#advanced-algebra
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so we are talking about the map f : I -> R and (f)/I = 0 -> R/I which is injective
Once again
I = R•I. The submodule of R•I corresponding to the ideal I is I•I = I².
Thus you just need to find an example when I/I² -> R/I is not injective
so we get the sequence 0 -> 0 -> R/I -> R/I^2 -> 0
Well also the sequence you get is 0 -> I/I^2 -> R/I -> R/I. So if this is exact then I/I^2 = 0
No
...?
Well like consider what no tea said
The functor sends M to M/IM
So if M = I what do you get
dosen't (R/I)/I = R/I^2?
what's does . mean here?
that is (IR)/I = (I/I)=0
Yeah
So R/I gives you R/I after applying this
And R is sent to R/I as well
Now we have said what I is sent to as well
I is not a subset of R/I, so the syntax (R/I)/I does not even make sense
I don't understant that
I think it is almost okay cause we are viewing R/I as an R-module but yeah bad
Hm, oh as the image of R/I wrt that functor lol
Well cause we are doing (R/I)/(I R/I)
And that is just (R/I)/0 = R/I by what you said above
Yes
that's an iso?
Yup, just the identity
0 -> 0 -> R/I -> R/I -> 0
We haven't
.
Lol are you reading what we have said
is there someone here that would like to help me instead of making fun of me?
idk this notation is pretty shit ngl
The functor is M -> M (x)_R R/I
maybe that makes things clearer
so a priori you aren't just quotienting by I
You're tensoring with R/I
Not the R-torsion…. 🥀
Sorry I mean it just feels like you are ignoring the poinys we have given
I'm really not
yeah there's an identity that says that M/IM is canonically isomorphic to M (x)_R R/I
So we have I (x)_R (R/I) = (IR)/(I^2) = I/I^2
indeed
0 -> I/I^2 -> R/I -> R/I - >0 so if I/I^2 != 0 then the sequence won't be exact
that last term ain't correct
Yes it is
It is correct
Tensoring with R/I does nothing to I-torsion things
Where uh this version of I-torsion is where I literally kills the module
Made up words
made up works that make sense dammit
Milky milk milk
I thought it was like R/I^2 and I used the third iso theorem incorrectly to conclude it lol
Good name
Lol
I mean actually there’s a big categorical reason to this
A map R -> S is an epimorphism of rings
If and only if S (x)_R S -> S the multiplication map is an isomorphism
If and only if the (co?)unit map of the push-pull adjunction is an isomorphism
Meaning for any S-module M, the map S (x)_R M -> M the multiplication map is an isomorphism
And cuz R -> R/I is surjective it’s clearly an epimorphism
Very overkill for this, but it kind of tells you the situation when you get S (x) S = S are basically generalizations of quotient maps = surjections
very cool explanation
I enjoy it almost as much as a good glass of milk
cow blood makes you stronger
Goo goo gah gah baby wants his milky 🍼
PLEASEEEEEEE
Oh Hell Nah!!
I think it's well known that every person that drinks more than 1 glass of milk per day has a mommy kink going on
What
I said my peace now only god can judge me
Counit
I will never put to memory which is which
I just remember like unit goes from identity always
And I love myself for it
If i view the girl im dating as motherly and that makes me more attracted to her does that mean i have a mommy kink
Like same for groups or any monad or whatecer
okay serious question do you actually need to ever use monads for anything
Real
Depends what you are doing
Monadic resolutions are very nice
And I think some silly stuff with monads can like, ensure that the colimit of groups, rings, modules, etc. has underlying set the colimit of sets
Which is cool I guess?
And it canonically induces the algebra structure on it
In some parts of algebra and related things they are unavoidable
I had in mind AG when i said that aha
A categorical construction? In algebraic geometry? No way
For example "descent" type statements are often basically statements about functors being (co)monadic
thanks guys
What
if another person tells me something in AG holds because left adjoints commute with colimits the rapture will be second thing humanity will have to worry about

they do though
Isn't this usual like
I haven’t seen it
Tbh I actually haven’t seen descent properly
Like I know faithfully flat descent for specific ring theoretic properties
CM, Regular, Noetherian, etc etc etc
But this isn’t the big thing people call faithfully flat descent in terms of modules and descent data and stuff
I mean this
Yeah I know lol
Ye lol
But I don’t see how comonadicity says anything about that
I mean wtf is a comonadic functor
Blech
what the fuck does blech mean
Wouldn’t you like to know, weather they
Well the point is like if you have a map X -> Y then you get pullback f^*: QCoh Y -> QCoh X and then you can view stuff in QCoh Y as modules over the comonad f_* f^* which unwinds to the usual statements
Doesn't IM need to be contained in ker alpha for this to work?
That holds automatically in this situation
Because N is an R/I module so IM will map to 0 thru alpha i think
Yes
ah!
Ya when i first read it i missed the fact that N is R/I mod
thanks
what
We didn’t need to know that brister
you showed weakness by deleting it
he literally never told you you had to remove that comment
and he'll think he's hot shit and push you around
You called the wrath of the chmonkey upon yourself buddy
😢
☹️
grr
invisibelle you gotta be more confident
don't let a monkey chair hybrid push you around
Chair monkey hybrid*
what's the difference
I always say chair monkey hybrid
Chmonkey
Oh lol nvm i have an answer
I was wondering like are there any good interesting examples where I = I^2 for non-Noetherian rings
But I think the classic examples would be stuff like A_inf
Chmonkey or monkchair
Hi enpeeace
One sounds good while the other doesnt
monkchair sounds way better
Delusional..
Heya
hi enpeace
You mean I^2 = I for all ideals?
nah like
Well okay so in a noetherian ring i believe like I^2 = I means I is generated by an idempotent
I think if you take an infinite polynomial ring
You can then enforce a bunch of relations
I think it's like if I is f.g. as an R-module and I^2 = I then by Nakayama's lemma there's x in the Jacobson radical with (1+x)I = 0 or smth like this
To get m=m^2
Yeah
Like you say that x1 = x1x2
Or something like that
Not that actually
But you can do this and ensure each xi is in m^2
Other than that idk
ye i think there are examples with perfectoid rings and stuff but ye
this came up to me cause it's like
if j: X -> Y is an closed immersion of schemes and you consider the derived pushforward j_*, when is this (derived) fully faithful
and the answer is like almost never because it implies the ideal sheaf is idempotent iirc
Where is the openness of the kernel being used (second to last line)? Isn't it just that if we map into a finite group G there are at most m^|G|=m maps?
istg david just says things sometimes
wait actually is it m^|G| or |G|^m
either way I think it's just m
no it's |G|^m since it's maps from S to G
is that generally m if |G| is finite and m is infinite?
actually no it'll probably be 2^m or smth
Ok so the kernel being open implies that if S is a generating set converging to 1 then its intersection with the complement of the kernel is finite, i.e. only finitely many elements in each map are getting mapped to a nontrivial element, so actually the amount of maps now becomes the set of finite subsets which has cardinality m
ok cool
actually it's a little more complicated. It's finite sets + a choice of elements in G but that doesn't add cardinality since G is finite
formally it's bounded above by FinSets(S) x Finite Sequences(G)
and finite sequences of elements of G is just aleph_0
Ive been encountering lots of different ways that one can compute local cohomology. Is this definition with the direct limit system useful?
Originally I was going to try and understand how that comes about but now im not sure if its necessary to
Is that important for proving Thm A.7.1 there?
In any case, where can I find a proof for Thm A.7.1?
Yes absolutely
I think you can do it without?
Bruns Herzog
Stacks project
EGA
Does EGA have it? Maybe it’s in an SGA
i mean it looks like it should be that Ext thing thats used in defining depth but idk why it called u_i here
injective resolution of M?
You need to go back and read more lol
This is related to minimal injective resolutions and bass numbers
But this also isn’t what you want anyway
To show it vanishes below the depth is not difficult, I think you’ve pretty much already done it from what you’ve already read
In fact this will tell you it doesn’t vanish at the depth
The difficult part is showing it won’t vanish at the dimension (and I guess you also need to see why it vanishes past that)
What’s the story/idea/motivation behind Tannakian reconstruction?
Or ig tannakian stuff generally
bro speedrunning higher algebra
tensor braided categories i think
could you elaborate…?
not really honestly, but what i know is that you can just reconstruct the group from the tesnor braided category of the representaiton of the group
looking at the aut of the forgetful functor
i just went to a talk really but i am not so sure about like
the mechanics of it
check out pierre delignes paper "tensor categorie"
I’ve heard Deligne is associated with some scary math
Hey, I read that a map f:X->Y between two indecomposable modules over a Nakayama algebra (so all indecomposable modules are uniserial) is irreducible iff it is a mono with simple cokernel or epi with simple kernel. Showing that any irreducible map is of this form is clear, but I'm unsure how to prove the converse. Does anyone know how it works?
In a Nakayama algebra every indecomposable module is uniserial so its submodules line up in a single chain. Take a morphism f from X to Y that is injective and whose cokernel Y / X is simple. Because Y / X has no proper subfactors X is a maximal proper submodule of Y; there is nothing strictly between them in the chain. Now factor f as g followed by h, with g from X to some Z and h from Z to Y. The image of g is a submodule lying between X and Y. Maximality forces Z to be either X or Y. If Z is X then h is the original inclusion and splits, if Z is Y then g is the identity and splits. In every factorization one leg splits so f is irreducible. The dual argument (using quotients instead of submodules) shows that a surjective map with simple kernel is irreducible as well. Hence for indecomposable modules over a Nakayama algebra a morphism is irreducible exactly when it is either a monomorphism with simple cokernel or an epimorphism with simple kernel
^
Why is the image of g a submodule between X and Y? Isn't g:X->Z?
And why would Z need to be X or Y? I understand that the image of Z needs to be X or Y, and if it is X it's also clear that it splits. But I don't see how it splits if the image is Y
Because f = h followed by g is injective g itself must be injective. That means g embeds X into Z, its image g(X) is just X sitting inside Z. Then h carries every element of Z (and therefore every element of g(X)) into Y. So you get the chain of submodules X = g(X) inside Z inside Y which is exactly what “g(X) lies between X and Y” means
But h is not injective?
Because Y is uniserial and X is a maximal proper submodule (Y ⁄ X is simple) there is no module strictly between X and Y. So in any factorization f = h g we must have Z equal to either X or Y. If Z equals X g is just theidentity on X and therefore splits. If Z equals Y h is the identity on Y; an identity map is an isomorphism and automatically has an inverse so h splits. In either case one leg splits making f irreducible
We could just take Z = Y + Y
I agree that h(Z) must lie between X and Y
But there does not need to be an inclusion Z into Y
When Z = Y we have f = h g with g : X -> Y injective. Assume h is not injective; then ker h is a nonzero submodule of the uniserial module Y. Because submodules of a uniserial module are totally ordered,ker h must either lie inside g(X) or contain g(X). But h acts injectively on g(X) (since h g = f and f is injective) so ker h has intersection g(X) = 0, forcing ker h = 0. Thus h is injective after all. For a finite length module like Y an injective endomorphism is automatically surjective hence an isomorphism which splits.
Ker h is not a submodule of Y, but Z
When Z equals Y h maps Y to itself,so its kernel is a submodule of Y. Since h g = f and f is injective h is injective on g(X) which means the kernel of h intersects g(X) only at 0. In a uniserial module that forces the kernel to be 0 so h is an isomorphism and therefore splits
But Z does not equal Y.
The image of Z under h equals Y
Just take X->Y+Y->Y. This factors, and h is not injective
If Z is not Y the maximal submodule property forces Z to be X (there is no middle option in a uniserial chain). In that case g : X -> Z is just the identity on X so g has an obvious inverse and splits. No matter which case occurs one leg of the factorization splits and f is irreducible
????
Z is not a submodule of Y
h is NOT INJECTIVE
f = h g only implies that g is injective, not h
As I said multiple times, consider X -> Y + Y -> Y, which is of course injective, but Y + Y -> Y is not
its gettin' heated in advanced-algebra
Sigh
Also, Z is not uniserial as it does not need to be indecomposable
As I said, just take Z as the direct sum of Y with Y
Then h is not injective
We are working with Nakayama (uniserial) modules so every submodule of Y sits in one linear chain. Your example Y riect sum Y breaks this rule because Y direct sum Y is not uniserial so it is not a counter example. Take any factorisation f = h∘g. Because f is injective, g is injective. Let W be the image of h; W is an honest submodule of Y. The copy of X that g embeds ends up inside W, so we now have “X contained in W” and “W contained in Y”. Since Y∕X is simple X is a maximal proper submodule of Y hence W must be either X or Y. If W equals X then h lands inside X and g is essentially the identity on X which splits. If W equals Y, h is onto Y. Assume for contradiction that h is not injective; its kernel is then a non zero submodule of the uniserial Y. In a uniserial module any two submodules are comparable, so this kernel must either lie inside X or contain X. It cannot contain X because h acts like f on X and f is injective and it cannot lie inside X because that would force W to be X, not Y. Therefore the kernel must be zero making h an isomorphism which splits. Therefore in every possible factorisation one of the two maps splits so f is irreducible as claimed
we need a certain Chmonkey to resolve this conflict
Again, the kernel of h is not a submodule of Y
h:Z->Y
How would ker h be a submodule of Y?
Yes, but ker h is in Z
Not in Y
Yeah
Plus, Z does not need to be uniserial. Only indecomposables are uniserial in Nakayama algebras, so Z = Y+Y is totally valid
True... the kernel of h lies in Z, not Y. That is why we replace Z by W = h(Z), which is inside Y. From there the rest of the argument uses W not the original Z.
What?
h(ker h) = 0
So yeah, of course h(ker h) = 0
How can you deny that X->Y+Y->Y is a valid factorization of X->Y?
In the factorisation X -> Y direct sum Y -> Y you are picturing the second map h is just the projection onto one summand. That projection does split - the inclusion of Y into that same summand is a right inverse so h followed by that inclusion is the identity on Y. Because h already splits the definition of an irreducible map is satisfied
Chmonkey isn't enough, we need Scholze and Mochizuki to settle this
Yes, of course it splits
But all your arguments say that the projection would be injective
Are you trolling me or what
Considering ker h as a submodule of Im(h) 😭
No, our injectivity conclusion relied on one extra fact: Y (and therefore W) is uniserial so any two non zero submodules must overlap. In the direct sum module Y direct sum Y that property fails so the projection can have a non zero kernel and still split. So our earlier argument never forces your projection to be injective it only forces injectivity inside the uniserial setting we started with
W is the image of Z
Which is also uniserial for Z = Y+Y
W is either Y or X.
W is not isomorphic to Z
You literally say assume h:Z->Y is not injective, then it's kernel must be a submodule of Y
How do you view ker h as a submodule of Y?
Yes, wth Z taken as Y direct sum Y the map h is the projection onto the first copy of Y so its image W equals Y. That sits in the “W = Y” branch of the argument. A projection from Y direct sum Y onto Y is a split surjection. The standard inclusion Y -> Y direct sum Y is a right invers so h already splits. We never needed h to be injective in this branch only to split and the projection satisfies that requirement
Your "argument" would still show that the projection is injective
That “kernel inside Y” line only applies in the special branch where Z actually is Y. In that case h is an endomorphism Y -> Y so its kernel is automatically a submodule of Y. When Z differs from Y (for example Z = Y direct sum Y) we never use that kernel argument, there g already splits and the proof is finished before we reach that step
"Only applies"
If Z is not Y then W = h(Z) is a proper submodule of Y that still contains X. Because X is maximal W must equal X. Now h maps Z onto X and g embeds X into Z with the property that h ∘ g is the identity on X. That already gives a left inverse for g so g splits. Thus when Z != Y one leg (g) splits, when Z = Y the other leg (h) splits. In every case f is irreducible...
An easy counterexample, Take Q the quiver 1->2->3. It is uniserial. Take X = P[3], Y=P[2], Z = P[1]. We then have X->Z->Y, h(Z) = Y and h is not injective
No....
Yes...
h(Z) can be equal to Y without Y=Z
Take this
g is not split
h is split, but not injective
h(Z) = Y but Z is not Y
That triple is not a valid factorisation of the original map f: X -> Y. For h ∘ g to equal f h must act injectively on the copy of X that g embeds. In your quiver any surjection from P(1) to P(2) kills the bottom layer of P(1) – exactly where g sends X – so h ∘ g becomes zero... NOT f. To keep h ∘ g = f the kernel of h must avoid g(X) and in a uniserial module the only way a non zero kernel can avoid a non zero submodule is for the kernel to be zero. Thus h has to be injective after all
3/10 rage bait
YOU'RE TROLLING
No
What are you saying then?
What collapses is h(Z): if that image equals X then g splits and if it equals Y then h splits so f is still irreducible
Yes, the statement is of couse true
but h is not injective
You say: if h(Z)=Y, then h is injective. This would show that h is an isomorphism.
Which it does not have to be
Can you display an explicit non zero element in ker h whose submodule has zero intersection with g(X) inside this uniserial module?
Take g:X->Y+Y inclusion on the first factor. Take h:Y+Y-> projection to the first factor. ker h = second factor, which has zero intersection withb g(X).
That fails because h ∘ g = 0, not the original map f so it is not a valid factorisation
Oh sorry
I meant first factor of course
Projection
inclusion to first and projection to first.
That still breaks the uniserial assumption that Y direct sum Y is not uniserial so the must overlap rule never applies and the kernel argument is irrelevant
No it does not break the uniserial assumption
Only X and Y are uniserial
Z does not have to be uniserial.
Could you show the chain of sub modules that makes Y direct sum Y uniserial? In a uniserial module every sub module must lie in a single total order
Why would Y+Y be uniserial?
It doesnt have to be
Why would it need to be?
If Z is uniserial, sure it works
But Z does not need to be uniserial
Our whole irreducibility claim is stated for maps between uniserial modules only.
Y direct sum Y is not uniserial so once you put that module into the factorisation you are working outside the hypotheses
No, X and Y are uniserial
At no point Z is required to be uniserial
Neither in the definition of an irreducible morphism, nor in my question
If Z is Y direct sum Y and h is the projection onto the first copy of Y then h is surjective and already has a right inverse (the standard inclusion of Y into that first summand). A map that has a right inverse is a split epimorphism so in the factorisation f = h ∘ g the “h splits” alternative of irreducibility is fulfilled. Injectivity of h was never required we only needed one leg of every factorisation to split and here h does
Yes, it of course splits cuz this is the claim
But you "proved" that h is injective anyway
the claim is that h has to split. I give you an example of a split non-injective: "Yeah but it splits already so it's not a counterexampe"
I showed h is injective only when Z is uniserial because the “any two non zero submodules overlap” step needs that property. If your Z is Y direct sum Y, Z is not uniserial so the injectivity step never fires we just note that h already splits and that is enough
Okay but Z is not uniserial
Ok?
"we note that h already splits" yeah dude that has to be proven
When Z is not uniserial I never claim h is injective... I only note that h already has a right inverse so it splits which is all the irreducibility condition requires
So you are saying if Z is uniserial then its injective, and if its not uniserial then it splits (which you never proved and is essentially the whole statement of my question)
bruh
If h(Z) hits all of Y then Z cannot be any larger than Y. Otherwise the pre image of X under h would give a submodule strictly between X and Z which would push forward to a submodule strictly between X and Y impossible because Y∕X is simple and Y is uniserial. So Z = Y and h is an onto endomorphism of Y; onto plus finite length forces h to be an isomorphism hence it splits
What?
Again, just take Z = Y+Y
And yes, this splits, but where does your "argument" break down?
Z can be much larger than Y. This is the point. Either g splits or h splits, so Y is a direct summand of Z
And Z = Y is not always true
Again, if Z = Y direct sum Y and h maps onto the first copy the pre image of X under h is a submodule lying strictly between X and Z which pushes forward to a submodule strictly between X and Y contradicting that Y∕X is simple so such a factorisation cannot realise f
It cannot because if h maps Z onto all of Y then by the “Y∕X simple” argument Z must actually be Y so choosing Z as Y direct sum Y breaks the required equality Z = Y
Let us make it easy. Take the linear quiver with 3 vertices. Take X = rad(P[1]), Y=P[1]. Then x->(x,x), (u,v)->v definitely factors the inclusuion x->x
And Y/X is simple
Woah
magic
That factorisation uses Z = X direct sum X and g : X -> X direct sum X given by x -> (x,x) already has the leftinverse (a,b) -> a so g splits hence this example still fits the criterion and does not contradict it
The diagonal map g(x) = (x,x) has a left inverse given by the projection (a,b) -> a so g already splits the example therefore still satisfies the irreducibility criterion
Dude
Of course it splits cause thats what we are proving
I'm just saying your argument is wrong.
You keep saying that Z has to be Y and h needs to be injective
Which is wrong
The statement is that h is a split epi, so of course Z is not necc. Y
????
When I give you an example of a non-injective h you say yeah but that already splits, like all of them do
Z does not have to be Y
I never said “Z must always be Y and h must be injective.” We've went over this like 5 times. The claim is that in any factorisation f = h g the image W = h(Z) is forced to be X or Y. If W = X, g splits. If W = Y, then (inside the uniserial chain) this forces Z = Y and a surjection Y -> Y is an isomorphism so h splits.
Injectivity of h is invoked only in that second branch it is not a blanket requirement.
??????
You LITERALLY JUST SAID
If h(Z)=Y
THEN Z = Y
Let us make it easy. Take the linear quiver with 3 vertices. Take X = rad(P[1]), Y=P[1]. Z = Y+Y. Then g:X->Z, x->(x,x), h:Z->Y, (u,v)->v definitely factors the inclusuion x->x, X->Y
The cokernel is simpe
You're taking “Z = Y” in the literal sense while the argument means “Z is isomorphic to Y once you identify Z with its image
You cant identify Z with the image
Yeah of course Im(h)->Y is an isomorphism
But this does not mean that Z->Y is an isomorphism or even split.
When ker h = 0 h gives an isomorphism Z ≅ Y so up to isomorphism Z “is” Y for the splitting argument
Yes, but ker h is not zero
!!!!
How can you keep ignoring multiple counterexamples
i think hes trolling me
maybe
either hes trolling or always asking chatgpt what to reply
Your diagonal map g already splits: define r : Y plus Y -> X by r(a,b) = a. Then r g sends x to r(x,x) = x so r g is the identity on X. Because one leg of the factorisation splits the irreducibility criterion is satisfied bro
Yes of course it splits
?!?!?!
But where would your argument break down?
Jesus
Dude
Every fucking choice of h splits
You keep saying that h is an isomorphism
"If W=Z, then Y=Z"
Which I gave you numerous counterexamples to
Which is extremely obvious, since h is supposed to be a split epi, so Z = Y+M, so Z = Y is almost never true 💀
The original claim is about maps between indecomposable (and hence uniserial) modules over a Nakayama algebra: such a map f is irreducible if and only if it is a monomorphism with simple cokernel or an epimorphism with simple kernel. To prove the "if" direction you must consider any factorization f = h ∘ g. If the image of h, say W is equal to X then g splits. If the image of h is equal to Y and you assume Z is uniserial then the kernel of h must intersect g(X) trivially (since f is injective) which is impossible in a uniserial module unless the kernel is zero so h is injective and being a surjection between finite length indecomposables is an isomorphism and splits. Nowhere did I ever claim that h is always injective or that Z must equal Y in all cases. In your example with Z = Y plus Y and h the projection g already splits via a left inverse so the irreducibility condition is still satisfied. The injectivity argument applies only when Z is uniserial and h(Z) = Y, otherwise you rely on whichever leg does split... I'm not going entertain this YAP sesh anymore because it doesn't seem like it's going to end up anywhere. Good luck!
It is pretty late, so excuse me if I mess up. I think you can split Z into indecomposables, denoted Z_i, choose i maximal such that the image of X->Z->Z_i->Y is maximal among these, and then you can show that one of the maps in the factorization X->Z_i->Y splits. I do agree, however, that ash's proof is very much incomplete, as the morphism does apriori not need to factor over an irreducible module, but with a bit of work, as I pointed out above, you can reduce to the case of Z being indecomposable.
Here, cleaned it up: Let f : X -> Y be a map between indecomposable (hence uniserial) modules over a Nakayama algebra. (=>) If f is irreducible it is either injective or surjective but not an iso; in the injective case Y/X cannot have a proper sub module (else f would factor and split) so Y/X is simple and dually a surjective irreducible map has simple kernel. (<=) Assume the injective case with Y/X simple (the surjective case is dual). Factor f as X —g-> Z —h-> Y. First break Z into indecomposable summands and keep the one whose image under h is largest; call this image W. Because g is injective X sits inside W and since Y/X is simple and Y is uniserial W is forced to be either X or all of Y. If W = X then h lands in X and h g = id_ X so g has a left inverse and splits. If W = Y then h is onto Y; if its kernel were non zero it would have to intersect g(X) in a uniserial module contradicting the injectivity of f so the kernel is zero, h is an isomorphism, and h splits. Thus in every factorisation one leg splits so f is irreducible. Therefore a morphism between indecomposable Nakayama modules is irreducible exactly when it is a monomorphism with simple cokernel or an epimorphism with simple kernel.
Not exactly, when choosing i such that the image of X->Z->Z_i->Y is maximal, there is apriori no reason that this map is equal to f (but this does not matter in the end). You still need to see that this composition is injective, it's image is X and that showing that this being split is enough to conclude. If Z is indecomposable, it is trivial and I do not believe that Max doubted that. Reducing to the above mentioned case however does take some work.
I can work it out tomorrow, I'm too tired now
Break Z into indecomposable pieces Z_1 + … + Z_t and pick Z_j whose image W = h(Z_j) is largest among the h(Z_i). Because g is injective the map X -> Z_j -> Y is still injective so its image sits inside W. Now Y∕X is simple so W is either X or Y. If W = X, then h restricted to Z_j lands in X and the composite X -> Z_j -> X is the identity giving a left inverse for that piece of g, hence g splits and so does the whole factorisation. If W = Y, uniseriality forces ker h|{Z_j} to be zero so h|{Z_j} is an isomorphism onto Y and splits. Thus after reducing to the single indecomposable summand Z_j, one leg of the factorisation splits
Alright 😊
X->Z_i->Y is not injective because g is injective, you really need the maximality of the image for that. Moreover, that in this case h is an isomorphism, or more precisely injective, has nothing to do with Y being uniserial, but now since Z is assumed to be idecomposable, it is uniserial.
But I think if you work it out in detail, it is easy to see
Choosing the summand with maximal image ensures g(X) maps into W non trivially so the composite X->Z_i->Y stays injective with Z_i indecomposable (hence uniserial) any non zero kernel would force overlap with g(X) so the kernel is zero and h|_{Z_i} is an isomorphism
Oops
Thays the one
Hello, I have been struggling to understand what an F-Algebra and Initial Algebra are (For context, my interest is as a Computer Scientist studying type theory)
I have been reading the attached definition from wikipedia: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/F-algebra
So just walking through the definition: A is the carrier set, which we could say is the "data". In Agda (or Peano Numbers), the terms of Nat would be zero, suc(zero), suc(suc(zero)), etc. So this would be the carrier set for some algebra about natural numbers.
And a (alpha) is defined as "F(A) -> A". I am really lost on what this is supposed to be. It is a functor, from A to some other categorical object, that is then mapped back into A? Expanding it into something like type notation, I am interpreting it as this: "A -> B -> A"
I believe that, in other definitions, alpha is supposed to be a set of fucntions Af(t1,t2,t3,t4,...) -> A
I read this as a set of all the functions that take in terms of A and return a term back that is in A (closed functions). If this is a correct alternative definition, then I am really confused as the what or how "F(A) -> A" connects.
Yes. After reading: https://bartoszmilewski.com/2017/02/28/f-algebras/
Specifically, the attached part. It is clear that F is supposed to be some sort of Mapping from A that captures the idea of functions on terms of A.
Maybe I just don't know what a Functor is. It is a mapping from A into a different object, but I just dont see how that constructs the functions on A.
Oh. I get it.
I was interpreting the functor as mapping elements of A to elements of a different categorical object. I think I didn't know what a functor was. It takes in A, the object, not the elements, and maps it to an object with elements for each defined function. The mapping is not element to element, but object to object. I think this makes sense.
It's helpful to see category theory as a layer of abstraction that does away with elements
We only care about the objects and their relationships, rather than the actual elements of these objects
No, choosing i such that the image is maximal ensures that X->Z_i->Y has image equal to X inside of Y, since the sum of the images of X->Z_j->Y contains X, and we have that Y is uniserial, so one of them has to contain X. But it can't be bigger than X, since then it would have to be Y, but l(X) < l(Y), so we can't have a surjection X->Y, so it has to be X. Thus, it is an isomorphism (since a surjective endomorphism of f.g. modules is injective), and so X->Z_i->Y is injective, so X->Z_i is injective.
I know that this says 'algebra' in it, but this isn't really the channel to ask this in unless you want a group-theoretic example or something. You are likely to get better responses in #category-theory from people who actually know relevant facts.
If you are looking for a genuinely algebraic example, then the simplest possible one is that an F-algebra for the functor F : Set -> Set given by F(A) = A x A is precisely what it means to be a magma, which is arguably the simplest possible kind of algebraic structure. If we also impose some additional requirements, then we can encode what it means for a magma to actually be a semigroup, and so on.
F-algebra in cat theory and algebra means very different things lol. In Algebra it’d be an “associative unital algebra over the field F”
Algebraic F-algebras often are those given by polynomial endofunctors.
A × A is a polynomial (of degree 2) :)
if only there was some catchy term for, say, monoids in this so called "category of endofunctors". What a world that would be....
Oh I know!! Algebraic theories!!
Banned phrase
hahaha
Triple
ohhh baby a tripleee
Real
MOM GET THE CAMERA
Why is x_n integral over k[x_1,...,x_(n-1)]/I' in this proof?
Is this solution reasonable?
I think it works, but I didn’t quite follow the logic
I think you can make it clearer what you’re doing by saying something like “one of (I,f) or (I,g) has infinitely many minimal primes over it”
Because I guess the point is that each prime minimal over I is minimal over either (I,f) or (I,g), so one of them has infinitely many
I re-read it and get what you’re doing, but I think it can be clearer is my input
I think I’d format it like this,
If I < p is a minimal prime, then as fg in p, either f in p or g in p, in which case (I,f) < p or (I,g) < p, and p is a minimal prime over these ideals as if it were not then p is also not minimal over I. Then, the subset of primes minimal over I is a subset of the union of primes minimal over (I,f) and (I,g), so one of those sets must be infinite and we contradict I’s maximally
Sleepybear
The cardinality of A doesn’t matter, you can just keep picking some elements not in the previous ideal
This might use some dependent choice or something I guess
Another thing you can do: any ideal in a Noetherian ring is fg (often this is the definition...), so pick a finite set of generators and you can write each of those as a finite linear combination of elements in ur original generating set
But yeah I mean Noetherian has many equivalent definitions so there are lots of ways to do this - another would be to consider the set of ideals which are generated by finitely many elements of your generating set and by the Noetherian property you know this set has a maximal ideal, which is necessarily all of I
I think this is better
Because it removes the Noetherian hypothesis
I fg implies among any generating set you can find a finite subset that still generates it
ah yeah good point ye
it's just like i know this is smth you can do with vector spaces lol
Pick Z_i so W = h(Z_i) is largest. g is mono so h g(X) = X but W can still be Y. example: Z = Y+Y, g(x) = (x,0), h(u,v) = u. Then W = Y, l(X) < l(Y) holds, yet no X ->> Y surjection appears. if W = Y ker h|_{Z_i} would overlap g(X) in a uniserial module, impossible, so ker = 0 and h splits. if W = X h lands in X and g splits. either way one leg splits, QED
in this lemma, why can one choose a basis for m/m^2 among the elements of m?
is it meant that the span of the basis chosen is isomorphic to m/m^2?
Pick elements of m whose images in m/m^2 form a basis
I have not taken a basic course in Representation theory, but know about it from Advanced Linear Algebra course i credited
Can someone explain Kazhdan property(T) in simple terms for a group (topological group or topological vector space too) and why is it important to study them with some examples ?
I am working on an exercise which asks me to show that the ring k[x^2,xy,y^2]\cong k[u,v,w]/(uv-w^2) is not isomorphic to a polynomial ring. What is the best strategy for this? My idea to start was that this ring has trancendence degree 2, so if it were a polynomial ring it would be isomorphic to some k[z,w]. From here maybe we can do something with grading? These rings are both graded by N\times N (with N containing 0), but I'm not sure if this really works, since you would need to show that regardless of the grading there is no isomorphism.
Perhaps it's not a UFD?
good call, thanks
Yeah, actually the relation uv=w^2 does it I think. Because w is irreducible, and so are u and v.
yep
Is there a procedure for going from one basis of a module to another basis of the module? I want the coefficients of the new basis in terms of the old coefficients.
It sorta depends what you mean but you should be able to do the same thing as for vector spaces
But with vector spaces you would usually do this by comparing to another basis anyway - what I mean is there's not really gonna be a magic way to do this
(as "change of basis" matrices require you to already have a basis and then write stuff in terms of that basis, lol)
suppose v: A->B is a surjective homomorphism, what is a necessary/sufficient condition for a surjective homomorphism w: A -> B so that there exists an automorphism h of A such that v compose h = w?
Idk what you mean by conditions here
Conditions for such a w to exist? Well it always does by taking any h. So do you want to know when two giben surjective homomorphisms A -> B are related in this way?
yeah the latter
Yes, of course the image of h can contain X properly, but the point is that image of "the new" g can't be larger than X, which is not true in general (e.g.,the image of 2Z->Z, 2x->x contains 2Z properly). Moreover, you really need that the modules are finitely generated, otherwise X->Z_j->Y might no longer be injective. You keep ignoring these things, and essentially omly proving the very easy part. It is not directly clear why you can reduce to the indecomposable situation (i.e., why is the new map still injective, has image X, and so on, which I explained a couple of times now).
the kernels must be isomorphic
But is it if and only if?
Idk what basis means, but over for a finite module over a Noetherian local ring a minimal generating set is related to any other one via an invertible matrix, in the exact same way it is for vector spaves
And I think the Noetherian case in general follows from this via localization
For context, alpha is in GL_2(Q)^+ and T_alpha is a hecke operator.
Does anyone get why S_k(Gamma(1)) is an invariant subspace?
ask this on number theory channel
Well it's equivalent to there being an automorphism of A that takes one kernel to the other
But this data of kernel isomorphism is not sufficient right
Like supposed v,w: G2 -> G1 have isomorphic kernels, does this mean that there exists some automorphism h:G2 -> G2 such that vh=w?
No, e.g. Z has no non-trivial automorphisms but the ideals 3Z and 2Z are isomorphic as modules
Sorry forgot to mention G2,G1 are finite abelian p groups(the same p)
If we have rings $Z(A)\subseteq B\subseteq A\subseteq U$ and we have $C_U(C_U(A))=A$, is it true that $C_U(C_U(B))=C_A(C_A(B))$? I suspected that this is false but I could not find a counterexample.
qwertytrewq
Oh lol I think I assumed we were talking about rings aha sorry
Well, it’s surjective, so you’re taking a quotient
You get something like 0 -> ker -> A -> B -> 0
When does it fail (if you don’t know necessary conditions)
First we basically have two exact sequences, and now we need the automorphism to restrict to an automorphism between the two kernels
im actually wondering when will it succeed
it's two exact sequences with morphisms in between, B -> B as identity map and ker -> ker as some map that exists. I'm suspecting that this isn't enough to induce an automorphism of A
in octonions, we have 1, and 7 imaginary units, call them i,j,k,1',i',j',k'. Where prime on imaginary units are just from the cayley dickson consutuction as you would guess, so i'=(0,i). Say I define $$Hx^\perp:=span{\mathbb{R}}(x,ix,jx,kx) \text{ and } Hx:=span{\mathbb{R}}(1'x,i'x,j'x,k'x).$$ Is there an octonion $o$ so that $o H_x^\perp = H_x$ for all octonions $x$?
Horse Face
I'm a little bit confused about this proposition. I know that S^{-1}M can be viewed as an S^{-1}A module, and I suppose S^{-1}A and M as well, but here the tensor product is subscripted with an A instead of an S^{-1}A. Is the A a typo, and it should be replaced with S^{-1}A?
There isn't any typo
I'm not totally sure what's like confusing you but the idea is that the tensor product extends the scalars
so you go from your A-module M to an S^-1A module called S^-1M
cuz like M isn't a priori an S^-1A module
yeah I've become the milk enby
hello how are you potato
oh arki and I will be reading some notes about K-theory this summer if you want to you can join us
They're focused on the (oo,1)-cat way to look at things
so you'd probably like it hehe
I can Dm you the link if you want
Maybe some extra context might help? In general if you're given an $A$-module $B$ and a map of rings $A -> B$, then you can form the extension of scalars $B \otimes_A M$. Now to form this, you view $B$ as an $A$-module via the map, but you can then give $B \otimes_A M$ the structure of a $B$-module in the `obvious' way i.e. $b.(b' \otimes m) = bb' \otimes m$. This is a sense the best way to turn $M$ into a $B$-module: if you're given any $B$-module $N$, then you can view it as an $A$-module by restricting scalars along $A \to B$, and then any map $M \to N$ of $A$-modules corresponds in a unique way to a map $B \otimes_A M \to N$ of $B$-modules.
Prismatic Potato
Then in this proposition the point is that $S^{-1} M$ is an $S^{-1}A$-module and there's an `obvious' map $M \to S^{-1} M$ of $A$-modules, which extends along $A \to S^{-1} A$ to give you the map $S^{-1} A \otimes_A M \to S^{-1} M$ of the proposition
Prismatic Potato
Ooh yeah that sounds great, what were you planning to follow? I have been meaning to get better at K-theory lol
very cool
hold on I'll dm you
coolio
K theory sounds very cool
Unfortunately I do not know enough math to even start it :(
Well, option A: grab a book and trial by fire
I mean, how else do you determine “knowing enough”
what's option b
also where did the K in K theory even come from
i know the grothendieck group is K_0 but where did that come from too
since i've seen some ppl just denote it w G
Finding someone who knows what they’re doing and following a more guided approach
I mean I’ve heard it’s very hard algebra
It sure ain’t easy
Algebra is my weakest area of math so
are R[x] and R[y, y^2/2!, y^3/3!, …] isomorphic as graded R-algebras if |x| = |y| and R contains Q?
this should just be x^n sending to y^n/n! right?
the latter is also called the divided power algebra i think
id say its my weakest as well but tbh hard to tell with my general lacking
but just cracking open Weibel's book and seeing what you can or cannot do might be doable
well, I'd sorta expect f(x^n) and f(x)^n to be nicely related which isn't ideal with that /n! term, but maybe I'm missing something about what notion of iso
so, you expect it not to be an isomorphism?
does the map i give not preserve the multiplicative structure
yeah
but wouldnt we get f(x^n) = f(x)^n / n! as a result?
we don’t, right?
we get f(x^n) = f(x)^n?
well f(x) = y right?
i guess
yeah
yeah, that’s true, i see
Can't you just send x to y?
isn’t an iso
me when R[x] is iso to R[y]
why not
doesn’t send generators to generators?
what do you mean it doesnt
You're assuming Q is included in R right
does y not generate that?
remember, not all homomorphism send every choice of generator to every list of generators
because like, isomorphism maps between 2d vector spaces will only give you generators in the output, not necessarily map to a particular basis
so you dont need to send the list of generators {1, x, x^2, ...} to the list {1, y, y^2/2, ...}
yeah, ik that, i just forgot that Q is contained in R
or well, it wouldn’t be true if Q isn’t in R, right?
well, it didnt respect multiplication so its not even a homomorphism
yeah
the map x ~> y isnt an iso if you dont have Q yeah
not that it makes too much sense outside char 0 too
yeah, thank you
anyhow shouldve been the biggest red flag fr
general lacking...?
as in, general lack of skill in analysis, topo/geo things, logic
Huh, it doesn’t appear that way to me
I have a quiver $Q$ and relations $I$ such that $\frac{kQ}{I}$ has global dimension 2 (this quiver is actually a subspace configuration poset but I'm not familiar with the language of poset rep theory). I thus have an 'extended' Tits/Euler form $q$ that eats dimension vectors and spits out a number that is telling me the value of dimEnd - dimExt + dimExt^2.
I have a bunch of representations of this quiver of interest coming from some other construction. These representations are associated to elements of a root system with form $p$, and all these elements are real roots, in particular have 'p = 1' (its really p=2 for reasons).
All of the resulting $kQ$ reps I have constructed from $'p = 1'$ roots have had $q = 1$. So I'm trying to pin down the 'root system' associated to q to try and make some correspondence, or atleast an implication like "if p = 1 over here, then the constructed thing will have q = 1".
My problem is that the Gram matrix of q has positive off diagonal entries and it is my understanding that that means it cannot have come from a generalised cartan matrix and so I'm not sure that there is even a Kac-Moody algebra kicking around.
But there IS some structure hiding in q in the sense that if I just blindly enumerate a bunch of dim vects with q = 1, I'm only seeing the valid configurations that im independently constructing. Also the only q <= 0 guys showing up in the enumeration are lattice points in the cone generated by two minimal imaginary 'roots', i.e. two guys in the 2 dimensional kernel of the Gram matrix.
I guess my question is then if anyone knows or can signpost me to info on like structure results for these 'pseudo root systems' if thats even what I'm looking at. Sorry that it's all very vague, it would just be too long to go into the details. I can elaborate if people have any ideas, thanks
ΣAC
Compile Error! Click the
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I don't think you are in the correct section. Try #groups-rings-fields
Anyways, if |x|=oo and you falsely assume |gxg^(-1)|=n<oo then by what you proved we have |gxg^(-1)|=|g||x||g^(-1)|=|g||g^(-1)||x|=|gg^(-1)||x|=|e||x|=|x|=oo so contradiction. @gritty knoll
disregard my last message, sorry
K-theory
What is the motivation for finding generators of ideals “up to radical”?
my commutative algebra exam was today... got the top grade 😄
Congrats!
thanks!
Nice one!
Of course I had this Tshirt on
Does it say "it makes people cry"? 
to justify that M is cohen macaulay iff H^i_m(M) = 0 for i < dim M, do i just need to justify the fact that depth_m M = min{i | H^i_m(M) neq 0}?
it does
maybe one motivation is the Nullstellensatz—if you only care about finding equations f1,…,fi in k[x1,…,xn] to cut out a Zariski closed subset V(I) set theoretically, then the Nullstellensatz says (when k is alg closed) that V(I) = V(f1,…,fi) iff radical(I) = radical(f1,…,fi)
well I guess we also need the fact that H^i_m(M) is nonzero at i = dim M, and then we are good
can i have an example of a commutative algebra where krull and gk dim differ
What’s gk dim
Do you mean gl dim?
If you do, then for a Noetherian ring (of finite Krull dimension let’s just say) the global dimension being finite => gl dim = Krull dim which is equivalent to being a regular ring
So the only way these can disagree is if you’re not a regular ring in which case the gl dim is infinite and the Krull dimension is finite
Assumptions throughout is Noetherian and finite Krull dimension
Gelfand kirilov dimension no?
Tf is that
Something something D modules
I brushed against it in my noncom class but never actually looked into it
Something about Hilbert polynomials and Bernstein’s inequality
If you meant gelfand kirilov this can only be true if your algebra is non finitely generated
So idk there are probably some pathological examples of that
Yeah I’m just having trouble thinking of one
Can anyone help me with the following statement: There are only finitely many maps from a group G into a finite group H with a given kernel.
Let K be the kernel, then either G/K is infinite in which case no such maps exist as G/K needs to inject into H. So now if G/K is finite the maps G -> H with kernel K are in bijection with injections G/K -> H which is finite by cardinality
Obviously if K isn’t normal so you can’t form G/K the number is 0
it;s always normal, it's a kernel
K is a kernel it's gonna be normal
right, I was being stupid thanks chmonkey
if K wasn't the kernel of the map your injection argument fails
Oh my god, if there are no maps G -> H with K as a kernel then K could be not normal, and then my argument doesn’t work cuz I can’t guarantee I can form G/K. But if that’s the case you already proved the result
also you started with "let K be the kernel"
thanks for letting me farm my very active points for the day
Sybau
sYbau
if you are talking about primary decompositions, then it's to do with decomposing subsets of the Zariski topology into a union of irreducible sets, which is related to Nullstellensatz as joesph said. alg geo stuff
Does anybody know why $\text{im } \overline{\nu} \subseteq \ker d$? If $\overline{\nu}(m) \in \text{im } \overline{\nu}$, then we have $\mu' (f' (\mu^{-1}(m))) = f(m)$ (and consequently, $f'(\mu^{-1}(m)) = 0 \in \text{Coker } f'$). I'm just having trouble showing that $\mu^{-1}(m)$ is well-defined
okeyokay
Nvm this doesn't work if \overline{\nu}(m) \neq 0
I am looking at this proof of how non degeneracy of a pairing (defined in terms of having a copairing) is equivalent to the space being finite dimensional and and map between space and dual being injective
i am stuck in the converse part if the functionals are linearly independent does it follow that there is a dual basis?
Anyone?
I cant see why they are the same if I and J have the same radical (im pretty sure it meant to say radical there, not nilradical)
If I^nx = 0 and rad(I) = rad(J), J^mx = 0 for some m?
If they've got the same radical you can show there's an n such that J^n subset I
And the other way around
For some different positive integer
Tho I think this is a thing that only works in noetherian rings (i.e. you need some f.g. assumption on ideals)
So I hope you're in a noetherian ring lawl
afaik local cohomology is always over noetherian rings (but dont quote me on this)
at least in the case of those notes which i've seen before
Yeah i was wondering if there needed to be extra conditions
In the notes im reading it didnt mention that
Oh?
those notes look familiar can you send them to me
i can't remember where i've seen them before
i can't imagine huneke doing anything over non-noetherian rings
Thank u
i'll have to think about this tho
hochster defines it over noetherian rings (as the direct limit of some ext modules)
yea, i havent learned that defn yet
I came up with this question while thinking about the construction of real numbers via formal decimals. Does the usual decimal representation define an embedding of the field R of real numbers into the quotient ring Z[[1/10]] := Z[[x]] / (1 - 10x)? I think it is true that 0.999... = 1 in Z[[1/10]]
if J is fg by like {j1, j2, j3} then something in J^n has components that are like j1^n, j2^n, j3^n and some other combination of the j's. The j1^n j2^n j3^n are all in I if n is big enough, but what do I do with the other ji components
Local Cohomology is unbelievably ass over non-Noetherian rings and without finiteness hypotheses
You can define it but it sucks
I understand that there is a group action of the symmetry group $S_4$ on the cube in $\mathbb{R}^3$.
How can I compute the number of orbits of $X_e \times X_i$ for each $i\in {f,v,d,t,c, e}$ where:
$X_e$ is the set of edges of the cube
$X_f$ is the set of faces of the cube
$X_t$ is the set of the two tetrahydron of the cube
$X_d$ is the set of diagonals of the cube
$X_c$ is the center of the cube
$X_v$ is the set of vertices of the cube
𝒢𝒾𝓃𝑔𝑒𝓇 𝑀𝒶𝑔𝓂𝒶
I am asking this in this section because I want to compute $c(\mathbb{C} X_e, \mathbb{C} X_i)$ for the $i$'s above.
The intertwining number of the quasiregular representations of the sets above.
𝒢𝒾𝓃𝑔𝑒𝓇 𝑀𝒶𝑔𝓂𝒶
quasiregular 💔 intertwining number 💔 S_4 acts transitively on all of these assuming I'm guessing what a tetrahydron is correctly.
much easier way to do this would to just write the characters down and take inner products
Is it okay over non-Noetherian assuming like the ideal is fp or smth
Or are the issues more serious
I guess some dimension theory kinda breaks so oof
1 - 10x is a unit in Z[[x]], so that quotient is just the trivial ring.
Hi! I am currently trying to learn about schur functions for understanding a paper, I would love to know what books I could refer to understand it.
I don’t really know tbh, I just know shit breaks down fast
But like, the interaction with depth I think immediately fails
A key part in showing depth 0 <==> Gamma_m is nonzero requires something with associated primes
Thank you
Someone save me!
Given $x''\in \text{Im}(\bar{\nu})$, we can take the "$x$" that appears in the screenshot you posted such that $x\in \ker(f)$. Thus (taking the corresponding $y'$ from the proof) we have
$0=f(x)=u'(y')$, and since the proof defined $d(x'')$ to me the image of $y'=0$ in the cokernel, this shows that $d(x'')=0$.
kr1staps
should it say right derived there
those are the rightest looking functors I've ever seen
but alas, F is contavariant, so these are indeed left derived functors
I think?
i dont really know what the terminology is referring to tbh
the first sentence talks about right derived
so theres some typos here ?
what is the "right" vs "left" derived refering to
If you have a right exact functor then you get a left derived functor which adds a bunch of stuff to the left
so if u have a right exact functor it doesnt make sense to say it has right derived functor right
It measures how far your functor is from being left exact
well no it does it's just a boring one (the zero functor)
ok i think that makes more sense
ngl I had to google if Ho(C^op) was Ho(C)^op
say a polynomial in x_1,...,x_4 is invariant under SO(2) for example, like P(x_1,y_1, x_2,y_2)=P(r(x_1,y_1),r(x_2,y_2)) where r in SO(2), then is it some product or sum of x_1^2+y_1^2, x_2^2+y_2^2, <(x_1,y_1),(x_2,y_2)>. Only norm and inner product are the fundamental building blocks of such polynomials. Is this true? if so, what is this theorem called?
this theorem almost certainly does not have a name but this sounds a lot like the type of problem Invariant theory is designed to solve. You're asking for the degree 4 part of the invariant ring of the diagonal embedding of SO(2) -> SO(2) x SO(2) (viewed as a subgroup of GL_4(R), I presume) acting on R[x1, y1, x2, y2] as you described
if you're correct (which I do beleive) then you've essentially just found the primary invariants for this invariant ring
any idea where i can find such a theorem?
I really wish I could remember but it's been years since I learnt this lemme try and think
tyty
this modified cech complex that can be used to compute local cohomology is what i actually need to learn, but i am not totally sure what background is needed to learn this and justify that it does give local cohomology
do i need to learn koszul complex too?
Except the 0th one
Well I like to phrase in terms of total derived functors and then ur saying RF = F which is pretty
(I should say like I said this as a joke)
ok for infinite groups I've completely forgotten how it works. But it kind of makes sense where this would appear right? O(2) is the largest group of matrices that preserves the inner product (in particular, the norm), so the invariant polynomials would correspond to norms and inner products. Try this for U(2) and see if the primary invariants look like the polynomials you've found but with complex conjugates in the approparite places
that'll be interesting to see and I think it works
i don't understand this, how would one deduce that those are the fundamental building blocks of such polynomials?
actually I am not really familiar with any of this which is why I was wondering if there is a source I can find this in and learn the preliminary material
I have 0 background in invariant theory
I have essentially 0 background. I only know of the specialised "Reflection Groups and Invariant Theory"
Anyone?
I don't know how to do it.
Could you please help me?
Hey, I'm trying to work through a paper: "On an easy transition from operator dynamics
to generating functionals by Clifford algebras"
(35) and (36) have totally lost me. What exactly is a clifford monomial?
Also, the 2nd and third lines of (35) these bra/kets seem to come out of nowhere. I can only assume they pop up due to some sort of inner product relation?
But why specifically |0> and |p>?
In the paper the partial derivatives are duals of j's which are elements of a vector space. P() is some ordering.
If anyone thinks they can help please let me know!
Wait what
Isn't this just the definition of d lol
What is y'?
Yes, after all, we're trying to prove that something is in the kernel of d, so we'll probably have to use the definition of d.
So why is y' in the image of f'?
I showed that y' = 0, so f'(0) = 0 = y'.
Wait by your logic, wouldn't it follow that d is the zero map?
Sorry I'm confused
I guess I'm confused why $x \in \ker f$. If $\overline{v}(m) \in \ker f''$, then $\overline{v}(m) = v(m)$, so here we take $x = m$. But how do we know that $f(m) = 0$
okeyokay
Can somebody sanity check me
Never mind I'm a dumbass
m is in the kernel of f 🤦♂️
thanks @woeful crane
Hey, im not sure exactly how to interpret the direct sum in the C^k
Something like R_x1x2 is the localization of R wrt to the multiplicative closed subset generated by x1x2 right
also, what is a "system of elements"? Is that a technical term?
likely means system of parameters
given a local Noetherian ring $(R, \mathfrak m)$ of dimension $d$, a system of parameters is a set of elements $x_1, \dots, x_d$ such that $(x_1, \dots, x_d)$ is $\mathfrak m$-primary
anamono
yeah just the localization of R at the element x_1x_2
thanks dude you are new but been helpful to me lol
glad to help
anyway the reason they can "fix a system of parameters" is because every local Noetheran ring admits a system of parameters
i think Atiyah-Macdonald has some stuff on this
Bruns-Herzog as well
yeah right now my goal is to understand hochsters formula and reisners criterion from combinatorial algebra
its using a lot of commutative algebra that i need to catch up on
ah yeah nice
sometimes its hard to tell what i should focus on whats important
bruns-herzog's called Cohen-Macaulay Rings is a good reference for this then
although it's boring as hell to read
yeah
I have a copy my supervisor gave me but its back home lol
im in toronto now maybe uoft has it in the library but idk
same
what are we indexing over in the direct sum
all possible choices of k integers satisfying that
so like you could have 1 < 2 < ... < k
or 1 < 3 < 4 < ... < i_k
and whatnot
so C^0 is = R_x1 (+) R_x2 (+) ... (+) R_xn?
I think C^0 is just R
C^1 is R_x1 + ... + R_xn
in C^k, there should be k terms in the localization of each summand
oh cause it starts i_1 not i_0
we're considering the C^k as R-modules and these are R-module maps right
should be yeah
That’s an understatement
Its a nice book in so far as it has everything you might want it to, not so nice in terms of being a riveting read
Let $S^{-1}A$ the ring of fractions of $A$. Why is $S^{-1}A$ flat? Let $0 \to M' \to M \to M'' \to 0$ be any exact sequence of $A$-modules. The claim is that the tensored sequence
[0 \to M' \otimes S^{-1}A \to M \otimes S^{-1}A \to M'' \otimes S^{-1}A \to 0] is exact. Since $M \otimes S^{-1}A \cong S^{-1}A \otimes M \cong S^{-1}M$, I'm guessing the idea is to show that
[0 \to S^{-1}M' \to S^{-1}M \to S^{-1}M'' \to 0] is exact. There is a proposition in Atiyah-Macdonald stating that $S^{-1}M' \to S^{-1}M \to S^{-1}M''$ is exact at $S^{-1}M$, but nothing about the injectivity of the first arrow or surjectivity of the second arrow (unless $M'$ is a submodule of $M$. So how does this make sense?
okeyokay
Applying the proposition with 0, M’, M, we get that M’ -> M is injective, and applying it with M, M", 0, we get that M -> M" is surjective
This is a general thing that to prove exactness it's enough to show it preserves exactness of these little things A -> B -> C
Indeed that is probably the better definition
What is the notation $\Gamma\otimes_\mathbb{Z}\mathbb{R}$ on the last line? I know that this gives an $\mathbb{R}$-vector space of dimension n, but formally what does it mean?
person2709505
have you seen a tensor product before?
Nope
I don't think I'll be able to figure out what that is (in a timely manner) either, so since someone has explained what it means in this context I'll leave it as a black box for now. Thanks anyways though
Okay so on vector spaces the tensor product of two vector spaces V and W over a field k is the set of ordered pairs (v,w) of vectors in V and W with the rule that (kv,w)=(v,kw), so we can factor scalars out of either coordinate
That "rule" means we're quotienting the set of ordered pairs out by some equivalence relation I guess?
Then for modules, or vector spaces over rings, we just take this same construction. If M and N are both R-modules, $M\otimes_R N$ is ordered pairs $(m,n)\in M\times N$ where we've chucked in the equivalence $(rm,n)=(m,rn)=r(m,n)$
lance
Yep, it's formally M\times N/these equivalences
And then finally coming down to earth for your case, just remember every abelian group is a Z module and you're done
I think I understand
i think you also need (a+b,c) equiv (a,c) + (b,c) and the same in the second coordinate
Oh true that’s not in fact a property of what I said
commutative rings…
Every ring is commutative
R-algebras need not be though
Lmao I find that take amusing
Yee it's just funny cause hm
Cause of AG etc I usually think of A-algebra as being synonymous with a map A -> B but it is funny that what you said also is a kinda common thing
I like group algebras and I wanna include them somehow
You mean group rings

Idk man this take gets posted here a lot
but like
...people already say rings
so
hmm yes let's make a new standard that everyone should follow. this will solve all problems with the old standard, since everyone will simply start using the new one!
I hope you realize how non-serious I am about all this
the xkcd I was thinking about too lol
Notation and conventions are a mess but hey at least it isn't as bad as in music 
Cue the tantacrul vid
This is literally the opposite of the convention I am used to lool
That makes sense I guess?
Kind of
to get the correspondence R-algebras <-> ring homs from R
No wait
I'm used to rings being not necessarily commutative
and algebras being commutative associative unital, associative unital, or (just a bilinear multiplication) depending on context.
This is the correct way (because it’s also what I’m used to)
Commutative algebra is interesting qwq
But yes hur durr I hate interesting math I will never go out of my comfort zone
Stealing this meme though
Stealing this
Lmao
Wdym by this tho lol
Idk like "all rings are commutative" is a fine convention in some contexts but I don't think many would say rings should actually be redefined
We should redefine rings such that the multiplication isn't even associative tbh
Actually lol this is the thing with like
Normed division algebras are (in my experience) not assumed associative
So glad my 2 minutes in my phones markup was worth it
I dont understand the dk maps
also these direct sum of localizations are like within what ambient structure?
is this like the "external" direct sum or something?
so something like Rx1x2 (+) Rx1x3 (+) Rx2x3 is the same as Rx1x2 x Rx1x3 x Rx2x3?
so would elements of that look like (r1/(x1x2)^m1, r2/(x1x3)^m2, r3/(x2x3)^m3)?
if n = 3, im trying to understand what d2: C^2 -> C^3 map would look like
say $n = 3$ and my variables are $x_1 = x, x_2 = y, x_3 = z$. Then we have
[ C^1 = R_x \oplus R_y \oplus R_z \quad\text{and}\quad C^2 = R_{xy} \oplus R_{xz} \oplus R_{yz} ]
as an example, let's just look at the maps $\alpha$ going from $R_x$. the map $\alpha : R_x \to R_{xy}$ is localization at $y$, since ${1} \subset {1, \hat{2}}$
the map $\alpha : R_x \to R_{xz}$ is localization at $z$ since ${1} \subset {1, \hat{3}}$
the map $\alpha : R_x \to R_{yz}$ is the zero map
hold on lemme check this actually
or something like this
anamono
thanks, i havent really seen localization of a localization before so im trying to understand what that would be like
so then when you take the differential you just apply the correct sign change
$R_x$ consists of elements of the form $r/x^n$, so $(R_x)_y$ consists of elements of the form $(r/x^n)/y^m$, where $r/x^n \in R_x$
anamono
another way to say this is that $R_x \cong R[x^{-1}]$ and so $(R_x)_y \cong R[x^{-1}][y^{-1}] = R[x^{-1}, y^{-1}]$
anamono
that's just in this case where we're localizing at elements
the more general case is this (exercise 3.3 of Atiyah-Macdonald)
you can use universal property of localization to prove this
or, if you prefer, chasing the definition of localization
if i were vakil i'd suggest you to do both, especially the one you don't prefer
basically all the map \alpha is doing here is the following:
0. note that when mapping from a component of C^k to C^{k+1}, you're either adding an element to the localization or not
- if you're doing the former, then all this map is doing is localizing at that element
- if you're doing the latter, then your map is zero
so like R_x \to R_{xy} "adds" the element y, so your map \alpha is just localization
but R_x \to R_{yz} doesn't add any element (because x isn't being inverted in R_{yz}) so your map is just zero
direct sum of R-modules (since the localization of an R-module is still an R-module)
Bumping because I still dont understand anything here
Ya so this is just direct product right
Technically theyre not the same
Direct product is the actual product in the category of R-modules, direct sum is the coproduct
In this case are they the same?
They only differ in the infinite case
Coproduct seems to be used more often though?
I suppose a sum is nicer to work with than a tuple
In universal algebra, coproducts behave unpredictably, direct sums are really smt special
u loveee direct sums dont you enpeace 🥰
Yeah forgot about dimension my b
nathaniel boutta drop some heat
Not sure if this is the right forum, as my question is kinda analytic, but: in a functional analysis book I'm studying, they define the notion of a unitary representation, and demand continuity of the representation $\pi$ in the sense that for each vector $v$ in your Hilbert space, the map $g\mapsto \pi_g(v)$ is continuous in $g$. Why is this the ``correct'' notion of continuity to demand? For instance, why not demand that the map $(g, v) \rightarrow \pi_g(v)$ is continuous on $G\times \mathcal{H}$, or that the map $G\rightarrow B(\mathcal{H})$ is continuous with respect to the topology induced by the operator norm on $B(\mathcal{H})$? Is it secretly equivalent to one of these?
Nathaniel Kingsbury-Neuschotz
No, just a possibly stupid question lol
Iirc this says G -> B(H) continuous for the strong operator topology on B(H)
But then you may wonder why one wants that lol
(If I should post in an analysis channel b/c continuity, or a number theory channel b/c unitary representation theory, lmk. I posted here since I think of it as a representation theory question, and I think of representation theory as "more" algebraic than analytic)
I think I saw this in a stackexange post
But also this is like a coarser topology so you should only be able to get more reps
But as you said, why that topology on B(H)? (I have yet to see this topology in said functional analysis book lol)
Ah. So it's like the weakest continuity condition we can impose and get a meaningful theory, kinda?
I think so. Honestly I am not an expert at all but just remembered that fact. Nlab has an example
But yeah it is sort of funny as often one is careful when setting this up stuff so it is "continuous enough" but here you have to weaken that
I think this is such an important example that it is motivating though
Oh! Yeah I think it is! Regular representations can be used to do Fourier like things!
Well also just this is one of the easiest representations I guess aha so if that goes wrong then you have a problem
(But again sorry I cannot be too helpful - I'm sure others can say more)
And it contains loads of irreps (in the case of a finite group G, ALL of the irreps), so it's important
Thank you for saying what you've said!
(I'm now gonna wait and see if e.g. one of the Langlands supergeniuses in the server like Aphelli or nGroupoid decides to say something and blow me away with cool math)
Just jealous we don't get such nice constructions in UA qwq
I guess that's what we get for treading the land of generality
Idk this feels like generality in two different directions
Wdym
I guess it's just like you can have very general things where coproducts make sense that aren't universal algebra
But there will be things in the other way too ig
Coproducts make sense in any category
Sure when they exist ye
I guess, direct and inverse limits exist in any variety but they're not used often
In what I've seen at least
I saw them used in a proof that every algebraic lattice is isomorphic to the congruence lattice of some algebra

Yeah IG maps into infinitely many modules just don't come up that often (except maybe directed inverse limits?).
The obvious notion of continuity is joint continuity as you mentioned. Under your hypotheses, this turns out to be equivalent to the weaker condition given (which is that G → U(H) ⊆ Maps(H → H) is continuous "pointwise", i.e., continuous wrt the product topology on the latter).
I think it would have been more reasonable (or at least pedagogically sound) to at least mention this fact near the definition, but oh well.
There's actually a whole zoo of topologies on B(H) used in functional analysis. IIRC among the most common ones we have weak* ⊆ weak ⊆ strong ⊆ norm (where a ⊆ b means a is coarser than b).
(All I know about this comes from the Wikipedia page though - I'm no expert.)
Huh, I guess that given $\epsilon>0$ and a choice of $g$ and $v$, one can find a $U$ containing $g$ such that for $g'\in U$ one has $g'\cdot v$ within $\epsilon/2$ of $g\cdot v$. Since each individual $g'$ is assumed to induce an isometry of $H$, so long as $v'$ stays in an $\epsilon/2$ ball about $v$ one gets that $g'\cdot v'$ stays within an $\epsilon/2$ neighborhood of $g'\cdot v$, and overall $g'\cdot v'$ stays within $\epsilon$ of $g\cdot v$.
Nathaniel Kingsbury-Neuschotz
(While continuity in each argument isn't typically enough to get joint continuity, the assumption of unitarity gives us a quantitative bound on the continuity in v that's uniform across choices of g!)
Cool!
why is it clear that a discrete valuation ring must be integrally closed?
This is from Milne's book, where he defines:
I believe the given conditions immediately imply that A is a UFD, and it is known that every UFD is integrally closed
Yeah this follows from the fact that it’s a PID
Like, not anything in the (a), (b), (c) portion
okok i see
what is the motivation for calling G an extension of Q by N? In what sense are we extending Q?
We are extending Q in the sense that to each element of Q we add more information (namely, the closet of N in G corresponding to that element)
But it's right that with the projection mapping p : G -> Q, the fibers are the cosets of N
idk i guess this just looked formally similar to, like, $S^1 \to S^3 \to S^2$ for the hopf fibration
Pseudonium
instead it's $N \to G \to Q$
Pseudonium
the fiber is $N$, the total space is $G$, the base space is $Q$
Pseudonium
there is a note about how some people refer to it as extending N by Q. how would you interpret that?
I like that interpretation less
But I guess it's extending "the other way"
why? it feels like it goes in the direction of the arrows at least
that isn't like
Extending stuff is basically always against the direction of the arrows
Unless you're doing a tower of inclusions
is there a term for going with the direction of the arrows?
its not like, retracting?
Like you have two types of extensions: an injection B → E or a surjection E → B
right right
why?
idk enough about fiber bundles to make a meaningful connection, but maybe someday
Maybe belongs in alg-top channel, but one can think of a group extension this way. If the groups are discrete, one can construct a K(G, 1) (this is a space whose fundamental group is G and whose higher homotopy groups are trivial). Similarly, one can construct a K(Q, 1) and a continuous map from the K(G, 1) to the K(Q, 1) which induces the map pi on fundamental groups. After homotoping things to make this a fibration, the long exact sequence of homotopy groups implies that the fiber is a K(N, 1)
@.@
srry i don't know much algtop :(
i wish i had personal pins from each server
The point is that this short exact sequence of groups can be realized as coming from a fibration
Wouldn't it be to K(Q, 1)?
Sorry, yes. Edited to fix
Why I like the second type more?
yea

