#advanced-algebra
1 messages ¡ Page 17 of 1
Yea it is true
Guys I found such an awesome proof of this I really want to share it
But the character limit is too small to contain it?
First for context, after I thought it was not possible i caved to weakness and asked to chatgpt (I want ot use such ''''tools'' at little as posble cause im opposed to it idealogically and i think its lame and anti human ) ot be sure fo it and it said it was actually true but not canonically and it gave me like a huge wall of text that i just was not gonna read but it said something that a fg torsion module over dedekind domain is completely determined by the isomorphism types of its localisations at primes (in a more elaborate and text wall way ofc). I asked why it gave another huge wall of text but it jad soemthing avoutn the classification of modules over a Dedekind domain in it (which I was not aware of at the time) and so i quit the the prompt cause i wa sfeeling really bad abt using gpt for mah thesis but i looked in curtis-reiner and it fr had a section on classification of fg moduels over Dedekind domain and it had some classification result in it and i used that and thought about and this proves what i wanted it. But i felt bad about ti all day
So at the end of the day I was writing all my results down and I typed a proof that was liek follows from this theorem in CR and this gives a non - canonical isomroopshism. Then sometime I was standing and listening to music and I was suddenly hit by a flash of insight I really don't know how and I instantly knew a direct proof that is really insightfull in my opinion and it is also kind of funny. Plus it gives a canonical isomorphism. This made me really excited and feel less guilty. This is more fun to me so from now on I vow not to use any ai '''tools''' for anyhtign related to my thesis. If you think this corny or stupid or whaytevr. I dont care and IDGAF đ this is mine so i can do whhat i want X) peace
ok now i will type it out
It wil follow from the following lemma:
Let $R$ be Dedekind and $M$ a f.g. torsion $R$-module. There is a (canonical) isomorphism [ M \cong \bigoplus_{\mathfrak{p}} M_\mathfrak{p}.]
Proof: Since $M$ is finitely generated and torsion, $\mathrm{Ann}R ~ M \neq 0$ (think about that -_0 ). Let $A = R / \mathrm{Ann}R M$. Then $A$ is Artin and $M$ is the restriction of a scalars of a finitely generated $A$-module $M_A$ along the quotient map $R \to B$. Writing $\iota:\mathrm{Spec}~A \to \mathrm{Spec}~R$ for the inclusion, we may rephrase this as $\tilde{M}=\iota\ast \tilde{M_A}$. Since $A$ is Artin, $\mathrm{Spec}~ A$ is finite and discrete. Hence,
\begin{align*}
\Gamma \tilde{M} &= \Gamma \tilde{M_A} = \prod{x \in \mathrm{Spec}~ A} \Gamma({x},\tilde{M_A}) = \bigoplus_{x \in \mathrm{Spec}~A} (\tilde{M_A})x = \bigoplus{x \in \mathrm{Spec}~R} (\iota_\ast\tilde{M_A})x = \bigoplus{\mathfrak{p} \text{ prime of } R} M_\mathfrak{p}.
\end{align*}
q.e.d.
By the lemma, it suffices to check that, writing $A=R/I$,
[
(I^{-1}/R)\mathfrak{p} \cong A\mathfrak{p},
]
for all primes $\mathfrak{p}$. As $R$ is Dedekind, $I$ is projective, hence flat. Thus,
[
I^{-1}/R = I^{-1} \otimes_R R/I = I^{-1} \otimes_R A.
]
Since $I^{-1}$ is invertible, $I_\mathfrak{p}^{-1} \cong R_\mathfrak{p}$ at all primes $\mathfrak{p}$. Hence,
[
(I^{-1}/R)\mathfrak{p} = I^{-1}\pp \otimes_{R_\mathfrak{p}} A_\mathfrak{p} \cong A_\mathfrak{p}.
]
Ok so maybe it is not tecthnically canonical since for the last step you need to choose a generator of $I$ but it is almost canonical lol ahah. Whatever if you read this, thank you for reading.
Maybe don't bother reading this unless you are really crazy about commutative algebra. The essential idea is to rephrase it in terms of sheaves on the spectrum of some artin ring, and then using that the global sections of a sheaf on a discrete space is just the product of the stalks at all the points. Which is kind of an unexpected direction for this proof to take since when I was writing these things I was working on some problem in representation theory.
sorry for the deranged walls of text people have a good day algebra chat
1728
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Cute proof
Suppose f: C --> C' and g: D --> D' are chain maps
Then f (x) g is a chain map with components (f (x) g)_n = \osum_(i+j =n) f_i (x) g_j
Consider MC(f (x) g). Does it have any relationship with MC(f) and MC(g)?
I was thinking something like MC(f (x) g) = MC(f) (x) MC(g), but that's probably wrong
Is the nilradical defined for non-commutative rings?
Yes but you still have to define it for two sided ideals afaik, and for Noetherian rings it just coincides with the usual prime radical
Good point, but a small clarification: in noncommutative rings, the upper nilradical and prime radical are different in general, but coincide for Noetherian rings (and are equal in the commutative case). Both are two-sided ideals.
Please donât respond to me, or anyone else, with chatGPT output. Especially when youâre saying exactly what I have already said.
Thanks!
I didnât say ur wrong.. I was just clarifying your point, and donât assume, I tried to give him a clarified response of his ques.
I think the definition I've seen would be that the nilradical is the sum of all (left) nil ideals, which you can then show equals the sum of all right nil ideals and hence is two sided.
So you don't have to define it for two sided ideals, but you need to use ideals and not elements.
I am to show that that the functor RIng -> Set: R |-> Nil(R) is not representable, so is this definition even functorial?
It's not, no.
đ F...k
But maybe it's a more interesting exercise if Ring is the category of commutative rings
Or I guess Nil(R) could just mean the set of nilpotent elements.
Neither should be representable
I asked my TA if the rings were assumed to be commutative and he said, no, he thinks his proofs work
I mean, if something isn't a functor then it also isn't representable, so his proof might work
yes, indeed
But yeah, then I guess the follow up should be how he's defining Nil(R)
But whatever it is, surely if you restrict to commutative rings it should be the same. And just considering commutative rings should be enough to prove it not representable
So that would be an approach for you to solve it no matter what he answers
true
Is this meant to be the mapping cone?
It's not as simple as MC(f) (x) MC(g) at least.
Just consider C=D=C'=D' = Z and f multiplication by 2, g multiplication by 3 for example
Hi, is there anybody who knows what is pfaffian in linear algebra? What are the fundamental properties?
it's like a square root of the determinant
In mathematics, the determinant of an m-by-m skew-symmetric matrix can always be written as the square of a polynomial in the matrix entries, a polynomial with integer coefficients that only depends on m. When m is odd, the polynomial is zero, and when m is even, it is a nonzero polynomial of degree m/2, and is unique up to multiplication by Âą1...
it is used in the chern-gauss-bonet theorem
Thank you, but how can I associate a polynomial to a Matrix, the determinant is not a Number?
The determinant is a polynomial
And the pfaffian is a polynomial with
Pf(A)^2 = det(A)
for A skew symmetric
Is It?Take R^2,2 Matrix ((a b),(c,d)) which is the polynomial?
ad - bc is the polynomial
A polynomial is a function involving multiplication and linear combinations of the unknowns
Ah ok, so It's not a polynomial in just One variable with fixed coefficients, but four variables.
Ah ok, thank you!
I feel this is potentially misleading saying it's a function
Maybe it's ok here in context lol
Meh, always makes sense to think of them as functions as long as you're not married to the domain being the ground field
A polynomial is stored in the map P^*: Spec(k[x]) \to Spec(k[x]) which is a function.
Nice
and if k is a field then you can just look at maxspec
Don't you also need the data of the sheaf of rings here (i.e. the morphism of schemes)
to remember the polynomial
Or am I cooked...
true
No u
A polynomial is stored in the map Y(P^*): Y(Spec(k[x])) \to Y(Spec(k[x])) then
So much in that excellent formula.
E = Yoneda + AI
A polynomial is just a function * -> k[x]
A polynomial with variables in S is an element of the end $\int_R (R^S \to R)$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
I haven't learned ends and coends, is this equivalent to saying "finitely supported function N^S --> R"
Itâs essentially a set of natural transformations
Given any set $S$, we can define the $|S|$-times power of a ring $R$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Just the ring of functions S -> R under pointwise operations
This defines a functor CRing -> CRing
You can then look at the set of natural transformations between this and the identity functor
Hm you may want to compose with the forgetful functor to Set first
Yes you do this
So the set of natural transformations between this and the forgetful functor
it's actually quite impressive how quickly you can manipulate these categorical concepts. My dumbahh is still struggling to compute this as an equaliser
this is just the kan extension formula for a left adjoint
this end is $\text{Nat}(\mathbf{Set}(S, U(-)), U(-))$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
right yeah I get that R^S is the S power of R or whatever but I want to see it
which is iso to $\text{Nat}(\mathbf{Ring}(\mathbb{Z}[S], -), U(-))$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
and by Yoneda that's $U(\mathbb{Z}[S])$
oh my science le heckin free forgetful adjunction
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
this is the part I want to compute
ah sure
you can think of intuitively as "if I have a function from S -> U(R), what are all the possible ways to 'evaluate' it to produce an element of R?"
the polynomial ring Z[S] answers this question
it's the ring of all possible evaluators
I know more generally that the end of Hom(F(-), G(-)) is Nat(F, G) but I want to remind myself why
hmmm
this is a very "kan extension"-y view point
yes exactly
the kan extension formula for a left adjoint for a functor $G : D \to C$ is $F(c) = \int_d d^{\text{Hom}(c, Gd)}$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
i.e. "given a morphism c -> Gd, what are all the possible ways to 'evaluate' it to produce an element of d?"
is the rough idea
ok I've finally remembered what the maps in the equaliser are and yeah I can see why they're natural transformations
yeah I've definitely seen this before as well it's just oh so very fuzzy oh so very blurry
I shall compute this one as well
she twists my arrow category til my end co
If I replace Ring with R-Alg this ends up as R[S] instead of Z[S] right?
i believe so, R[S] should be the free R-algebra
I see, thanks
Yes it is, my apologies for not saying!
Ah ok! I'll see if I can find the correct formula somewhere (if it exists)
Also, is it known how the mapping cone plays with quasi-isos? If you have two chain maps f ~ g, is MC(f) related to MG(g) in some way?
If f and g are homotopic then the mapping cones should be homotopy equivalent.
Thanks!
Also like the mapping cone is a thing that makes sense in the derived category (and oo-categorically it has the same universal property as cokernels do usually) so this will be true and you should expect it to work very well accordingly
Thanks!!
Why do we describe vectors as arrows initially but itâs not reflective of mathematical reality (i.e. theyâre not arrows when dimension n>3)
guy discovers intuition
i don't really see the issue with describing vectors in R^n with n > 3 as arrows
What would an arrow in R^4 look like
lol
Also vectors needn't be in R^n either
It would look like a line segment with a little pointy thing at the end
ChatGPT said something (which I verified): h_1= f times 1_D, h_2=1_Câ times g, h=h_2 ⢠h_1=f times g. T: MC(h_1)-a->MC(h)-b->MC(h_2)-c->ÎŁMC(h_1) is a distinguished triangle , which is isomorphic to Tâ: MC(h_1)->MC(h)->MC(a)->ÎŁMC(h_1), where a=(h_2, 0; 0, 1), b=(1, 0; 0, h_1), c=(0, 1; 0, 0). The isomorphism is given by (1, 1, w) where w=(1, 0; 0, 0; 0, 1; 0, 0), whose inverse is (1, 1, wâ) where wâ= (1, 0, 0, 0; 0, h_1, 1, 0).
True lol
Can it be represented visually
Sure
I feel like for higher dims algebraic representation makes more sense
I'm not sure 3d and 4d are different in that regard, but sure
Can someone help me prove this
Let me parse this for a bit
Maybe start by identifying the cyclic subgroups of U(12)
(1,5) (1,7) (1,11)
I'm not sure what your notation means here
H= {1,5} a cyclic subgroup
Okay, I see what you mean.
Then try to pick two of those subgroups and compute their product
$${(1,1),(1,7),(5,1),(5,7)}$$
Haruki
Got this from {1,5} X {1,7}
Right, so what I actually meant, was computing their product in U(12).
But okay, can you imagine a homomorphisms from this direct product to U(12)
I am stuck there
I can't
So do you see how {1, 5} naturally sits as a subgroup inside the direct product?
Idk what you mean by this
Given two groups G and H, is there a subgroup of GxH isomorphic to G?
I don't know
Hmmm, do you know how elements in GxH multiply?
So given g in G what could be an element in GxH that has anything to do with it?
Yeah, so do you see how
g to (g, 1)
is a group homomorphism of G into GxH?
Allright, so what do we need to show?
If g and g' are two elements, then the homomorphism should take
g g'
to
the product of
(g, 1) And (g', 1)
Does it do that?
Yes it does
Allright, so then the direct product actually behaves as if you have a copy of G (things like (g, 1))
and a copy of H (things like (1, h)) and you take their product
(g, h) = (g, 1)(1,h)
Yup
So now back to U(12)
The most natural choice for a homomorphisms might take (5,1) to itself (i.e. 5) and (1, 7) to itself (i.e. 7)
Does this give you enough to determine a homomorphism?
Hmm i think I see it but we get two different?
One takes the first element from the pair
Another takes the second
I don't understand why
Also what about (5,7)
So let's give names to things:
f: {1,5} x {1,7} -> U(12)
is our homomorphisms.
Now I'm saying we would like
f(5, 1) = 5 and f(1,7) = 7
Are you able to figure out what f(1,1) and f(5,7) should be from this?
And is that a homomorphisms?
It should be but how do I give it a generalised form so that I can prove
Well what is the definition of a homomorphisms?
That it is a homomorphism
f(a*b)= f(a)*f(b)
And does f satisfy this?
Lemme check
Yup
But I checked just one
f{(1,1)x(5,1)}
Do I need to manually check them all?
Well it has to hold for all pairs a and b
If you don't see any pattern to it then that's the only way to find a pattern
Idk why but that hits hard
This is the correct way?
Cool phrase
If you really don't want to compute anything I guess maybe think about why you picked f(1,1) = 1 and why you picked f(5,7) = 11
I see a pattern where i take the direct product to u12 after multiplying a and b
I picked f(1,1)= 1
Cause every isomorphism does that
And took f(5,7)=11 cause 5*7= 35= 11 in Un
U_12
I mean
I don't think so
What would be a pattern that makes sense there?
I don't know how to put it in mathematical phrase
Well I wrote a formula here? Could we generalize it beyond just 5 and 7?
And is
f(g, h) in fact equal to g*h for all g and h?
Yup
So now you can use general variables for a and b instead of computing ever possible pair if you like
Wait lemme do it and show u
Got it
We have to use that u12 is commutative
Excellent!
Btw for the future this question would be more suited for #groups-rings-fields
Okay
Can we just say that u12 is commutative?
Or we need to show it too
Someone said
That u12 is similar to Kleins 4 group
Also thank you
I guess that depends on the assumed knowledge of your course / problem
Yes Klein 4 is exactly the product of two cyclic groups of order 2
Jagr is a man of many wise words âŚ
Jagr is a wise man
With wisdom comes age, soon I'll be a proper adult
Jagr is 75
Yearning for the day I'm no longer allowed to play those board games marked ages 9-99
From your username I can conclude that you are -782 years old
Thatâs how he knows so much maths, he came back from a time where homological algebra is taught in nursery
Maybe I need to put BCE at the end
Jagr is a man of many wise words âŚ
Ed Sheeran and Lego when they meet a 100 year old
can this sequence be continued?
Isn't this group cohomology?
You can identify H^i(G,M) with Ext^i_ZG and borrow its long exact sequence. Computing the individual terms comes down to putting your hands on the bar complex resolving Z or occasionally whatever description allows you to realize some H^i(G,M) vanishes.
I'm assuming A, B and C are non-abelian groups
I know for non-abelian sheaf cohomology there is an extremely painful way to get to H^2 in terms of gerbes, this is in Giraud for example
I can only imagine that one could write non-abelian group cohomology as non-abelian sheaf cohomology over some space
ÂŻ_(ă)_/ÂŻ
Iirc for noncommutative groups you like maybe provably cannot extend much more
Hmmm
I think my supervisor said something about being able to get H^2 and H^3 in like specific cases but anything more than that is hopeless (but I dont understand this at all so uhh no questions please)
Tbh my opinion was it's a miracle this stuff makes any sense at all aha
Something about like how things associate, he drew something which very much looked like the pentagon axiom and apparently that breaks shit if you try to extend things
why
But like do the H2 tell you something about that sequence, or is there no connecting map
I never understood why nonabelian cohomology seems much more intractable and poorly behaved. Tho H1 is not bad
could anyone help me understand what the superscript zero means?
does $E_{p*}^0$ just mean the chain complex formed by the 0th column?
Former Rank 7 LLORT AJNIN
Youâre doing spectral sequence stuff
Youâre about to make infinitely many pages which look like this, and will be denoted E^n_{pq}
No
By the pth column
Look at the bottom paragraph
Youâre going to take the homology to get the 1st page
Then there is a way to get differentials on the 1st page, and you take homology of that to get the second page
Then there is a way to get differentials on the 2nd page, and you take homology of that to get the 3rd page
And so on
E^n+1_p,q is the cohomology at E^n_p,q
And the maps keep changing direction by a factor of +1,+1 so they get more and more down and to the right
Yes
But weâre going to consider a sequence of double complexes, which will be indexed by the superscript
Why these maps exist is a mystery that no one has ever been able to figure out, it was given to Leray during WW2 in a dream
so from my starting (first quadrant) double complex, i form another double complex by taking vertical homology at every index (p,q)
Yeah but now your maps go to the right by 1, and then you take homology along those maps
Then your maps go 2 right 1 down then you take homology among those
Then they go 3 right 2 down and youâŚ
In special cases yes, in most cases no
If you have enough information sure, and often honestly you know whatâs on E^1 or E^2 and itâs usually a lot of 0s
So you donât need to know what these are
i mean im not very sure how we are getting the horizontal maps*
But in topology you use some spectral sequences which arenât this nice and figuring out what the maps actually are is like, totally intractable
See this comment above
ah okay let me continue reading abit more, thanks for the help
My advisor once joked like
Homotopy theory is the part of maths where you study spectral sequences which don't immediately degenerate
Yeah
ok i have understood up to page 3 now, this is really ugly
I thought all spectral sequences degenerate at page 2
They degenerate at page 2, or you run crying to your nearest homotopy theorist
shoot, I am my nearest homotopy theorist
Iâm sorry :3
the technicalities are horrible, but the ideas are quite clever
In pow camp of Austria*
If A is abelian you can continue this sequence and the vanishing of H^2(A) will tell you if the last map is surjective I think
Thereâs kind of the standard doctrinaire reason from homotopy theory: degree n group cohomology is represented in the homotopy category of spaces by maps from X to B^nG where B^nG is a space whose nth loop group is G. Since BG always makes sense there is always some notion of H^1. On the other hand since \pi_2 is always abelian there is no space B^2G for G nonabelian
ask in #prealg-and-algebra
slightly confused about the category of homology spectral sequence. Lets say we start at page 0, Is it right that it suffices to define a morphism as just a family of chain maps on page 0?
i understand how this can induce maps on between page 1, but its not clear to me that this will still be chain maps. or is it that we specifically also enforce this as part of the definition?
It needs to satisfy both parts of the definition yeah
What's a good introductory book on lie algebra for QCD? For reference I've don't MV Calc (calc 3), diff eq, and linear algebra (with some proofs)
You should do them first
Especially linear algebra is most used
anyone have a quick reference for the bijection between extensions and Ext? I need the 2 case in particular, going from injective resolution definition to an extension
Or maybe I can ask about it here too. Given eps in Ext^2(A,B), I have a cocycle representative in Hom(A,I^â˘), where I is an injective resolution of B
then I try to build my extension⌠in the Ext1 case, I know that I would do something like this. If I want a n exact sequence
0->B->C1->C2->A->0,
I could try setting C2 to be the pullback of the cospan I1 -> im(I1->I2) <- A
do I keep just putting pullbacks C1? or in general is that the strategy?
So you have a cocycle
A -> I2
then you take the pullback of
A
v
B -> I0 -> I1 -> I2
To get a sequence
B -> I0 -> pb -> A
hmm i see
oh yeah my indexing was off too
and the map from I0 to the pullback is like inclusion of a direct sum and before quotienting?
if weâve constructed the pb that way
or I guess weâre pairing the map I0->I1 and the 0 map to A
and it works because I^⢠is a complex
The kernel of pb -> A is naturally isomorphic to the kernel of I1 -> I2.
This is true in general for pullbacks.
Then you already have a map from I0 to the kernel
Yes exactly
i see, thanks!
Typo I meant âdoneâ Grammarly is being strange on my phone that le moment
Probably containment?
the idea is that the ideals look like \prod_i \in J R_i with J a subset of I, fliters are ordered by inclusion and hopefully it is clear why this induces an isomorphism of posets to the set of ideals under containment
is very complicated *if I is infinite
ah
ah
yea that was an answer to the question of what was the structure like when the product is not finite
thx y'all!!
oh im sorry lol didnt know the context
it's ok
what book is this?
stack exchange
yea it has a bunch of different subjects it's kinda crazy
I went researching about prime ideals on google because I wanted to find a really forced counter-example to a thing I made up in my mind
so I thought "can I make up a ring with an arbitrarily big cardinality of prime ideals?"
and I can, apparently
yes
I actually think I can use that thing to make up rings with any (infinite) amount of prime ideals which I think is interesting
it's also a thing I started thinking about
I think the set of filters is <= RxP (where P is the poset) and producting any P greater than or equal to R leaves it at P so this will end up having any cardinality I want
which also means conceptually that I can make up a ring with any set of prime ideals I want since yk bijections
although I think constructing it like that would be ugly asf
maybe
haven't thought too much about it
containment
wait I think I'm stupid
thought filters were sequence related for some reason
the filter thing is related to ultraproducts
mhgmhmg
so true
Why is the intersection being K enough here for them to be linearly disjoint, we are not given that the other extension is separable
As L is Galois
LM/M is galois and you have the natural map
Gal(LM/M) -> Gal(L/K).
This map is clearly injective and the image is Gal(L/E) where E is the things in L fixed by the Galois group of LM, i.e. LcapM, i.e. K.
So this is an isomorphism, hence [LM:M] = [L:K], so [LM:K] = [L:K][M:K]
Which is linear disjointness
So you're saying when we have something like
L M
\. /
\. /
K
And L/K is galois then for linear disjointness it's enough to show L \cap M=K?
That's what I'm saying
What is the natural map btw
Restricting the automorphism to L
You can generalize the result a little: as long as one of L/K and M/K is seperable then they're linearly disjoint of the intersection of M with every conjugate of L is just K.
Then if one of them is normal all the conjugates are the same, so the condition just becomes for the intersection to be K
So yeah one being galois is good or you can have one of them be seperable and the other normal
If V is a representation of G and H is a subgroup of G, then is V a subset of Ind_H^G (Res_H^G(V))?
nope
hmm
i am trying to prove that if V is an irreducible complex representation of G and H is a subgroup of G then V is contained in the induced representation of an irrep of H. And I found a surjection from some Ind_H^G U into V using the fact that Ind is left-adjoint to Res so now I was hoping V is a subset of Res(Ind(V)) to conclude V is actually a subset of Ind_H^G U
As long as the index of H is relatively prime to the characteristic of your field it should be a direct summand
Let g run over a set of representatives for G/H. Then a splitting of
kG (x)_H V -> V
is given by
v |-> 1/[G:H] Sum[g] g(x)g^-1 v
$v \mapsto \frac1{[G:H]} \sum_g g\otimes g^{-1}v$
jagr2808
The other order is easier.
If W is a kH-module, then Res(Ind(W)) always has W as a summand independent of index.
I would actually be curious if someone has a reference for this result.
I had to use it in a paper once and wasn't able to find it in the text books I looked through. Ended up just inlining this formula.
i see thank you for the explanation
in this question, is finding a surjection onto V enough to say V is contained in some induced representation?
Damn was gonna joke about how you need good characteristic but you already covered that
Man after my own heart
like V is contained in the sense that there is a surjection onto it
If G has order relatively prime to the characteristic of the field then kG is semisimple, so every surjections splits.
Anyone around that can help me understand solving radical/quadratic equations?
Kinda need a tutor.
im sure #prealg-and-algebra is better for you lol
Why you have undergrad tag then?
Tags are not meant to be a flex
because bro thought what they're doing is too advanced
this is a great blog
They clearly are asking in the context of Galois theory
I just find it funny how like the way it's written makes me feel the person doesn't understand Galois theory anyway
yeah lmao
Okay, I donât think this is actually true
Does anyone have any recommendations on textbooks/resources for Homological Algebra? Currently using Sophie Morels book however at times it can feel too abstract. Iâm just looking for something to use kind of along side what Iâm already doing for some more examples/results/stuff lol
Rotman is pretty gentle, its nice
I think most books on homalg will feel pretty abstract though, it just kinda is pretty abstract (though there are extremes, and Morels does seem to be on that other extreme lol)
Weirdly, even Weibel may be more approachable
Great, thanks guys!
The Bob Ross of math I stg
They aren't meant to be a full source more of a complement to a text
Indeed
I don't know if I really feel like they're usually a good intro either.
The main take away is intuition and examples, so good for when you've started but haven't finished
Consider the derived category D(R-Mod) for R a ring (i.e. chain complexes of R-modules with quasi-isomorphisms inverted). What limits and colimits does this category have? How can I compute them?
As an additive category, obviously it has finite (co)products (which are the same as those of complexes, since the localisation functor is additive). From https://stacks.math.columbia.edu/tag/05QU I believe lots of morphisms don't have kernels and cokernels (unless R-Mod is semisimple, in which case I think they all exist?). I'm guessing that direct sums, direct products and filtered colimits all exist and can be computed, but I don't see how to check this easily because homsets/groups in D(R-Mod) are complicated.
I can give a slightly ideological answer lol
Well okay not ideological
OK IG for these questions there's always a comparison map, e.g. for a colimit the colimit cocone in Ch(R-Mod) becomes a cocone in D(R-Mod). If I know the colimit exists in D(R-Mod) and is exact in Ch(R-Mod) then it follows that the comparison map colim_i [C_i] to [colim_i C_i] is an isomorphism on homology, so an isomorphism(?).
Sure.
But the correct things to consider in most cases are undoubtedly homotopy limits/colimits
Then it has all limits and colimits
Idk a situation where you'd want to do something else
Presumably a situation where the un-homotopy thing is easier to compute, in which case one hopes for a result telling one when it's close enough to the good homotopy thing for the difference to not matter?
Sure but then you would probably do it within the category of chain complexes, where things are more computable
Not in the derived category
Something not particularly hard to prove from the axioms is that in a triangulated category all epimorphism/monomorphisms split.
So using his (co) limits are (co) kernels of (co) products you get a strong condition on which (co) limits exist
Is this some infinity-category thing where Ch has an infinity-category sructure with homotopy category D? So to do infinity-category constructions you should stay in Ch?
It's mor that like D has an enhancement to an infinity category and it's what you get from inverting quasiisos in Ch
But you can also do stuff in Ch and pass to the oo cat D which is common
But what you're saying is sort of inbetween
I think if the (co)product exists, the (co)limit exists iff the (co)kernel exists. So if I know the (co)product always exists, I can check which (co)limits exist (at least if I'm good at finding splittings).
It's like the difference between topological spaces, the oo-category of spaces, and spaces modulo homotopy. The last one is pretty badly behaved categorically but appears
Though I find it funnier to say that the oo-category has an impoverishment to a triangulated category
Joking. Just bants
lol
is it a consequence of this that R is regular iff the resudie field has finite projective dimension. I think this is true but i guess im not sure how to piece the last two statements together to get this.
Yes
I mean Iâm really confused what youâre asking
- is the first condition and 4) is the definition of a regular local ring Iâm guessing
@round seal
oh im being slow I think
does anyone know a good linear/abstract algebra prof on yt
a good linear/abstract algebra prof on yt? lol if youâre not sitting with an actual textbook proving everything yourself getting stuck for 3 hours on a trivial lemma and rewriting the proof four times until it clicks youâre not learning math
thats why tiktok exists
I didnât even know he was an alcoholic
i miss when he did backflips to clear the board
what are elementary abelian p groups isomorphic to
should be like (Z/pZ)^n where the group is generated by n elements rihgt
how does that work and how could you even do that like idk Aut((Z/pZ)^n)
GL(n, p)
Dunno what you mean by âthat workâ or âcould you even do thatâ of course you can take the automorphism group
for a group representation from (Z/pZ)^n to Aut((Z/pZ)^n) how would you represent the elements on p (the elements are linear transformations but how can you find them)
for representations of elementary abelian p groups
I still have no idea what youâre asking but Iâll try anyway. The indecomposable representations of Z/pZ over F_p are given by sending the generator to a n by n pascal matrix with n < p-1. So you can easily map (Z/pZ)^n inside of GL(n, p) for any n by just choosing indecomposable representations of each Z/pZ and adding them. Unfortunately, if n > 2 this p-group has wild representation type and itâs essentially impossible to classify all of the indecomposable representations
what's GL(n,p)
general linear group of degree n over the finite field F_p where p is prime
nice
Does this hold incase of a finite extension L/K which is not necessarily separable
I was trying to complete the argument given in the comments. By showing that a K-basis of L would still be a K_v generating set of L_w
But i don't immediately see why it has to be the case
đĽđ.
This might not be the most elementary way to do it, but any finite-dimensional vector subspace of L_w (as a K_v-vector space) is complete, hence closed in L_w. So if you take the K_v-span of a K-basis of L, it it is both closed and dense (the latter because it contains L).
This is assuming a discrete (or maybe rank-1) valuation; general valuations behave more weirdly and i'm not sure if this in particular breaks.
Thank you.
Isn't this essentially the definition
If you have an infinite indexing set, are direct sum and direct product ALWAYS not isomorphic?
ie, does a infinte direct sum being of vs being isomorphic to an infinite product of vs imply that the indexing set of the direct sum and product must be finite?
yes unless they aren't for dumb reasons (like if you are taking a direct sum and all but finitely many factors are zero)
actually wait you said isomorphic not equal
hmm that's maybe trickier actually
yeah so for example if you take the infinite direct sum of Q vs the infinite direct product of Q
over a large enough index set they should be isomorphic
just because eventually they'll have the same dimension as Q vector spaces
actually nvm that isn't true the infinite direct product always has strictly larger cardinality basis
If all the summands are non-zero, then the canonical inclusion of the direct sum into the direct product will not be an isomorphism.
They might still be isomorphic in some other way though.
Like the countable direct sum and direct product of copies of Q^N should both just be isomorphic to Q^N
yeah I was going to say I think if you let A = some big product of Q over some huge index set, then the countable direct sum and direct product of A should be isomorphic
idk if countable is enough but eventually I think it works
I guess I amt rying to make the claim that they alwyas have differen tdimensioon
so what you are saying seems to imply thats not necessarily true?
Something to note is that an infinite dimensional vector space over Q has dimension equal to its cardinality.
So if the dimension of what you're summing is much bigger than your indexing set it should win out, be it product or sum
Is this the most appropriate text channel to discuss C*-algebras?
Consider the conjugation action of GL_3 on K^{3x3}, it induces an action on the set of its associative subalgebras. I want a complete list of GL_3-orbits of the associative subalgebras of the lower triangular 3x3 matrices. Any ideas/if itâs known can you give me some references? Many thanks!
It shouldn't be too hard to see that upper triangular matrices don't fix the lower triangular matrices as a subalgebra.
So then from LU decomposition you get must of the orbits uniquely presented by the upper triangular matrices.
Then you just have to deal with the case of matrices without LU decomposition.
are there any natural transformations between the identity functor on commutative F_p-algebras and itself that aren't powers of the frobenius?
Okay thanks!
No, consider what the natural transformation does to Fp[x]. It must send x to some polynomial f(x). Assume f(x) is not equal to x^n. Then f has a non-zero root (in some field extension E of Fp).
Consider the map Fp[x] -> E sending x to said root. Then the natural transformation would need to take that root to 0 which wouldn't be a homomorphism from E.
So such a natural transformation is given by sending anything to x^n and this is only a homomorphism (on for example the alg closure of Fp) for n a power of p
ah very nice, thanks!
yeah i was staring at F_p[x] but it didnt occur to me to think about roots of a thing in it. very slick
To add a comment to this, observe that a natural transformation of id induces a natural transformation of the forgetful functor U by applying U to its components. But U is represented by Fp[x], so Nat(U, U) = Nat(Hom(Fp[x], -), U) = U(Fp[x]) = Hom(Fp[x], Fp[x]) by Yoneda's lemma. In other words, a collection of set maps mu_A: A â A for all Fp-algebras A, natural in A, is always given by a polynomial f in Fp[x] by substitution.
Moreover, U is faithful, so the map Nat(id, id) â Nat(U, U) we applied earlier is injective, so we can view Nat(id, id) as a subset of Nat(U, U). (Concretely, a natural algebra endomorphism is a natural set map which is always an algebra homomorphism, so the set of such is a subset of all natural set maps.)
In fact, it is the set of Nat(U, U) satisfying some equational identities (those asserting that the components are algebra homomorphisms, e.g., for addition we get that the two natural transformations a, b from U ⨯ U which are componentwise a_A(x, y) = mu_A(x) + mu_A(y) and b_A(x, y) = mu_A(x + y) must be equal).
But all of these identities will be between U^k and U for some k, which means by Yoneda's lemma they can be identified with elements of U(Fp[x1, ..., xk]) (Fp[x1, ..., xk] represents U^k).
What this means in practice is that you only need to check the equational identities in a single, suitable "universal" case. For example, to check if mu given by f in Fp[x] is additive, you can just check additivity for the universal case of the algebra A = Fp[x, y] and elements x, y. In other words, f(x+y) = f(x) + f(y) as elements of Fp[x, y].
This is why it's a natural idea to look at polynomial rings.
Actually you can use this approach to classify natural additive maps, multiplicative maps, algebra homomorphisms on the category of (unital associative) commutative k-algebras for any commutative ring, though I think the answer only differs non-trivially from what we've seen for additive maps (and even then you can kind of see it's related to "Frobenius in char p, nothing but id in char 0").
this is the construction of a spectral sequence from a filtration of a chain complex
i dont understand how they got the very last isomorphism at the bottom
I've been looking at loop algebras (the nonassociative analog of group rings, not the typical meaning) and i think i found a moufang loop algebra that contains a 54-dimensional ideal, but i'm not sure how to go about constructing this
This is the second isomorphism theorem coupled with the intersection of A^r_p and Fp-1 being A^r-1_p-1
ah i gave up eventually but i see what you mean by that now
between the 3 hours and now, i just started my own chasing and actually somehow manage to chase the result from that the spectral sequence constructed from filtration of chain complex is indeed a spectral complex
Oh hey youâre here too
There was a discussion about nonassociative stuff in #advanced-lounge a few hours ago
Really? Where
what are even the kind of algebras arising from this
I can't imagine they'd be nice lol
the moufang loop i found was commutative, so i think the algebra was a jordan algebra
interesting
if anyone knows of any other 54D commutative algebras of importance let me know
what are jordan algebras
the only thing i remember is that associative algebras are jordan algebras iff they are commutative
In abstract algebra, a Jordan algebra is a nonassociative algebra (with unit) over a field whose multiplication satisfies the following axioms:
x
y
=
y
x
{\displaystyle xy=yx}
(commutative law)
(
âŚ
That's not right
oh wait no nvm
thats for an associative algebra is a jordan algebra
i mixed the two up (i said jordan algebras are associative iff they are commutative)
nonassociative algebras
Is there anyone who is studying sigma injectivity?
in general, is the socle of a module M the set annihilated by the radical rad(R)? what about if we let M be a ring R as an R-module over itself?
Not in general no. Take R = Z, then rad(R) = 0 which annihilates everything.
The condition you need is for R/rad(R) to be semisimple, for example for R artinian this would be true.
(and I guess you meant to write rad(R) not rad(M))
i see, thank you 
where could i find some examples of socle and cosocle filtrations?
also does anyone know any good references on noncommutative algebra? i am self-studying from 18.706 notes on mit ocw, but those get really hard to understand sometimes..https://ocw.mit.edu/courses/18-706-noncommutative-algebra-spring-2023/resources/mit18_706_s23_full_lec_pdf/
Kasch modules and rings
Lamâs noncommutative rings
Is it true that if M is a finitely generated module over a ring, then rad(M)=J(R) M? If not are there similar statements
no. let R = k[x] and M = R/(x^2)
(for k a field)
Can I get some feedback on this? This was a hard problem.
This is another thing that becomes true for R/J(R) semisimple.
In general J(R)M <= rad(M)
sanity check: the highlighted statement as written is not strictly true, n is not just the number of elements in a generating set but the MINIMAL number of elements in any generating set
Context is this problem. Clearly (xy, xz, yz) = I(X) = (x, y) cap (x, z) cap (y, z) is a decomposition of I(X) into its minimal primes. I would want to conclude here: but these each have height 2 in k[x, y, z] not height 3...
there is probably some not dimension theoretic approach, I feel the best I can get with dimension theory is that it has to have at least 2 generators
actually, I am tripping now; (x, y, z) has height 3 in k[x, y, z] and is prime but is clearly not a minimal prime over I(X) [because we explicitly know what all of these are]. On the other hand, the exercise is claiming that I(X) has a minimal set of 3 generators. Therefore the converse as written to the hieght theorem in the wikipedia article just doesn't make sense. Can someone point out where my (probably obvious) mistake is?
ah ok. The phrasing of the converse is just really bad on the wikipedia article. It's not true that a prime of height n is minimal over EVERY ideal generated by n elements (then this would give a counterexample). Rather, it is true that for every prime of height n, there exists an ideal generated by n elements (depending on the prime) over which that prime is minimal. IMO the wikipedia phrasing is very confusing
can a socle filtration of an R-module M just stop without reaching M? in what cases does it have to reach M?
yeah it stalls if the quotients have zero socle, usually needs to be semi-artinian
right
so I'm trying to find the socle filtration of R = k[G] as a module over itself, where G is a finite p-group and char k = p
I found M1 = soc(k[G]) = k (sum_{g in G} g)
Then to find M2, I want to find soc(R/M1). But using the general property that Soc(M) = Ann_M (J(R)), where M is an R-module and R is Artinian, I got that Soc(R/M1)=0
but then the filtration just stops at M1 right, since M2 = M1
but I thought since R is Artinian it should reach R
Not sure how you get that. But it shouldn't be 0
For example let G = Cp generated by g.
Then the socle is as you say generated by
1 + g + ... = (1 - g)^p-1
Then M2 would be generated by (1 - g)^p-2 etc
as J(R) is generated by 1-g
why is M2 generated by (1-g)^{p-2}?
sorry im very new to this so i know almost nothing
Well certainty if you multiply it by (1-g) you end up in M1
Im trying to get comfortable with the universal property of the tensor product, so im trying to show that $R[x_1,\ldots,x_n]/I \otimes R[x_{n+1},\ldots,x_{n+m}]/J \cong R[x_1,\ldots,x_{n+m}]/(I+J)$ (I think this should be the correct statement, this isnt an actual exercise so I could be wrong, but I think this is how it works in AG)
So to ease notation let me call the first factor $S_n$, the second $S_m$ and the RHS $S_{n+m}$. I think what I want to say is something like the universal property of the tensor product tells us that $$\mathrm{Hom}(S_n\otimes S_m,S_{n+m})\cong \mathrm{Hom}(S_n,S_{n+m})\times\mathrm{Hom}(S_m,S_{n+m})$$ and then Im a bit confused. I thought maybe I want to say something about the universal property of quotient rings, and apply Yoneda, but maybe this is way over complicating things (and im not quite sure how that goes either)
Nope
I would recommend a different approach
Show that the corresponding hom-functors are naturally isomorphic, and identify what the isomorphism is
Which hom functors do you mean?
$\text{Hom}(S_n \otimes S_m, -)$ and $\text{Hom}(S_{n + m}, -)$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
How is the associated graded module of a composition series (of R-modules) defined exactly? Since we did not give R a grading, I don't see how the grading of the associated graded module contains any nontrivial information
Its the direct sum of each of the consecutive quotients in the filtration, gr R = \oplus R_i/R_{i-1}. You then equip this with the "obvious" multiplication. One of the nice things is that if your ring is positivley filtered, then you know its Noetherian if the associated graded ring is, and sometimes this is much easier to work with
This is how you (or at least how ive seen it done) prove that like the Weyl algebra is Noetherian
Do you have an idea for how to get started with this
Sorry I havent started it yet, ill go try now lol
Lol I was so confused by Pseudo's message and then looked at nope's message and was just as confused until I realised S_n was notation for a ring and not the symmetric group
i think here it is a bit nicer to think of this more informally. like "a map out of S_n (x) S_m is the same as ..." and when you work through the things it should hopefully be clear
Yeah thatâs the Hom functor approach
Like I think I just want to say that if a map sends f(x)g to c, then the image should send fg to c, but idk im a little confused
To start off with, you want to use the universal property of the tensor product
$\text{Hom}(R_1 \otimes R_2, P) \cong \text{Hom}(R_1, P) \otimes \text{Hom}(R_2, P)$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Naturally in P (in fact in all three variables, but you donât need that here)
What does that get you here
After that you can use the universal property of the quotient
Did that help @ornate atlas
I think so yeah im just running through the details now
Yeah ok sure expanding it out it just kinda has to be true lol
rude!!!
excellent ring
In commutative algebra, a quasi-excellent ring is a Noetherian commutative ring that behaves well with respect to the operation of completion, and is called an excellent ring if it is also universally catenary. Excellent rings are one answer to the problem of finding a natural class of "well-behaved" rings containing most of the rings that occur...
a quasi-excellent ring "behaves well," and does not get time out.
We're running out of context-neutral adjectives!!!
To be clear (I + J) should mean (and it does if we're on the same page wrt the notation) I[x_{n+1}, ..., x_{n+m}] + J[x_1, ..., x_n] or in a way that's valid more generally, I (⨯) R[x_{n+1}, ..., x_{n+m}] + R[x_1, ..., x_n] (⨯) J.
is cosocle always just the socle filtration "reversed"? i did a few examples and it looks like it
with the stacks project's notion of classical generator (https://stacks.math.columbia.edu/tag/09SI), I can see that for R commutative Noetherian, R regular implies R itself is a classical generator of Db(R-mod) by replacing every complex with a bounded free resolution. I'm wondering if R being a classical generator implies R is regular (like there aren't weird ways to generate somehow)?
an open source textbook and reference work on algebraic geometry
oh yeah okay I'm seeing other references prove that the compact objects of D+(R-mod) are perfect complexes, and being a compact generator of D+(R-mod) implies you are a classical generator of Perf(R), so this kinda matches up with what I would want
Which paper is this
actually I think the stupid filtration of a complex is semi-standard terminology haha, it actually is a legit adjective. At least I've also seen Gelfand and Manin's methods of homological algebra (III.7.5)
Have also seen this called the bad filtration so honestly the stupid filtration is more illuminating lol
No, for a simple example take some M with a nontrivial filtration and consider M(+)S for a simple module S
I've seen stupid and brutal as the adjectives used for this.
In contrast with the good truncation
that's the standard t-structure one?
Lol it was just that Nope called these rings S_n
I've seen stupid, brutal, foolish, Hodge lol
Though Hodge I insert here mostly cause it is funny
Idk what that says about Hodge xD
Yeah it's not even bad lol
Lol @silver goblet do you know this fun thing of like uhh
Stupid filtration and the Beilinson t-structure lol
I would guess maybe from A. lol
I was at a talk about this the other week lol, amusing naming
Nice
Not more amazing than StRing
Physicists would be hella confused in gestalten
yeah it's really fun
and yes if there is something to say about the beilinson t structure then A has said it
lmao
I feel like naive is less unnecesarily harsh and IIRC used in Weibel.
Naive is good, but I think brutal is pretty descriptive.
And stupid is just 100% funnier
I like stupid because my perspective is that the stupid filtration has associated graded pieces which are just the terms of the complex itself, so you didn't get anything interesting (like homology), so it's kinda stupid. and I like studying stupid things, it's not like that's a down side haha
You know what your pfp reminds me of
Something like
âYou have no fucking idea what youâre up againstâ
Yes stacks are stupid /s
He kinda has founding father hair
Snacks project
That sounds yummy
Pursuing snacks
how can I learned advanced algebra now. I have only math foundation of physics institution. And I spend too many years struggling for surviving. Now I want to learn pure math agian. May I get some advice?
Call me Grothendieck the way I be pursuing these stacks
Photo of a gangster SpongeBob dripped to the grills
Pick up like, Pinterâs book on algebra and try to read it
Start with artins book
thank you
how can I understand the homology algrbra level
Start with pre algebra ||If you know abstract algebra, then you can start doing it with some basic cat theory knowledge, if not start dummit and foote||
category theory?
I have read it. But I find it too abstract and I don't know how to use it
#1203471755449073774 message great minds
you should learn from a textbook that's a first course in abstract algebra, the content in this channel is generally stuff only accessible after a good foundation in groups, rings, fields
I have learned abstract algebra and I am stop at here in my undergraduate
This but unironically
only in biden's america can someone think stacks are bad
yeah these are good things, for example BG classifies principal G-bundles, i.e., X\to BG correspond to a principal G-bundle
in particular if G=G_m then this classifies line bundles, and if G=GL_n then this classifies vector bundles of rank n
there are even more features, for example:
vector bundles on BG_m are Z-graded vector spaces
vector bundles on the stack [A^1/G_m] are Z-filtered vector spaces
there are more examples where you can transfer linear algebra terms in terms of quasi-coherent sheaves on some stacks (idk that so much about other examples, though)
what's this ?
LLMs ig
well the llm was nit too great at defining it
@urban granite its like llms use stacks fr covers and then the buncles are a stack umm noope they are kinda but not exactly also what soace whats the top ??
btw here's an honest q - - i am teaching at columbia in the fall complex analysis alfohrs -- this is my first class where i make all the notes
any advice
?
I'm not even doing TAs lol
not even postgrad either
i mean im undergrad student now
@urban granite lel i saw yr bio and the def in yr bio is exactly what a sheaf is lel
and a stack
it's super hard to teach first yrs honestly @urban granite cuz they're always wngineers who'll tryn tell me i dont know basic anlaysis like
\zeta(-1
)
and then i have to be super nice cuz else i get shitty reviews
If i have a regular R sequence and i localize, is it still regular in the localization, up to discarding the elements of the sequence that become invertible
i feel like that should be true but iâm not sure how to justify this
I think yes because localisation is exact.
So if r1 is cancellative on M that remains true after localisation and S^{-1}M/r1 S^{-1}M = S^{-1}(M/r1M). Now induct.
If itâs Noetherian it follows by looking at the Koszul complex and taking homology as well, again using that localization is exact
Do you need Noetherian for that?
I was being safe
Iâm pretty sure you need it for something
Never wrong to rely on our old friend Emmy aye
Hmm, it also needs local
Which kind of defeats the purpose if youâre asking about localizations
But thinking about it
I feel like if all Koszul homology is 0 it must be a regular sequence kind of by like
Definitions
Nah
an open source textbook and reference work on algebraic geometry
Stacks project says none of the arrows can be reversed in general
And this is asking if Koszul-regular => regular
Chmonkey finger
Does GL_n : CRing \to Grp have a left adjoint?
Group ring Z[G] I would assume
Wait
Thatâs not commutative
Nope
I realised
Nope, doesnât preserve limits or colimits
(Canât remember which way around it is, but it preserves neither so)
It preserves products right? It doesn't preserve equalizers?
It doesnât preserve products
why universal cover Sl_2(Z) has no faithful representation
I think I'm slow what's a counter example for this
Actually I think it does now I think about it
Check the conditions of like SAFT or something
Yeah and it preserves equalisers so it preserves limits
idk SAFT but I remember reading some mathoverflow post saying Grp doesn't satisfy the hypotheses or something like that
SAFT fails
We donât have a coseperating set
GAFT also fails
Take a group which isnât linear over any commutative ring
Then we have no solution set
So t hereâs no left adjoint
Interesting thought I had: In the definition of the universal property of the tensor product, the map from M x N to the tensor product is required to be bilinear. What happens if you drop this requirement?
I haven't found any information on this and haven't figured it out myself yet
You can prove the map has to be bilinear by explicitly constructing the tensor product, but can you do it without this explicit construction?
bilinearity is central to the tensor product, if you drop it there's basically nothing left
Oh I guess you mean if you have the same universal property but drop the assumption that the map into the tensor product is bilinear ok
then it wouldn't be a universal property anymore
well it still would
oh yeah it isn't equivalent to the usual tensor product anymore if you do that I believe
since the free vector space on V\times W would satisfy that universal property
its not even a true universal property since it doesn't determine the object up to isomorphism I guess is your point enpeace
yes that's what I meant lol
any quotient between the free vector space on V \times W, and V \tensor W would work in fact
yeah
Can you specify what exactly you mean?
Are you taking the manual construction of tensor product and the same map?
Are you asserting that the tensor product factors all bilinear maps via this map, but just dropping the requirement that the map to the tensor product be bilinear?
something else?
is it correct that cosoc(M)=M/rad(M), and the cosocle filtration of M is given by M =M^0 \supset M^1 \supset M^2 ..., where M^{i+1} = rad(M^i)?
I'm saying if you take the manual construction and the regular map there sending (m,n) to m(x)n, then if you have another tensor product (T,f), f will factor through this map and thus also be bilinear.
So it seems to me that requiring the map from MxN to the tensor product in the universal property to be bilinear is unnecessary since it's implied. In this case, can we do it without using the explicit construction as a quotient of a free module
What is it universal for? Just any map? Then you just get the free module on M ⨯ N.
No, still universal for bilinear maps
I see.
As pointed out here and earlier, it would no longer be a universal property.
A good universal property should include being one of the things that uniquely factor through it; otherwise it usually becomes too easy to satisfy vacuously.
I convinced myself it doesn't satisfy it but yea of course it does
Fair enough
In retrospect this also assumes implicitly that the maps into the tensor product are bilinear
For another example, consider abelianisations. A map G â H uniquely factoring any map from G to an abelian group could be any quotient between G and G^ab, i.e., G/K for any normal K â [G, G]. It's only when you force H to itself be abelian that you pin down G/[G, G].
Just had a brainfart
The unique factoring property is like an upper bound and itself having the property is like a lower bound (or they're constraints on opposite sides, whether upper/lower or lower/upper or source/target or big/small or whatever), which together intersect in just one object (up to unique isomorphism).
The equivalent thing here would be not requiring the map G->H to be a group homomorphism
Well, one possible analogous thing.
I was thinking in terms of the adjunction between Grp and AbGrp.
Sure, just seems like the more natural analogy to me
Sure
I think this is just pedagogically more illustrative for the point I wanted to make, nothing more.
Here the free abelian on G would work in that case
I mean it becomes the same univ property
Lmao
Can someone help
What is 5x - 7x + y = 0
I am learning agelbra
how to make y the subject
y = 2x
let G be a simple lie group and g be its lie algebra , say g=g^{+} + g^{-v} + g^{0} where g^{0} is space of eigen value with abs value 1 (of Ad_g) then want to know if G has a decomposition of the form exp(a) exp(b) exp(c) where a , b, c are in respective subspaces or not?
It's not clear what you mean here, but it looks like you're describing the decomposition of g into generalized eigenspaces for a fixed element in the Lie algebra. If that's what you mean then no, elements of G cannot be written like this in general. I'm going to assume the element is nonzero because it is trivial to see this is false if the element is 0 (by nonsurjectivity of the exponential map).
Consider Sl_2(C). For a nonzero element H of the Cartan subalgebra, the associated decomposition of g is the usual weight space decomposition, and the elements of G in the form exp(a) exp(b) exp(c) are the big cell U^- B (or some conjugate of the big cell, depending on the order of a, b, c). The big cell is dense in G but is not equal to G.
i was thinking of something similar KAK decomposition
The generalized eigenspaces in your picture are not the KAN decomposition though. They appear to correspond to generalized eigenspaces of a single operator
What is the element g in your picture? That is, what is Ad_g?
g is some element of group , Ad is Adjoint ,
Ok, so it's exactly what I described in my earlier comment. You can't do this in general. The SL_2 example I gave is a counterexample.
can we make a local decomposition
What do you mean by local decomposition?
a nbd of g as a product of open sets , OPEN SET coming from g+ g- g^0 through exp map
No, this isn't possible either. The exponential map will generally not take open sets to open sets and it won't be injective either.
locally maybe
Ok yes, this is always possible, but it's not interesting. In fact, this is always possible for general differential geometry reasons: if you take any direct sum decomposition of the Lie algebra, then the induced map by applying exp on each component is a local diffeomorphism.
This is because the differential of this map is obviously surjective at the identity, and hence is an isomorphism of tangent spaces.
What makes the KAN decomposition interesting is that it's global.
yes iwasawa is nice,
can we expect it almost everywhere
What do you mean by almost everywhere?
w.r.t haar measure on lie group
No, I don't think so. Here's a rough idea: the image of the exponential map is not always dense, which means the compliment of the image is not measure zero
okay it might setlle
hello, i got an introduction on Hopf algebras and the teacher said that one motivation for the study of Hopf algebras is that the tensor product of 2 modules over a Hopf algebra always makes sense. I was wondering why we needed our algebra A to be a Hopf algebra for the tensor product to make sense, is it not possible to generalize the construction even if A is not commutative ?
If A is not commutative, then a tensor product over A is generally not going to have an A-module structure
The comultiplication allows you to define a module structure on the tensor product
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4581569/can-we-define-tensor-product-of-modules-over-an-algebra
this might be a good read!
the idea is that to tensor modules M,N over A, when A is not commutative, to get a good theory we really want M to be a right A-module and N to be a left A-module, so that M tensor_A N has scalars moving in the middle between symbols m and n
so instead, you ask that A be a k-algebra, where k is a commutative ring inside the center of A, so that when M, M' are both left A-modules (or you could pick the convention of right A-modules), and at first only form the tensor product M tensor_k M' (which makes sense because k is commutative, so gives left AND right scaling)
you then are sad because M tensor_k M' doesn't have a canonical A-module structure. However! Leftover from M, M' being left A-modules, you get a left (A tensor_k A)-module structure on M tensor_k M', and then you use comultiplication A -> A tensor_k A and restriction of scalars to make M tensor_k M' into a left A-module
so exactly the choice of comultiplication ended up giving left module structures on tensor products of left A-modules/k
also maybe read here https://mathoverflow.net/questions/107844/left-module-structure-on-the-tensor-product-oftwo-left-modules
it's also good to keep some examples in mind, like group algebras (where modules = group representations, and tensor product is the tensor product of representations)
what are some applications of grothendick galois theory
As i remember , i studied hopf algebra because of duality arising from algebraic group schemes and k- algebra homomorphism so , hopf map is dual to group multiplication via YONEDA lemma
thanks yj
will see thanks
rn i am using it only for algebraic group schemes, very new to it
Need a simple proof of " Hopf alg over field of char 0 is reduced"
Note: the mechanism of becoming a module is very different in these two cases. In both cases a priori you have a A (⨯) A module stucture. One applies extension of scalars, changing the module to turn this into an A (it base-changes by the algebra map A (⨯) A â A). The other applies restriction of scalars to change it into an A (by the comultiplication map).
OK that's the first time I realised this similarity between the two.
Hmm, tensor product in the category of A-bimodules changes the base tensor product from a A (⨯) A^op (⨯) A (⨯) A^op module A (⨯) A^op by annhilating the action of the subgroup I (or equivalently right ideal) of the middle A^op (⨯) A generated by {a (⨯) 1 - 1 (⨯) a : a â A} (the left ideal generated by I is the kernel of mul: A^op (⨯) A â A: b (⨯) a ⌠ab). So this cannot be realised as a base-change; you are really tensoring with a bimodule to shift categories.
Anyway
Let G be a finite group and k a field such that |G| â k^⨯. If two representations of G over k are isomorphic over the algebraic closure of k (i.e. they have the same character), must they be isomorphic over k?
both are cases of tensor products for Beck-modules
I saw some slides on the problem of deciding when something like that exists but i cant recall exactly their results
(A Beck-module over X in C being an abelian group object in C_/X)
What.
lol
What's C and X here?
for groups its C = Grp and X = the group youre looking at the G-modules of (of course for reps over a field you take the k-vect objects rather than abelian group objects)
and for commutative rings, C = CRing and X = your commutative ring
the relevant slides
Wait but what does the slice category C/X have to do with anything?
Oh Mod(X)
yes
its tied intimately with the idea of module of differentials? apparently, its what the nlab page said :P
and give general coefficient modules for cohomology of algebraic structures
and in the case where the variety is congruence-permutable this cohomology actually is also related to extensions of the algebras? for a sufficient notion of extensions
is it true that if R is a local algebra (and we're viewing R as a left R-module over itself), Soc(R) = J(R)^{n-1}, where n is the minimal value for which J(R)^n = 0
So the intuition is that you should take cohomology of a thing to be Ext(Kahler, -) for a suitable Kahler (often the "trivial rep").
What's n?
Also bumping this question because I yapped too much.
sorry updated it
Not necessarily no. Take
R = k[x, y]/(xy, x^2, y^3)
Then
J = (x, y)
J^2 = (y^2)
J^3 = 0
but the socle is (x, y^2)
Yes. Note that the the splitting field K is a finite extension of k, so we can think about that instead of the alg closure.
Then for two representation U and V, then if U(x)K and V(x)K are isomorphic KG modules they are also isomorphic kG, modules. But as kG modules they are just U^n and V^n. Which by KRS means U=V.
Alternatively, if k is an infinite field (and U and V are finite dimensional) there's a fun argument.
Hom_kG(U, V) is an algebraic variety just equal to affine space. And Hom_KG(U(x)K, V(x)K) = Hom_kG(U, V)(x)K.
The determinant is a polynomial on this variety. If it takes a non-zero value on the latter it is a non-zero polynomial. For an infinite field a non-zero polynomial is never constantly 0.
what is the determinant here? are we identifying the left and right as k vector spaces using the isomorphism to define the determinant? this seems really cute, I like this
Yeah, pick some basis such that
U = k^n = V
then the usual determinant
i see nice
Ye
Quillen, homology of commutative rings
Yes
Well I'm pretty sure there is also a paper called homology of commutative rings by Quillen
But unpublished or smth
Grrrr
Lol
Fun stuff. (My question was if there's a Galois theory in the â¤-graded setting and @ nHecke(G) got me started.)
For $L/K$ finite, the automorphism group has at most the expected cardinality $[L[n] : K[m]] = [L : K] (m/n)$ but equals it only when $L/K$ is Galois \emph{and} the coboundary (for $G = \operatorname{Gal}(L/K) \curvearrowright L^{\times}$) of $\phi$ is valued in the subgroup $(L^{\times})^{m/n}$.
Raghuram
Oh, and L should have all (distinct) m/n^th roots of unity.
hm I see. I was thinking about the socle filtration for group algebras k[G], where char k = p and G is a finite p-group. would this hold in that case?
Yes, in this case the socle should be simple.
so in this case we have R=k[G], since R is Artinian we have soc(R)=Ann_R (J). and also we can just directly observe that soc(R) is the 1 dimensional k-vector space spanned by (sum over g in G of g). but how do we know Ann_R (J) = J^{n-1}?
Well clearly J^n-1 is a subset of Ann(J)
So if it's 1d they have to be equal
ohh oops thank you!
soc(M) is the sum of all simple subreps and the only simple rep is the trivial one. So soc(M) = M^G for any M. In particular for the regular rep that finishes it.
OK I can't see how to make this constructive/computational.
What do you mean exactly?
Uh actually I think my problem is with making something else explicit.
My setting is the Chevalley-Shepard-Todd Theorem. You have (i) polynomial rings A â B both in n variables over a field K and a finite group G (order coprime to char(K), take char(K) = 0 if it's easier) acting on B such that A = B^G. You also know (ii) B is a free A-module (of finite rank because B is integral over A and fg) and that (iii) we can choose a basis such that the diagonal entries of the G-representation on B are in K rather than A.
Now if we base change to Frac(A), we get the finite Galois extension Frac(B) = B (⨯)_A Frac(A)/Frac(A) = Frac(B)^G. By the normal basis theorem, this is isomorphic to the regular representation over Frac(A). But this implies by going via the character that the same is true for B (⨯)_A K over K, where A â K is by setting the variables to 0. (Maybe this doesn't really use (iii).)
This is mainly out of curiosity, but I would like to explicitly construct a normal basis of the algebra B (⨯)_A K over K from a normal basis for the Galois extension Frac(B) over Frac(A).
yippe! Beck modules are also nice because they let you do hom alg for general algebraic structures
TBF you can do that as soon as you get an abelian category. To me the idea of picking out what the "trivial module" is seems the most interesting.
right but beck modules give a way to nicely associate an abelian category to an algebra
in the sense that each morphism f : A â B functorially induces a functor f_* : Mod_V (B) â Mod_V (A), which has a left adjoint
Hmm. IG it's true that you get abelian categories without specifying anything other than C. So it's somehow a "canonical" abelian category associated to C's.
(mainly asking here to not interrupt #groups-rings-fields)
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Monomial_order
There are alot of statements in this page about how certain monomial orders are harder to compute Grobner bases for than others
Is there a good reference for differing algorithms and complexity bounds for different monomial orders? The two CLO texts don't talk much about complexity
Ye I mean a nice thing from my perspective is that it all generalises to â-categorical settings
So like the same statement is true for some flavours of homotopical rings and this is very important for deformation theory
oh peak
Oops, I forgor that you initially need to take the tensor product over the base field
Hi. So there's a course they're offering and pretty much they're going to cover these things:
The book they're following is https://drive.google.com/file/d/1eICEspJQeTOi2xLzUFkQ3mM-gxcBjZ4I/view?usp=sharing (so basically chapters I-IV, and an optional ch. VI)
I have not learned commutative algebra, but I want to. Is this course worth enrolling in if that's my goal?
I understand that commutative algebra requires understanding of rings & modules and pretty much the topics mentioned, but I'm asking if the materials covered here is worth spending one semester on, keeping in mind that my goal is to learn some commutative algebra some time this year?
Looks useful. I will say that depending on the subset of commutative algebra you want to know a course marketed as "commutative algebra" may get to topics closer to what you want.
This is very module-theoretic. There's also a very ideal-y/algebro-geometric set of basic theory to know (e.g. skim the table of contents of Atiyah-MacDonald).
It probably misses a lot of what a first course in comalg covers, but hits a lot of what a second course does funnily enough lol
But also it just looks like a sick course
hey can anyone let me know how I can understand this?
i would be careful mr. AgNO3
They are lurking and stalking when you least expect it mr. AgNO3
Depth as in regular sequences?
yeah but right now im trying to understand dim M/xM = dim M - n
for an R-module M and submodule N, is rad(M/N) = (rad(M) + N)/N
i was just just JK
Shitposts go in #chill, and if by chance you do need help with this, please see #âhow-to-get-help. We try to keep the advanced channels, like this one, apart from this kind of stuff. Let this be the last time please.
are you a mod?
are mods pink?
That's right.
ok ill go torture the pre uni people thank you and goodbye
Actually wdym by dim M
I thought that was the Krull dimension of R at first
oh wait are we allowed to swear?
Yes. Please see #rules
I'm also interested in this, do you mind posting here if you find anything? I remember reading that if you want a GrĂśbner basis in something other than grevlex order, it's usually faster to compute it using grevlex and then convert it afterwards, but I haven't seen any justification for this
if M is a finitely generated R-module, then is rad(M) = J(R) M
That x is a sequence of elements of length n
In the proof they showed if x is M regular then dim M/xM = dim M - 1
It decreases by at least 1 because x is not in any minimal prime of M, and it goes down by at most 1 by like, the Hauptidealsatz
What is the definition of rad(M)?
the radical of the R-module M, i.e the intersection of all maximal left R-submodules of M (note that R doesn't have to be commutative)
I think no
I believe Q/Z as an abelian group (Z-module) has no maximal subgroups
Meaning that the radical should be all of Q/Z
But J(Z) = 0 so you get a contradiction
With finite generation it might be possible, but then a module with no maxima submodules will give a contradiction
So it would necessarily be over a non-Noetherian ring
This is all assuming you have commutative rings, which is fine to make a counterexample
hm ic
This is another thing that is true when R/J(R) is semisimple.
The left contains the right, but they're not equal in general
For example
rad(Z) = 0
rad(Z/4Z) = 2Z/4Z.
If R/J(R) is semisimple then you can use rad(M) = J(R)M to show they're equal.
is there a name for rings with this property?
almost artinian?
I mean you have perfect and semiperfect which are kind of close, but that's still more restrictive
I'm not sure Ive seen an example where R/J is semisimple but it's not semiperfect though
So maybe that would be fun to cook up
In mathematics, a semi-local ring is a ring for which R/J(R) is a semisimple ring, where J(R) is the Jacobson radical of R. (Lam 2001, p. §20)(Mikhalev & Pilz 2002, p. C.7)
The above definition is satisfied if R has a finite number of maximal right ideals (and finite number of maximal left ideals). When R is a commutative ring, the converse im...
So that's a name for it.
Interesting that they don't give examples that aren't semi-perfect.
Except maybe endomorphism ring of some artinian modules could work...
aren't those already going to be semiperfect though?
Idk
But all the other examples they listed would be
DaRT doesnt reckon so
Heard of DaRT or of these examples?
never heard of DaRT
Ah yeah its a nice website
the localization at two primes example is really clean here
Pi base is the one I always forget about, topospaces is nice but doesnt always have what im after
oh yes back to what I was saying: by "those" I meant endomorphism rings of artinian modules
bc they are in particular semiprimary
how do you remember all these ring characterizations
semiperfect, semisimple, artinian...
I'm in a noncommutative alg class rn
I will forget all of this in a few months
fair
I dont, I open my noncom rings notes minimum once a week tbh
But also like semisimple and artinian are big hitters, those are ones youll remember
Though in a PhD interview the other week I got the definition of a simple group wrong because I forgot groups arent actually just sucky modules and you need to specify that theyre normal...
Whatâs a good source on BN-pairs?
Iâm reading Trees by Serre, and it assumes some knowledge now (chapter 2, section 1.7), but I donât really have any
Isn't the endomorphism ring of the p-PrĂźfer group the p-adic integers?
ah right hm
Jesus Christ all these noncomm alg adjectives
Must be what ppl feel seeing alg geo people talk
Quasi-syntomic
oh ok endomorphism rings of finite length modules are semiprimary
but not artinian modules in general
What is a (semi)primary⌠ring, module?
Primary means something for a submodule in commalg
R is semiprimary if J(R) is nilpotent and R/J(R) is semisimple
Semisimple = finite direct sum of simple rings right?
Simple meaning no nontrivial proper ideal?
Hmm that canât quite be right
I just remember finite product of matrix rings
From a rep theory course
why not?
I guess not
I was thinking of the simplest ring I can think of thatâs not a field
And decided it was a local Artinian ring which isnât simple
But thatâs cuz I was thinking in the wrong direction
And also still being comm alg brained
Here semisimple means semisimple as R-module.
So it's not really about simple rings (though Artin-Wedderburn gives you that a semisimple ring is exactly a finite product of artinian simple rings)
Whatâs a semisimple R-module
Direct sum of simple R modules
So yeah R is a semisimple ring if R is a semisimple R-module, in the same way as R is defined to be artinian/Noetherian if R is artinian/Noetherian module.
But contrary to R being a simple ring, which means it doesn't have any nontrivial ideals
And simple means no nontrivial submodules right?
So idk how simple ring is different from simple as an R-module
Equivalent definitions include
Every submodule being a direct summand
or
Sum of its simple submodules
đż
Well the ring of 2x2 matrices is a simple ring for example
But as a module it is equal to the sum of two copies of the simple module
Over a field?
Yes
as a left module
As a module over itself???
Yes
As a two sided module the definitions coincide
Submodules are left ideals if you only consider it as a left module
Left ideals are submodules
The matrix ring has infinitely many left ideals, but only two ideals
Iâm so confused. It seems like for one youâre talking about left-stuff and the other two-sided
Why would you change that
Like it seems stupid to me that simple ring is about two sided ideals and simple module is about left submodules
What else could simple module be about?
Subbimodules
Simple ring is a ring without quotient rings
A simple module is a module without quotient modules
Jk then it isn't even modules
Hmmm ok
Anyway chmonkey dw I am in the same boat lol this has always confused me as a comm alg person
Now it is confusing that a "semisimple ring" is not a decomposition of simple rings, but instead a ring that is a semisimple module, but I don't know what a better terminology would be
A funny thing I guess is how like
I guess simple => semisimple for rings isn't a complete triviality even though the naming suggests it lol
It's also not true right
Oh maybe I am thinking of e.g. among fd k algs
semisimple implies artinian
I mean this makes sense. I didnât get why you quantify over left ideals but these donât get you rings as a quotient
Okay well that just makes the terminology worse lol
Artin-Wedderburn tells you that semisimple = finite product of artinian simple rings
Iâm just glad my abs are my bas
It's not amazing, but what's the alternative
"Module-semisimple"?
Kinda long
It seems the terminology simple ring is the bad bit as it suddenly brings in two sided stuff but ye
Do I need to find the hobgoblin meme
Well it just follows the convention of simple algebraic structure being one without quotients


