#advanced-algebra
1 messages · Page 3 of 1
i see
given a bunch of algebraic numbers, how can one determine if they're linearly independent over Q
For a left exact functor F there is a recipe to construct its right derived functors RiF. If we have some other collection of functors {Gi}, how can we tell that {Gi} are also right derived functors of F?
I mean i guess i have a few questions then: what notion of "equivalence" in category theory even is that
derived functors are kan extenstions and are therefore unique up to iso
I thought my question had something to do with “universal delta functors”
if you want it at that level of generality, then universal delta functors have a universal property (the one where any transformation from it to another delta functor is entirely determined by data from the zeroth degree - the precise details escape me), and are thus unique up to iso
although hmmm
I've kind of buried the lead there by asserting it has a universal property it's unique up to iso - but to show the property is universal you have to show it's unique up to iso anyway, although it shouldn't be too hard to use their defining property to construct an inverse to any two maps between universal delta functors
I'll have a think
To understand A4 , i do need to learn something about delta functors or kan extensions?
Im sure you dont. This will be a specific resolution computing Ext
But yeah this is the point here, like the derived functors are the universal delta functors here
This should be the Koszul complex associated to x1,...,xn
Really? Because I looked at bruns and herzog and the way they proved it was something like showing some long exact sequence holds, showing H^0 is the functor evaluated at the object, and showing H^i is zero on any injective resolution
And so my question then was why does that prove its right derived functor
Oh
I thought you're meant to take some limit here tbh but itll be that the Cech complex is what helps you compute "derived" quotients essentially
I can look later ig for an easier proof hm
In a sec ill show u what im actually referring to in Bruns and Herzog it would probably be more clear
I imagine they are basically showing you can compute derived functors via acyclic resolutions or smth
Say you have some object M, then you can find a sequence
0 -> M -> I(M) -> C -> 0
with I(M) injective.
Then your have a long exact sequence
0 -> H0(M) -> H0(I(M)) -> H0(C) -> H1(M) -> 0
you can compare this with the right derived functor to see that R1F(M) = H1(M).
You also get H2(M) = H1(C) and R2F(M) = R1F(C), and so on. So it holds by induction
Either view these as universal delta functors or better just work with derived categories or stable infinity categories
stable infinity categories is pushing it a bit boss 💔 but derived cats are a good framework for this level
based lol
I'm not sure if I understand this
Okay, well you know how a short exact sequence gives you a long exact sequence in derived functors?
And it vanishes on injectives, so when you apply it to this sequence you get 4 terms then 0 like I wrote above
So you get
0 -> Gm(M) -> Gm(I(M)) -> Gm(C) -> H_m^1(M) -> 0
and also
0 -> Gm(M) -> Gm(I(M)) -> Gm(C) -> H^1(M(x)C) -> 0
So the two last terms are equal
Anything specific you don't understand?
Ok, im trying to understand what ur writing here vs what bruns and herzog are doing
firstly, last two terms are equal bc Gm(C)/im(Gm(I(M)) = H_m^1(M) and Gm(C)/im(Gm(I(M)) = H^1(M(x)C)?
Yup
So I'm just answering why it's enough to show that you have LES and vanishing on injectives, which is the two things b&h shows
yeah so if we show H^i(-(x)C) vanishes on injectives, then we can write a LES like what you did in the second one right
That's right
This continues like:
0 -> Gm(M) -> Gm(I(M)) -> Gm(C) -> H_m^1(M) -> 0 -> H_m^1(C) -> H_m^2(M) -> 0 -> H_m^2(C) -> ...
0 -> Gm(M) -> Gm(I(M)) -> Gm(C) -> H^1(M(x)C) -> 0 -> H^1(C(x)C) -> H^2(M(x)C)-> 0 -> H^2(C(x)C) -> ...
Sorry I guess im just trying to understand the induction. Induction stuff usually gets me confused
So we know that H_m^1(C) = H^1(C(x)C) so from 0 -> H_m^1(C) -> H_m^2(M) -> 0 and 0 -> H^1(C(x)C) -> H^2(M(x)C)-> 0 we have H_m^1(C) = H_m^2(M) and H^1(C(x)C) = H^2(M(x)C) so then H^2(M(x)C) = H_m^2(M) lol
Sorry looks ridiculous all spelled out like that lol just wanted to be sure i get the idea
And this is what b&h had in mind ?
I mean i appreciate showing it this way so i can avoid any more abstract category theory
Yeah, I think it's usually called dimension shift.
H^i+1(M) = H^i(cosygy M) for i>0
Hmm ok
Is there a map between two associative algebras that preserves the induced Lie structure, but not the algebra structure?
As in, are there two algebras A, B, and an f : A -> B such that:
f(ab - ba) = f(a)f(b) - f(b)f(a)
but not
f(ab) = f(a)f(b)
Take for example A and B commutative
Bro wtf is ur class making u read
This is for my masters thesis 😂
As in, local homology is a specific homology group associated to a local ring?
This is just local cohomology, and the technique is pretty standard for lots of functors
Ah but of course
Lol
The technique in the proof there, or what exactly are you referring to is "standard"?
I guess the thing about the lim is what I was referring to, but the rest of the proof is just using some universal delta functor nonsense
And effaceability
does anyone know why we require the evaluation and coevaluation map to have different types like V tensor V star for one and the opposite for the other. Why not both the same. We can still formulate rigidity equations without it no?
In KPCA please try to explain the formula to center the gram matrix
We can, but it's nice that the 'associativity' aligns nicely when we write it the other way around. This is precisely the composition below
For everyone else: this question has already been answered in #linear-algebra
C is not necessarily symmetric monoidal right. So V(x)V* and V*(x)V aren't necessarily isomorphic
And I guess it makes sense that coevaluation is the dual of evaluation
yeah that makes sense
I want to proof the abels summation formula for \sum_{n=M+1}^{N} a_{n}b_{n} , but I get a little bit a different result (It should be N+1 apparently, but I don't understand, where I did the mistkae)
Why do you think it should be $N + 1$?
The values $a_{N + 1}$ and $b_{N + 1}$ don't even appear in $\sum_{n = m + 1}^N a_n b_n$.
Anyways the last summation I think should be $\sum_{n = M + 1}^{N - 1} A_n (\mathbf{b_n - b_{n + 1}})$.
Spamakin🎷
next up i think i have to learn about exterior algebras
have 0 clue what thats about
What context are those coming up in for you?
Ill show u one sec
im trying to understand this theorem
i think that underlined guy is the "exterior face ring" of a simplicial complex
there is so much there that i have no clue abt atm lol. I need to review the combinatorial stuff from the ground up first i think
it took a while for me to get some idea of how u can compute local cohomology using cech complex
\sum_{n=M+1}^{N} a_n b_n = \sum_{n=M+1}^{N} A_n (b_{n+1} - b_n) + A_N b_N - A_M b_{M+1}, my mathbook gives me this solution
Can you send a screenshot of your book
Anyone use Dummitt and Foote? How’s the quality/difficulty/pacing? my grad alg 1 course is using it next semester
I liked dummit and foote when i was using it
Its very wordy though
Its not a difficult book tho its pretty friendly
Has lots of examples etc
oh nice
I’m coming from a book considered bad (my DE class was gallian) so that’s nice to hear
DE?
dual enrollment just like undergrad algebra 1
Let R be a subring of S. e:S to S be an embedding of rings, such that e(R)\subseteq R. under e, we can create a chain S\subseteq S\subseteq... and R\subseteq R\subseteq... Taking union we get two rings S' and R'\subseteq S'. If S is a flat R module. Is S' a flat R' module?
Im confused. Do you mean the chain e(R), e^2(R),...? And do you mean intersection rather than union?
no its S\subseteq S (the embedding sends the first S into a subset of the second S). So I am taking union
Okay i mean not the best notation then lol
mb 😂
And so i guess this is more of a direct limit hm
I believe so (although i haven't learnt about direct limit)
But yeah i believe this true. I believe this is saying a direct limit of flat ring maps is flat
thanks, ill search up what those means
can someone pleas explain me, how the book got the result from (1.9)
This are my calculations, but I get a different solution
-# sorry for the basic algebra question!
is it true that, working in Z/p^2Z (p a prime), the multiplicative inverses of the numbers 1 through p-1 sum to 0?
Man, @frank timber , you've been so helpful. You might be the greatest mathematician of all time.
Facts bro.
Are there fields K, L such that L = K(a) and |Gal(L/K)| = infty ?
Yeah, the linear fractional transformations if a is purely transcendental
oh wait
you're right
xd
i thought about that earlier but in my head i had the algebraic word stuck somewhere probably haha
ty 
Swag
Let $\mathbb E : \mathbb F$ be a finite Galois field extension with Galois group $\mathcal G$.
\bigskip
I have heard that, when $\mathcal G$ is cyclic, the cohomology group $H^2(\mathcal G, \mathbb E^\times)$ is isomorphic to the 'norm classes' $\mathbb F^\times/N^{\mathbb E}_{\mathbb F}(\mathbb E^\times)$.
\bigskip
Is this also true for non-cyclic extensions? Is it true for all Abelian, or solvable extensions?
Pingutjie
Young people need to know the trajectory of Free Basic and QBasic and their achievements in politics ?
Yes, this follows simply because G is cyclic
Like H^n=H^(n+2), for n=0 one has to take the Tate group
Yippee thank you for replying Croq
Just to be clear, you're saying that this isn't true for noncyclic extensions?
(at least typically)
Yeah, typically such result shouldn't hold I think
Great OK thank you
Here's an example from local class field theory. If your extension is of local fields then H^2 is always cyclic
I know this probably belongs in #groups-rings-fields but it looks like it's taken. Does part c) necessarily use a) and b)? I was able to show that B is free abelian without using a) and b).
Sorry keyo I'm lookin now
Well I'm impressed that you managed that because I think (a) and (b) clearly lead to (c)
I don't know if it is meaningful to ask if you can prove it without proving (a) and (b), since all are true facts so they are logically equivalent lol
But in any case, maybe you should try proving it using (a) and (b) as intended just to see if you can figure out why they're helpful
It's pretty much just (b) frankly...
OK so you did use a and b
Let me just typeset it here
Let ${\mathbf{x_1}, \dots, \mathbf{x}_n}$ be the set of nonzero generators for $B_n = B$. Then ${\mathbf{x}_1, \dots, \mathbf{x}_n}$ is a basis for $B$. Moreover, the subgroup generated by each $\mathbf{x}_i$ is infinite cyclic, for otherwise the subgroup $\pi_i (\mathbf{x}_i)$ of $\mathbb{Z}$ is not infinite cyclic.
Wait give me five mins sorrry
OK back
Yeah I was just curious why we proved it for all m <= n, seems like we just used the case m = n
Probably need to use it in the second part of the question
We essentially did proof by induction
You needed some reference to m < n for part (b) I reckon
Oh I just fixed some m and proved it for that lol, I didn't do any inductive argument
Hm OK
There's probably some flaw in my argument then
Can you show me your proofs?
Sure
Why may we assume that the \mathbf x_i are of the form (0, ... x_i, ..., 0)? You have simply stated that you may assume it but you haven't really justified it
I think this is false
For example, consider the subgroup of Z^2 generated by (1, 1)
Indeed if you assume that all subgroups of Z^n are 'nice' in the sense you have implicitly done above, then the proof is trivial.
Glad we caught that!
So (1, 1) is contained in B_2, and \pi_2(1, 1) = 1 is a generator of \pi_2(B_2), but (1, 1) is not of the form (x, 0) or (0, x)? Is that what you mean?
Yes, and you assume in your proof for 6a that (in particular) we may choose the generator of B_2 to be of the form (0, x)
Which is false
The only element of that form in this subgroup is (0, 0)
Ohhh I see we took B = <(1, 1)>
Makes sense now, thanks
Back to the drawing board ig lol
You really don't have to assume that the \mathbf x_i are of any particular form
Use induction!!
Okay I'll try now haha
Hopefully this is better?
OK so you have some (b_1, ..., b_j+1, 0 ...)
and you've written it as a sum of things in Z^n
namely (b_1, ..., b_j, 0, 0 ...) + (0 ..., 0, b_j+1, 0 ...)
but then you assume without mentioning it nor proving it that this first thing is in B_j when you haven't even proved it's in B
You're making the same assumption as you did in your first proof, just now using inductive language
Again, you cannot assume that \mathbf x_{j+1} is of any particular form except that it has those trailing 0s . Start by fixing the \mathbf x_i once and for all, and don't assume it's of a nice form!
Oh yeah you’re right
@vapid axle Hint: everything in B_{j+1} differs from something in B_j by some multiple of \mathbb x_{j+1}
Heh B_j
@arctic raft
💀
this channel is not for solving preuni algebra problems, go #prealg-and-algebra
as you can see the description of this channel, here is for things like homological algebra, comalg, etc
ok😭
How are you 15 and have a pending pg 
Yer bio
What about my bio?
I thought 15 was your age
It is
And you are a pending postgrad at 15?
So
I was just wondering if it is possible
Oh
If so then you are crazy smart imo
I mean, I have a 3.2
I also have 3.2 euros to my name
Congrats bro 👏👏👏
Ikik I'm saving up 🔥 🔥 🔥
The "pending postgraduate" role means that the user has pushed the button on the welcome screen saying they intend to apply for the "Postgraduate Math" role. It doesn't imply that the person behind is about to start postgraduate studies.
But it does give the impression that they are
Many have it because they pushed the button and then thought better of it when the bot sent them a questionnaire. It's not terribly well communicated (that is, it's practically unknown) that they're then expected to go back to the welcome screen and downgrade to "Undergraduate" manually,
Bad role naming, but not the user's choice.
Feel free to go to the meta channels and heckle the powers that be over the role naming and confusing joining experience -- but there's no good reason to give new joiners grief over it.
Well it is their fault for trying to pick roles they shouldn’t be
Also I’m pretty surprised people are just allowed to choose these roles(except for pg one ofc)
It is pretty opaque to new users what will happen when they push the buttons on the welcome screen. (It looks like it has improved slightly recently, but the names of the roles you end up with is still not explained well (due to length constraints on the button texts), so many people with the Pending Postgrad roles genuinely have no idea how they got it or what they could do to avoid having it.

It’s also just really not that deep
Lol
"put the fries in the bag bro"
Let $Z$ be a finite additive group, and $A$ a subset of $Z$. I can't manage to show that there exists a subset ${v_1, ..., v_d}$ of $Z$ such that $d = O(\log{\frac{|Z|}{|A|}})$ and $$|{a + e_1 v_1 + ... + e_dv_d, a\in A, e_1,...,e_d\in {0, 1}}|\geq \frac{|Z|}{2}$$
TimourX
I tried taking $V={v_1,...,v_d}$ a random subset of $Z$ with uniform distribution, and compute $$\mathbb{E}(|{a + e_1 v_1 + ... + e_dv_d, a\in A, e_1,...,e_d\in {0, 1}}|)$$
TimourX
Is there a good, standardized notation for a map $A \to A \times A$, sending $a \to (a,a)$? I'm tempted to call this the product inclusion map, and google shows $\pi$ used a bunch, but I'm not sure if it's standard. thx <3
haseeb
diagonal map or diagonal embedding if i remember
Usually notated as $\Delta:A\to A\times A$
harmacist
Can somebody give me an example of problems involving tensor products where the tensor product is not explicitly mentioned in the problem statement
I'm trying to see how it's useful
I wouldn't really view it as a thing that "solves problems" but more as a super ubiquitous/useful construction more generally.
But one type of example is this: often it is desirable to extend scalars to simplify things, which uses a tensor product. For example, often it's enough to prove things which depend on a field by "tensoring up" to the algebraic closure and using facts about algebraically closed fields
if X and Y are affine varieties, then the coordinate ring of X \times Y is the tensor product of their coordinate rings
I see, I guess I need more exposure then
Is (M \otimes_A N)_k isomorphic to M_k \otimes_k N_k?
Yes, it's something that can be seen from
k = k (x)_k k = k (x)_A k
and swapping around the order of tensor factors.
bostock
@willow seal
This argument isn’t quite right because V(I) irreducible does not imply I is prime.
For example, even for C the complex numbers, in C[x]/(x^2), V(x^2) is just the singleton of the prime ideal {(x)} (ie the point 0 on the affine line), which is an irreducible topological space, but the ideal (x^2) is not prime (eg x*x is in it, but x is not). This example is really taking advantage of V(I) = V(rad I). On the other hand, if you somehow knew I is radical (which is usually tricky), it is true that V(I) irreducible implies I prime.
So to argue that I is maximal/prime, I would instead try to show that Z[x]/I is a field/integral domain. Now, to compute Z[x]/I, we can do something like the third (?) isomorphism theorem, ie quotient one relation at a time, since
I = (5) + (x^3+2x-3),
we can say
Z[x]/I = (Z[x]/(5)) / (x^3+2x-3)
(where now the polynomial is really the image of the polynomial in the quotient space). A more familiar description of this ring is
(Z/5Z)[x]/(x^3 +2x-3).
Now, you need to see if this ring is a field/integral domain/neither.
also, you have to be careful about whether an ideal is proper or not if you want to show something is not maximal by exhibiting a larger ideal. Maximal means no larger proper ideals, so you’d need to be very careful that, eg, (5, x, x^3 + 2x -3) isn’t accidentally the entire ring!
thanks for the reply, re the second para this seems to contradict you
It means that rad(I) is prime
^ this is for algebraically closed fields like C
V(x^2) = V(x) but (x) is prime and (x^2) isn't
The tricky bit is that I(V(J)) is not necessarily J, it’s the radical of J. Whenever you get ideals by doing I(Y), you always get radical ideals, but general ideals need not be radical
so if i understand irreducible locus => the radical of the ideal is prime
yup
If and only if
good point thanks
re third para, trying to understand the use of the 3rd iso thm here. basically you did $\mathbb{Z}[x]/I\cong [\mathbb{Z}[x]/(5)]/[I/(5)]$, then for the top quotient you're basically modding all the coefficients of integer polynomials mod 5, and for the bottom quotient the ideal $(5)$ gets quotiented out, and modding by 5 does nothing to the coefficients of $x^3+2x-3$? something like that?
bostock
So in the top quotient I’m using
Z[x]/(5) is isomorphic to (Z/5Z)[x], where the isomorphism is sending a coset
f + (5)
for f in Z[x] to a polynomial in (Z/5Z)[x], where I’m replacing each coefficient of f with an element of Z/5Z (using the projection Z->Z/5Z). (you can check that this is a well-defined isomorphism)
Now, under this isomorphism, the ideal I/(5) inside Z[x]/(5) becomes an ideal inside (Z/5Z)[x]. To see which ideal it becomes, you track where generators of I/(5) go under the isomorphism. The ideal I/(5) is generated by the coset
x^2 + 2x - 3 + (5),
and the isomorphism
Z[x]/(5) ≈ (Z/5Z)[x]
sends this coset to the polynomial
1x^2 + 2x -3
but now I’m considering 1, 2, and -3 as elements of Z/5Z (if you want, you could but bars on top to indicate that they are equivalence classes/cosets for 5Z).
Essentially, at first when we do the quotient you put bars on entire polynomials, but under the isomorphism we only have to put bars on the coefficients
ok i see what you mean, thanks for the explanation
yeah no problem!
It's used to construct Dehn invariants of polyhedra.
Also tensor products and direct sums of vector bundles can be used to define a pretty important topological invariant called k-theory.
Does the center of a Frobenius algebra inherit the structure of a Frobenius algebra in some way?
I have been thinking about the example of the group ring but I can't figure it out
Multiplication works out nicely
i don't get how the comultiplication would work in the center though
the usual frobenius structure is just delta(g)=sigma_h gh^-1 tensor h
Consider k a field of characteristic 2 and G = Q8 the Quaternion 8 group. Then the center of kG should be
k[x, y, z, w]/(x, y, z, w)^2, which is not Frobenius.
Being ordered implies characteristic 0. You can try to prove it yourself
Is the following statement true? Let A be a commutative ring, M an A-module and p a prime ideal. If m_1,...,m_r in M generate M_p as an A_p-module, then there exists f in A \ p such that m_1,...,m_r generate M_f as an A_f-module?
I tried to come up with some example about this, but could not.
Consider X = M/(m1, ..., mr). Then m1, ..., mr generating Mp is equivalent to Xp being 0.
Xp is 0 if for every x in X there is an f in A\p such that fx = 0.
If X is finitely generated you can pick a single such f (just take the product of each for a finite generating set).
If X is not finitely generated it may fail. For example take A = Z, M = Sum_p Z/p
Is there some canonical example? I have difficulties understanding this
Why does no book mentions this?
I'm not sure I believe that no book mentions this.
It's here on Wikipedia for example
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ordered_field#:~:text=An ordered field has characteristic,order of the rationals themselves.
In mathematics, an ordered field is a field together with a total ordering of its elements that is compatible with the field operations. Basic examples of ordered fields are the rational numbers and the real numbers, both with their standard orderings.
Every subfield of an ordered field is also an ordered field in the inherited order. Every ord...
The example I gave would be a good start
The sum of Z/p over all primes p. Localizing at a given prime just gives Z/p for that specific prime.
Localizing at an element f gives the sum over Z/p for every p that doesn't divide f, which is an infinite sum
But over C this should be true right?
For context I am studying TQFTs and only a commutative frogenius algebra defines a TQFT so I was wondering if I can always use the center as a frobenius algebra
Specifically for group algebras?
Over C they are always semisimple, so the center is just C^n for some n
In fact n=the number of conjugacy classes of your group
Yeah, the n is just the number of conjugacy classes
I can give it a Frobenius algebra structure but does it inherit one from the algebra itself?
I understand how the algebra restricts but the coalgebra part is not clear to me
Okay, I see what you're asking.
Yes, for the group algebra in characteristic 0 you should be able to just directly restrict the Frobenius structure to the center
I wouldn't think this works for arbitrary Frobenius algebras though
For example consider the cyclic Nakayama algebra of rank 2 with radical square 0. I.e. algebra with basis e1, e2, a, b with
e1^2 = e1, e2^2 = e2
e1 a = a = a e2
e2 b = b = b e1
and all other multiplications 0.
Then the center is C[a, b] which is not Frobenius
but i can't do it explicitly
like if i take a conjugacy class
C= sum_{g \in C} g
Delta( C) = sum_ {g \in C} \sum_{h \in G} gh^(-1) tensor h
But how do I express this as an element of Center tensor Center?
This is my attempt so far
So I'm not so used to the comultiplication definition of Frobenius algebra.
But for the non-degenerate bilinear form where you multiply and then take the coefficient at the identity restricts to a non-degenerate bilinear form on the center.
This should translate to the comultiplication by the bilinear form induces an isomorphism A -> A^*, then use this isomorphism on the dual of multiplication. Maybe this doesn't translate directly to restriction of comultiplication...
What would the copairing be in this case?
Like the copairing for k[G]
is just
1 to sum_{g in G} g^-1 tensor g
what would it be for the center?
because the pairing is non degenerate there should be a copairing and if i can find that i can work out the comultiplication too
So I guess we would need to compute it.
So for a conjugacy classes C, let C^-1 be the conjugacy classes of an inverse of one of the elements in C.
Then the pairing takes (C, D) to |C| when D = C^-1 and 0 for other conjugacy classes.
So the isomorphism A^* -> A takes C^* to C^-1/|C|.
And then the dual of the multiplication would be some horrible formula relating how many times a conjugacy class appears in the decomposition of a product of conjugacy classes
yeah it should be 1 to C_{I} tensor C_{i}^{-1} where each C_{i} is weighed by the square root of the number of its elements
for the last part you are saying
take A to A star then A star tensor A star and finally A tensor A, right?
Yeah
is there some standard name for how many times a conjugacy class appears in the decomposition of a product of conjugacy classe?
So if I let
C_i x C_j = sigma_{h} N^{h}{i,j} C{h}
the dual map should be
C_{k}^{} to sigma_{i,j} {N_{i,j}^{k} C_{i}^{star} tensor C_{j}^{}
right?
I checked, this is correct
I am exploring the properties of these constants, $N_{i, j}^{k}$ and they are interesting
$N_{i, j^{-1}}^{0}=C_{i} \kronecker_{i,j}$
Commutativity implies symmetry in the last two
and the rest i am trying to figure out
I think you should format your messages in latex! It will be easier to read
Enclose messages in $.................$
MINER MAN
Why do we care about frobenius algebras in representation theory?
We are working with a lattice L(B), where B is a basis matrix in the lattice L(B). The Smith Normal Form of B=SAT, where S and T are unimodular matrices. Is the shortest vector in the lattice L(B) the same Euclidean norm as the shortest vector in L(A)?
I think L(A) and L(B) are isomorphic, which would hint at the answer being yes, but I don’t know if the answer is actually no.
Two matrices with the same SNF (ex: A and B) are similar, I think. Similarity is an equivalence relation on the space of square matrices.
The nonzero $d_{i}$ elements, together with the number of $d_{i}$ which are zero, form a complete set of invariants for the module. Explicitly, this means that any two modules sharing the same set of invariants are necessarily isomorphic. I think A and B are very likely isomorphic, since A and B have the same invariants in their SNF.
🌕
I think L(A) = L(B). AI disagrees with me but maybe AI is wrong
Is the kernel of a chain homotopy equivalence an acyclic complex?
I think the answer is no but what is a counter example?
0 -> Z -> Z
v v v
Z -> Z -> 0
maps being 0 or identity.
Oh that’s very simple, thanks!
The failure of this is an example of why one should consider mapping fibres / cocones instead if you care up to quasi-iso
Right, but both of those are just the mapping cone right?
Yeah a map is a homotopy equivalence iff the cone is contractable.
Up to shift
The mapping cocone /fibre is more like a kernel and cone/cofibre is the kernel, but they agree up to shift
Ah right
Not totally sure where to post this (this is from an algebra book), but im just trying to interpret whats going on here
This is just, simplicial homology as you'd learn in alg top is it? Like, is the Ci there the free Z-module with basis of faces [vi1, vi2, ... vi(i+1)] (dimension i)
The fact that they are tensoring with a group G and calling that reduced simplicial homology i have no idea where thats coming from
Tensoring with an abelian group G is simply going from a direct sum from copies of Z to a direct sum of copies of G
You'll notice that in addition to the normal way to define simplicial homology, they have this extra term C_{-1}. This is what makes it reduced homology as opposed to just homology
The tensoring with G gives you homology with coefficients in G
It's an algebraic shorthand for just the construction of homology but \bigoplus GF rather than \bigoplus ZF
You've got stuff like the universal coefficient theorem from homology that relates the homology with coefficients to the regular homology iirc
So in the phrase
"reduced simplicial homology of Delta with values in G"
"reduced" is the C-1 thingy, "simplicial homology of Delta" you know, and "with values in G" is the tensor with G thing
In the particular case that G is the underlying group of some ring R, you get a natural chain complex of R-modules, and therefore also that the homology with coefficients in R is an R-module
This is an example of extension of scalars
when I see someone say extension of scalars the way I'm thinking of it is that you have R subring of S, M an R-module and then S(X)R M is an S-module which is like extension of scalars of M from R to S
But I guess generally u dont need R subring S
just R->S ring map?
and any ring R has Z->R map
Yes exactly
Lol it's in the banner
whats the banner?
Of this server
Close enough, lol
Regular homology being relative to the sphere spectrum
This scares me
Omfg finally I hate the shifting lemma and modularity why can't it just be nice obvious like permutability auegaheh
my profile banner has that cohomology one, special case tho
I saw!!
What are these
In universal algebra, congruences play the role of normal subgroups, but are equivalence relations. As such, they can be composed. If, for all congruences R and S on some algebra A, we have R • S = R • S, then A is said to be congruence-permutable (this is analogous to the fact that NM = MN for groups, and they are indeed congruence permutable). They are incredibly well behaved and you get many nice theorems, and everyone is happy.
There is a nice characterisation of these, that being a variety of algebras (class of algebras closed under embeddings, quotients and arbitrary products) is congruence permutable (every algebra in it is congruence permutable) if and only iff there is a term p(x, y, z) such that every algebra in V satisfies the equations p(x, x, y) = p(y, x, x) = y. The variety of groups is such an example, with term xy^-1z.
Congruence modularity is whenever the lattice of congruences satisfies the so-called modular law. This seems to be the least requirement for the lattice of congruences to behave nicely in some way. There exists a similar characterisation in terms of the existence of some terms, but it is much more complicated and more pulled out of someone's ass and I hate it. Then you also have something called the shifting lemma, which is incredibly useful and equivalent to modularity but the proof of all those equivalences spans like 2 full pages of out-of-ass-pulling of terms. And specifically constructed congruences.
Safe to say I'm not the biggest fan
Oh sure cool heh
"I ain't reading allat"
What I'm doing rn, commutator theory, was originally developed for congruence permutable algebras and everything works nicely there, but the moment you go into modular varieties everything devolves into messes of terms and I AM STRUGGLING but in the end it is quite nice
The results I mean
The theory itself is doable the proofs are just convoluted as hell because every UA person is a madman
No one does here 
I am working with these formalism of peano axioms.
And I am trying to prove this theorem
But everywhere I have seen the proof and construction of addition it uses this property
$$m + \nu(n) = \nu(m+n)$$
Prïyanshü
Like here
But I can't prove this condition from the other conditions in theorem
Heuristically it should be doabe , to show this from using (iv) and (i) of aforementioned theorem.
Can anyone show this?
Cuz the way I have seen it, its defined with $0 = {\varnothing}$
Khush
$1 = {\varnothing, 0}$
Khush
and so on
then we can show that the \mathbb{N} defined here is bijective to the \mathbb{N} I defined here with the sucessor function given by $\nu(n) = n \cup {n}$
Khush
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Horrid
Fr
Ok like its sort of interesting but
I would much rather spend my time thinking about other things
Only if you're not working in Malcev varieties!
I’d like to prove I am working in one
Well, just show you can construct a term p(x, y, z) such that p(x, x, y) = p(y, x, x) = y
Hi jagr!
You would do this using induction (N1):
Notice
n + v(0) = n+1 = v(n)
assume
n + v(m) = v(n+m)
then
n + v(v(m)) = n + v(m+1) = n + ((m+1)+1)
using associative this is equal to
( n + (m+1)) + 1 = v(n + v(m)).
This means that the subset of N such that n+v(m) = v(n+m) satisfies (N1), so is all of N.
And if you weren't just jesting, what variety are you talking about anyways?
We don’t know it’s a variety
That's okay it also works in quasivarieties and prevarieties
Just show it contains the free algebra in 3 generators
Good thing this one definitely doesn’t
Isn't that provided to you just in the next page (line 9 from below in pg 33)? Also this is a question more appropriate for #proofs-and-logic
I hope this is the right channel to post in. Does anyone here know how to prove that if U, V, and W are R-modules over a commutative ring R with unity, then U ⊗ V ⊗ W is isomorphic to U ⊗ (V ⊗ W) (here, U ⊗ V ⊗ W represents a trilinear map from U x V x W)?
In particular, I want to first find a bilinear map from U x (V ⊗ W) to U ⊗ V ⊗ W and first showing it is well-defined, but I have a bit of trouble doing so. Can anyone help? Thanks.
I think the way you asked it is a bit of the wrong way round
fixing an element u gives you a bilinear map V ⊗ W to U ⊗ (V ⊗ W)
Like im pre sure u prove tensor product is associative to justify the notation U (x) V (x) W no?
so this gives you a map U ⊗ (V ⊗ W) to U ⊗ V ⊗ W
then you can construct a map U ⊗ V ⊗ W to (U ⊗ V) ⊗ W
judging by their definition using trilinear maps, they could be defining U (x) V (x) W as the quotient of U x V x W by the trilinear relations
I do agree it's a tad odd
Oh ok yeah
then you show that these two maps are both inverse
Can someone help me parse whats happening there
I'm looking for a specific bilinear function to use, so given that (x, y) is an element of U x (V ⊗ W), what would it be mapped to precisely?
Btw thm 3.5.6 says Hi_m(M) = Hi(M (X)R C) where C is modified cech complex of R
Anamono, back to cech complex localization bs again lol
I stg i need to review that (ST)^-1A = U^-1(S^-1A) exercise from a/m again
I dont know why i dont feel comfortable with it
probably something like
[ H^i_{\mathfrak m}(R) \stackrel{3.5.6}{\cong} H^i(R_{\mathfrak m} \otimes_R C^\bullet) \cong H^i(C^\bullet_{\mathfrak m}) ]
anamono
localization commutes with quotient so $H^i(C^\bullet_{\mathfrak m}) \cong H^i(C^\bullet)_{\mathfrak m}$
anamono
commutes with quotient?
oh ok yea I think i interpreted that wrong then. When I saw that I was like "cohomology commutes with localization?"
is that not what it is
this result tells you that local cohomology commutes with localization
actually cohomology and localization should always commute
ya the fact this is local cohomology isnt making a difference here no
because your cohomology module is a quotient of image and kernel, both of which localization commutes with
yeah it makes no difference
hmmm actually
actually yeah i think it should be fine but idk maybe wait for someone else to pitch in
When we are thinking about what is commuting here, is it 1) localize the chain complex then take homology vs 2) take homology then localize?
yeah
okay i guess i shouldnt say localization commutes with local cohomology
i mean it's true but it doesn't follow from this
you have to do a little more work
"localization commutes with local cohomology" means if i have some multiplicative set $S$, then
[ H^i_{S^{-1}I}(S^{-1}R) \cong S^{-1}H^i_I(R)]
or something like that
anamono
hm ok
the point of this is to show that computing local cohomology at a maximal ideal is the same as computing the cohomology of the modified cech complex
at this maximal ideal
okay actually i guess bruns-herzog only does local cohomology with support in the maximal ideal m
you can do local cohomology with support in any ideal
so when i say "local cohomology at m" i just mean "local cohomology with support in m"
Could we also see this via $(x \otimes m) \otimes (y \otimes n) \mapsto xy \otimes (m \otimes n)$ and $x \otimes (m \otimes n) \mapsto (x \otimes m) \otimes (1 \otimes n)$? Granted I haven't checked if they're well-defined yet (or even linear)
but I know that they're inverses
okeyokay
tbh im not too sure what that terminology means. I know that for an R-mod M, Supp(M) is the set of prime ideals of R so that Mp is not 0
when you defined local cohomology as you know it now, you took the limit $H^i_{\mathfrak m}(M) = \varinjlim_n \text{Ext}^i(R/\mathfrak m^n, M)$ right
anamono
you can do this for an arbitrary ideal I, taking the limit over powers of I instead of powers of m
this limit, denoted H^i_I(M), is called the "local cohomology with support in I"
Yeah ive seen that defn but the way i was looking at it atm was as the right derived functors of I_m(M) = {x in M st m^kx=0 for some k}
yea
which is the nice thing about local cohomology
P cool
so the right derived functors of that guy is "local cohomology with support in m"
anamono
so then you take the right derived functor and you get $H^i_I(M) \cong \varinjlim_n \text{Ext}^i_R(R/I^n ,M)$
how does this relate to support of module in the sense of Mp is not 0 then p is in support of module
anamono
this im not too sure about actually, i asked this before to some prof but forgot the answer
from here
Ok now im confused because: we want to compute H^i_mRm(Rm). So for that, we are considering Rm as an Rm-module? But then 3.5.6 using the tensor product thing is tensoring over R not Rm
The statement in 3.5.6 is:
M an R-module. Then
Hi_m(M) = Hi(M (x)R C)
This was one of those annoying ass days where i sat here for like 2 hours and understood barely anything
R_m as an R-module
But mRm is not an ideal of R
pull it back to R
Ok so we want to compute Hi_m(Rm)
It was using some theorem that says if M is an R-module and (R,m) is local then M is CM iff Mm is CM
But it didnt say if its considering Mm as an R-module or an Rm-module
likely M_m as an R_m module
this is a pretty common form of a statement
see eg this
atiyah
i mean actually either way
you have that $H^i_{\mathfrak m}(M) \cong H^i_{\mathfrak m R_{\mathfrak m}} M_{\mathfrak m}$
anamono
for any R-module M
Ok so we tryna compute Hi_mRm(Rm). How does 3.5.6 work here now?
Ill show u 3.5.6
i mean anyway you can consider R_m as an R-module
Idek bruh
yeah
so just consider R_m as an R-module
you have a map R -> R_m which is the localization map
this is a ring hom
now m is an ideal of R
okay let me state this more generally for just modules
there's probably some noetherian assumption needed here
if i have a ring hom $A \to B$, $I$ an ideal of $A$, and $M$ an $S$-module. Then I have an isomorphism
[ H^i_I(M) \cong H^i_{IB}(M) ]
anamono
in this case replace A with R, B with S, and I with m
to be honest i think his notation should've been H^i_m(R_m) instead but whatever
see here, in the proof of theorem 3.5.7
Thx a lot i will look into it
Let $A$ be a local ring and $\mathfrak{m}$ its maximal ideal. Let $k = A/\mathfrak{m}$ be its residue field, and let $M$ and $N$ be $A$-modules. I am trying to verify that $k \otimes_A (M \otimes_A N) \cong (k \otimes_A M) \otimes_k (k \otimes_A N)$. First, I am trying to show that the map $f: k \otimes_A (M \otimes_A N) \to (k \otimes_A M) \otimes_k (k \otimes_A N)$ given by $x \otimes (m \otimes n) \mapsto (x \otimes m) \otimes (1 \otimes n)$ is well-defined (I have found an inverse for $f$, but I will postpone verifying its well-definedness until I receive confirmation that $f$ is well-defined) as follows: fix $x \in k$. I want to show that the map $\mu: M \times N \to (k \otimes_A M) \otimes_k (k \otimes_A N)$ given by $(m, n) \mapsto (x \otimes m) \otimes (1 \otimes n)$ is bilinear, in order to get a well-defined map out of $M \otimes_A N$ which I can use to construct the desired map. It should be bilinear; for instance,
\begin{align*}
\mu(m_1 + m_2, n) &= (x \otimes m_1 + m_2) \otimes (1 \otimes n) \
&= (x \otimes m_1 + x \otimes m_2) \otimes (1 \otimes n) \
&= (x \otimes m_1) \otimes (1 \otimes n) + (x \otimes m_2) \otimes (1 \otimes n) \
&= \mu(m_1) + \mu(m_2)
\end{align*}
however I am not sure how to verify, say $\mu(am, n) = a \mu(m, n)$ for $a \in A$. The issue is that $(k \otimes_A M) \otimes_k (k \otimes_A N)$ is a $k$-module, whereas $a \in A$. If $s \in k \otimes_A M$ and $t \in k \otimes_A N$, am I to interpret $a \cdot s \otimes t \in (k \otimes_A M) \otimes_k (k \otimes_A N)$ as $\pi(a) \cdot (s \otimes t)$, where $\pi: A \to A/\mathfrak{m} = k$ is the canonical projection?
okeyokay
Too complicated
(k (x)_A M) (x)_k (k (x)_A M) = k (x)_A (M (x)_k k) (x)_A N = k (x)_A M (x)_A N
All it requires is proving tensor product associativity over different rings
And that A (x)_A M ≈ M
Now im confused on why all this was relevant (i.e my question now is: why did we first localize R at m?). Goal: Determine when R = k[x1, ... xn]/I is cohen-macaulay. R is a local noetherian ring with maximal ideal (x1, x2, ... xn). We can detect if its CM by considering local cohomology H^i_m(R).
By thm 3.5.6, if we have M an R-module, and C is the modified cech complex on x = x1,x2,..xn where x is a system of parameters of R (i.e, the x1, ... xn generate an m-primary ideal? I have not looked into systems of parameters much yet, not sure how they are relevant) then H^i_m(M) = H^i(M (x) R C)
so in our case R = k[x1, ... xn]/I, we cannot simply do H^i_m(R) = H^i(R (x)R C) = H^i(C)?
this is my gripe with his notation though i may also be missing something
he uses $H^i_{\mathfrak m}(R)$ to denote $H^i_{\mathfrak mR_{\mathfrak m}} (R_{\mathfrak m})$
anamono
yea only once he started talking about stanley reisner ring example
in thm 3.5.6 he doesnt do that
replace M here with R_m
okay i should say though. that theorem assumes you're taking a map between local rings
though the stanley-reisner ring isnt necessarily local
hence where this comes to play
doesnt it say it is a local ring in the blurb
*local
it's *local but idk what that means
i looked it up i think its just a graded version
like this?
Worst possible naming scheme
why did he localize and do all that mumbo jumbo
here you need to replace R with R_m
which is again why i think his notation sucks
you have an isomorphism $H^i_{\mathfrak mR_{\mathfrak m}}(R_{\mathfrak m}) \cong H^i_{\mathfrak m}(R_{\mathfrak m})$
anamono
ok forgetting his notation just the usual notation, why cant given R = k[x1, .. xn] / I stanley reisner ring, H^i_m(R) = H^i(R (x) R C) = Hi(C)
why do i need to consider Rm at all
it's often nicer to reduce to showing the localization of a ring has some property
i dont know anything about stanley reisner rings so i cant comment on that in this specific case
but in general it's easier to check things locally (i.e., localized at prime or maximal ideals)
whats the difference here, is the cech complex difference?
does that formula i wrote hold?
the difference is that $C^\bullet$ is a complex of $R$-modules. but you want to look at it as a complex of $R_{\mathfrak m}$-modules
anamono
hence why you take $R_{\mathfrak m} \otimes_{R} C^\bullet \cong C^\bullet_{\mathfrak m}$
anamono
No these are the same thing
Well
Okay no they aren’t but like
Nvm
yeah i mean if you're just working over R and not R_m then sure this formula holds
but it's not very useful
because that's basically the definition of local cohomology of R
If the decomposition of a k[G] module into indecomposables yields some non -projective modules in that decomposition is there something one can say about the k[G] module itself
Basically I want to know if there are consequences to having non-projective summands in the decomposition
And references to those kinds of results
Then that kG module is not projective either
Is it because of some tor ext computations?
Not really
Can you gimme an outline of why that's the case
A direct summand of a projective is always projective
Easy exercise just using the definition of projective
Yes, you can prove it like that as well
Ohkay so is there something that happens when k[G] modules are not projective?
Like from a representation theory standpoint
Example; Rm (x)R Rx1 = (Rx1)m, as an Rm-module?
Yes; for any $R$-module $M$, there’s an isomorphism $S^{-1}R \otimes_R M \cong S^{-1}M$ as $S^{-1}R$-modules
anamono
This is, eg, Atiyah-Macdonald chapter 3
So it's in some sense "rare" for modules not to be projective (and in some sense not).
When G is a finite group and the characteristic of k doesn't divide |G|, then every module is projective.
In the other cases, most modules are not projective. So I would say the special thing is what happens when the module is projective
Thats cool
Yeah what you're saying is the semisimple case of representations right?
In the case that k[G] becomes semisimple when char k dosent divide |G|
If you guys are so smart with your algebra, then what is x if 2x=4?
Yes, everything is nice and everyone is happy
Even happier when k is alg closed
I'm assuming alg closed in the background
So I'm interested in when the characteristic is bad
Do the non projective summands tell us something in that case
Something something Brauer stuff (I'm not at that part of Serre's book yet)
Brauer characters?
That's how you can study it I think, but I'm not sure what happens with the representation theory of the group algebra
Ohkay thanks
Btw is it possible to tell anything about a ring about whose modules we know the following statement to be true:
A module is projective iff it's injective
Apparently it holds when the ring is a group algebra (and I think always even in bad characterestic)
Depends on the ring
Yes
Or group, I ain't seeing no addition here
Also depends on what meanings you give the symbols '2' and '4'
Now wheres my nobel prize
im reading about some simplicial homology stuff, and for simplicial cohomology (with values in a group G) they define it as $H^i(Hom_Z(C, G))$ (C is the chain complex)
kiand123
why do we apply Hom(-,G) for? My only intuition rn is that its contravariant so the arrows reverse to get "co"homology ..
Read Hatcher chapter 3
He gives good motivation for cohomology
In short you get to study the topology of a space, not by looking at the space itself, but via the maps from the space, ie Hom(-, G)
There’s some theorem which says that H^i and H_{n-i} are isomorphic for some nice conditions
I can’t remember the name but it’s on the tip of my tongue
Poincare
Anyway there’s many such duality theorems which relate homology and cohomology under various nice conditions
Hatcher has some metaphor about homology and cohomology and paths on a mountain or something like that
It’s nice motivation
yoneda's lemma right
so the slogan here is that whereas maps f: X -> Y induce maps H_i(X) -> H_i(Y) on homology they induce maps H^i(Y) -> H^i(X) on cohomology. In particular the diagonal map D: X -> X x X induces a map H^*(X x X) -> H^*(X). theres a natural map H^*(X) tensor H^*(X) -> H^*(X x X) so composing this together gives you a notion of multiplication in cohomology which doesnt exist in homology
oh I didn’t realise that’s how it worked
Of course there are natural maps X x X -> X (the projection onto each factor) but the induced map on homology there is not very interesting. intuitively those maps are "destroying too much information"
Short answer: homology is not as nice as cohomology
Tbh im really not sure on what most of what youre saying is
Chain maps f: X ->Y induce maps on H_i(X)->H_i(Y), i know that part
Im also not sure of what youre saying about this notion of multiplication on cohomology is relating to what my question was
We apply the Hom(-, G) because that turns the coefficient groups Z^(X) into the abelian groups of functions from X to G
And it's the easiest way to get a cochain complex, i.e. get the maps the other way
what is Z^(X)?
Direct sum of Z over the set X
size of X should be like # of simplices of dimension i or smth right
why do we care about turning Z^(X) into functions from X to G
Then it's some set of maps
I phrased it badly; the easiest way to turn the maps around is using the Hom(-, G) functor, and that gives you the set of maps to G
yea thats what i originally thought i guess
Hom(-,G) turns maps around alright sure
But other than that I don't know enough Abt it
Google is being unsurprisingly useless
Yes good post
(Also worth noting (for others) that the same argument works on the level of cochains)
Sort of, I suppose
I cant give a good answer for this one
Unless what youre asking is if what I said is the content of yonedas lemma
Then not really, I meant the duality theorems
This is said in more detail in hatcher if ure curious @limpid horizon
Thanks, ill prob look at it some time
Hatcher is cool
Lots of random bits and pieces i need to study properly
Pretty pictures
Most of what i hear is bad reviews
P much all the intuition for cohomology is laid out there
Ya actually ill do that bc last time i looked at it i didnt know anything at all abt homology stuf
Yeah some ppl don’t like it but for the expository stuff (which I am suggesting you read, not necessarily the technical stuff), I think Hatcher is nice
Cuz it assumes post-rigor
People don't like that
That's fair, but at a 3rd year undergrad / grad level hatcher is completely fine
Yeah
Wdym post rigor
I feel like post rigour is a bit generous
I think it just assumes you kinda already know what it's talking about
Oh
I had a terrible time with hatcher some years ago
I think it is a Bad™ book, but I will say that the section on the Galois connection for covering spaces is Good™
Galois connections 🤤
Though I only did ch 1-3 so idk if it got worse after that
The homology chapter was really bad
and I read further than that but it's blurred now
Hatcher slander over, bedtime
This is a thing i think due to (and at least popularised by) Tao where he talks about prerigorous, rigorous and post-rigorous stages of learning math. I think the point is roughly that at a post-rigorous stage you are able to use analogies and be slightly less pedantic with everything because you are able to fill in the details and make things rigorous
But this is a book for people learning, so i dont think it is great to skim over important details
Ahh I see
Bruh
Okay yeah I agree
They're cool
You are salivating
Chapter 4 is the homotopy theory one right? It was fairly standard, though i would have liked more details here
For the homotopy theory bit i would probably suggest reading elsewhere though
It's exaggerating, for the funis
My school doesnt have a regularly offered AT course so I had to do a one semester reading course so idk 
Chapter 5 did not exist in my days
I would do that if it were stuff like UA but oh well
This guy is obsessed with UA
I will write a book on algebraic topology and sort everything out
How much did u get through in the reading course
Ch 1-3
I should prob read homotopy theory anyway
Suggestions?
Relevant xkcd about new standards
Too lazy too look it up
Just imagine it
Yk what I'm talking about
Lol idk it but i will find maybe
I stopped being lazy
Just the other day werent u talking abt how u hated some theorem in UA
The real #1 fan would love that theorem
I think it is good to use Hatcher as a scaffold as it has useful topics but for the proofs/details I remember Spanidr and Bredon's texts being good
Oh I have a copy of Bredon
We were gonna do bredon but then the prof decided to switch to hatcher lol
Not really a theorem but just how utterly unmotivated some things are
Ah okay
Ulimately there are some results which are kinda tricky here and I remember Spanier and maybe Bredon being particularly precise
I've got a copy of Bredon too!! I like it although trying to learn point set using the first chapter wasnt fun 
Especially because it was self study
I may be stupid
Some metaphor about how it’s good to learn to swim by diving in the deep end or something
Probably some xkcd about that too
On god they tryna drown me in this h03, I cannot see
Dunno how obscure that reference is
Omg I remember this from the geography exam
I am utterly sorry
It is alright I am somewhat chronically invested in meme culture
But we're cool now I'm slowly learning the motivations behind everything
🔥 🔥
Turns out things feel unmotivated when you take the shortcut from decades of the field existing
This is why I peddle ppl to do some AT while doing homological alg
Or at least to look at an AT text and see where it all comes from
TIL quandle homology is a thing
Awful to calculate though would not recommend
I thought this was some quandale dingle joke
At a point isnt every (co)homology theory awful to calculate
Quandle homology is uniquely awful

It exists for any left self-distributive magma
I see
Cuz that means that left-multiplication acts as some kind of translation, in the expected way
And from that you can construct hypercubes in the quandle, and construct the homology from that geometric intuition

But treat a quandle as some kind of topological space, because it really is just an abstraction of a knot
Oh that’s interesting
It's a faithful knot invariant
But fucking hard to work with, of course
We can't have nice things
Hello guys, quandale dingle here
I should go to bed soon, I feel my grip on sanity slipping
That's why I'm so rambly
Apologies
Yeah mine would too if I had to write “rack” and “quandale” in my papers
I should be nonchalant
I appreciate the rambling anyway, it’s nice to hear abt other fields of math
Did you know that quandle homology is a special case of the quandle homology for quandle representations in some ring R
Why do u always learn the most weird stuff @spice idol
Fu nni
Lol
Ohhhh it all makes now sense now!
I like weird algebraic structures, gives me hope that UA isnt totally useless
Basically every group has a canonical quandle structure:
x • y -> xyx^-1
So a quandle representation of Q in an R-module M is a quandle homomorphism f : Q -> Aut_R(M)
You've also got quandle-sets analogous to G-seta but their homology is isomorphic to the homology of the linearised version
(i.e. take the induced permutation representation on the free ab group generated by your set)
I wonder if you can define cohomology of a G-set
Similar to that of a group
Okay so the simplicial resolution stuff can def be generalised
Quandale dingle
Spindles are also cool
Hmm i see
Is there any geometry in these aside from knots
I am trying to compute the invariant associated with the TQFT coming from the center of a group in terms of the structure constants (describing product of class sums) does anyone know if this simplifies?
Here alpha(k) denotes the inverse conjugacy class
For genus 1 i get number of conjugacy classes
for genus 2 it's a mess (unless G is abelian)
can you please help with this?
How is this defined?
See Section 3 of this paper (which afaik is the paper that introduced quandle homology) for a construction, and cf. Section 2 of this paper
Can one view quandle homology as a derived functor? If so, how?
Very good question! No idea, I'm not that good at hom alg yet
I found a paper comparing quandle homology to quillen homology but ?? It's only talking about cohomology??
This is the second quandle homology paper that feels a bit sketch
That shit sounds so fake
It could be true for all I know
I'm honestly too lazy to go and fact check it all though
I mean the word quandle homology vro
😔
Heap homology
Torsor type shit
If you’re associating a simplicial complex to them at any point (quick scan of the first paper indicates that you can do this) then you’ll be able to do it via a standard construction for simplicial nonsense
What paper are you reading?
There are a couple different definitions for quandle homology
The first one that came up when I googled “quandle homology”. They don’t actually give a simplicial complex but state two homology theories, one of which very clearly arises from simplicial homology of some complex
We introduce a new homology theory of quandles, called simplicial quandle homology, which is quite different from quandle homology developed by Carter et al. We construct a homomorphism from a quandle homology group to a simplicial quandle homology group. As an application, we obtain a method for computing the complex volume of a hyperbolic link...
Can $\implies$ be proved as follows? Let $M_i'$ be the subspace of $M$ where $x_j = 0$ if $j \neq i$. Then $M_i' \cong M_i$. Suppose that $f: N' \to N$ is injective. Since $M$ is flat, $f \otimes 1: N' \otimes M \to N \otimes M$ is injective, and the restriction to $N \otimes M_i'$ must be injective. It follows that $f \otimes 1: N' \otimes M_i \to N \otimes M_i$ is injective.
okeyokay
Suppose that $M$ is flat. Let $M_i'$ be the subspace of $M$ containing elements of the form $(0, \dots, 0, a_i, 0, \dots)$. Then $M_i' \cong M_i$. If $f: N' \to N$ is a monomorphism of $A$-modules, then $f \otimes 1: N' \otimes M \to N \otimes M$ is injective. In particular, the restriction $f \otimes 1 \mid_{N' \otimes M_i'}: N' \otimes M_i' \to N \otimes M_i'$ is injective. The following diagram commutes:
[
\begin{tikzcd}
{N' \otimes M_i'} && {N \otimes M_i'} \
\
{N' \otimes M_i} && {N \otimes M_i}
\arrow["{f \otimes 1 \mid_{N' \otimes M_i'}}", from=1-1, to=1-3]
\arrow["{\varphi^{-1}}", from=1-3, to=3-3]
\arrow["{\varphi'}", from=3-1, to=1-1]
\arrow["{f \otimes 1}"', from=3-1, to=3-3]
\end{tikzcd}
]
where the vertical arrows are isomorphisms. In particular, $f \otimes 1$ is injective, so $M_i$ is flat.
Is this valid?
okeyokay
Yes, though i wouldnt worry so much about direct sums like thay
Wdym
Well just distinguishing internal and external direct sums like that feels unnecessary beyond like intro lin alg
But can add if needed ig
Oh I guess so
More important is justifying why like you can resfrict f (x) 1 like that
As in why it lands in N (x) M_i
You are implicitly using that tensor product commutes w direct sums
True
I thought that was trivial but things can be deceiving with the tensor product ig
could someone eli5 exact sequences to me?
i still don't quite appreciate their significance
maybe one example is excision in algebraic topology
this is from Hatcher
so you have a short exact sequence 0 -> A -> X -> X/A -> 0
and you apply reduced homology
and this lets you study the reduced homology of X by looking that of A and that of X/A
in the context of math phys i think an example of chain complexes/exact sequences is the de Rham complex
and then you have that notion of exact differential forms
so like if you look at
[ \Omega^{p-1}(X) \xrightarrow{\partial^{p-1}} \Omega^p(X) \xrightarrow{\partial^p} \Omega^{p+1}(X), ]
then you always have that $\text{im} \partial^{p-1} \subseteq \text{ker} \partial^p$, so this forms a chain complex. now every $\omega \in \Omega^p(X)$ is exact when you have exactness at this step, ie $\text{im} \partial^{p-1} = \text{ker}\partial^p$
anamono
a special case is short exact sequences, ie exact sequences of the form
[ 0 \to A \to B \to C \to 0 ]
anamono
now these are quite nice because sometimes you can study properties of B by looking at A and C (e.g., additivity of hilbert polynomial, I think there was some discussion about this in #algebraic-geometry)
actually maybe this is why some people call the maps in chain complexes "differentials"
TIL
Ext/Tor pop up everywhere which are defined via injective/projective (respectively) resolutions, which are exact sequences
Maybe. I think the de rham example doesnt need much algebra for motivation tho
You can look at this purely from a diff geo perspective
If your dR complex is exact, then that says “every closed form is exact”
sure but im trying to understand homology more broadly
Ah okay
Homology/cohomology give you invariants of spaces (or more generally, algebraic objects) basically
Eg in AT, homology classifies “holes” in your space; the objects in your chain complexes are Abelian groups
Cohomology usually appears when you’re asking about certain obstructions
So like the cohomology of the dR complex basically tells you what issues you face that stops a closed form from being exact
Hopefully that helps, if not someone else can give a better answer
Wouldnt really call this a short exact sequence without caveats
how so?
Well short exact sequence is almost exclusively used for abelian categories (or slightly more generally, e.g. groups), so this is a more general use. In particular in topological spaces there is not a zero object, so that already makes it abusive as written
ah yeah that's true
I’ve heard you can define exact sequences in Set*, for example
Yes, although they do not mean much
I guess I could be a lil negative and say they are "just" special cases of pushouts/pullback squares, and they are particularly nice in pointed categories. Also in additive categories you can turn pullbacks/pushouts and equalisers/coequalisers into exact sequences, so it is a convenient way to deal with stuff
If you mean thats the category of pointed sets
wait pushout pullback squares??
Wdym
what is a pushout pullback square
A square which is simultaneously a pushout and pullback
could you spell it out explicitly? I’d really appreciate it🥺
given a map f: A-> B, the kernel is 0 x_B A
And cokernel is 0 \coprod_A B
Here i assume we are in a pointed category
mhm
Well that is mostly it aha but yeah point is kernel of M-> M/N is N essentially
To say 0 -> A -> B -> C -> 0 is an exact sequence is equivalent to saying that A-> C vanishes and
A -> 0
| |
B -> C
is a pushout/pullback square
what about just saying A -> B -> C is exact at B?
so how does that work here...?
Extend A -> B -> C to a longer exact sequence by padding it using the kernel and cokernel, and then apply the decomposition
hm...
Explicitly 0 -> im(A -> B) -> B -> coker(A -> B) -> 0 is a SES
wait where's C
In the other SES
@.@
0 -> im(B -> C) -> C -> coker(B -> C) -> 0
Exactness says that these two can be conjoined together
Might be better to write
0 -> im(A->B) -> B -> im(B->C) -> 0
then this is exact iff A->B->C is
In the case it's exact you have im(B->C) = cok(A->B)
so it's like
Yeah was about to say lol
hm
i'm trying to see if i can understand it in terms of this
so B is "built up" from im(A -> B) and im(B - > C)?
maybe combined with this?
"Metaphysically speaking" lol
Yes, every element in B maps to one in im(B->C), and two things map to the same if there difference is in im(A->B).
So if you pick some noncannonical preimages of im(B->C), then every element is uniquely a sum of one of those preimages and something in im(A->B).
So it's not as nice as a direct sum, but these two contain a lot of information about B.
In particular they determine things such as B being Noetherian/artinian/finitely generated/finite length
This visual representation as things being build by exact sequences is kinda nice
ooh ok, i'll take a look!
Why are graded objects hurting my head so much
Doesnt seem like it should but it is
Just use polynomial rings as your prototype
Technically Ravi Vakil made the post.
Though the polynomial ring is deceptively nice
The homogeneous components being rank 1 free modules
Graded commutative?
In algebra, a graded-commutative ring (also called a skew-commutative ring) is a graded ring that is commutative in the graded sense; that is, homogeneous elements x, y satisfy
x
y
=
(
−
1
)
|
x
...
Not sure where im going wrong but i was looking at k[x,y,z] with Z^3-grading. The ideal (xy,yz) should be a graded ideal right. What is the direct sum decomposition into homogenous components?
Is such a ring nicer than a commutative ring?
Graded ideal is also the same as a graded submodule of R as an R-module right
I would honestly set the world on fire if it wasnt
Lol
Just the homogenous elements of each degree.
Like of degree (1,1,0) it's just the span of xy, for (2,1,0) it's the span of x^2y etc
Yeah I meant more the blog
But true haha
Oh yeah, there's a blog
So its (1,1,0) and (0,1,1) but isnt the direct sum of those components just giving you the k-linear combinations
I'm not sure what you mean by "it's (1,1,0) and (0,1,1)"
For every possible element in Z^3 you get some component
In my example (xy,yz) the degree of those geneators are (1,1,0) and (0,1,1)
Being the homogenous elements in your ideal of that degree
Sure
Those generators are in particular homogenous elements yeah
So (xy,yz) = direct sum of (1,1,0) component plus (0,1,1) component?
Ok graded components of k[x,y,z] are the sets {qx^a1y^a2z^a3 | q in k}
Plus all the other components
The guy who wrote the wallis product video also has a blog I quite like
https://sridharramesh.github.io/HowSridharThinks/3b1bsineproduct/
In a past life, I worked for 3blue1brown, and I discovered and made a video for them on a simple new proof of the Wallis product and the sine product more generally. Alas, I no longer work for 3blue1brown. But I had a post on a number of supplements to that video, which I will ke…
The other components are the ones with degree (a1,a2,a3) with either a1 and a2 at least 1 or a2 and a3 at least 1?
Like idk if im understanding this properly cuz it seems weird
Yeah, (I mean you have components for smaller degrees, but they're just 0)
Ok thanks this is probably gonna make more sense now
unfortunately this might be the first time in my life where a picture seems to hinder my understanding of a concept
Oh idk he had something on exact sequences
I didnt know *
Maybe it’s just beyond me at the moment…
I’ve tried a few times but really cannot seem to grasp exact sequences
Nice
What kind of understanding are you looking to have? Like idk im pretty beginner but to me theyre useful algebraic tools to study because lots of properties are like transferred between the objects if theyre connected in an exact sequence
I dont have some deep understanding of it tho
to me exact sequences are still a googit
Idk how deep it gets really
Chain complexes are just amazingly diverse
they get pretty deep
i should probably learn spectral sequences
i've only been putting it off because i've never had to use one
okay well vakil doesn't use it until chapter 9
I usually try to reach for some examples.
Trying to translate some examples to this visual metaphor might be helpful even though it seems to be hindering you now. But idk ¯_(ツ)_/¯
so i'll learn it when i get to chapter 9
I guess even the examples themselves feel too hard for me
I like spectral sequences. I read through the constructions and proofs about 10 times before it began to stick with me. At a certain point I was ok with just knowing how to use them
yeah lol the only time i've ever really seen them were in a few talks
Yeah I guess I don’t really use exact sequences in my work
and they didn't write out the spectral sequences either they just drew boxes and arrows
Spectral sequences are scary but I've heard they are really powerful
oh wait i've seen it one other time
i was trying to understand the proof of some result that i had discussed my prof
so i went to the original paper and it was done with spectral sequences
so i emailed him and said "sir i dont know spectral sequences" he said "you don't need to i don't care about that proof anyway" lol
or something along those lines
I've only used spectral sequences once. It was to make diagram lemmas with funny names
https://www.researchgate.net/publication/341029857_The_Anaconda_lemma
U wrote that?
Dox

jagr2808 is also the name of my homepage, so I'm already doxed
It's okay, there are two authors so no one will ever know which is me
I will keep in mind both
And when you next share a paper of yourself i shall see which of the two is shared
I will have to start only writing papers with him from now on I guess
Hi guys, new to server. Looking forward to talk about algebra and stuff
I'm "Not jagr"
Who?
You must have me confused with someone else
Never heard of you before
Ohhh right
Welcome to mathcord!
Hai!!
You must be soo confused
Guess lil old me will have to do
ok i think i understand exactness now :D
See here? That's your SOUL, the culmination of your being
math as it should be