#advanced-algebra
1 messages · Page 10 of 1
Are there weaker forms of invertibility
in monoids youve got semiinverses
or smt
a, b st aba = a and bab = b
if theres an element n such that an = b then n may not be unique
Is this it’s own property?
I guess you could just describe it by saying the function of multiplying by a on the left is surjective, for all a, but idk if there’s any like specific name for it?
You'd call it a-divisible
Thank you!
For every a there is not really a word for it
Would there also being an n so that na=b change the structure?
Or would those statements be the same
Seems kind of like a weaker version of this?
Quasi quasi group
can anyone explain what Grothendieck's spectral sequence is saying? In some texts this is buried under dozens of definitions, but I don't think it should be that complicated to state what's going on?
If I understand correctly, there should be maps d^(p, q) : R^pG o R^qF(A)-->R^(p+2)G o R^(q-1)F(A) (by "o" I mean composition), such that dd=0.
But then what's the relation with R^(p+q)(G o F)(A)? Should it be
ker d^(p, q)/im d^(p-2, q+1)=R^(p+q)(G o F)(A) ?
If so, doesn't this imply R^1G o F (A)=R^1(G o F)(A) ? Because R^pG o R^qF=0 if one of p or q is <0?
the relation is that said spectral sequence R^p G o R^q F converges to R^(p+q) GoF, in particular there is a priori not the equality you speak of.
It basically amounts to "how a resolution of F and a resolution of G amounts to a resolution of G o F", and grothendieck spectral sequence is the answer.
As to how it function, you can see each page as a more precise approximation of what you're trying to get
the relation will depend on what properties you have, it can be what you wrote in some cases but will not most likely, you can check whatever source you want for the definition of the limit (i recall even wikipedia) and write out the isomorphism you get from the filtration
so can it be stated precisely in simple terms or no?
in full generality, i do not know such thing and it probably isn't possible
well i mean not better than what the definition would give
I'm just asking if the definition is simple or not
Rotman gives 29 definitions before getting to Grothendieck's spectral sequence
I think you should read them if you haven't
why?
I'm just asking how economically can you state precisely Grothendieck's spectral sequence. I doubt you need 40 pages
I mean this just sounds like a general question about spectral sequences tbh
No ones ever accused Rotman of being too concise
💔
You can always read ncat or Wikipedia if you want more concise things, but you cannot expect such a general tool to have a more concise statement than "this spectral sequence converges"
I mean yeah that's what I'm asking the definition of. I'm just taking Grothy's spectral sequence as a concrete example
Im confused what you’re asking when you ask about the “definition” of a spectral sequence. But I think the useful statement that pops out is that the spectral sequence converges to R^( F \circ G ), I.e. point wise in (p,q) the differentials become zero, and R^(F \circ G) has a filtration with subquotients the “stable” entries of the sequence
Eg R^n(F \circ G) has a filtration with graded pieces \lim_{i} E^{p, n - p}_i, (the limit eventually stabilizes)
No idea if this is the right channel but I'll just ask here and someone tell me to ask somewhere else if needed.
For reference this comes from the proof of Theorem 1 of the paper \emph{Complexity Issues in Bivariate Polynomial Factoring} by Bostan et al but I don't think that is super important.
This is likely just some basic power series stuff that is eluding me.
I wonder if I should ask on math SE instead.
Let $k$ be any field and $F(x, y) \in k[x, y]$ a polynomial of total degree $d$.
We will assume that the degree of $F$ with respect to $y$ is also $d$ so that $F$ is monic in $y$.
Furthermore, we will assume that the resultant $\text{Res}_y(F, \partial_y F)(x)$ is such that $\text{Res}_y(F, \partial_y F)(0) \neq 0$.
Then say $F(x, y) = \prod_{i = 1}^s \mathcal{F}_{i}(x, y)$ is the factorization in to irreducibles of $F$ over $K[[x]]$.
Let $\phi_j(x)$ be any series solution of $\mathcal{F}_j(x, \phi_j(x)) = 0$.
First question: the paper states that since $\text{Res}_y(F, \partial_y F)(0) \neq 0$, we must have that $\phi_j(x) \in K[[x]]$ instead of $K((x))$.
Second question: the paper states that $\partial_x \phi_j(x) = \partial_x F / \partial_y F(x, \phi_j)$.
I don't see how either of these hold.
Spamakin🎷
The second question is just the chain rule at least.
Like G(x) = F(x, phi(x)) is identically 0, so
0 = d/dx G(x) = d/dx F(x, phi(x)) + d/dy F(x, phi(x)) * d/dx phi(x)
Then you rearrange to isolate d/dx phi(x)
oh duh
I have a pair of matrices
$$X=\begin{pmatrix}
0 & 1 & 0 & 0 \
x & 0 & 0 &0 \
0 & 0 & 0 & y\
0 & 0 & z & 0
\end{pmatrix},$$
%
$$Y=\begin{pmatrix}
0 & 0 & 1 & 0 \
0 & 0 & 0 & u \
v & 0 & 0 & 0 \
0 & w & 0 & 0
\end{pmatrix}$$
where $x, y, z, u, v, w$ are non-zero complex numbers, and for... reasons, I know that I should be able to decompose $\mathbb{C}^4=U \oplus V$ where $U, V$ are 2-dimensional and each are invariant under $X$ and $Y$.
What is the most pain-free way to determine $U$ and $V$?
kr1staps
Here "determine" means provide bases as column matrices whose entries are (presumably) some combinations of x, y, ..., w
Well, U and V would need to be sums of eigenspaces.
It looks like X should be pretty easy to diagonalize, then you can just see what Y does to the eigenspaces.
Thanks, I'll give it a go
Is there a specific relationship between these numbers x, y, z, ...?
Seems to me you need one
is there some generalization of ringel-hall algebras to infinite fields? like for a simple module (say, supported at one vertex of a quiver), computing the hall number of S, S, S (+) S is basically asking for injections from S into S (+) S, which is naturally P^1. so instead of counting you are looking at an appropriate variety – this seems tractable for someoen much smarter than me
well you can just start writing out all the meets and joins
the meet of N and M is N ∩ M, and the join is NM
well you start with A and X, and then little by little fill in the rest if the objects youre working with
you are looking at the lattice right here!
its the butterfly
wait, is the question exactly that?
but like C is x and D is Y???
huhh??
yeah
they turned u into a lie algebra... wtf...
i got frakked
the point is, if you draw the lattice yourself (even with this reference) youll understand better whats happening in the proof
did they purposefully came with the butterfly lemma just to draw a butterfly>?
its used in the proof of either Schreier refinement theorem or Jordan-Hölder
both are very important theorems
mathematicians just like to give silly names to things
snake lemma, horseshoe lemma
(i think my favorite has to be the pentagonator though)
or this
If R is a (finite) root system in a vector space V and W a vector subspace of V, is W ∩ R a root system (in whatever vector subspace of W it spans)?
yes
at least, looking at the definitions from wikipedia i cant see any reason why not
yes, that's right
Just asking the definition, I was just overwhelmed with all the abstraction. So in page 2 we have R^pG o R^qF(A) and maps d^(p, q) : R^pG o R^qF(A)-->R^(p+2)G o R^(q-1)F(A). Then the next page consists of E_3^(p, q)=ker d^(p, q)/im d^(p-2, q+1) and we have maps E_3^(p, q)-->E_3^(p+3, q-2) and we can form the fourth page E_4^(p, q), etc. Then for all large enough n E_n^(p, q)=R^(p+q)(F o G)(A), yes?
No
You just get a filtration in the end
Whose subquotients are the E_n(p, q)
For n >> 0
To me (to everyone?) a spectral sequence always is basically the spectral sequence of a filtered chain complex
If you take appropriate resolutions Grothendieck’s spectral sequence reduces to this case
For a filtered complex it’s much more transparent what is going on: you’re taking a filtration of a chain complex and by allowing cocycles to have differential zero up to some element of the filtration and requiring that coboundaries come from some level of the filtration you are calculating successively better approximations to the cohomology of the complex
A prototypical example is the spectral sequence associated to the filtration of the chain complex C_(X) by the two step filtration with nontrivial piece C_(Z) for Z a closed subspace of X and the complexes those of simplicial chains
There you see that you can compute the cohomology of X in terms of the cohomology of Z and the relative cohomology of X wrt Z but the two pieces only give you a filtration on the answer
Then if you are lucky you can hope that the filtration splits for some reason
Or you only care about the rank of the answer so the filtration is fine
Etc.
what does this mean then? Is this the filtration stuffs but implicit?
E_infty^(p,q) is lim_n E_n^(p,q) which stabilizes as you said, no?
I don’t really understand the notation here, maybe you are in some situation where only one (p, q) gives a nonzero E^{p, q} on the last page?
Otherwise I don’t see how this could be true
I think they must be using some fancy notation
But that map is not, say, an isomorphism.
so for practical purposes H_bullet is just the disjoint union of the R^n(G o F)(A), no? Or is there some other relevant structure?
also for some reason they have changed to homology notation I think?
(this is from https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/spectral+sequence)
and in the Grothendieck case the filtrations are finite no? As in you have ...subset F_(p-1)H_n subset F_p H_n subset... for each p<=n and for p=n this is R^n(G o F)(A)? Because in this case p, q should be nonnegative I think (or if one is negative then it should be zero)?
-# it's possible I have mixed up homology and cohomology notation, but ignore that
Fun exercise (which also gets someone to check my work for free): what is the ring structure (under tensor product) of the Grothendieck group of finitely generated projective modules over a Dedekind domain R with ideal class group C?
Actually you can do the Grothendieck group of all finitely generated modules too. But in this case don't add relations for short exact sequences, only direct sums.
so another question I had is to which extent does knowing the subquotients of this implicit filtration determine the R^n(G o F)(A)? I mean it's not even true for finite abelian groups that the subquotients of a filtration determine the group (eg. 0 subset 2 Z/4Z subset Z/4Z and 0 subset Z/2Z x {0} subset Z/2Z x Z/2Z). Isn't this disappointing?
doesn't this boildown to computing a oplus b and a otimes b for a, b ideals of R? I believe they are R oplus ab and ab, respectively?
Here is lang's butterfly 
You can apply this in any abelian category, for some of them knowing the subquotients is very good (like vector spaces where it’s everything or modules over a PID where it’s pretty good)
A lot of times it’s useful because you can show that most of the subquotients are zero
That’s like 90% of the utility of spectral sequences
nice
Sure, and also the "organisational" task of seeing what ring that results in.
Can Grothendieck SS be formulated as a spectral sequence of functors with natural transformations or something like that? I'm not sure when functor categories are abelian, so idk if this pov is useful
You'd think it by the group ring ZC
I guess the only thing to show is that fractional ideals are isomorphic iff they are multiples of each other
something straight out of dr. doofenshmirtz’s evil lab
Lol I would've just called this an error unless I am mistaken
Edit it
Nope, definitely not (assuming you mean to identify the basis C of ℤC with the corresponding rank-1 projective modules). Part of the classification theorem is that I (+) J = R (+) IJ, so R, I, J, IJ are not linearly independent. I think you are right that the fact that I (x) J = IJ means the group ring maps onto it and that you can express the ring as the quotient ℤC/(gh+1-g-h : g, h in C).
Which I now realise is even more interesting than my initial description...
It does seem very wrong
now i cant stop reading it in his voice

so that's why there was a faint phineas and ferb smell
behold, the pentaganator-inator!!
the pentagonatorator, an isomorphism relaxing the pentagonator
that sounds interesting. what area of math is that?
something with number theory?
I suppose it's a (1) question in module theory. Answering it requires knowing the (2) classification theorem for fg modules over a Dedekind domain and (3) familiarity with Dedekind domains to be able to compute certain tensor products. (2) and (3) are both primarily known by alg NT and comm alg people IG. (2) much more comm alg people than (3).
So did you have a description more interesting than ZC/(gh-g-h+1)?
Well, ||(gh-g-h+1) is the square of the augmentation ideal, so it's ℤC/I^2||. My original description was: ||if we map C to the Grothendieck group by sending the class [I] to e_[I] := I - R = I - 1 (ie formal difference of rank-1 modules I and R), then gh-g-h+1 = 0 becomes e_[I] e_[J] = 0. So you get ℤ ⨯ C with addition componentwise (using multiplication on the C factor, and as a ring C just squares to 0 (equivalently, the unitisation of the rng C with zero multiplication)||. Which of these is more interesting is up to you.
Both pretty cool I guess
You need G commutative at least
In general I guess it should be the abelianization of G
It would be H_1(G)
Let phi: G -> I/I^2: g -> g-1. I is spanned by the range of phi. Also phi(gh) = gh-1 = g+h-2 = (g-1)+(h-1). So indeed phi: G/[G, G] -> I/I^2 is a group homomorphism. Its range spans, so it defines a surjective G/[G, G] (x) k -> I/I^2, where k is the base cring. Now why should it be injective...
I guess the indirect rout is that group homology is the homology of K(G, 1) and first homology is abelianization of the fundamental group.
At least for k=Z that works
I guess you can also just explicitly construct an inverse.
As an abelian group I is just Z^(|G|-1) with basis g-1, so you may g-1 to g, and you can see this sends I^2 to 0.
So idk where to go for this. Im guessing advanced algerbra because its collage algerbra. But I need help with somthing that may sound a little dumb to need help with
If the class is called "college algebra" try #prealg-and-algebra
Feel free to ask theres no stupid questions, but I suspect youre looking for #prealg-and-algebra
its called algerbra 3. i callit collage algerbra bc its a collage course. But ok. ty!
Maybe #prealg-and-algebra is about to see its first LES
LES?
long exact sequence
Long exact sequence
wow second time you've copied me within the last 3 minutes
it's just so shameless
omg universal delta functor or wtv
Hey I hurt my wrist today typing is hard leave me be
Yeah think about what you did
lol
i am bro it hurts i feel awful
im used to seeing SES but maybe i havent encountered LESs enough
just add a bunch of 0's (or whatever your zero object is) to the left and right and boom
You take your SES, slap on some snakes, and boom, its long
loooooonnngg
ig homology doesnt really pop up in UA
which is sad i wanna do hom alg
well its gotta be motivated by smt right
cuz id ever win a fields medal
im fucking wheezing at this LMAO
I think if you made other people care about UA thatd be fields medal worthy
you two are just on the same wavelength
i think nope gets credit for this one tho he mentioned condensed math
Thank you, i need the appriciation
🫂
maybe idk
it would be cool to lift current methods of UA to categorical settings like operads?
or algebraic theories
and i am making progress on categorizing the basics but im a little stuck as there is no obvious way to generalize the notion of a congruence relation
maybe the categorical notion? is that ever used anywhere??
I mean, you have like a significant head start on any of this stuff compared to probably anyone else alive. I can’t imagine there’s anyone else who knows as much UA as you at your age so like, I think it’s incredibly conceivable that you could have a huge impact on the field if that’s what you wanted to do
at what point does the math i do stop being low hanging fruit because its UA and its kinda dead

enumerative geometry (at least according to wikipedia) was dead for a while
but with motivic homotopy theory it's so prolific rn
i can imagine UA is very popular under computer scientist people rn
with constraint satisfaction problems
I wouldn't say it was dead without motivic homotopy theory and stuff. At least in the UK it seems a large proportion of AG I see is enumerative stuff
you mean like, congruence relations as coequalizers? i think borceux handbook of categorical algebra 2, chapter 3 discusses this
For example because of connections to physics and stuff
or internal equivalence relations
though this probably doesnt work if i want to extend to operads
coequalisers might work
Wikipedia loses again
wait huh how to congruences correspond to coequalisers?
i see
that may be helpful, thank you
is there a natural way to turn these coequalisers into a lattice?
or poset, at least
haven't fully read this paper, but this might have what you're looking for? https://user.informatik.uni-bremen.de/porst/dvis/PORST_AlgebraicLattices_revfinAU.pdf
yes, thank you very much
i suppose it is nice that this way we can define a quotient of X as a coequaliser c : X → E
and it happens for varieties that c : X → Y is a coequaliser iff the underlying function of c is surjective
Wow, that's so simple I feel a little bad about missing it! Nicee.
is there any basis for operations outputting multiple elements?
so like if you had g(a,b,c) and f(d,e,f)={g,h} you could have g(n,f(x,y,z))
or would that even have any interesting behaviour
thats just a pair of regular operations
it's giving operad but not quite
this is just a clone brotato chip
i love clones <3
monoids but better
congratulations you've defined something so general it is everything and thus nothing. The height of your cold throne has left you unable to see the warm gardens of earth
Chills…
"Thank you"
You should really thank him
i could say the same about operads or categories
i truly owe it to him
Thank you Wew Lads Tbh
Wew Lads Tbh did indeed help me when i was a wee little boy learning some group theory for the first time in 2023
damn u are a server unc been here since 2023 damn
But then i got kicked cause i was trolling 💀
Yup that was before i realized how genuinely valuable this server is 😭
originally perma then i was like "please" then they said "okay two weeks"
I asked wew nicely to let me back in and he did 🥺
2019 is crazy
as long as my account has existed
yea being here since 2019 is crazy
dont search my messages and sort by old to find when i joined that's irrelevant to this whole thing
I was in first year undergrad at the time
proud to say ive never trolled on discord 🙏 🙏
Haha yea i couldnt see u doing that
great way to get people to do anything is tell them they shouldnt do it under any circumstance
what can i say, i have a lot of trust and love for people
I am always trolling
even at this very moment
wow
I dread to think when I first joined. Might've been 2021
I took a course in university "Trolling 101" 
Course code TROL101
TROL101 - Motivic Mackey Functors
Im also a server unc technically but I was but a wee lad when I joined so Im not sure it counts
ok boomer you aint fooling no one
22 is young, I am youthful, I can still acurately be described as early 20s
Ancient
(Anyone older than me is ancient)
WE ARE YOUNG (hey) THERES A FIRE IN YOUR SOUL
thats crazy
Ikr
Yeah moth had not even been born
Ig in 2019 I was starting to apply for uni stuff
In 2018 when i joined i had just started high school
Yea i can’t wait to graduate it
No 😭
7 year high schooler
I’m in my last year of ug
A joke 💔
Wait how many years is high school in US lol
4
To me high school is like 7 years fr lol
Oh yeah I guess it’s diff in other countries
I think most of US it’s k-5 is elementary school, 6-8 middle, 9-12 high school
high school here is 3
Year 7-13 is here cause no middle ting
10-12
Where i grew up it was grade 8-12
Yea varies across US too
Yea
yes
Lol
It used to remind me of the nostalgia critic
i started it in 2019 
U just started ug right?
yurr
W
finally experiencing REAL math
Intro to linear algebra
introduction mathematicw
Ah nice
Lol
Lol
I found these funny always. Like yeah I had to do well in hs exams etc and then arrive and we are taught stuff we have already done
But no I mean makes sense esp w people from diff education systems
In the US before undergrad we can get college credit via things like dual enrollment at a local community college or AP exams
Do u guys have that in the UK?
no not "lol" i hate it i have to write down EVERY LITTLE THING im going insane
Never heard of such a ting in uk
damn
If it makes you feel any better I took a masters level analytic number theory course last semester and had to do this
I got marked down for knowing what the roots of unity were and stating “this follows because this is a group homomorphism”
Turns out that lecturer was notoriously pedantic and it resulted in me being more paranoid than I’d ever been before in my life
Pulled through and smashed it but fuck me it’s annoying having to justify every single minute step
Also adds artificial difficulty to the exams if they are timed
Thankfully that course was just coursework, I’d have went insane if I had to do an exam marked by that man
My friend currently is taking further complex analysis with him and that does have an exam, so I fear for him
i had an amazing math teacher in hs who'd usually not mark small mistakes because he knew you understood the subject matter
granted, there wasnt a final exam in that subject (advanced math), so that probably contributed a bit
I actually also got marked down in that class for denoting the cyclic group C_n, bro said that’s not notation he’s ever seen anywhere before and I should use Z/nZ
what
thats horrible
I had a prof who keeps the maximum score slightly less than the sum total of the questions so making a couple silly mistakes is fine
actually crazy
how have you never seen C_n before
goated
Yeah I wasn’t overly happy
I think because it was 100% coursework they were just ridiculous in the marking to get a spread
I wised up after the first homework and included every imaginable detail and I did really well but fuck me it was stupid
I hated that course
Also because I just don’t care about analysis or number theory, and the guys notes were terrible, they were in literally the opposite of the logical order
It wasn’t entirely artificial because a good few people did just legitimately struggle, but I think there was a reasonable number of us doing pretty close to perfect and so they had to kinda separate the best of the best
Which kinda sucks but I mean it’s fixable, I think I ended the course with like an 86 or something (70 is an A)
I also lost marks by just entirely fucking up a question on character theory which really should’ve been the one I could do 
write down the entire character table of S_5 (2 marks)
do you remember what the question was
I don’t, but writing down the character table of some group was part of it
And my UG account is finally dead, can’t even check 🥀
Pretty sure I created discord just because someone invited me to this server
I joined to beg for help in my nat5s (GCSEs), I was definitely a child mass pinging in the help channels
and jagr said, let there be discord
1 -1 1 -1 1 1 -1
4 2 1 0 -1 0 -1
4 -2 1 0 -1 0 1
5 1 -1 -1 0 1 1
5 -1 1 1 0 1 -1
6 0 0 0 1 -2 0```
had to actually get a pen for ts one
what if i dont want to
W ANT
nah you don't I believe
the 2 dim is a pain ig
conjugacy classes are ways to partition { 1,2,3,4 } right
nah actually it isn't I forgot S4 isn't almost simple
4 3+1 2+2 2+1+1 1+1+1+1 yeepers
wow im not stupidddd
right so you of course have the two dim 1 reps corresponding to the two C2 ≈ S_4 / A_4 reps
ah i suppose all of these are lifted from S3 too lol
oh lemme guess thats the character of S3 acting on C^2 by the triangle symmetries?
dimension 2
ah right the schur orthogonality relations are useful here
man im slow my bad 🙏
Mod 2
not really needed. The last two characters are just the standard rep and the standard rep times the sign
standard rep?
what's the most obvious representation you can think of for a symmetric group
just acting on C^4?
yur
unfortunately, not irreducible
the subspace spanned by <(1,0,0,0)+(0,1,0,0)+(0,0,1,0)+(0,0,0,1)> is fixed pointwise under this action, so you have to subtract off the trivial character
this is the "standard" rep, and the character values are always the number of fixed points of the permutation minus 1
right i see
my head is not in the representation game right now 
okay yeah filled it in
turned out not to be that hard lmao
thank you wew, my brain has been embiggened
Additional clues were like, you knew the last two reps both had to be 3 dimensional
yes that i figured out, and i figured out the last row using the orthogonality relations
Then under the light assumption that one was the sign times the other you can use the fact that they add up to the regular character to deduce the values
type shit
filling a character table is weirdly not unlike those silly math crossword thingies
For question 8 in showing that the p_i are primary, could I perhaps use induction on i?
It’s fun for a while but thank god theres automated algorithms for it
Another good one: C_p semidirect C_{p-1} (or if that’s to hard, D_n)
C_p \rtimes C_p-1 is the holomorph of C_p right?
No clue what that means. It’s Aut(C_p) acting on C_p
yes yes that
a similar construction comes up when defining extensions of quandles lol
The Frobenius group of order p(p-1) if you want
crying
Why is this true? The claim is that $\mathfrak{p}_2 = \pi^{-1}(\overline{\mathfrak{q}_2}) \cap A$. But if $p \in \pi^{-1}(\overline{\mathfrak{q}_2}) \cap A$, we only have $\overline{p} \in \overline{\mathfrak{p}_2}$.
okeyokay
Nvm
What is a good way to see that every principal artin local ring is a quotient of a dvr
Or is there a more direct way to see that such a ring has only finitely many ideals and that they are totally ordered by inclusion
Where does that come up, is that relevant for like number theory?
So I’ve been told T_T
But it’s more representation theory atp
I miss numbers
The context is some sort of theorem that says if two representations with conditions over a dvr R are equivalent over the fraction field then they are already equivalent sort of over R
But it’s really bad and you have to either add a lot of conditions that are way to strong (so I’ve been told lol) or you have to do something else that is an extreme downgrade
Oh yea
That makes sense
Also like artin rings always have only finitely many prime ideals
Yes
What I said was silly actually lol
The hard bit is showing they are totally ordered by inclusion lol. Then it should follow that all are just powers of the maximal
I think you did it right
Every ideal will contain some power of the maximal ideal right
I guess there is a funny point that like all ideals of such a ring should be principal and then the generator must lie in m^(k-1) \ m^k for some k
And then you do that thing with the dimensions
Oh wait
Yeah I think that is good. What made me nervous is where being principal is used
For the dimension being leq 1
But I think maybe smth like this would make it ok
Yea
Like if the ideal is (a) then a lies in m^k \ m^(k+1) for some k, so it is a nonzero element of the 1-dim A/m vector space m^(k+1)/m^k and hence spans this whole thing, so (a) = m^k
And ig m being principal is used when we say that that vector space is 1 dim as well
Artin => noetherian => we have primary decomposition + every m-primary contains power of m so any ideal contains a power of m
Or like, the radical of I is m (unless I = 0) and hence as I is fg we have m^k contained in I for some finite k
However I am sleepy so I may be being silly lol, sorry I should sleep
healthiest phd student sleep schedule
real
Not even a phd smh
I hope I can find one i realised im not in a optimal position
oh ngl i didnt see your message, my eyes were drawn to the doggo and i only read the message above 💀
i mean i went to sleep at a later time than i currently do in undergrad 💀
but i also had to wake up much later in undergrad so that nullifies my point
how so?
don’t really have any connections + supervisor doenst really fwm atp
- my thesis is straying away from number theory which I have control over I guess
R u in undergrad or doing a masters?
Masters
What happened with your supervisor?
Nothing I just don’t know him that well and he is really busy
Oh dang
is there a reason your thesis has to be NT?
fair enough lol
fwiw i think grad committees understand profs are busy and might not know their students super well
I feel like if im trying to do nt then writing a thesis on that would put me in a better position
Sorry for being off topic algebra people
Lol
Me editing a shared Overleaf at 2am
2am is one thing, it’s when the edits happen at 7am 
Lol
oh it is actually really simple. Let $A$ Artin local and principal and write $\mathfrak{m}=(\pi)$. Since $A$ is Artin, $\mathfrak{m} = \mathrm{Nil} (A)$ and thus $\pi$ is nilpotent. Let $I=(a)$ be a non-zero ideal of $A$. Then there is some maximal $n$ such that $\mathfrak{m}^n \supset I$. Write $a=u\pi^n$. Since $n$ is maximal $u$ has to be a unit.
1728
oh lol
Yea
I still wonder how to show that it’s even a quotient of a dvr though
I have never realy seen results like that
Like I know how to add ideals at the top but not at the bottom if that makes sense lol
I think this might be a little tricky to prove. It's a special case of the Cohen structure theorem at least.
My thinking would be to construct the dvr inductively. If the maximal ideal is (p) you start with Z_p otherwise F[[x]] for the prime field F. Then you can sort of adjoin one element of the residue field at a time. If the element is transcendental it's easy, if it's seperable you can use Hensels lemma. If it's inseperable I'm not sure what you should do....
Maybe you take a separating transcendence basis (IDR if those exist for infinitely generated extensions).
They don't exist in general (like consider the algebraic closure of Fp(t))
There is a proof here of a non-commutative version
https://www2.math.ethz.ch/EMIS/journals/BAG/vol.46/no.1/14.html
(Theorem 5.2)
Though it's annoyingly fiddly
Things simplify a little by assuming commutative, but not that much
noway, lattice theory!!
It's basically classifying rings where the ideals are totally ordered
this local coordinisation stuff is awesome
Are there non-Noetherian local rings (A,m) such that \bigcap_n m^n = 0?
doesn't power series over a field in infinitely many variables work?
Mmm... How do you define that power series ring? I can think of two inequivalent definitions:
\begin{itemize}
\itemsep 0em
\item Ring of formal infinite sums $\sum_n f_n$, where each $f_n \in k[x_1, x_2, x_3, \dots]$ is a homogeneous polynomial of degree $n$.
\item Ring of formal infinite sums $\sum_J a_J x^J$, where $J$ ranges over the sequences $(j_1, j_2, j_3, \dots)$ with finitely many nonzero entries, $a_J \in k$ and $x^J = \prod_n {x_n}^{j_n}$.
\end{itemize}
Eduardo León
I guess at least in the first case it's guaranteed to work, though.
I refered to the second (edit: actually wait yeah maybe it isn't so clear lol, but either interpretation should be fine)
is there some subtlety in the second case?
No, you're right. I was just being dense. The n-th power of the maximal ideal contains anything that has no terms of degree < n.
Polynomial ring in infinitely many variables modulo m^2
yeah note also that "local" is barely a restriction, since you can always localize
Thanks, you two!
You can make a ring Noetherian doing that tho
I don’t think you can do that “often” but it can happen
Can you have integration for structured with an identity and dense elements?
I’m sure dense is the wrong word there but I wasn’t sure how else to describe it
You can
What can I google to learn more about that
You can probably just copy paste your message into google
Nice
i'm trying to understand how young diagrams give you irreducible representations of symmetric groups
i can see how the young symmetrisers are defined but their definition feels plucked from thin air
reading through fulton and harris
i do not understand the first 3 lines
this is lemma 4.25
So c_lambda is an element of the group algebra A, and
V_lambda is the submodule Ac_lambda of left multiples of c.
Lemma 4.23(2) tells you that the elements of
c_lambda A c_lambda are all scalar multiples of c_lambda.
If c_lambda W contains Cc_lambda, then W contains
Ac_lambdaW which contains Ac_lambda C c_lambda = Ac_lambda = V.
Yes, W is an A module, so if you multiply by elements of A you stay in W
uuu
hm..
ok, i think i understand...
c_lambda = c_lambda w for some w in W
so A c_lambda = A c_lambda w = (A c_lambda) w, which is a subset of W
Exactly
is this supposed to feel like symbol soup
I mean, it is just a bunch of calculations I guess
There is some broader theory about the relationship between Sn-modules and GL(V)-modules by comparing how both act on $V^{\otimes n}$
jagr2808
i still feel no closer to understanding how young diagrams give reps of S_n
Yeah, I don't really have a good idea for why young diagrams are there, or why they came up with that.
But it works
reviewing some notes from class, i think i copied this wrongly. can i check if the last line doesn't make sense right? just a chain complex won't induce a map on the homology grps.
Should probably say, "if the cohomology is always 0"
can i ask question in here?
no, you're not allowed to ask questions until you've written 20 books and published 1000 papers
what ✨enpeace ✨ means is that you are welcome 
Thank you to say so!
but seriously don't ask to ask in a chat about asking questions
Whats your question?
I'm learning representation therory in undergraduate lectures
It's hard to understand because of things like wedge, tensor.. etc
It is better I just memorize(without understand) the proof and go to graduate school to understand it?
I don't think memorizing will help much
Yeah im guessing youll have an exam and youll have to actually engage with those ideas
What is it about the wedge and tensor products youre struggling with?
Sorry if this is a stupid question, but what precisely does the problem here mean by "act"?
Presumably making it into a lie algebra module.
But it's a little vague. Like you could just give it a trivial structure, so presumably whoever made the exercise has something natural in mind
The rest of the problem goes like this
Hmm, I'll try to see if I can find something
I mean, sp(V) is a subalgebra of gl(V) right? So it naturally acts on V, and then you get the usual action on V(x)V which you must then show induces something well defined in the exterior power
That would be my interpretation at least
What is V(x)V?
The tensor product of V with itself
For two lie algebra modules V and W the lie algebra acts on the tensor product V(x)W by
g(v (x) w) = gv(x)w + v(x)gw
Actually, I'm a freshman, so i dont know any algebraic structure corresponding to tensor..
I've been trying to understand for a month, but I don't think I've even started
What book are you learning from?
Also is the rep theory class an undergraduate one or graduate?
Theres definitely ways we can help, but if you just dont have the background for the course can you maybe come back to it later?
i learning on undergraduate class(Abstract Algebra 2)
Representation Theory: A First Course(Springer, 1991)
What do you mean by "algebraic structure corresponding to tensor" exactly? Like what are you trying to understand?
I thought that 'it would be easy to understand if there was an example'.
Have you taken linear algebra?
The tensor product is a bit of a weird one, its nice and its useful, but I dont think its super intuitive
I studied alone so i maybe weak at linear algebra
Do you have to take representation theory? I would reccomend understanding LA first
Okay, so you're just asking for an example of the tensor product of two things?
I guess you can try to see why
Z/2 (x) Z/3 is 0
The chapter on the tensor product in "A primer on Algebraic D-modules" is really nice IMHO
But if you dont really know much algebra that might still be hard to follow (Hence why im wondering if you can perhaps just take this course later)
Things like this come out
I should study other things more than representation for this exam...
Thank you for trying to help me
Thanks for give me your time
I do advice you to get a strong background in LA before doing rep theory
Is there a reason why you chose this action and not g(v (x) w) = gv (x) gw?
without LA, nothing in rep theory will feel motivated or make sense
works nice with the characters
there isn't a canonical kG-module structure on the tensor product anyways, as kG is not a commutative ring
canonical is not the right word here
you can't expect a similar kG-module structure on the tensor product as for the R-module structure on the tensor product of R-modules, where R is commutative, because kG is not commutative
It comes from the derivative of the corresponding lie group action
This seems so random to me. Do you have any book recommendation that could help make things clear for me?
Idk. They don't talk about actions in whatever you're taking pictures from?
Also, we have an action of g on V (x) V, but don't we want it to act on A^k(V) (x) A^l(V)?
No mention of it at all
I assumed you defined the exterior power as
V (x) V / (v(x)w + w(x)v)
so then you would need to check that it gives rise to an action on the quotient.
Another reason for not defining it this way is that this is in fact not a lie algebra action
I mean, maybe you do. Lots of equivalent definitions
That's equivalent??
I can't believe this form was never mentioned in my LA book if this is equivalent... It's so much simpler to work with
I guess technically you would need to do
V^* (x) V^* for it to be equivalent
And then the action of g in Sp(2) on an element x in V^* would be by precomposition?
In char not 2 i guess
Actually I did wonder this lol. To me it should always have like v (x) v = 0. Is this the most common convention or am i tripping
It's just funny to me cause writing the relations v (x) v is also more concise
Yeah, I guess v(x)v, would be better.
Point was really just as a quotient of V(x)V
For example this is the "most natural" definition in that, for example, it is needed if you want exterior algebra to be compatible with base change (since this holds over Z), at least for free modules
Oh yeah I should say like i guess the char 2 thing was not so much an actual issue but it did make me think again about this
Yes, though you need to throw in a negative sign to get an action
So
(gf)(v) = -f(gv)
for f in V*
Why does the sign matter?
You want
[g, h]f = ghf - hgf
If you write it out you see that the sign is wrong.
Morally what's happening is that taking the dual turns a left action into a right action, so you have to do something to make it back into a left action.
And flipping the sign does that because
[g, h] = - [h, g]
Ahh, I see. I wasn't thinking about the bracket
I was just concentrating on understanding the action itself
But that makes sense
So in reality, is "show that a Lie algebra L acts on a Lie algebra K" just supposed to be interpreted as "show that there is a Lie algebra homomorphism L -> gl(K)"?
I think I have an idea for how I would tell this story now
It took me a while but understanding how Specht modules are made helped
An action of a Lie algebra L on a vector space V is the same data as a lie algebra map L -> gl(V).
And I guess it would make sense to just ignore the lie algebra structure on K here, not sure what the context is for L acting on K...
Oh yeah
Ok, now I'm totally on board with what is happening
Thanks a bunch!!
the email I just got
Well, that does explain it
this was copied down so there might be mistakes in the picture itself. I understand mostly how hom_R(-,W) is a contravariant functor allows us to construct the complex of homs. I don't understand why we are allowed to jsut forget about V and throw in a 0 at the start/say that d_1^* is injective. Can i also check whether we used the fact that hom_R(-,W) is left exact here at all? Left exact specifically still requires a SES to start with right?
So they're not claiming that d1* is injective.
As they say "the complex is usually not exact".
The only thing required to be a complex is that the differentials compose to 0. That's why it's also fine to add in 0, because anything composed with 0 is 0.
So far they have not used that Hom is left exact, but you will need that for showing that
ker d1* is equal to Hom(V, W)
ah okay right cause this is jsut a cochain, we don't have exactness at hom_R(P_0,W).
In general you won't necessarily have exactness anywhere
for the left exact contravariant functors, it means we have this kind of thing: 0->X->Y->Z->0 is exact means f(Z)->f(Y)->f(X)->0 is exact?
That would be right exact
ah oops
hmm okay I do have the part your talking about for ker d1* equal to hom(V,W) on my next page.
but over here it only has the form X->Y->Z->0, is that enough to use left exactness?
A sequence like
X -> Y -> Z -> 0
can be broken into
0 -> K -> Y -> Z -> 0
and X -> K -> 0
So you can always go to short exact sequences if you like
ah using the sequences you have there, i get 0->f(Z)->f(Y)->f(K) where f is left-exact contravariant. by just contravariant, i also get the map f(K)->f(X). Then i compose the maps between f(Y),f(K) and f(X) to get 0->f(Z)->f(Y)->f(X). Note that exactnmess as Y is preserved because composition preserves the kernel
thanks alot for the help. im convinced but i do find it abit weird why we choose to state the full condition as having a SES 0 -> X -> Y-> Z -> 0, is this specifc case of left exact special?
I think that's just to make it easier to talk about left exactness, right exactness and exactness simultaneously
ah that makes sense, thanks again for the help
I think you'll also find people defining left exactness as preserving left exact sequences
if $k[x_1,...,x_n]$ has a graded structure given by homogeneous polynomials, after localization by $x_n$, does the localized ring have a graded structure? It makes sense to me that such a graded structure would be $$\bigoplus_{d \in \bZ} T_d$$ where $T_d$ is the set of homogeneous elements of degree $d$ (with 0 maybe?). Am I right?
ExpertEsquieESQUIE
It is graded yes.
The degree of f/g is degf - degg
So for example x1/xn has degree 0
The rubber duck method
that is how its called?
That's when you try to explain your problem to a rubber duck. The act of explaining helps you solve the problem
And today I got to be your 🦆
you are my 
usually i explain it in my shower to my shampoo bottle
sometimes my conditioner bottle gets to listen too
double duckies, double explaining, double understanding
Don't get to use the rubber duck method much anymore, they became so busy after they got married
||maybe you will get a third duckie soon
||
Eggcellent
i used to have imaginary friends that i would explain stuff to
did they get married too?
they became complacent and incurious
oh
NotABot
I'm like 99% sure that's a typo, and have marked the book accordingly. I'll erase it if anyone tells me I'm wrong
"we are trying for a baby!"
Thank you for telling me you guys are doing it raw every night
Schur functors are a pretty cool concept
i barely understand any math at all atp lol
The more math I learn the more I understand how much math I've yet to understand
Unfortunately
Yes, one of them should be negative. Without the negative that bracket is zero.
Yeah that was what first gave me pause. Thanks for confirming!
This is from the paper https://arxiv.org/pdf/2504.11841. Is the permutation resolution of $M_2$, $k \rightarrow kG \rightarrow M_2$. Why does $M_1$ and $M_3$ being permutation modules mean that the maximal permutation dimension of an indecomposable is $1$?
Funky_Funktor
Sorry I forgot to mention that $M_2$ is the $C_3$ modules of dimesnion $2$
Funky_Funktor
Does anyone know some good sources to learn about representation theory of groups over rings not just fields? Specifically local rings, dedekind domains things like that?
Also looking for a source to learn from about the Grothendieck group of module categories
M1 and M3 has dimension 0, and M2 has dimension 1, so then the maximal dimension is 1
gonna meet richard stanley next week :3
i am only mildly familiar with his work so if anyone has burning interesting questions i may pick one and ask
(sorry to crosspost, i just only check certain channels so i am assuming others do the same)
Of Stanley-Reisner fame?
the very one
breh
i didnt know he was still alive lowk
but ig the combinatorial algebra stuff was only in 70s
having to use the fact that right derived functors are universal delta functors to show two cohomology theories are equal
hom alg is kinda cool
Ok so ive (with a lot of enpeaces help) done a), but im pretty instantly stuck on b).
We know that each $C_n $looks like $\mathbb{Z}^n \oplus \mathbb{Z}/p_1^{a_1}\mathbb{Z} \oplus\cdots\oplus \mathbb{Z}/p_n^{a_n}\mathbb{Z}$ and weve shown in a) that we can write each of these as in terms of the of the image of the previous plus the kernel and theres at most 2 of these which are not zero, sure. But im not really sure what the map $L_{n+1}\to K_n$ looks like, theres plenty of information there but im not sure how to bring it together really. Im guessing I want to start by choosing a basis for all the $C_n$ or something? Idk im a bit lost
Nope
splitting into 0 → Z → 0 is crazy
Its certainly a sequence that exists
"youre doing great buddy, contributing so much!"
C_n is free
so you can immediately throw away all the Z/p^aZ
I think I do anyway, let me go try to write it out, but I think i see it
I think ive got that but ive not done any matrix stuff
Of course you dont need to, linear maps and matrices are as good as each other, but im worried im missing something
Like am I being dumb or is it just that any homomorphism of Z is just multiplication?
I suspect it is the first thing but I dont see why (other than 22 years of evidence to suggest thats generally the case)
No actually I dont think thats right
Idk im going home now, tired and hungry
Hom(Z, -) represents the identity functor
The key idea that makes this work is that subgroups of free abelian groups are also free
(so yes)
And in fact a similar thing is true for any hereditary ring
I keep flip flopping between thinking this is trivial and not really getting it
I definitely don’t see how to use the row reduction hint though
Ah, I thought you were thinking about part a.
Part b is Smith normal form, which i guess requires slightly more than just standard row reduction
right i was just thinking about that
Part a) is fine I’ve got that, but I feel like part b) I think I see but I don’t actually
yeah this is a Smith normal form problem
I mean it's just the proof of the classification of finitely generated abelian groups
yeah lol
So I wouldn't call it trivial, but perhaps something you've vaugely seen before
I’ve definitely seen it before, but then I guess I am right and it’s trivial because i just started my solution with the theorem
Like that combined with part a) tells you the C_n look like either Z^2 or Z? Then just look at what homomorphisms of Z are?
Cn are just arbitrary fg free abelian groups
So they’re any Z^n?
I thought part a) saying there’s at most 2 non zero terms in the sequence gave us n is at most 2
Yeah lol
It splits into complexes of the form
L -> K
So of the form
Z^n -> Z^m
in the fg case
(and if you follow the hint you can assume the maps are injective)
Ok yeah sure
That makes more sense as to why I’m doing matrix stuff
I’ll think about this fresh tomorrow and maybe not be struggling as much
But I do think I see it now
I am so frustrated right now
the category of Beck-modules of an algebraic structure A is this close to being a category of modules
:(
the only issue is that A might be infinite, so the base ring might not be a Beck module in a natural way
was asked to prove the horseshoe lemma as homework, can i check that this is the statement of the lemma? just using a different name?
This is indeed the horseshoe lemma
Guess not everyone enjoys naming diagram lemmas after the shape of the diagram
alright thank you
"long exact sequence of kernels and cokernels lemma"
Taking kernels is left exact
A wonderful functor in fact
But then to the right
Oh what a sight
The cokernel, it's finishing act
Bravo
wow.
is there a way to check if a sequence of polynomials forms a regular sequence via grobner bases?
idek what text I would look at for this stuff
Maybe eisenbud has stuff about this
IDK whether there's a more "direct" or "optimal" method, but I think there is definitely a way, since f1, ..., fr is regular iff (0) : f1 = (0), (f1) : f2 = (f1), ..., (f1, ..., f(r-1)) : fr = (f1, ..., f(r-1)) (and maybe also (f1, ..., fr) ≠ (1) depending on your definitions), and colon ideals and ideal equality can be computed using Gröbner basis-based algorithms (c.f. Cox Little O'Shea (end of) section 4.4 for colon ideals).
If I have a two homomorphism of two SES and either splits, then the connecting homomorphism in the snake lemma is the zero map.
can i check whether this sounds correct?
I guess you mean you have one homomorphism, but yes correct.
Is PSL(2,R) a finitely presented group for R the ring of integers of any global field?
I don't believe so, consider PSL_2(O_F) for F=Q(\sqrt{-d}) with d different from 1, 2, 3, 7, 11
A commutative domain is Prüfer iff binary ideal sum distributes over binary ideal intersection. In which ones does infinitary ideal sum distribute over (still binary) intersection?
(Answers for general commutative rings also welcome.)
If the ring is Noetherian every infinite sum can be reduced to a finite sum, so that would work.
But I guess that just means the Noetherian case is uninteresting
Dedekind domains win again
Glad I didn't stipulate that anything is Noetherian then lol
OTOH at least the answer is precisely known in the Noetherian case.
Actually, doesn't infinitary follow from finitary?
Like
if x is in I \cap (Sum J), then x is in some fininte sum Sum' J, so in Sum I\cap J
How do injective objects "look like", in general? Super vague question but I vaguely know an example of an injective abelian group but that's basically where it stops. How do they look like for module categories, for example?
So Hom(R, Q/Z) is an injective cogenerator for ModR. So every injective looks like a direct summand of products of copies of that.
Not sure how enlightening that is...
There's also a good analogy with divisible groups.
Notice that an abelian group being divisible can be framed as every homomorphism from
nZ to A
lifts to a homomorphism from Z to A (i.e. you can divide by n).
In general a module M is injective iff every homomorphism from an ideal I to M lifts to a map from R to M. So you can sort of "divide" by I.
ah I see
For a commutative noetherian ring all injective modules are direct sums of E(R/p) where p is a prime ideal and E is injective envelope.
And for artinian rings, they are direct sums of E(S) for simple modules S
sadly I have doubts the ring I'm implicitly working with is going to be Noetherian lmao
What's the ring?
Looking at Beck-modules of some arbitrary algebraic structure. The ring is.. you can get a construction lol but I haven't played around with it much yet
ma boi wat da FRICK is a beck module
Allright, so you have some abelian category, which happens to be equivalent to the module category of a ring?
Rotmans intro to hom alg has stuff on injective stuff if u want
u been on this beck module grind
only a full subcategory
actually u did tell me the defn once
Well then the injective objects could be totally different
arghh
they do exist because the resulting category is Grothendieck
(says the nlab page at least)
I believe it
the main problem is that for every element of the algebra you've got an idempotent, and 1 should be "the sum of all those idempotents" which of course isn't defined when the algebra is infinite
can you not phrase this as a coproduct over the ideals (viewed as R-modules) generated by those idempotents being isomorphic to the ring itself?
that's normally the reason why we care about that condition
yeah that's indeed equivalent
you want every module to be isomorphic to the direct sum of all e_x(M)
that is probably implied by this
yeah because free module stuff
yeah the projections would factor through the free module right
well at least you can now actually state your problem
Big day for field theorists
this just in, the category of fields is monadic over Set
such a dog shit object it's unreal
Real, doing Galois theory is making me go insane
ignore my username
it's alright because the field with one element isn't real
the field with one element is not a field it is a infinitude of spheres glued together
The last 3 problem sheets have all essentially been “write a as a Q linear combination of b!”
god
Thanks that clears it all up
I guess this is what you would call a unital module over a ring with enough idempotents
I'm only being slightly facetious when I say that
there's deep connections between F_1 and the sphere spectrum
I have heard your yap on it before and I remember it being vaguely reasonable
that makes one of us
Vaguely is doing a lot of heavy lifting
hmm
I see
that would make things nicer, I wonder what kind of impact that would have on f.e. Ext modules
if all goes well then the cohomology of algebraic structures should just be certain Ext-modules so, if they behave nicely in rings with enough idempotents and an equivalent condition exists that can be checked purely using the algebraic structure, would be great
just thinking outloud
it kind of is though!
Why do they write x in B? Shouldn't x be in A, since A is integrally closed?
A integrally closed means that the only integral elements in the field of fractions are those in A.
You can still have integral elements in B.
For example Z is integrally closed and Z[sqrt(2)] is an integral extension
The only elements in the field of fractions that satisfy a polynomial over A, are elements of A? Is that what that means?
monic polynomial
Why do we need monic? I did know this once upon a time i think
Well, 1/2 satisfies 2x - 1.
I guess more to the point you want
A[x] to be generated by 1, x, ..., x^n-1. So you need the leading coefficient to be a unit in order to write x^n as a combination of them
Yo guys I am having trouble understanding metrices
Specifically with multiplying when finding Cofactor of matrices
I would suggest finding a concrete and specific question that encapsulates your confusion, then asking it in #linear-algebra.
hello! would someone please suggest books / resources / lectures for a first course in ring and module theory?
any abstract algebra books should contain them. For abstract algebra book I suggest dummit and foote.
(as written in the channel description it's not the channel for intro groups,rings,modules, fields stuff, these should go to #groups-rings-fields)
Does anyone happen to know how this family of subobjects comes about?? How are the subobjects defined explicitly?
(For reference, this is from Weibel's book on homological algebra; the chapter on spectral sequences)
My guess is this: Since $E_{p,q}^r$ is a subquotient of $E_{p,q}^a$ (as argued by Weibel), there is an epi $\pi_{p,q}^r: E_{p,q}^a \to E_{p,q}^r$. So we can define $$Z_{p,q}^r := (\pi_{p,q}^r)^{-1}(\ker(\partial_{p,q}^r)), \qquad B_{p,q}^r := (\pi_{p,q}^r)^{-1}(\text{im}(\partial_{p + r, q - r + 1}^r))$$
Lucas
As another reference, I found the section on Wikipedia (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spectral_sequence) "Interpretation as a filtration of cycles and boundaries" to also be confusing
In homological algebra and algebraic topology, a spectral sequence is a means of computing homology groups by taking successive approximations. Spectral sequences are a generalization of exact sequences, and since their introduction by Jean Leray (1946a, 1946b), they have become important computational tools, particularly in algebraic topology,...
Ideally, I want the constructions to work in any abelian category. So I'd rather not make any definitions based on elements!

These objects are part of the definition of a spectral sequence. B is the image of d and Z is the kernel. See Definition 5.2.1.
all of this stuff works without needing to talk about elements
although by Freyd Mitchell this doesn't actually matter
if you want to prove general diagram chase results which apply to any Abelian category, either you can appeal to Freyd-Mitchell and then argue in terms of elements, or you can argue with generalized elements. I don't think I have encountered any situations where insisting on avoiding elements actually clarifies anything (it certainly doesn't lead to more general theorems)
as an aside, if you're learning spectral sequences for the first time it almost never helps to stare at these kinds of formulas, you pretty quickly understand where they actually come from if you learn how to actually compute things with spectral sequences before learning abstract results about them
the actual idea that leads to spectral sequences (say of a filtration) is not mysterious at all, it's exactly the same idea as how short exact sequences induce long exact sequences in (co)homology
You can view a 1-step filtration as a short exact sequence and this gives you a long exact sequence in (co)homology. You can view a 2-step filtration as two short exact sequences spliced together, and it's a good exercise to work out how the corresponding long exact sequences end up being spliced together as a result. If you do the same exercise for a 3-step filtration you quickly notice the pattern and you have rediscovered how spectral sequences work
What does classification, characterization of something in mathematics means? Context: " If you know a little abstract algebra, the Jordan canonical form is also of interest in the sense that it completely classifies the conjugacy classes of matrices over the complex numbers (and some other fields as well), and is a special case of a more general phenomenon regarding module homomorphisms."
I just read it to mean like "one can recover all the information of conjugacy classes [...] from the Jordan canonical form"
to classify something is to put it in bijection with something you understand better. Maybe that’s a finite set, or maybe it’s countable, or maybe there’s moduli (you have some parameters that vary in something like the reals or complex numbers).
For conjugacy classes of complex matrices, you can put them in bijection with jordan normal form (up to reordering of jordan blocks)
jordan normal form matrices are much easier to understand—it’s not hard to write down what all of them look like
and then when it comes to properties of complex matrices that only depend on conjugacy class, you can use this classification to make your life much easier. For example, calculating the derivative of the determinant as a function from complex matrices to the complex numbers
I don't understand 🥲 . There is no mention of B and Z in Definition 5.2.1 in my book. I don't get the feeling that these subobjects come with the definition of a spectral sequence because Weibel seems to suggest that it follows from each E^{r+1} being a subquotient of the previous term E^r
I've been told to be careful about that; as I'm a beginner, I'm not exactly sure what the boundaries are when just merely working in R-mod
For instance, I might falsely assume that every abelian category has enough projectives because R-mod does? 😅
there are none
Are there some nice examples of computing with spectral sequences I can look at? I'm getting stuck on the general theory for now!
oh well okay sure
but I just mean as far as basic diagram chasing is concerned this is not an issue whatsoever
you can always talk about elements rather than generalized elements without any worry. Questions about projectives/injectives is not an issue of elements
I guess so, but what about in making definitions? If a definition rests on elements, then it might be "hidden" that you're using them in a proof
playing around with the Serre spectral sequence (for cohomology of topological spaces) or the Hochschild-Serre spectral sequence (for group cohomology) are both good things to play with, there are loads of very simple accessible examples
I don't have much algebraic topology background; my course in my school only got up to the Mayer Vietoris sequence in Hatcher. So I don't know much about the cup product for instance
I mean if you have a particular Abelian category in mind that you have fixed where you know that you cannot talk about elements, then ideally you should avoid this sort of indirection
^I'm assuming that its important to view cohomology of topological spaces as rings??
if you're proving general results about general Abelian categories this doesn't matter
it is important but plenty of spectral sequence examples don't require this, and plenty of examples are simple enough that you can just look up what that ring structure is
I'm mostly interested in sheaves I guess as my main example of an abelian category without elements :))
sure but then it's not so hard to talk about generalized elements either
Is there an example say in Weibel, or youtube that you have in mind??
here is a very nice example to consider, the exposition is especially nice https://people.maths.ox.ac.uk/tanj/notes/sssguide.pdf
Thank youuu :))
if you have sheaf cohomology in mind then one spectral sequence that will appear over and over again is the Grothendieck spectral sequence
That's what I want to build up to!! But unfortunately, its one of the last things Weibel discusses in the chapter ;((
that and the Leray spectral sequence
Unfortunately, I still feel a little lost on my original question though 🥲
it will get easier once you go through the guided examples I posted above
Okayy, I'll have a read now :))
Ive been reading through "Users guide to spectral sequences" in my live streams every morning. Made it through some background, but also reached the conclusion I just need to see some more computations "in action".
Might start reading this kne tomorrow.
Someone also suggestes Bott and Tu, so that might be the next step after that. Though, I think Im ultimately more interested in seeing it put to work in group cohomology
The Freyd-Mitchell Embedding Theorem says that every small abelian category is isomorphic to a full exact subcategory of R-Mod for some (unital) ring R. That means that you can assume that all objects of A are R-modules (but not that all R-modules are objects of A), that morphisms of A are R-linear maps (and all R-linear maps between objects of A are morphisms of A), and that the objects of A are closed under (the zero module,) finite direct sums, kernels and cokernels of maps, and anything else you can build out of that, such as images. (It follows that the direct sum, kernel, cokernel (and hence all finite limits/colimits, such as pullbacks) of stuff in A is the same as the same construction for R-modules.)
Those are the boundaries of what the embedding theorem lets you assume, if you want to know that technically.
But, when proving say the snake lemma using the embedding, you construct the connecting morphism based on elements and it's not so clear how it's defined in any abelian category
My concern is that I only know it exists
I guess it's enough for a proof, but there are times where knowing how it's explicitly defined is nice!
I suppose that my concerns developed after reading several mathstackexchange posts about it from Martin Brandenburg
Here are some:
The theory and standard constructions of Homological algebra can be done at the generality of any abelian category $\mathcal{A}$, and in particular the category of $R$ modules over some ring $R$. D...
I don't understand what is the advantage of viewing a particular category as a category of modules over some ring. Can anybody tell me some application of Mitchell's embedding theorem so that I can
Mitchell's embedding theorem http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mitchell's_embedding_theorem tells us that every small abelian category ${\cal A}$ has a full, faithful and exact embedding $V : {\cal A} \
oh! you're K-Theory??
You can definitely do it just in terms of universal properties of kernels/cokernels, that is, without elements
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3135969/snake-lemma-without-elements-exactness
But for me, "explicit" means there's some elements that generate the objects in question and we write down exactly what happens on each generator.
yup, it's me, ya boi
cinema
is this the right place to post this?
I see
ok wikipedia embed thanks for filling my entire screen
wikipedia embeds are a nightmare
lol
returning to this: suppose 1 = a1 e_x1 + ... + an e_xn and that A is infinite. Then there must exist a y ∈ A not equal to the xi. Then:
1 * e_y = (a1 e_x1 + ... + an e_xn) e_y
= a1 e_x1 e_y + ... + an e_xn e_y
= a1 * 0 + ... + an * 0 = 0
which is a contradiction.
I'm still really lost 🥲
I guess seeing some examples using the Serre spectral sequence was nice; it clears up for me their use, at least in a vague way for now
But I'm not sure where the cycles and boundaries come in to all this
I'm even lost about why Weibel introduced them in the first place. They give a nice general definition of E^\infty page, but is it used at all?? Aren't most spectral sequences that pop up bounded and so E^\infty is just the page at which things stablise?
in general, given a set E of orthogonal idempotents (meaning ef = 0 for e≠f ∈ E), then R is the direct sum ⊕_e∈E Re only if E is finite
love your videos!
It’s oh so very woke
Surround links with <> to hide embeds, like https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/P-adic_valuation
You should also be able to dismiss the embed yourself after posting it. (On in-browser Discord, there's a cross icon in the upper right corner that's only visible when you mouse over the embed. On mobile there should be a "remove embed" item in the context menu for the message).
This result seems to just follow by functorality of homology...?
I'm not sure why the 5 lemma is needed 😅
(This is from Weibel's homological algebra book)
who is it?
This aint no ordinary algebra … this is… ADVANCED ALGEBRA.
Bro probably was graphing linear functions at 4 years old
mawzi
mawzi
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
mawzi
hey, I'm a little stuck trying to understand why the inverse map works here. I perfectly understand how ZG is a free ZH module, and any morphism of ZH module needs only to be defined on a choice of left cosets. The first map makes a lot of sense, but I don't understand how the given inverse map is compatible with the tensor on ZH
What's bugging me is that if I write g as hy for a left coset representative y, then $hy \otimes m = y \otimes hm$
Brindille Connexe
but then the map gives $xy^{-1}h^{-1}m = x y^{-1} hm$
Brindille Connexe
This is not true.
The correct relation would be
yh (x) m = y (x) hm
oh, I was unaware the tensor coefficients were "passing by the middle"
I guess that comes from me working with tensor on commutative rings before, thanks a lot
there is something else that is bothering me: I came up with an inverse that sends a true tensor yh (x) m to the ZH linear map that sends y to hm, and is 0 on the other cosets. Unless I am incorrect again, this is the inverse, but i don't see why it coincides with the given inverse there
So from writing
yh (x) m
it seems you're saying y is a representative for the left coset yH.
But the homomorphisms ZG -> M are determined by their values on right cosets. So maybe what you meant to describe was that it sendt y^-1 to hm, and is 0 on the other cosets.
Or do you pick a coset representative z such that
y = h'z^-1, and then consider the map that is h'^-1 h m on z^-1 and 0 on other cosets...?
Either way I think you might run into trouble
But yeah, I think the inverse given in your image is wrong.
Maybe they meant to say that it should be 0 unless xg^- was in H...
yeah because otherwise the double composition gives you new tensor terms that don't seem to cancel each other
I think I need some time to think about what you told me to define an appropriate inverse, many thanks for your insight!
my best guess was that due to tensor relations they would die, but I can't see it
The main idea anyway is that if
gi is a set of representatives for G/H, then
ZG = Sum ZH gi^-1 = Sum gi ZH
So a homomorphism is exactly determined by where gi^-1 is sendt and any tensor decomposes as
Sum gi (x) mi
So in both cases what you get is isomorphic to M^n determined by these mi and f(gi^-1) respectively.
I mean, I guess just computing it in simple cases like
G = C2, H=1 shows that it doesn't work
yeah..
sorry if this is trivial but why can you have the first equality without assuming H normal?
ok sorry im bad
not enough sleep
So (gH)^-1 = Hg^-1
again thanks a lot, and sorry for asking somewhat simple stuff
No problem
It is quite fiddly with inverses and left and right cosets. So even though there aren't really complicated ideas in play it's easy to get wrong
my professor proved this in class and then made the remark that since Hom(D,-) is a left exact covariant functor, we obtained the right covariant derived functor ext(D,-)
i understand how it follows from the theorem that the nth ext group is covariant functor
but i don't see how we got right exact
such a long exact sequence is always associated to right derived functors
it follows from the fact that a SES of cochain complexes gives a long exact sequence of cohomology
What do you mean? Where are you getting right exact?
would right covariant derived functor mean right exact?
no, right exact means that a functor preserves exactness of sequences of the form A → B → C → 0
what would right mean then?
have you heard of right derived functors before?
nope im not sure hwat derived means too actually
the idea of them is that you extend the exact sequence 0 -> FA → FB → FC as "naturally" as possible
(if 0 → A → B → C → 0 is exact and F is left exact)
ah okay so. if F is left exact covariant, then given SES 0 ->A->B->C->0 we have
0->FA->FB-FC is left exact, F' is said to be right derived if i can make this
0->FA->FB->FC->(F' continues something here?)
well thats a property but not exactly what defines it
Yes, so the definition of right derived is usually just taken to mean apply F to an injective resolution and take cohomology.
But the result is that you extend 0 -> FA -> FB -> FC to the right, hence the name
(there is a universal property here but this relates to a general object called delta functors)
Similarly a left derived functor is when you extend the sequence to the left (this time given by projective resolution)
ah okay thanks for clarifying, i get a sense of it now, i think i will leave the details to next time since my prof only made a small remark on it
actually, in the proof of the above theorem, we started with a projective resolution of D
they are definitely worth looking into, very important objects
i know there is a way to define the ext grp in terms of injective resolutions instead, is there anything to do with that?
how do you even define Ext without injective resolutions
Yes, it's a bit of a magical fact that the derived functor of
Hom(D, -) and Hom(-, C) coincides
oh lol
With a projective resolution 
What is a projective resolution if not an injective resolution in the opposite category