this semester :/
Just ask if you do. People in here are generally pretty helpful
and right now im saying
let (n+1)^n = binomial expansion (like the one you wrote)
every component has an n, and (1)^n = 1 for all n in Z
Uhh can someone help
lol
therefore n|(n+1)^n -1 for all n > 0
but i feel like i'm missing proof structure =[
The only thing I'd maybe add is showing that every inner coefficient has a factor of n in it, and the leading term is n^n. So your only problematic term is 1^n = 1, but you subtract that off.
So show that $\binom{n}{0},\binom{n}{n}$ are both equal to 1. And show that $\binom{n}{k}, 0 < k < n$ has some factor of $n$ attached to it.
IamDerek
Don't be too concerned with this. You're just writing up a statement and convincing someone a hypothesis is actually true.
The only thing you haven't convinced me of is that every inner coefficient has a factor of n in it.
Oh! It just occurred to me there's another way of doing this. You can just look at the powers of $n$. So by binomial theorem your only term with $n^0$ is the last term.
IamDerek
No problem. Don't get too caught up in structure right now. You'll get better as you practice more. A proof is just a way of writing something to convince yourself and others that something is true.
what's the best way to prove these?
im saying stuff like "by definition, any even number can be divided by 2" but idk if 'm allowed to say stuff like that
@vivid zephyr how would you go about these? do i have to prove both ways because the if and only if?
Someone =[
first, what is your definition of an even number? of an odd number?
yes u have to prove both ways
thank you!
hi nt ppl!
any ideas how to go further with this?
i made a complete guess that the Legendre symbol here would work
considering that we're looking at y^2
in F_p
now i need to prove my conjecture is right
Haha I admire your humility but I don't think this is #elementary-number-theory. People who know how to answer your question will probably be in #advanced-number-theory
Maybe someone who knows will pop by
alright!
oh okay
ive been working on the same book since 2 months back and I was directed here from the hw channel
so ive been camping here when i needed help :)
ill move though! thank you
Why is it that given a positive integer $n$ and $x = (n + 1)! + 2$, that the next prime number is $n$ numbers away from $x$?
E.g. if $n = 2$, $x = (2 + 1)! + 2 = 8$, then the next prime is $2$ numbers away, i.e. $11$.
**Is there a name for this result? ** I know $x$ will always be even because of $2$ being in the product and adding 2, but can't tie this back to the result.
mmerc
No sorry, I just took it for granted as I came across it in a proof of the theorem that "for every positive integer n, there is a sequence of n consecutive positive integers containing no primes."
Huh, interesting
Well it's not true for n = 6 so...
perhaps you misread this lemma
He says "Suppose n is a positive integer. Let $x = (n + 1)! + 2$. We'll show that
none of the numbers $x, x + 1, . . . , x + (n − 1)$ is prime."
mmerc
So for n = 2, x = 8, he's showing that 8 and 9 are not prime?
But what about 10
The quote in my previous message doesn't make sense to me
Or is the point of the proof to show that the distance to the next prime grows with $n$ and is at least $n$?
mmerc
So it doesn't matter that 10 isn't included in the sequence.
And I had misread the quote as saying that none of the numbers from x+1, ..., x+n are prime.
But is there an intuitive reason as to why x, x+1, ... x+(n-1) are not prime?
Hey guys, I am currently reading Tom Apostol's Calculus 1. I've come across this proof that shows the existence of square roots. I kinda generally understand this proof, but I am not sure where the value "c" comes from. Any thoughts would be appreciated.
you just take the average of b and a/b which are two numbers which multiply to a. the idea being that this will be closer to sqrt(a) than b
for example if we wanted to approximate the sqrt of 3, we could start with b=2, then 3/b=1.5 and the real sqrt should be between 1.5 and 2. so we set our next approximation as average of 1.5 and 2
Yeah so it’s not saying that x + n is certainly prime.
Just that the integers starting from x and ending at x + (n - 1) inclusive are not prime
There should be a proof given when it made that statement.
Help
I am asked to show that $\sum _{p \leq x} [\frac{x}{p}] \log p = x \log x + O(x)$ where p is a prime
bert
can I get any hint
I have already been told that I must use von - mongoldt function but I don't understand how exactly does that help
lord of crime
yea but I don't see how that helps
we reduce to summing log p / p and log p but the sum is still over primes
so we still cannot apply any of the summation formulas
themateo713
Hi ! Can anyone tell me if this argument is alright? I want to prove that the only positive solution to this equation is irrational : x^5+x=10. So first of all, I suppose there is a rational solution, let's say x=p/q with p and q relatively prime. That means (p/q)^5 + (p/q)=10 and so p^5 + pq^4=10q^5. We can write p(p^4+q^4)=10q^5, so that means 10q^5 is a multiple of p. Either p divides 10 or p divides q^5 (This was the part I wasn't sure about). We know that the last option is false since p and q are relatively prime. So p is in {-10,-5,-2,-1,1,2,5,10}. Also, we have p^5= 10q^5 - pq^4 so that means p^5 = q(10q^4 - pq^3). p^5 is a multiple of q so q divides p^5 ---> q divides p (Can I say that?) Since q divides p and since they are relatively prime, q is in {-1,1}. We can test all of p/q to see none of them works.
for the part you aren't sure about, you could just say that since p | 10q^5 and p and q^5 are relatively prime, p divides 10
by euclid's lemma
I wouldn't say "either p divides 10 or p divides q^5" though
other than that it sounds ok
also if you didn't realize, what you pretty much did is go through a special case of the rational root theorem
I'm struggling to understand this proof. More specifically, I'm not sure where "k" comes from (is it just a?) and also why (k-b)p_i = + or -1 and not just -1
wait I got it now
I didn’t réalise actually! Thanks a lot
I would like to start learning some number theory, and I'm looking for any1 who wants to learn with me. I'd like to set up a VC every stretch of time.
Multiple ppl welcome, ping me please
Edit: were now a group of 2! Feel free to join in the fun
I’m struggling with this problem that I found. I’m guessing that it’s true, and that in the proof I’ll need to involve the division algorithm. Other than that, I’m not sure how to approach this. Does anyone have any ideas or tips?
is there a general "solution" to a^n (mod n)?
can this be reduced for all integers n?
for questions like this, it is often a good start to look at n for small values of m, and see if you note a pattern.
Like is there a way to simplify a^n mod n?
Well for non prime n
Because for prime n was could use fermats little theorem
Can someone help me with this question please?
Corollary 2.10. Let p be a prime and $a,b \in \mathbb{Z} p | a^n \implies p | a$
swifteeee
Exercise - use corollary 2.10 to show that for any prime p, p^1/n is irrational
what have you tried?
Essentially I've proved that p^1/n isn't an integer
But I haven't used the corollary and I can't find a use so I think I've done something wrong
Sorry for the sloppy work I was just trying to get my thoughts down
this isnt correct
and you cant really talk about divisibility properties of p^(1/n) if it isnt an integer
try a proof by contradiction
and if you want to use corollary 2.10 you probably want to raise everything to the exponent n at some point
Sps p^1/n is rational
Then p^1/n = a/b for some a,b in Z b \neq 0
Then p = a^n / b^n
B^n \in Z, implying that p is factorised by integers b^n and a^n, contradicting the fact that primes can only be factorised by themselves and 1
the last line doesnt quite work
And a \neq p^1/n as a \in Z
you cant talk about factorizations unless you have integers
you can only get something like pb^n = a^n
now there are multiple angles of attack
This implies that a^n divides p, and that is only possible if a = p^1/n, which contradicts our assumptions?
it does not imply that a^n divides p
at least not immediately
you do get p | a^n
and can use your corollary
Hence p | a