#advanced-algebra
1 messages · Page 16 of 1
They should call the category of small categories Kitten
f: X->Y is an epimorphism if hf = gf implies h=g
Yes, that’s a rephrasing of this
The word injective doesnt make sense for all categories does it?
The defn in class was f: X->Y just a morphism in a category
Im wondering y u said ordinary function
.
It’s a function between sets
Makes sense to ask whether or not it’s injective
the function on hom-sets is injective
a morphism f : X -> Y defines functions f* : Hom(Y, Z) -> Hom(X, Z) and f_* : Hom(W, X) -> Hom(W, Y)
f* is injective iff f is epi and f_* is injective iff f is mono
in general this is functorial; fixing a Z yields the functors Hom(-, Z) and Hom(Z, -) from your (locally small) category to the category of sets
these are super super important, because they each faithfully encode all the information of your objects
(I.e. if you know that F = Hom(-, Z) for some Z, then this Z is uniquely determined up to isomorphism, and this is essentially the basis for universal properties)
Thank you
f* injective for all Z iff f is epi right
yes
Is this because of yoneda lemma or something
yes
yeah thats what i meant lol mb
If we consider the ring of symmetric polynomials in $n$ variables $\Lambda_n = \mathbb{Z}[x_1, \ldots, x_n]^{\mathfrak{S}_n}$, let $e_1, \ldots, e_n$ denote the elementary symmetric polynomials in $n$ variables. Then we in fact htat that $\Lambda_n = \mathbb{Z}[e_1, \ldots, e_n]$.
However, we also have somethign stronger, the $e_i$ are algebrically independent over $\mathbb{Z}$.
Spamakin🎷
Ok we can consider the inverse limit of all these rings of symmetric polynomials and we get the ring of symmetric functions
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ring_of_symmetric_functions it's constructed as a limit
So then we get that $\Lambda = \mathbb{Z}[e_1, e_2, \ldots ]$ so that $e_i$ is the degree $i$ elementary symmetric function in infinitely many variables.
Spamakin🎷
(Lambda is the ring of symmetric functions)
How does one talk about algebraic independence for infinitely many elements?
Cause like polynomials don't have infinitely many inputs yea?
So what's the right term to say that all the e_i are algebraically independent when talking about them as symmetric functions in the whole ring of symmetric functions, rather than specializing to the n-variate case
would it work to say every finite subset is algebraically independent?
Sure but my question is specifically is how do you formulate this for infinite sets, not finite subsets
Is this a thing that has a name?
No fnitary relations
It is in fact equivalent to this
There is some motivation to do it this way
A family of elements in a ring R indexed by X induces a unique morphism from the polcnomial ring in variables indexed by X, ℤ[X], to R. Call the elements algebraically independent if this morphism is injective.
The equivalence with all finite subsets comes from Z[X] = U of Z[all finite subsets]
which is "always" true in algebraic situations
yes that's the characterisation i know of in terms of free objects
i just wasn't quite sure what free objects in this case were
but e.g. this is exactly how it works for vector spaces
mfw filtered colimits commute with finite limits
This makes sense since polynomial expressions are the only ones you can evaluate to see if they give a true relation
No, I think it's commutes with the forgetful functor that matters here
hm ok
I think "CRing is monadic over Set" is jargon for this property.
or something like that
injectivity is a property that doesn't depend on the finitaryness of the monad
as in; you always only have to check injectivity on substructures generate by two elements lol
well, on the level of sets injectivity is measured by checking on all 2-element sets
and the substrutures generated by a pair certainly contains that pair
Hey, is it true for $F$, $M$ left $G$ modules, $F$ free over $\mathbb Z[G]$, that $F \otimes M$ is projective as a $\mathbb Z[G]$ module (or equivalently that induced modules from the trivial group are projective?) I don't see how torsion in $A$ will not obstruct projectiveness
Brindille Connexe
(here I am tensoring over Z of course)
It's not true. Like you say, if M has torsion you will get into trouble.
i see, thanks for confirming my doubt
Hey i'm trying to do part 3. For me the isomorphism is obvious, as we can make the above exact sequence periodic and the isomorphism on cohomology follows. However I do not see how to get it with connecting homomorphism (I understand the decomposition of 2n short exact sequences, but I don't see how we can move onto 2n cohomology groups)
it's quite important for the rest of the exercise so I can't just skip it
So you break the sequence into short exact sequences
K1 -> F0 -> Z
K2 -> F1 -> K1
...
Then the LES gives you
Ext^i(Fj, M) -> Ext^i(K[j+1], M) -> Ext^(i+1)(Kj, M) -> Ext^(i+1)(Fj, M)
As Ext(Fj, -) = 0 the connecting homomorphisms is an isomorphism
Ext^i(Kj, M) -> Ext^(i+1)(K[j-1], M)
So composing these you can get an isomorphism
Ext^i(K[2n], M) -> Ext^(i+2n)(K0, M)
Since K[2n] = K0 = Z, these are the cohomology groups
thank you so much, I had found the argument with vanishing in the middle but didn't connect that the kernels on the side corresponded with the homology group. Thanks again!
i want to show if two representations are isomorphic over an algebraically closed field, they do not necessarily stay isomorphic in a subfield
so i take the algebraically closed field as C and the other field as Q. and want to find two isomorphic C[G] -modules that won't be isomorphic as Q[G] modules
are there any hints?
Is this even true?
Funtors preserve isomorphism, so if youre doing this via restriction of scalars functor, any isomorphoc CG moduñes stay iso over Q.
However, its possible the extension of scalars of two nonisomorphic QG modules become isomorphic as CG modules.
it is a question from my course to either prove or give counterexample
so i was trying to find counterexamples
Are you saying you were asked to prove that if two reps are isomorphic over C then they are also isomorphic over Q?
If so you should try to prove it instead of finding counter examples
The question is "let V, W be G-reps over k. Suppose their extensions of scalars V' and W' are isomorphic as G-reps over \bar k. Are V and W isomorphic over k? and i was hoping to find a counterexample, though it is true it seems
oh proving is also easy
This question is sightly different to what you asked before
Are u k theory youtuber?
That's me.
a \bar k [G] module homomorphism is automatically a k[G]-module homomorphism. so they are isomorphic over k too. Are there any mistakes with this argument?
Bruuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuh
Yes, you're arguing that given two isomorphic k-bar G modules their restriction of scalars to k are isomorphic, but the question is about the extension of scalars
Like if your given V and W as k[G] reps, and you let V' and W' be the extension of scalars, then if V' ~= W' are isomorphic k-bar[G] modules they are also isomorphic k[G] modules, but the question is showing that V and W are isomorphic
In pretty sure it's true, but it's more nontrivial to show
excessive u's
Yo. I’m a fan lol
peak content about peak math
i will not stop uh
talking
You have my permission to continue talking.
If your field is infinite there is this slick argument:
Pick bases so that you can think of the representation V and W as group homomorphisms
G -> GL(n, k)
The extension of scalars is then just given by composing with GL(n, k) -> GL(n, k-bar).
As V' and W' are isomorphic, there exists an invertible matrix M over k-bar with
M phi_V'(g) M^-1 = phi_W'(g)
Which we can write as
M phi_V'(g) = phi_W'(g) M
Now write M = M1 e1 + M2 e2 + ... + Mm em for k-linearly independent elements of k-bar.
Then because of the linear independence and the fact that phi(g) has entries in k we must have
Mi phi_V'(g) = phi_W'(g) Mi
for all i.
Now consider the polynomial
det(M1 t1 + M2 t2 + ... Mm tm) in m variables. As this polynomial is nonzero on (e1, ..., em) it is not the zero polynomial, so if k is an infinite field there must exists values of ti in k for which it is nonzero. Letting a1, ..., am be such elements
M' = M1 a1 + ... + Mm am
Gives an isomorphism between V and W
Maybe there's a simple argument in the case k is finite... Idk
What do you mean by the right hand side M = M1 e1 + M2 e2 + ... + Mm ? The Mi are matrices valued in \bar{k} and the ei are elements of k?
The Mi are matrices over k and the ei are in k-bar
Oh, I see. That's a really nice argument actually
This same argument works for any algebra (and finite dimensional modules).
I guess if you're in the case of a finite group and char(k) relatively prime to |G| you can reduce to V and W being irreducible and then I guess it's not too hard to see that V' and W' can't be isomorphic if V and W are not
and kind of surprising tbh.
I was just about to ask.
Even infinite-dimensional k-algebras?
Yeah, the algebra is hardly relevant to the proof, but you need the modules to be finite dimensional
It would just be reducing to the image of the algebra in End(V) anyway, which is finite dimensional
why can't the modules be infinite-dimensional? Is this some general fact about modules over algebras?
Well, the argument uses that a homomorphism is given by a finite matrix and that the matrix is invertible iff the determinant is nonzero
So the argument wouldn't work in the infinite dimensional case
The statement is probably still true, idk
oh, ya, osrry I get that the argument only works for the fin dim case.
ah, I see, so you're not claimming it for the inf dim case
There no way it’s k theory!!!
lmao
I should probably change my name and pfp on here. I love the support gang, don't get me wrong, but it's prob annoying for others for discussions to get interrupted by people asking if it's me.
lol
oh, well looks like I don't have permission to change my name here anyways.
idk, inf dim stuff is weird
id say try to deduce smt by looking at all finite dim submodules but thats probably not gonna help much if the algebra is annoying enough for there to not be finite dim submodules
Could change your name to
K-theory [yes it's actually me]
thats weird? maybe you need an active role for that or something
"John K-theory"
Lol
for the inf dim case, what about taking an extension F/Q. Then I would guess that F[x] and Q[x] are not isomorphic as Q[x]-modules, but there extensions to \bar{Q} should be, right?
or am I tripp'n?
Oh, ya I dont think that's true actually, so maybe my example doesnt work.
i feel like there should be a name for algebras with this property
related to faithful flatness
U can dm modmail
The mods can change it for you
Yea active or higher
Here's an infinite dim counter example @woeful crane @spice idol
oo funky
no way its the jagr2808
gahh I wanted to change my name to add [no, the other one] but i can't it'd be too many characters :despair:
there goes the fraktur font qwq
Lol jagr name
That guy is cool
mick jagr
low swag levels detected... from your direction...
this chat has gone down the drains
<@&268886789983436800>
"It is not possible for fewer than d elements to generate an ideal whose radical is m because then the dimension of R would be less than d." (context is x1, ... xd is a system of parameters and d = dim R)
can I have a hint for this? doesnt seem like it should be hard
do I need dim R < dim R/I?
this is essentially the content of the first part of Atiyah-Macdonald chapter 11
Oh ok so its not like a trivial statement
it uses hilbert functions and the like. there might be a more straightforward proof but this is the one i know
Ty
if an ideal is generated by r elements then any prime minimal over it can’t have height bigger than r
This is krulls principal ideal thm or smth?
generalized version
I think krull is the case r=1
Did you find a book with exercises about systems of parameters?
I did not
I mean ig matsumura probably has it
I should read a/m ch11 tho. Thats my plan to understand this stuff better
Or ch10, whatever it is
How can I find two irreducible representations V, W of a finite group G over a field with finite characteristic p > 0 such that their tensor product V \otimes W is not semisimple?
I found this answer online but I don't get why the tensor product is not semisimple
little bit hard as question
Well, since you just need one example you can try writing this out explicitly. Take p=3 and compute V_2@V_2.
over an algebraically closed field k of characteristic 3 the 3-dimensional simple V2 can be realized as Sym^2(k^2)
then V2 ⊗ V2 maps onto Sym^4(k^2) by: (f,g) ↦ f·g. Now Sym^4 is already not semisimple in char 3: it contains a 1-dimensional SL2-stable line spanned by the polynomial x^3 y − x y^3 (this is the standard invariant x^p y − x y^p at p=3) so you get a submodule isomorphic to the trivial representation inside Sym^4
the quotient Sym^4 / k·(x^3 y − x y^3) has dimension 4 and is simple
so Sym^4 is a nontrivial extension of that 4-dimensional simple by the trivial module hence not semisimple since Sym^4 is a quotient of V2 ⊗ V2
the tensor product V2 ⊗ V2 cannot be semisimple either
another example if you want
take k algebraically closed of characteristic 2 and G=S_3 and V the 2-dimensional simple kS_3 module
and compute V ⊗ V
Don't even need k alg closed, could just take k = F2 if it simplifies the calculation
And it kind of is this example since SL2(F2) = S3
the only reason I said algebraically closed was to make the Schur’s lemma feel automatic over F2 it’s still fine because your 2-dim module V is just the natural module for SL2(F2) ⊂ GL2(F2) and the centralizer of the whole group in End(V) is still only the scalars so (V ⊗ V)^G has dimension 1
so I agree you can just take k=F2
Whatever floats the boat
whats the general approach to proving this statement?
i was thinking i could say V contains no irreducibles and show if that were the case then each of the subreps would be nontrivial and have dimension greater than zero and take more and more nontrivial subreps
isn't it basically immediate by semisimplicity
yeah
semisimple = direct sum of simple (hence irreducible) so just pick one of them
unless the way you're defining it is different
that hasnt been proven yet though
its the next problem
but i could just show it here
how did you define semisimple then
ah ok yeah I was gonna say
i guess i could just let dimV be n and then gather n+1 subreps in a direct sum from decomposing it that way
its a general fact for modules over a ring that semisimple implies direct sum of simple, I believe you prove it with zorn's lemma but u might be able to do it directly because finite dim
if there are no (nontrivial) subrepresentations, then its already simple, otherwise you can split and apply induction
(induct on dimension)
yeah from the definitions im working with it seems like the latter will be the way to go
we havent really talked about simple only semisimple
well we have the notion but not a definition
simple is the same as irreducible
yeah idk if you've seen this but you can view a representation of a group as a module over the group ring
and then everything fits in with the theory of semisimple/simple modules
which is quite nice
yeah unfortunately ive yet to get into those notions
i only know super basic ring/module theory
cool thanks blake
So two key facts I would use here:
Since every representation has a finitely generated submodule, V has a finitely generated direct summand.
Any finitely generated representation has a maximal subrepresentation, hence an irreducible quotient (use Zorn's lemma)
Does anyone know of an intuitive explanation for why modules are decomposable iff there exist nontrivial idempotents?
I have the proof right in front of me but I really don't have any context other than that
It was useful for a particular homework problem but beyond that this proposition seems pretty odd to me
Why should I expect this to be the case were I defining things like direct sums etc
an idempotent endomorphism e of M (meaning e∘e = e) is exactly a projection: it picks out a part of M and ignores the rest if M = A ⊕ B you get a nontrivial idempotent by projecting onto A along B applying the projection twice changes nothing so it’s idempotent
conversely if you have a nontrivial idempotent e then M splits as im(e) ⊕ ker(e): every m can be written as e(m) + (m − e(m)) the first term lies in im(e) and the second in ker(e) and the intersection is zero because anything in both would satisfy x = e(x) = 0 nontrivial just means neither piece is all of M or 0 so you really get a decomposition
Ah I see thinking of it as a projection makes things clear, thanks!
I only wish my instructor used this language but oh well
dw I can be your new instructor 
this is the definition i saw on universal algebra
and i don't really understand why i need both \mathscr F and F...?
why i can't just define F to be a family of finitary operations at once
without involving \mathscr F at all?
will it be not well-defined if i define like this?
you can, and it will be well-defined, but you want to be able to talk about and compare different algebras of the same type, so it is convenient to fix a set of function symbols and look at homomorphisms of algebras of the same type.
\mathscrF is the so-called signature
F is just an interpretation of that signature
i.e. \mathscrF is a collection of sets indexed by the nonnegative numbers (0, 1, 2, ...), and F assigns to each f in \mathscrF_n some function f^A : A^n -> A
an example might help: take \mathscrF to be { e, +, - } where e is 0-ary (so a constant), + is 2-ary, and - is also 2-ary.
Then we might take the algebra <G, F> over \mathscrF, where G is the underlying set of some group, e is taken to be the identity element, + to be the multiplication of that group, and - the operation taking (a, b) to ab^-1 in G.
Or another example, let X = { 0, 1 }, and let the interpretation of e be 0, and take + and - to be the operations sending a pair (a, b) to 1. This shows why we make a distinction between \mathscrF and F, as two operations in \matscrF may be the same function
in general, we need the distinction between \mathscrF and the actual operations on an algebra to define homomorphisms between algebras
in conclusion: you can; sometimes these are useful, but if you want a notion of homomorphisms or products then you need \mathscrF to have a "canonical symbol" for each operation
it's like how you define a group to be a set with some operations that you generically assign symbols (for example e, * and ^-1). These generic symbols then form the \mathscrF of that theory
thanks, that was really helpful
i was just trying to understand by looking at a few more pages of the book and your examples
and now it seems i'm getting it
youre using Burris and Sankappanavar right?
yes!
nice! it took me a bit to wrap my head around at first too
ive noticed that a lot in UA, it kinda defines things you subconsciously use doing algebra, and getting your head to accept that new formal definition takes a bit of time
based, though it just neglects to cover any categorical stuff 
almost a third of the book is about applications of boolean algebras to universal algebra
which, don't get me wrong, is awesome, but i wouldnt cover it in a "first course"
maybe becuz categories are much general than UA? not sure though
theres definitely connections of category theory to UA which i find important
for example, (co)limits and in particular direct and inverse limits
i think mathematicians always name their book without even thinking.. 
lol so true
I would've also liked some basic stuff about tame congruence theory or commutator theory, however those may not even have existed yet at the time the book was written
we are long overdue for an explanation of those that isnt written as a research paper though...
anyhow that is far in the future for you for now, the book is really well written in that regard
thanks for help again
nw! i think im the only active universal algebra guy here lol
lol tbh it's really hard to find someone really into UA
lol you can tell me that again
i've tried to ask a few questions to my professor, but he said he isn't professional in that area and he didn't know either.
are you self learning it?
gotta be then lmao
if i may ask, how did you find out about it?
for UA, yes. there were no specific courses that only cover UA in my college
same 😔
i don't remember exactly though... maybe while studying category theory?
hmm, interesting
categorically youre basically studying monads, when doing UA
(yk the monoid in the cat of endofunctors n all)
however universal algebra has certain nice advantages
namely, there is essentially no analogue for congruence theory in general so anything which relies on that doesnt work
uh, you'll learn what congruences are soon i believe
Im reading Jones’s publication on Von Neumann algebras for a research project. Should I take the plunge into a book like Takesaki or Pedersen if I have completed all the exercises?
go Pedersen first and then Takesaki
Thank you I appreciate the help
Yes it is mod theory on type 3 factors
I wasn’t sure if I should jump into takesaki right away considering it sort of is the authority on modular theory of von neumann algebras
Takesaki: expect it to be dense but it’s exactly your topic
but keep Pedersen nearby for quick refreshers on C*-basics, weak topologies, approximate units, etc
I kinda figured that was how I should approach it but im still in undergrad so wanted to get a consensus
Thank you
how does that work?
btw, planning on picking up some UA soon too
hmm its a little conplicated
very beautiful though
basicslly, an algebraic theory is a small category where every object is the product of some generic elemenr
it is well-know that each variety has an associated theory, and two theories are isomorphic iff their varieties are "isomorphic" (in a specific but very natural sense)
now, for a monad T on Set take the Eilenberg-Moore category C of T-algebras. Then if n denoted the set of n elements, we can associate a theory to this as follows: the objects are the natural numbers and hom(n, m) = hom_C(T(m), T(n))
essentially this is the same construction as the associated theory but purely categorically
now if T is finitary, then it happens to be totally decided by its theory (you can think if this as only containing finitary operations, so its decided by how its theory behaves on finite sets), and so youve got a correspondence between varieties of algebras and finitary monads on Set
Takesaki is a good reference but is going to be very difficult to read, I'd mainly use it to skim for results
hey :) i have a rep theory problem i'm stuck on
if V, V' are both $\mathbb{C}G$-modules, $v\in V$ and $v'\in V'$, i need to prove that $\Big(\frac{\dim V}{|G|}\sum_{g\in G} \overline{\chi_V(g)}g\Big)v=v$ and $\Big(\frac{\dim V}{|G|}\sum_{g\in G} \overline{\chi_V(g)}g\Big)v'=0$
blutac
my first idea was that this expression on the left (in the exercise they shortened it to e_V) looks really similar to the inner product for characters
$\langle\chi_i,\chi_j\rangle:=\frac{1}{|G|}\sum_{g\in G}\overline{\chi_i(g)}\chi_j(g)$
blutac
but i dont really know how to connect these ideas :')
any help would be appreciated
(the first part of the question asked me to show e_v is central, so that might help. but i cant see how it is)
One useful trick is that an element e of CG is central iff
g e g^-1 = e
So try writing out what
g e_V g^-1 is
facebook is gonna love this
will do. ty :)
Maybe put the shitposting #chill or #1203471755449073774
'my category theorist friend wants to get high. i told him to add joint'
And I'm guessing V and V' where supposed to be irreducible(?)
If so, some big further hints could be ||multiplication by e_V is a homomorphism|| and ||schurs lemma and what is the trace of this homomorphisms||
oh yes hehe sorry
V and V' are simple/irreducible otherwise their characters don't fit in the inner product nicely
Well the first part should still be true in general, but the
e_V v' = 0 will require something more
💔
Lol
im not really sure how to write $g e_V g^{-1}$ in any way other than just $\frac{\dim V}{|G|}\sum_{x\in G} \overline{\chi_V(x)}gxg^{-1}$
blutac
but that doesnt really help me ;-; (because its basically doing nothing)
what did you mean by writing out what it is ?
So notice here that as x ranges over all elements of g, gxg^-1 also ranges over all elements of G
yea
This suggests you can simplify this a little by a change of variables
what, gx=y ?
<@&268886789983436800>
i feel like gxg^{-1} just changes the location of my problem
Well I was suggesting y = gxg^-1
yes but the character has a very nice property
How would you rewrite the expression as a sum over y?
$\frac{\dim V}{|G|}\sum_{y\in G}\overline{\chi(g^{-1}yg)}y$
blutac
And what does
chi(g^-1 y g) equal?
just chi(y) no?
Yup
but i dont understand what that achieves
i understand e_V = g e_V g^{-1}
so its just provin that really
So then what this equals is
Sum chi(y)* y
which is exactly the definition of e_V
yea
sorry maybe my question is unclear
i have proven e_V is central
im trying to prove the next bit
Which is the thing we set out to prove
sorry i think maybe i was unclear
when i said this
i meant 'i cant see how it is helpful'
i proved e_v is central without much difficulty
i am stuck on showing V' is in the kernel of the action of e_V
not showing e_V is central, i did this
Okay, you already had that part.
Then my next hint would be: multiplication by e_V is a function V' -> V'
Is there anything special we can say about this function?
i guess that it's CG-linear ?
That's right
And what do we know about homomorphism of simple modules?
Yes, even more specifically it's given by multiplication by a complex number
oh yea
schurs lemma right?
ok perfect
thank u for the help i cant believe it was such a straightforward solution
i thought for sure i would have to invoke row orthogonality of character table
:')
i spoke too soon
e_V is an endomorphism V' to V'
not V to V'
so there's no direct sledgehammer that says they're not isomorphic
now i know e_V (v') = zv' for some complex number z
and e_V(v) = wv for some complex number w
Yes, so now the next hint is that the trace of multiplication by z is
z dimV'
What is the trace of multiplication by e_V on V'?
let me think about that one haha
is it by chance the sum of eigenvalues of $\phi(v)=\sum_{g\in G}\overline{\chi_V(g)}g\cdot v$
blutac
which is $\phi(v)=\sum_{g\in G}\overline{\chi_V(g)}\chi_{V'}(g)$
blutac
i.e. the inner product ?
Ding ding ding
Yes
okay makes sense
im forgetting some simpler results in my quest to pick up more advanced ones
alright !!!! thank u
all the pieces r together now
much appreciated <3
Let O be a one-dimensional noetherian integral domain. Why is every nonzero ideal of O not contained in almost all primes of O?
because of primary decomposition essentially
What is almost all?
except a finite amount
simply, let I be a nonzero ideal. Then √I can be minimally written as the intersection of primes p1, ..., pn. Suppose then there is another prime ideal q with I ⊂ q. Then we have p1 ∩ ... ∩ pn = √I ⊂ q. However, q is prime, so there is some p_i such that p_i ⊂ q, and we get a sequence 0 ⊂ p_i ⊂ q. Now we may use that O is 1-dimensional: there can only exist chains of length 1, so we must have p_i = q (as p_i =/= 0 by assumption of I being nontrivial). Therefore, there are only finitely many primes laying over I: its associated primes
I see
Nice
Then √I can be minimally written as the intersection of primes p1, ..., pn.
why are you doing this here with sqrt{I} and not just I?
To consider all chains or smth?
because an ideal can be written as an intersection of prime ideals iff it is a radical
radical? Or is reduced synonymous
uh yeah i mean radical
Yeah I guess you can rephrase enpeace's argument as like: primary decompose says each ideal has a finite collection of primes minimal wrt containing it (the ass. primes) But of course the "minimal" is redundant by dim 1
we don't need minimal anyway
Wdym lol
because we just want to show there are a finite number of exceptions
Whats the intuition for it to even be “almost all”?
Consider Z
This is saying any integer has only finitely many distinct prime factors
O/J is 0-dimensional so artinian so has finitely many maximal ideals
Yall are too good at math
in general you intuit there to be an infinite number of prime ideals
so you can intuit geometrically ig
This is also somewhat standard for some like
The theory of Dedekind domains uses a lot of this stuff
So it appears in some alg NT for example
Oh cool, sounds kinda nice
Im at the point where id need to sit with that question for a bit to work out understanding it
(E.g. rings of integers of number fields)
I am currectly reading a bit about orders, which are examples of one dimensional noetherian domains
Yee like dw about it just saying like we already have some prior exposure rather than just magicking it
Noice, where from
so its basically just comm alg
Ye lol comm alg bit of alg nt ig
orders like order theory
neukirch
Unfortunately no
*dies
Lol
<@&268886789983436800>
Well, if there are infinitely many things for something to possibly hold for and it holds for all but finitely many... it seems reasonable to say that.
(For what it's worth, I would not want to say "almost all primes" for "all but finitely many primes" for a ring with finitely many primes.)
Is there a nice description of the kernel of the natural map Z(AxB) -> ZA x ZB? (where ZX is the free abelian group on the set X)
yeah I think there is. I've just worked this out explicitly and guessed the map you're after is [\sum_{(a, b) \in A \times B} n_{a,b}(a,b) = \sum_{a \in A}\sum_{b \in B} \mapsto \left(\sum_{a \in A}\sum_{b \in B} n_{a, b}a, \sum_{b \in B}\sum_{a \in A} n_{a,b} b\right)$, by freeness of $\mathbb{Z}[A]$ and $\mathbb{Z}[B]$ the latter tuple is $(0,0)$ if and only if $\sum_{b \in B} n_{a,b} = \sum_{a \in A} n_{a,b} = 0$. Double check this but I'm like 90% sure this is right
well that's good isn't it
one second please
just render it myself I cba with this robot bs!
peak
okay yeah
a nice generating set is acc what i need i am bad at wording lol
you want a big square of numbers where each row and column adds to 0!!!!
so you can take like
hmm no this is tricky
I was thinking you put a 1 anywhere and then a -1 anywhere in the same row/column but the sum of these need not lie in the kernel
it reminds me a bit of the classical 8 queens problem
magic square ahh
If I’m writing more than like 2 lines of latex I tend to do this, I couldn’t have survived in the pre linter days
I need someone to colour my brackets or I get confused :(
I write my latex into what is essentially notepad and half of the time I'm not even looking at the monitor I'm typing on
you swine I will have your head for ts insubordination
Based
Vim or emacs
me: puts "echo "blah blah" >> document.tex"
permission denied: cannot compute without --rigorous try: sudo apt install brain
hi, trying to do this ring theory problem. i got to the fact that 2yx=2xy by computing (x-y)^3 and (x+y)^3 and setting them equal and cancelling, and then multiplying by x on the left / right and cancelling again, but now i dont know what to do, since i cant just cancel the 2's. please help 😭 this problem is beating me up real good
sudo grok
how are you getting a monomial of degree 2 lol
are u asking for my work
sure
This is a pretty hard problem, but here are some hints to one possible approach:
||Show that x^2 is in the center||
Subhint for showing this: ||x^2 is an idempotent, so x^2(1 - x^2) = 0, which means x^2 y (1 - x^2) is nilpotent||
Then
||Massage xy = x^3 y^3 to get yx||
i haven’t learned what idempotent / nilpotent means yet 😔
nor what center means for rings (i know it for groups only)
These questions are either the easiest thing or the trickiest thing ever
fun fact! there is no yet know standard deduction for these problems
idempotent means
e^2 = e
Nilpotent means e^n = 0 for some n (in this case n=2)
(proving that x^n = x => xy = yx)
is this true?
with the right definition of standard deduction
little latin lesson
Idem = self, potent = power, nil = zero
So power of something is itself/zero
the version with x^2=x was so chill and now this version is so much worse
yeah many such cases
wait till you get x^4 = x
And I don't believe an approach with cancelling 2s should be able to work, because in R = Z/6 you cannot cancel 2s
the thing is i’m unsure if that’s the intended way my prof wants me to do it (or herstein ig, the book i’m using), if i haven’t learned idempotent or wtv
Though I guess you could break R into a product of a characteristic 3 ring and a characteristic 2 ring and then argue them separately
You can just say e^2=e without mentioning idempotent
i suppose that’s true
how did u go about coming up with that approach to it?
I guess it's kind of a trick that if you have an idempotent that is not central you automatically get nilpotent elements, which comes from thinking of breaking your ring into a matrix
And one thing you can notice immediately is that 0 is the only idempotent
I guess just using everything that has to do with powers of elements makes sense
But there isn't really a good way to come up with this I feel
Maybe this approach makes more sense to you
As 2^3 = 2, R has characteristic at most 6, so breaks into a product of a characteristic 3 ring and characteristic 2 ring.
Then your argument shows the characteristic 3 ring is commutative.
For the characteristic 2 ring you might notice
(x^2 + x)^3 = 0, so x^2 = x
Which is a case you already covered
ah, uh, maybe i should say i don’t know that much ring theory (it’s been 2 weeks)
i know about characteristic in a very vague sense, but idk about ring products at all
Who is the person handing you these exercises instead of teaching you ring theory?
Maybe it’s a test to see if you’re cheating 
Slightly joking, but also don't feel this is a very productive exercise for a beginner
Like if you don't have any fancy tools, I'm not sure how much learning there is in trying random things and manipulating equations.
Like, okay there definitely is learning, but feels like it would be more frustrating than productive
LOL blame herstein
he’s a weird mathematician and i mean that affectionately but also his book is so strange
the rest of the problem set for this week seems so reasonable too 🤔 like most of it was on ideals, and then some homomorphism stuff at the end, but this one is just thrown in there for some reason
.
What does this mean actually. Like, we don’t know if x^n=x for all x implies xy = yx for arbitrary n?
we dont know a standard elementary deduction. Like, only by "doing the algebra"
Does the property hold for all n?
yes, idr who but someone did prove it
Ah
I think you can even have n depend on x can't you?
Is this Jacobson?
yeah that sounds familiar
Everywhere I go, I see his name. Martin Brandenburg haunts me.
Ig he's on stackoverflow a lot and iirc not in academia anymore so probably more able to do stuff like this which is cool
That is actually very cool though, I’d seen special cases of that result before but I didn’t realise it held for all n
I have seen his actual AG work be relevant to me which is cool
I mostly see lots of posts about locally ringed spaces
Oh shit yeah he’s a software dev, I just assumed he was still in academia. It just seems that every stackexchange/overflow post I see he’s somewhere around there
And yeah I’ve come across a couple of his papers
is he perhaps the one who made a paper about explicitly constructing limits in Sch and AffSch?
Oh idk
Though for affine schemes that sounds a bit odd lol as it is easy
yeah i guess i meant for schemes
apparently the proof that products distribute over coproducts in Sch does not require that coproducts distribute over products in CRing
products distribute over coproducts because I've yet to have been convinced otherwise
one can hope
What are the applications of quivers and path algebras? A quiver is a kind of graph right, so are they used in graph theory?
One thing that comes to mind is bound quiver algebras, which are quotients of path algebras by "admissible ideals". A theorem of Gabriel shows that any finite-dimensional associative algebra is Morita equivalent to a bound quiver algebra.
i.e. their module categories are equivalent
The main use I have seen for quivers is studying the representations of finite-dimensional associative algebras.
I see, thanks 
they're a special case of category algebras
so you can do cohomology of quivers with them :zamnzaniel:
there's also interesting connections between quiver algebras being of finite type and real reflection groups
interesting, thanks jagr 
if u wish to look into ts more google "Gabriels theorem"
Jager
does this have any relation with singular (co)homology of the underlying graph?
"algebras and representation theory" by erdmann is a good book covering this
I think the directedness of the paths involved cause them to be quite different but I'm far from an expert in this field
guh
makes sense
I suppose this forgetful functor has an adjoint sending a (for now, simple) graph to a (for now, doubly laced) quiver
so you might be able to leverage something out of the quiver => graph direction
I don't actually know if that's an adjoint but I'd eat my thesis if it wasn't
when im in an adjoint competition and my opponent is that functor:
yeah they're adjoints. EXERCISE: Construct the unit and counit of this adjunction and verify they satisfy the triangle equalities
Stole the man’s name and research interests smh
I did some googling. Apparently the right adjoint here HAS a right adjoint. That's crazy talk
oh nice a triple
Hom(A, -) ⊢ restriction of scalars ⊢ - ⊗ A
ahh
oh I see it now. If a directed graph is an ordered relation then the double right adjoint sends it to the graph with edges corresponding to "equivalent" (in the sense of a preorder) elements
yeah this is how they always look cause of Kan extenstion bullshit
but I came up with the first right adjoint all by myself
im proud of you 
my mummy says I'm very cleaver
I was about to ask if such a thing existed for directed hypergraphs and then I realised I am reinventing infinity category theory AGAIN
like ok so a (for now, finite) directed hypergraph is a a pair of sets E, V equipped with a map s : E -> V and a map t: E -> P(V) where P is the power set functor. This is exactly the dual data to that of a 2-opetope. So I suppose it's not infinity category theory just 2-category theory
well just continue the pattern 
yeah I guess you could define a directed n-hypergraph as a sequence of sets V, E_1, ..., E_n together with maps s_{k} : E_{k+1} -> E_k and t_k : E_{k+1} -> P(E_k)
and these are again just backwards n-opetope. It's kind of nifty how if you replace the power set with just E_k you get backwards globular sets, just E_k^2 you get backwards simplical sets etc.
there's something weird going on!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
wdym?
cause like, an opetope with two edges is a globe, with three edges is a simplex etc. etc.
doesn't hold for cubical sets due to woke
they're just lil guys
do NOT ask how you compose them
how do you compose them
very carefully
how do neither nlab nor wikipedia have an actual explanation of what they are
chapter 7 of https://arxiv.org/pdf/math/0305049
any they probably don't explain them because they are THE most convoluted model for infinity categories imo
along the representation theory line, there's been a lot of activity in using them to study cluster algebras via cluster categories if you're interested in that route. if you look up BGP reflection functors and tilting theory, cluster categories give an environment to study the cluster algebraic analogues
and some things about cluster algebras have representation theoretic proofs that don't have known combinatorial proofs
hey I applied to do a PhD on cluster algebras
yeah i can imagine
but i also can somewhat see how theyd apply
Interesting, thanks
it's funny how half the sources on the wiki page for tilting theory is by people from my uni
where does the name tilting come from lmao
Tilting induces a linear map on the dimension vectors / Grothendieck group which "skews" or "tilts" the dimension vectors
I mean Idun Reiten and Sverre Smalø where very instrumental in developing tilting theory
(Idun is the R in both APR tilting and HRS tilting, with Sverre being the S)
i see!
I'm not 100% on the etymology, but this is something that makes sense at least
This is from Brenner--Butler 1980, I think they were the first to call it tilting
"and because the word tilt inflects easily" 
Im not sure if this is better for here or #alg-top-geo-top but its basically just a homological algebra issue.
I have this problem, and so I just need to show that like f_*delta = delta f_*, so just a bit of diagram chasing. The issue is that im realising im not exactly sure (or have forgotten) how delta actually acts on elements
Draw out the diagram at the level of complexes and chase the only way for an element to get between the two places you want
Wdym
So your LES of pairs comes from the SES of complexes 0 -> C(A) -> C(X) -> C(X)/C(A) -> 0
Draw out two “layers” of that SES (namely, the n and n-1 layers) and figure out how to get an element from C_n(X)/C_n(A) to C_{n-1}(A)
I just realised I litterally have a homalg book next to me that tells me exactly how its defined
well, the LES is functorial no? so if you can show that a morphism of pairs induces a morphism of SES's of complexes
This is kinda asking you to prove the LES is functorial in this specific case, so I assume it’s saying you can’t use the general result
meow
well getting your hands dirty is good once in a while
Functors from Top to Abelian groups is an abelian category. Snake lemma / the existence of the LES holds in abelian categories.
Conclusion the connecting homomorphisms is a morphism in that category aka a natural transformation
What is H_n(X,A) in this case?
the homology of the chain complex C_*(X) / C_*(A)
i guess but thats not very useful lol
you just need to show that the homology LES is functorial
I did this last year, my approach was morphism of using exact sequences.
But I don't remember details
Let's assume that G->G' surjection of fibrant simplicial groups, then does kernel of this simplicial natural transformation also be fibrant?
yes
the kernel is a simplicial group and every simplicial group is a Kan complex hence fibrant
@summer quest is a kind of kan complex too
so structured, yet so truncated
This will help me thanks!
I saw that n-groupoid is a kind of kan complex on higher category theory and homotopy from Cisinski, last week, lol
But I only know brief explanations, since I'm beginner of that book
just straight to the point (Enpeace)
based
took the words right out of my mouth
quite literally, i might add
plagiarist you cited me tyvm :3
Even Weibel book said fibrant with Kan conditions, to make sure that reader check details from Kan-complex
I think it was clear argument from him
I figure out why it's true
Simplicial group always be kan complex as a set
Good
Thank you
I proved it
Idk what this discussion is about honestly, but all I wanna say is I’m convinced that it is impossible to write an accurate homological algebra book
Every source I’ve ever come across on it has some weird random errors, a map is written wrong, there’s maybe typos, some definitions are flipped or something
I feel like homological algebra is something you need to really just get down and dirty with to really understand, and it’s because of all this random crap when you try and write it all down you end up with weird errors
I guess caveat:
stacks project is probably mostly devoid of errors and whatever Grothendieck wrote probably is too
honestly even Grothendieck isn’t immune to mistakes
some of his texts have gaps, typos, or places where details are left to the reader, and later people had to clarify or fix things
he’s insanely influential, but that doesn’t mean everything he wrote is perfectly error-free
Yeah I mean, this is totally true, but I think it’s on a different level than most things
EGA is, honestly, pretty complete. I feel the stacks project is sort of even more complete, but EGA has fairly few errors for the massive thing it is, and there are errata in later volumes
There’s still errors for sure, like Zariski-locality of projective modules which makes a proof for something involving infinitesimal lifting incomplete, but it’s leagues better than a lot of other things on homological algebra haha
SGA and FGA are sort of different because those are of a different nature and aren’t supposed to really be textbooks
yeah that matches my experience
EGA is impressively solid and Stacks wins on completeness mostly because it’s updated
57 is a prime number btw
we somehow call it as the Grothendieck prime
for some reason
Can someone please just double check im not being stupid, if I have a split exact sequence of abelian groups, applying Hom(-,G) (for G an abelian group) still gives a split exact sequence right? Like all there is to check is that its exact at the right after dualising, and that B*\cong A*\oplusC* right? But then the second thing just comes from Hom(-,G) preserving the direct sum, and then exactness follows instantly from the fact that it tells you your maps are just inclusion and projection?
yes, split epis are preserved by any functor
ig you need left exactness to prove the first map remains injective and exact nvm
Fun fact: a functor is additive (F(f+g) = F(f) + F(g)) iff F preserves split exact sequences
since addition is given by a split sequence?
I guess that's a way to put it
Yeah I just wanted to double check I wasn’t being stupid because there was like nothing to it
And all the other problems took fucking ages lol
homological algebra do be like that
To be fair the prior problem was an easy diagram chase, I’m just stupid
Diagram chasing is certainly an interesting proof technique
it's fun
It wasn’t even the diagram chasing that was the issue I was chasing properly, I just defined the action of a functor on morphisms the wrong way around and was then confused why nothing worked lol
nice pasttime 
And every book I checked to see where I was being dumb said “this is routine but long”
lol
Basic Hom alg by Osborne seem to go thru the nitty details of that diagram chase stuff
Oh nice that’s good to know.I’m generally ok with the arguments now, like for this problem I did know the right things to check and things to use, I just set it up wrong, but it’s good to have another source for when I’m stuck
Yeah i think its the friendliest hom alg book tbh
My first pass with a lot of this was Weibel so anything is friendlier
This may have been asked before (including by me possibly) but what's the best resource on (triangulated and/or) derived categories for building intuition?
https://arxiv.org/abs/1610.09640 ive used sections of this, recall it being useful
This is the fourth (and last) prepublication version of a book on derived categories, that will be published by Cambridge University Press.
The purpose of the book is to provide solid foundations for the theory of derived categories, and to present several applications of this theory in commutative and noncommutative algebra. The emphasis is o...
Thanks!
What is the second cohomology of the alternating group on n points acting irreducibly on $\mathbb{Z}^{n-1}$?
Mecejide
I haven’t read this specific book but I kinda feel that writing the details of many diagram chases makes the book genuinely harder to understand than just saying “you should do it urself”
It’s just a wall of text that is really hard to interpret without just doing the proof yourself anyway
Hom alg is one of the fields where I feel leaving it as an exercise is actually good pedagogy
As an example of a book where I don’t like when it does this, some of the stuff in Hatcher
I like most of Hatcher but a lot of the hom alg stuff is just holy wall of text that would be 10x more readable if he gave some hints & drew the hints on the diagrams and said do it urself
I don’t know that I agree with “it’s not comprehensible as a long paragraph”, it’s just that it’s often long and beyond knowing what elements to pick and where, there aren’t many ideas.
But like fundamentally all you’re doing is picking an element somewhere and following it around a diagram, there’s no reason that would be hard to follow
Hey guys I have a banger i am on it for 2 months now please help
The only even remotely moral way to like typeset a diagram chase in a textbook is to just redraw the diagram with labeled elements after every 1-2 lines of the proof. If you don’t want to do that (which is fine imo) it is 10x better to just leave it as an exercise.
The first time I read the diagram chases in Hatcher I was like wtf is going on and crashed out for like a day cause I didn’t know how a diagram chase is supposed to work
It’s just not something that reads well in book format
Or just draw the diagram and have elements labeled x1, x2, x3, ... by the relevant objects.
Maybe my ideal version of pedagogy for something like that is to do this once to show how to do it and leave the rest as an exercise
Yes but if it’s just diagram -> wall of text below it’s still really hard to read if it’s your first time encountering stuff
Maybe followed by a paragraph like there is an x2 mapping to x1 because [insert property]
You need multiple diagrams interspersed throughout the text to simulate the flow of a blackboard lecture
Idk, it's not that hard to move your eyes up slightly to look at the diagram
Yeah but it’s really distracting on first read
Especially if there are multiple elements on the same diagram it takes mental strain to clearly see each step
Anyway it’s not that big a deal but I think the best pedagogy is to be as clear as possible the first time and leave literally all the rest as exercises
I was crashing out on Hatcher’s proofs for so long until eventually I realized that best practice for learning homological alg is just to ignore the authors proofs completely and write your own
I guess trying to prove things for yourself is generally a good tip in a lot of cases
Some math is best enjoyed in the comfort of your own head
Yeah like, if I’m reading a proof like that I genuinely just trace around with my finger where elements are in the the original diagram, it’s fine
I’m also not saying that all the proofs should be included either, I think leaving most of them as exercises is fine because as I said they’re generally routine. The slight issue I have is that a lot of books tend to just leave them all, and they can be tricky if you’ve not seen any of them done before. I think Rotman strikes quite a nice balance in that regard
Profound.
I think having to write up diagram chases explicitly in my first algebraic topology/homological algebra class was one of the main reasons I decided not to go into that side of algebra lol
fun to write on a blackboard but awful to try to write on paper formally
I think I've found it? My situation is slightly different and i genuinely forgot that this was the case on multiple occasions working in ts problem:
A, B and AxB are pointed sets, and the corresponding distinguished element (denoted x( gets identified with the 0, i.e. ZA gets modulo'd by Zx and so on. Now take the set
{ (a, x) + (x, b) - (a, b) | a in A, b in B }
I'm like 99.9% sure this generates the kernel of \hat{Z}AxB -> \hat{Z}A x \hat{Z}B (where \hat{Z}X stands for ZX with x identified with 0)
I want to prove that if V is a complex faithful representation of G then every irreducible representation appears as a summand of Sym^n(V) for some n. Now, I know that these appear as a summand in the n-fold tensor product of V with itself. Is there a way to conclude the same must be true for Sym^n(V) using this fact?
I can try to compute the inner product of an irreducible character with the a character of Sym^n(V) but the latter does not have a nice expression for large n
but the same approach with the tensor product works nicely, so it'd nice if I can deduce this from the tensor product case
this works: decompose any sum into two parts where one has x in the first entry and the other x in the second entry, then it follows that if it gets mapped to 0 in \hat{Z}A x \hat{Z}B that both of the components have to be 0, so we are done
TLDR the discussion but is it generated by ||{ (a1, b1) - (a1, b2) - (a2, b1) + (a2, b2) : a1, a2 in A, b1, b2 in B }||?
Emacs
yes
lol
but my situation is slightly modified and i didnt say so cuz im stupid lol, but A, B are pointed sets and you actually consider the groups ZX/xZ where x is the distinguished element
in which case this is the answer
One thing that I found convincing is that the category of modules of any finite-dimensional algebra is equivalent to the category of representations of a quiver with relations (as in KnightWatch's answer). The construction basically takes (IIRC) the vertices to be the projective representations, the number of arrows to be the dimnsion of hom spaces between the projective representations, and the relations to be the relations between those homomorphisms. So the quiver is genuinely a diagram of the (projective) representations. But you can do this for other representation theory settings, and I believe this is actually useful e.g. it come up in category O representations of a semisimple Lie algebra (I think??).
Anyway I'll stop replying to old messages. Not sure how I started.
is this being assigned as a problem? i dont know any character theoretic way to show it
yes, and there are two hints:
- estimate the inner product of an irreducible character with the character of Sym^n(V) as n gets big
- Show that the action of G on the set of maximal ideals (x_1 - a_1, ... , x_d - a_d) of the symmetric algebra of V is faithful and deduce that the regular representation is a quotient of the symmetric algebra representation
here x1, ...., xd forms a basis of V
I am trying to solve the following:
Let G be a finite group and V be an irreducible complex representation of G. Let H be a normal subgroup of G then V restricted to H is isomorphic to m-copies of an irreducible representation W of H, as H-representations.
My approach is to take an irrep W of H contained in the restriction of V to H, then gW is H-stable, hence an H-representation. It is isomorphic to W and is also an irreducible H-representation. Now, $U = \bigoplus_{g \in G/H} g W$ is a G-stable subspace of V, hence it must be equal to V. This then proves the claim. The only problem I have here is whether U is actually a direct sum. Because it is not clear to me why $W \cap gW$ is trivial for every $g \in G/H$. Can anyone explain why this would be the case?
pink_panther
I don't think this is true. Let G be S_3 and V the 2-dimensional irrep and H the subgroup of order 3, then V is the direct sum of two distinct irreps of H.
(This shows up in your answer in the part where you assume W is isomorphic to gW as a H-rep. This is not true (but it is still irreducible).)
To answer your question, recall that W and gW are irreducible H-reps. So if the intersection is non-trivial, then - check that it is H-stable - what can it be?
But you have to show more than this in case there are more than two summands.
What is this diagram supposed to be? my professor mentioned that its how you happen upon the definition of convolution for multiplication in the ring R[x], but the convolution operating doesnt make the diagram commute, so Im not sure whats going on
yeah thats what would make the diagram commute
but thats not convluiton
convolution would be H(n+m)=sum over all i,j such that i+j = n+m (f(i)(g(j))
which is almost always going to be larger than that H which makes the diagram commute
mmh I see. yeah idk maybe that's just a typo
The regular representation of a group is equiv to just taking the group ring as a module over itself right
yes that's why it carries so much information
wahoo ty
if you take complex representations then the group ring is semisimple hence why you can decompose it as a direct sum of all its simple modules (i.e. irreducible representations), so this view is nice
I’m more familiar with mutations of exceptional collections than quivers (as in the context of cluster algebras), is there any relation?
I was hoping maybe that this could be something like if you mutate a full strong exceptional collection (which gives you an equivalence to the derived category of quiver representations) this would still be strong and also give a different quiver, which is the quiver mutation… but that’s definitely not true (need not be strong, and also mutation of exceptional collection is not an involution, this is only a braid group action in general… but maybe you happen to get the same quiver?).
or I guess you could get a quiver out of an exceptional collection whether or not it is strong, just won’t get an equivalence
Question Do I have to simply the Sigma? Or can I jsut put it in the caculator?
advanced algebra 💔
we should make this a sticker here
same shit different font
it's very funny that pre-uni people thinks what they do is too advanced to post it in #advanced-algebra when they do not know what a group is
mb chat i just sent it in a popular chat to ge a quick response
All Math Help are full
well categories exist for a reason
I apologies for my existence great math king! You will see my exit now at once!
cringe
goes to Burger King
“can I have a Big Mac”
we don’t serve that here
wow you guys r so elitist. The McDonald’s was busy so I came here
Whats the closest thing to a big Mac
Burger
ok i will take a burger
Also I do admit and apologise for posting in the wrong channel 🙂
That’s fair ngl sorry for the toxic message
I let the urge to be funny on the internet take priority over not being an asshole that’s mb
being funny on the internet is a top priority tho
Ts so advanced lil bro
take that to #category-theory
Who the FUCK is that
the isotropy type tells you about fixed points
the automorphism group of H is PSL_2(R). If you quotient by discrete subgroups of PSL_2(R) you obtain geometric spaces. Eg. modular curves. You can obtain all compact Riemann surfaces of genus g>1 in this manner, by the uniformization theorem
these modular transformations also come up when trying to classify elliptic curves over C
any elliptic curve over C is of the form C/L where L is a lattice (this is not obvious, but it essentially comes from the surjectivity of the j function). So you have to ask when two lattices gives the same answer. You can choose a representative Z+tau Z where tau lies in the upper half plane, and tau is chosen modulo PSL_2(Z)
also you get more refined information if you consider other types of moduli problems. Eg: cyclic subgroups, a point of order N, or a pair of points with torsion data. These are related to the modular groups Gamma_0(N), Gamma_1(N) and Gamma(N), and the space H/G is the "moduli space"
I’m trying to exhibit that a set of prime ideals are associated primes of R/I by showing which element it annihilates. The ideal I is a squarefree monomial ideal plus some extra linear form generators. By computations on mac2 i think i know which elements will be the ones annihilated by the supposed associated prime, but i just need to show it algebraically now i guess
So if im claiming “ab” is the element the associated prime P annihilates,
then I need to show
ann(ab) = P
Or since we are in a quotient R/I thats the same as the colon ideal
(I : ab)
And computing these colons im getting stuck on
If I is a monomial ideal then there are formulas for this but the extra linear form generators is making it weird
R is a polynomial ring over a field
I know this is algebra but this is also the isometry group of the hyperbolic plane so it’s important to understand it for DG reasons
im pretty embarassed to question this but can someone explains me what are quotient spaces by relation operators 😭
i dont get the books explanations
some authors also call it canonical proyections
i haven't heard the term relation operator in math
can you show what the book is referring to
what book?
i don't actually know who is the author or where is from, my teacher sent me only the quotient space chapter bc i asked him smth abt it
I think he means equivalence relation
like its a 3 pages pdf
with only that chapter
quotient spaces are just what you do when you’re too lazy to distinguish points anymore
(this is better for #linear-algebra ) but with that definition 6.1, suppose V is R^2 and W is the span of (1, 0), so the x-axis. then if any two points (x1, y1) and (x2,y2) with y1 = y2, their difference will be in W. so (x1, y1) is equivalent to (x2,y2). so basically anything with the same y-coordinate is indistinguishable i.e. in the same equivalence class. then the later lemmas and observations are building up to the idea that if you treat every equivalence class as a point, you get a valid vector space
which they call the quotient space
I don't think there is a standardized quicker way to do this in general tbh
which is why m2 is so nice
but if someone else knows of one pls @ me too in the response. Would be useful
Ive been wondering then - how does m2 do the computation?
Something grobner basis i guess
That’s generally the answer to these kinds of things
My colleague suggested i look at this theorem instead
Im trying to find regular sequences for a cohen macaulay simplicial complex
If its CM then max regular sequence <-> its a s.o.p
Do u do linkage?
Wdym, like the link operation on simplicial complex?
Like linkage theory of ideals
Guess not haha
But that stuff requires similar considerations to what you’re asking about
haha yeah i have heard of that stuff
i looked at it a while ago and it was a bit hard for me to parse at the time
It’s pretty cool! Worth looking into imo
Oh I know you hahaha
Yooo
Oh yeah! Wait does ur name start with a k?
It does haha
Thanks, likewise
hm i wonder what "kiand123"'s name is
Lol
How well known is the following?
A functor F is fully faithful iff there exists any natural isomorphism
Hom(A,B) -> Hom(FA,FB)
In case where F admits a left adjoint G, it equivalently suffices to show that there exists any natural isomorphism 1 => GF.
If you know to expect it, then its a relatively simple Yoneda-type argument of seeing that all the universal elements must be isos which combine to an automorphism of F.
But I haven't seen it mentioned before in literature.
Kind of makes a big difference when you have proofs like:
f^* : D^b(Y) \to D^b(X) is fully faithful if f_* O_X = O_Y (everything is derived).
Hom(f^* A, f^B ) = Hom(A, f_ f^* B) = Hom(A, B \otimes f_* O_X) = Hom(A,B)
the second iso. being the (derived) projection formula.
(you really dont want to explicitely check that the last two isomorphisms can be expressed as the unit and some additonal isomorphisms)
Idk I feel it is worth checking anyway here and like projection formula as you used it is saying that f_* f^*(-) is O_Y-linear and so the map should be the unit without too much difficulty, like just unwinding what the maps are
It isnt that bad in this case, but quickly escalates if you throw in like 10 natural isos.
It has to do with the lax monoidal structure being used to define the projection formula map in the first place, in my notes I had
"But this follows from noting that, up to canonical monoidal unit isomorphisms the maps comes from
[
\phi \mapsto \varepsilon \circ f^*(m \circ (\eta \otimes 1) \circ \phi )
]
where we then have the identity
[
\varepsilon \circ f^m \circ (f^\eta \otimes 1) = 1
]
as follows from the definition of (m) as induced by the adjunction and the triangle inequalities."
Kerr
once you demand a bivariant natural isomorphism Hom(A,B) ≅ Hom(FA,FB) it is rigid in the Yoneda sense
concretely set η_A to be the image of id_A under Hom(A,A) → Hom(FA,FA); naturality forces α(f) = F(f) ∘ η_A = η_B ∘ F(f) so η is a natural automorphism of F and the given α is just the usual map f ↦ F(f) twisted by η in particular, since each η_B is invertible you recover that f ↦ F(f) is bijective on every Hom-set so F is fully faithful With an adjoint G ⊣ F any natural isomorphism Id → GF gives Hom(A,B) ≅ Hom(A,GFB) and composing with the adjunction gives Hom(A,B) ≅ Hom(FA,FB) hence full faithfulness by the same rigidity this is just a rephrasing of the standard “right adjoint fully faithful iff GF → Id is an iso” (equivalently Id → GF after inverting)
for the derived pullback argument the point is: as soon as your chain of isomorphisms is natural in both variables you don’t need to identify it with the canonical unit or maps existence of that natural Hom-iso already forces full faithfulness
I know the proof, but the way I even figured out was by looking for a counter-example lol
"we see that this map is an isomorphism by just making up a different one and checking it" just sounded absurd to me back then, and somehow I never encountered this rigidiy of bifunctors before. Hence asking how well known it was
totally fair if you haven’t internalized "bifunctor naturality is brutally rigid" it does sound like cheating
What are your favourite tricks from the "bifunctor naturality is brutally rigid" world
evaluate at the identity: given any bivariant natural gadget involving Hom(A,B) look at what it does to id_A or id_B and you usually extract a canonical natural transformation (or automorphism) that controls everything
bivariant natural gadget is a great term
Me anytime the opportunity arises form now:
<@&268886789983436800>
peak work
what are prereqs for learning about triangulated categories?
to learn about the derived category you don’t need as much as I thought I would have needed. If you feel comfortable with homological algebra on the level of Ext/Tor, you could pick up Gelfand and Manin and start maybe in chapter 2. It’s not the awesome-ist book imo, and maybe it’d be good to pick up some category theory from maybe Riehl alongside GM chapter 2.
I only got comfortable working with triangulated categories afterward when trying to read Bayer’s a tour to stability (https://www.math.utah.edu/dc/dc-lecture-notes.pdf) in case you like something with alg geo applications
one exercise that I struggled with but made me feel way better about the machinery was proving that this definition of a bounded t-structure (i think due to Bridgeland) is equivalent to the definition in BBD
Just did this exercise and I’m wondering if this is useful beyond just applying it for the case of complex conjugate (which is shown by taking the dual rep anyway)
I guess C’s automorphism group is just Z/2Z so there’s no other use here. I bet the problem is looking forward to doing representations over different fields, where you could have big interesting Galois groups
It could be useful, but it's relyant on the galois group being easy to compute.
Like say Chi(g) = sqrt(5), then you know there is an automorphism of C that takes this to -sqrt(5), so there should be a character with Chi(g) = -sqrt(5). But calculating exactly what this automorphism does with everything else can be hard.
I guess it gives you some partial knowledge of a new character anyway.
The automorphism group of C is uncountable
Any automorphism of a subfield of C extends to an automorphism of C
oops! thanks sorry
(ahhh i was remembering that R only has the identity field automorphism, which I feel like is bizarre)
I guess it depends what you want to learn about.
If you know the Yoneda lemma and basic diagram chasing you can read the axioms and start proving diagram lemmas and some simple properties.
For examples the homotopy category is easy to construct if you just know what a module is. To get the derived category from there you need some version of localization of categories.
If you want to work with enhancements and stuff you might start to need some homotopy theory / homotopical algebra.
Can an algebra be defined over a module in the same way as over a vector space?
yes
You'll want to be over a commutative ring so that the tensor product makes sense
now im wondering a question regarding continued fraction and SL(2,\mathbb{Z}) can be asked here or by number theory
I will guess number theory. In general if your first channel tried doesn't get responses for a day to a few days, you can try another channel (or at least that's what I do). I've also heard of cross-posting if you warn that it's cross-posted.
i see then i have already posted my q in advanced number theory
This does seem very practical then, didn’t know you could extend any automorphism of a subfield of C. I haven’t seen that proof in the course tho
It's pretty much just Zorn's lemma.
True for any normal extension
I recall some reps with roots, like for A_5 the reps on the isocahedron (?)
And yeah makes sense
thanks
Yeah the 2nd and 3rd character here are related by such an automorphism
https://people.maths.bris.ac.uk/~matyd/GroupNames/1/A5.html
Hey, I’m looking for someone to help each other learn homological algebra. I’m a complete beginner. If you’re interested, DM me.
@solar turret 😲 your clone
hahahahha
lmao
This is one of the few things I don't really know in popular GA. I can tell you GA and GA-like methods tend to be some of the better options for posing, animating, and interpolation. Having advantages in speed, memory footprint, and numerical stability (depending on implementation).
CGA specifically I know is utilized in robotic control and robotic vision, but I'll be real and tell you I have no idea how it is used
Screw theory is about translations and rotations, and screw motions (translating along a line while also rotating around the line)
If I'm not mistaken, a line combined with an orientation, telling you how to translate and rotate, and a proportion between translation and rotation, is a screw
You'd be better off probably just asking questions here
And it'd help if you said what text you were thinking of working through
I am using the introductory book of rotman about homological algebra + I wanna do this bcs I am not supposed to learn homological algebra officially yet, so I am looking for sm1 so we give each other the motivation and respect a schedule.
https://etale.site/teaching/s23-128/math-128-s23-lecture-notes.pdf
there’s this set of notes which is probably a horrible way to be introduced to homalg but I’d like to work through at some point. If I were to do so though it wouldn’t be for another couple of months yet
sometimes me too
Notknow VS. Nasmil_337
Are there uncountably large tarski monsters
surely if all ur proper subgroups are finite u cant be uncountable
idk how to prove this though tbf
"Every Tarski monster group is finitely generated. In fact it is generated by every two non-commuting elements." - Wikipedia, so no it cant be uncountable
(every finitely generated group is obviously countable)
Quick proof: take the subgroup generated by a countable number of distinct elements
This is a countable subgroup
Nice.
Obvious in hindsight but I like it
Let F: D_A -> D_B be a functor between trangulatd categories, both equipped with t-structures with hearts A, B respectively. If F is exact and maps A into B, is its restriction to a functor from A to B n exact functor of abelian categories?
Hearts? Lol
Is there any concrete description of the span of all k-tensors of the form v^{\otimes k} (I mean as v varies in \mathbb{R}^n)?
I know that for k=2 you get all PSD matrices
So my question really takes place in k\geq 3
I believe this is Sym^k V and this is proved in the course of any proof of Schur-Weyl duality.
V = \mathbb{R}^n
I forgot how to actually do it but I think explicitly, you can induct on n. You want to express symmetrise(v1 (x) ... (x) vn) as a linear combination of v^n's when you know the same is possible for n-1.
Thank you very much🙏
I found it in stack exchange
this has been alluded to me but I’ve never proved it, so I’ll try now! If A->B->C->A[1] is an exact triangle with all A,B,C in a heart, then 0->A->B->C->0 is an exact sequence in the abelian category sense—you can check exactness in the middle by seeing that after hitting it with Hom(W,-), you get
Hom(W,A)->Hom(W,B)->Hom(W,C)
exact because Hom(W,-) is cohomological. So, now we just need to see the A->B is injective and B->C surjective, so we check the kernels and cokernels are 0.
Recall that the kernel of A->B is a shift a truncation of the cone (which is C), but that truncation will be 0 because it’ll be in the wrong shift.
Similarly the cokernel of B->C is a the other truncation of the cone (which is A[1]), but this is again 0 for the same reason.
so an exact F mapping a heart inside a heart will be exact functor restricted to the heart in the abelian category sense because the exact sequences are exactly the triangles that happen to be in the heart
Yeah. Just compose it with the (0th) homology
Provided your exact functor maps objects in the heart to the heart. Although with comparison with derived functors this shouldn't be surprising
If your objects are concentrated in degree 0, then h^-1(FC) = 0 and h^1(FA)=0. Furthermore h^0(FX)=FX under this assumption. This yields you an exact sequence
0 \to FA \to FB \to FC \to 0
Are the machinery and results around Stone duality used in the theory of profinite groups?
Does anyone have any.. anything that has the following properties:
A large(order ~2^64-2^512), maximally "wild" (for the other propertues), quasigroup that is not a semigroup such that:
The quasigroup operation is not "ringlike". The natural representaton of the structure is not a linear combinaton of basis elements over any reasonable ring.
The quasigroup has many interesting, highly nontrival endomorphisms/automorphisms that can be represented and sampled from efficiently. Other then these the magma has a structure that seems random.
The quasigroup has some sort of O(polylog(|M|)) way to represent elements, and a polytime algorithm for the magma operaton on these bitstrings. And this is not in terms of generators/relations. Given a subquasigroup generated by <a, b>, and an element k, it should be hard to determine if k is in <a, b>
There is some vaguely coherent way to construct M
I get magma and quasigroup mixed up.
such a quasigroup almost certainly exists. The issue is constructing it.
in case your wondering why i'd be remoted interested in such a fucking weird structure, cryptography
If something with these properties is constructed, I already have a DH analogue for it that should be quantum resistant
Based on the following problem:
given some element k, and a list of tuples of (a_i, phi(a_i)), such that k is guaranteed to be in the subquasigroup generated by the a_i(substitute in a_0, a_1...), compute phi(k).
for some endomorphism phi
or a slightly modified version, given (w_i(a_i), phi(a_i)), where w_i(a_i) is some product of a single instance of a_i along with some godawful nonassociative product of elements randomly sampled from Ker(phi),(we don't know phi or it's kernal), compute phi(k).
basically, the idea is you have some set of generators of M(our quasigroup), a_i. And an endomorphism phi. publish (a_i, phi(a_i)), Someone who wants to send an e lement generates an element from <a_i>, and then uses the labeling to generate the same element from <phi(a_i)>, send the element w generated from <a_i> the other person with phi can apply it to w to get phi(w), which is the shared secret
sorry if this is totally incoherent also i dont wanna clog up this channel so feel free to dm me or make a thread ig
Grothendieck and Verdier were famously Talmudic scholars in their local Yeshiva when they were inspired to define derived categories
What funny about this post? Straight facts
sometimes the truth is funny
very hard to even define perverse sheaves without the notion of t-structure in the first place!
Is the connection that you have some derived equivalence and the perverse sheaves come from the image of the standard t-structure? Or what's the history there?
people didn’t invent t-structures first and then get perverse sheaves it was more like: we keep seeing this class of constructible complexes that behaves the way an abelian category should but the derived category won’t let us talk about kernels and cokernels or exact sequences
the fixes like: it’s just a complex concentrated in certain usual degrees or take some extension-closure miss the point because perversity is measured by stalk and costalk conditions not by ordinary cohomological degrees and you still don’t get a real abelian category
so they found that the perverse t-structure is the best way to fix the problem
I'm not sure if this makes sense but: Consider the derived tensor product on D(R-Mod), R a commutative ring. Cohomology is a functor from D(R-Mod) to (R-Mod)^{Z}, which should be monoidal at least for R a field. But to make this true, do I have to make either of the (braidings of the) monoidal products supercommutative?
Does the definition of monoidal functor say anything about the braiding?
Can you not have monoidal functors between categories unless they are braided monoidal?
IDK that's why I'm not sure if the question maKes sense
I'm just thinking that cup products are supercommutative but IG that's not about the monoidal structure. It's an algebra wrt the monoidal structure and commutative wrt the supercommutative braiding.
I mean there is something called "braided monoidal functor" / "symmetric monoidal functor" and cohomology probably is that too
Yes lol. Maybe it's braiding-preserving if you use non-super on both sides or super on both sides.
well so the actual motivation for why you would construct this sort of thing is to salvage Poincare duality in the presence of singularities
in some sense the construction works the same as how the usual category of constructible sheaves is recovered as the heart of the standard t-structure on the constructible derived category
in the constructible setting you are working relative to a fixed stratification, and you are gluing the standard t-structure from the standard t-structures on categories of locally constant sheaves on each strata
the perverse t-structure is constructed the same way, but with different shifts depending on the relative codimensions of strata, so that locally constant sheaves are replaces by suitable shifts of such
there are various different choices of shift which you can take here, corresponding to a notion of "perversity"
Poincare duality takes the form of Verdier duality and this exchanges the heart of the t-structure with this perversity with the heart of the t-structure with the dual of this perversity
the heart of the t-structure with middle perversity is then Verdier self-dual and Poincare duality is restored in this sense
this is a little subtle and it depends
but yes there are plenty of situations where the "naive" functor you write down for cohomology ends up landing in supervector spaces rather than vector spaces, and you have to modify the braiding in order to land in vector spaces again
this tends to happen when constructing categories of motives (e.g. over finite fields) in the usual way involving algebraic correspondences as Homs, in this sort of setting you can modify the braiding if you assume certain standard conjectures about algebraic cycles (you need the Kunneth correspondences to decompose in the right way so that you can modify the Koszul sign accordingly)
another interesting situation where you naturally encounter this issue of Koszul sign and supervector spaces is when you consider the category of Z-graded complexes of (super)vector spaces
here there are two gradings, one is the internal Z-grading of complexes, one is the external Z-grading
you can then shear this bigrading
that shear functor is a monoidal equivalence, but not a symmetric monoidal equivalence when working with vector spaces
if you do the same shear but also change parity depending on degree when working with supervector spaces, this becomes a symmetric monoidal equivalence
when you restrict this back to the even supergraded objects you get this picture
this should answer what you are wondering about here
this shearing functor is rather interesting and shows up implicitly in a lot of geometric Langlands and derived versions of Tannakian reconstruction theorems and so on
one funny upshot of this is that you get way more fiber functors in the derived setting, since you can always take any fiber functor and precompose it with iterates of shearing
you really developed what I said briefly lol
does anyone know how to compute, say, the symmetric power of a group representation on GAP and decompose it into irreducibles
idk but there is a manual online that may be of some help
if u think ai can make movies or is intelligent join now
i just made a better movie than the ai with trial equipment
@warm relic this channel is for mathematical discussion relevant to the channel topic. keep off-topic comments in #discussion or #chill
Any examples of commutative non associative structures?
A non associative lie bracket over a field of characteristic 2 works
Cool
most commutative magmas
And of course we all have a rich list of these to hand lol
speak for yourself, i definitely do
min{x, y} + 1 on the naturals, in any case
Yeah I’m joking a bit, I’m sure I could come up with a bunch no problem it’s just a funny way to phrase it
I think like f(x,y) =nx+ny on N would work?
yes for n ≠ 1 or 0 of course
probably any associative operation on N followed by a +1
True lol
Lol
This is really more #advanced-number-theory. Youll maybe want to ask a more specific question if youd like some help though!
There is supposed to be a correspondence between certain (algebraic) automorphic forms and algebraic varieties, which works something like: automorphic form f for a group G <-> compatible family of galois representations \rho_{f, \ell} with values in \hat{G} <-> family of \ell-adic Galois representations H^i(X; Q_l) for all \ell prime. <- X up to some fine equivalence relation
For elliptic curves this says that weight two classical modular cuspidal eigenforms with rational fourier coefficients correspond bijectively with elliptic curves over Q up to isogeny. And there are generalizations for larger number fields.
Is the zariski closure of a line segment the corresponding line?
You mean over the real numbers or something?
Whatever statement you're looking for (if true) will follow from the fact that a polynomial in one variable which vanishes at infinitely many points must be zero.
No I mean in any affine space
then what does a line segment mean
What do you mean?
Uhh okay I guess I did mean in Rn for the notion of an interval in an embedded line. But ya that property about when a single variable poly vanishes on infinitely many points probably answers whatever question I meant.
okay well I cannot explain the entire theory of modular forms on discord
you should read something about them
Gamma_0(N) is the subgroup of Sl_2(Z) consisting of matrices which are congruent to an upper triangular matrix modulo N. Associated to such a subgroup there is a space of modular cuspforms of weight 2 called S_2(\Gamma_0(N)) (some functions on the upper half plane with nice properties), and the Mellin transform of a cuspidal eigenform gives some completed L-function (just like the mellin transform of \theta gives the completed zeta function) and this is supposed to match the L-function of the corresponding galois representation. To learn more about things you'd have to read about the theory.
Let $R$ be a Dedekind domain and $I$ an integral $R$-ideal. Does there exist an isomorphism $I^{-1}/R \cong R/I$ as $R$-modules? This is true when $R$ is a PID.
