#help-49
1 messages · Page 186 of 1
i would most definetly not accept that. for a start, its very disorganized, and units are nowhere to be found
@steep mirage Has your question been resolved?
Idk if I used the right formulas
And yeah idk if I did the math correctly
I cannot write with a mouse for shit, also units are in the end so it's fine.
I'm just wondering if I got the right answers for the question asked
.
its correct
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bro
trig sub
x = a sin theta
yes i did that
nope
1 - sin^2 is smarter
!show
Show your work, and if possible, explain where you are stuck.
I believe that is correct
Gigachad meets math final boss
got sm shitty test tmrw
lowkey cooked asl
prof gon grape me
explain bro
otherwise gotta head to stackexchnge
where those mfs will show attitude
and all
zesty asses
rlly gon ask for a 10 page approach and shi
i aint doing all that bs
they be draggin the simplest shi
fk stackexchange
It seems the intended question is $\int\frac{1}{a^2-x^2}dx$
à뜜
Whose answer is the one in the answer key
A misprint basically (in the question)
In any case,
hmmmmmmmmmmm
wait so this will get the above answer?
$\int\frac{1}{a^2-x^2}dx = \frac1{2}\ln\left|\frac{a+x}{a-x}\right| + C$
$\int\frac1{\sqrt{a^2-x^2}} dx = \sin^{-1}\left(\frac{x}{a}\right) + C$
You're welcome, have a great day
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à뜜
@placid dragon slight correction before you go^
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https://cdn.savemyexams.com/uploads/2023/01/edexcel-as-further-maths-2021-p2-ms.pdf Markscheme is linked, my answers are a PDF, if you could please grade it that would be really appreciated 
If you don't like the PDF I'll just screenshot my answers
Though it will be a bit difficult to read
Hmm cant you just grade it yourself with the markscheme?
Eh
I've done that before but I feel like doing something different
Like sometimes I do things that are non-standard and I want to see how rigorous it is
maybe its best to single those solution out then
also where are the questions?💀
In the PDF
Oh should've made the "problems" blue, i didn't know its a link
so which of the solutions are non-standard?
For me, I want to get a new perspective
I don't necessarily know yet that I have non-standard solutions but I want to see how rigorous it is
u should check the solution guide once to pick out those u r not confident in
Hmm, okay
Thanks
I'll close it
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Hello guys, how do I integrate sin^2x/cosx? I tried to split it by rewriting sin^2x into 1-cos^2x but now I dont know how to integrate 1/cosx
everyone should see this once
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/6695/ways-to-evaluate-int-sec-theta-mathrm-d-theta
I have no clue what is sec
riemann
Thanks 😭🙏🏻
We just dont use that term in our country
yea i've seen sen used for sine
how do we know he’s spanish?
tirikis is spanish for gullible
What 😭
it is
lmao
welcome
20 more diff equations to go
discover trig identities by doing diffy qs
he won’t know that trig identity
@craggy yew Has your question been resolved?
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Part a, im confused how the graph of that curve even looks like that if tje domain is 0<theta<rootpi
Would it not just be like a graph which is rotating about the origin anticlockwise at around root(pi) radians
Whilst the graph above is a graph rotated pi degrees from pole
@woven quarry Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
That is what it is. sqrt(pi) radians is about 101 degrees. When theta is 0, r is 0, and when theta is sqrt(pi), r is also 0. So when the curve comes back to the origin at the end, it's only gone 101 degrees.
You can imagine drawing a tangent line at the end of the curve (when theta is almost sqrt(pi)), and that line would make an angle of 101 degrees with the positive x-axis.
@woven quarry Has your question been resolved?
Yh thanks
I thought it looked 180*
To me
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<@&286206848099549185> can anyone help me with making a multivariate binary logistic regression?
Please don't occupy multiple help channels.
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@lean jay Has your question been resolved?
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guys, can I get some help?
So the abc plan must have the same normal vector as Pi
@tidal turret Has your question been resolved?
can you elaborate
They have to be parralel so they must have the same normal vector
or a scalar multiple, yeah I guess
@tidal turret Has your question been resolved?
@tidal turret Has your question been resolved?
bro may i ping
Could be good if you translated it
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i need help with augmented matrixes and echoleons
you would apply the gaussian elimination algorithm
i have no knowledge on this and don't know how to do that LOL
there are two parts to this:
- know the 3 row operations
- know how to apply the 3 row operations to reduce to echelon form
out of 1 or 2, which one are you unsure about?
from the link above, here are the 3 row operations:
so interchanging rows is fairly self explanatory
for multiplying a row by a constant, you multiply each entry in a row by that constant
for adding a multiple of a row to another row, you add them in corresponding columns
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How would I find all possible ideals in $\mathbb{Q}$?
BOSS
Q is a field...
haha indeed
lmfao ty ty
yw
yea?
I had another question but I didnt want to open a new channel and no one is really respoding lmfao
how exactly do you prove something is an integral domain
Like cancelation laws or do you try and prove axioms
For example something like this:
well first show that it's a commutative ring, that's clear enough here
then i guess you could try to show explicitly that there are no zero divisors
Is that the proper way to go about it? Just explicity show there are no zero devisors?
well in some cases you might be able to use a theorem
for example if you can show that it's isomorhpic to a quotient by a prime ideal
oh hmm
thats likely much more difficult no
in this case probably easiest just to compute directly
show that if the product of two elements is zero then one of the elements has to be zero
sure
I was trying to find all possible homomorphisms from $\mathbb{Z}6 \rightarrow \mathbb{Z}{15}$ and define each kernel + image
BOSS
I just basicly use the idenpotents right
so essencily, let $\phi$ be the homomorphism and let $\phi(1)=a$
BOSS
then $a = \phi(1) \phi (1) = a^2$
do you need me to discribe my thinking there further
BOSS
so you aren't requiring phi(1) = 1 as part of the definition of ring homomorphism?
no, the identity can be anything when finding all possible homomorphisms right
usually phi(1) = 1 is part of the definition but maybe not for some authors
I have the solution to a similar question that i was just following
however there is this generalization:
"rng" is a ring that doesn't necessarily even have an identity
so ok i assume you're talking about the latter type
ok yea they're using the more general version, that's fine
BOSS
all such solutionz in Z_15 are
0,1,6,10
and each homomorphism would be defined like
$\phi(n)=an$
BOSS
cool?
i didn't check all the numbers but 0,1,6 looks right so far
I just put it in desmos ngl
and then yea, phi(n) = an follows because phi is an additive group homomorphism
Ok cool now for the kernals and images right
yea
so for a = 0 then we just have everything goes to 0 or the trivial homomphism
where the kernal is Z_6 and the image is like
0
:D
for 1 we just have everything maps to itsself, kernal is 0 image is Z_6
does 1 actually work?
well what would phi(7) be
yea but you also have phi(7) = phi(1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1) = 7phi(1) = 7
and 1 does not equal 7 in Z15
but here we are using equivilance classes right
yes
hmm
the above calculation would imply
phi([7]) = [7]
phi([7]) = phi([1]) = [1]
the issue is that it doesn't even work as additive groups
I think our only inputs are
0,1,2,3,4,5,6
and everything else just is an equivilance clase of one of those
and behaves the same
because we are technically defining as such:
$\phi([n]) = a[n]$
BOSS
if phi(1) = 1 then the kernel is trivial but then the image has to have order 6
and 6 does not divide 15
no wait wont the image just be
0,1,2,3,4,5,6
those are the only places its being mapped
but that's not a homomorphism then
yea 6phi(1) would just be 6, but it also has to equal phi(6), which is phi(0), which is 0
Ok wait how about i look at it differently
and start with the subgroups of Z_15
and see mappings to them?
So like, <0>,<1>,<3>,<5> are all subgroups of Z_15 right
right
<1> has order 15, so that can't be the image if the "input" has order 6
<3> has order 5, what order would the kernel have to have?
just looking at the additive groups
We can also get possible kernals, so 3Z/15Z is iso to Z/5Z
so has kernal which is the multiples of 5
0, 5
the kernel's order has to be a divisor of 6
you have the 1st isomorphism theorem
yea Z_6 / ker is isomorphic to the image
and Z_6 / ker has to have order 1,2,3 or 6
it can't be 5
wait it wont be
that's one solution, are there others?
which gets us our image
i dont think so
yeah ur right
0,1,6,10
hmm
ok so going back we have to map to multiples of 5
so im thinking its 10
because 20 = 5 mod 15
so a = 0 and a= 5 are our solutions
but we should have 3 im p sure
yea 10 looks like it works
because 10+10 = 20 = 5, and 10+10+10 = 30 = 0
so that has order 3
Yup
hmm well we excluded <1> and <3> right?
and you found that a has to be 0,1,6,10
and 1 and 6 are ruled out because their orders don't work
0 works 10 works
so unless there are other a's that work then that seems to be it
I think it’s a rule that we have gcd(m,n) homomorphisms
i just checked all the other numbers, only 0,1,6,10 satisfy a^2 = a
Because of this
So we are definitely missing 1 somewhere
are you sure about this formula?
i found this on MSE
here, w(n) would be the number of prime divisors of 15, which is 2
It was shown in class not my book so I can’t find a proof about it
so the formula would give 2^(2 - 1) = 2
which ones
a= 1 and a=6
we can't have a = 1 because then the image would be all of Z15
but the image's order has to be a divisor of 6
since Z6 is the input ring
It would be all of z6 right
Oh sorry
Yeah i said a = 1
So for every n in z_6
We get 1n which gives us back z_6 in 15
I think it’s just not a group
well you don't even have a well defined map
phi(0) = 0
but phi(0) = phi(6) = 6
then you would have:
phi(1) = 6
phi(2) = 12
phi(3) = 3
phi(4) = 9
phi(5) = 0
so the image has order 5
Isn’t this the subgroup generated by 3
but just looking at the additive groups, you have Z6/kernel is isomorphic to the image
so Z6/kernel would have order 5
but 5 is not a divisor of 6 so that can't happen
yep
Wait the kernel here is legit only 5
you get the elements of <3> in a scrambled order
well you would also have phi(0) = 0, and phi(10) = 0
but phi(10) = phi(4)
and phi(15) = 0
but phi(15) = phi(9) = phi(3)
Wait wait we are only worried about 0,1,2,3,4,5 here
Its equivalence classes
For input
yea but still, additivity requires these
phi([10]) = phi([2 x 5]) = phi([2][5]) = [2]phi([5]) = [2][0] = [0]
basically the "addition" part of the homomorphism is incompatible with the "multiplication" part
which one
because in Z6, [10] = [4]
and we just calculated phi[10] = [0]
but earlier we found phi[4] = 9
One sec
because it's phi(1+1+1+1) = 6+6+6+6 = 24 = 9 (mod 15)
then you would have:
phi(1) = 6
phi(2) = 12
phi(3) = 3
phi(4) = 9
phi(5) = 0
Cool ok so
That’s good right?
yes
Means phi(4) goes to 9
that's what the additive part tells you
Ok
phi has to send [4] to [9]
Ok
but the multiplicative calculation says phi([4]) = phi([10]) = [0] not [9]
but [4] and [10] are the same element of Z6
phi can't send them to two different outputs
Wait but
[10] is the same as [4] right, like we are just passing in 4
If we passed in 16 its still going to map to the same place 4 does
phi([10]) = phi([2 x 5]) = phi([2][5]) = [2]phi([5]) = [2][0] = [0]
Did u mean phi[2]
Oh
I see
U end up getting 12*0
Which is 0
Hmm
Sorry for taking so long to get there lmao
@nova yoke tysm
im gonna close the channel but all of this was incredibally helpful
yw!
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if i have a point (x,y) and reflect it across y = -x what would the image be? i kinda forgot..
(-y,-x)
just know that the equation y = -x is telling you y coord is -x
and is telling u x = -y
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✅
oh🥀
how much linear algebra do you know
gl
heres the question i was doing btw
'Let f be the reflection across the x axis, g be the reflection across the y axis, h be the reflection across y = x and j be the reflection across y = -x.
Prove that:
j o h = g o f
h o f o h = g"
you could always just draw a sketch and then bruteforce it with a bit of geometry
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Can someone guide me how to solve this prob? Thx🤗
idk if it's the intended way to do it, but it shouldnt be too hard to solve for a, b, c
there is a neat way to do that which has to do with binary btw
Oh I’m not really good at binary btw😅
But how do u come out with binary when u look at the problem?
It's not necessary to know binary, the way i came up with it is first i tried guessing a, b, c without using binary, and then i realized that what im doing in my head is the same thing as converting certain number to binary
Can you in any way try to guess what a, b, c could be?
Here is a small hint which may or may not help:
||Multiply both sides by 64 = 2^6||
@slate berry Has your question been resolved?
😯 I understand now
The point (or the key step) is to turn the fraction into an integer right?
Yeah, that works
In binary, 37 is 100101 btw
Which is 2^5 + 2^2 + 2^0
So thats how binary is related
Wow that’s really smart 😅anyways Thanks for helping
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are those two sides equal?
\[
\sum_{\sigma \in S_N} (-1)^\sigma \prod_{i=1}^{N} v_i^{(\sigma(i)-1)} \cdot v_i^{* (\sigma(i)-1)}
\stackrel{?}{=}
\sum_{\sigma \in S_N} (-1)^\sigma \prod_{i=1}^{N} \sum_{j=1}^{N} v_j^{(i-1)} v_j^{* (\sigma(j)-1)}
\]
tobi
try with N=2
@uneven sandal Has your question been resolved?
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Show if : 0<x;0<y, then 0<x+y
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ooops
yea
ordered field
I'm checking my notes now
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I would like to prove the monotone convergence thoerm
Here's my idea
Let ${a_n}$ be a monotone increasing sequence. As it's bounded, there's a value $M$ such that , $\forall n \in \N, a_n≤M$.
\
We then have , $\forall n\in \N$
\
$a_{n}≤M$
\
$\text{ now here I want to use the defn of a limit, but not sure how to, here's my best bet }$
\
$\forall \varepsilon >0$
$a_n-\varepsilon≤M \implies a_n-M< \varepsilon$
What a wonderful world !
Let ${a_n}$ be a monotone increasing sequence. As it's bounded, there's a value $M$ such that , $\forall n \in \N, a_n≤M$.
\
We then have , $\forall n\in \N$
\
$a_{n}≤M$
\
$\text{ now here I want to use the defn of a limit, but not sure how to, here's my best bet }$
\
$\forall \varepsilon >0$
$a_n-\varepsilon≤M \implies a_n-M< \varepsilon $
\
$\textbf{ does this imply the following? }$
\
$\abs{a_n-M}< \varepsilon$
What a wonderful world !
not sure what to do now
because this doesn't allow me to conclude $\abs{a_n-M}< \varepsilon$
What a wonderful world !
Let ${a_n}$ be a monotone increasing sequence. As it's bounded, there's a value $M$ such that , $\forall n \in \N, a_n≤M$.
\
We then have , $\forall n\in \N$
\
$a_{n}≤M$
\
$\text{ now here I want to use the defn of a limit, but not sure how to, here's my best bet }$
\
$\forall \varepsilon >0$
$a_n-\varepsilon≤M \implies a_n-M< \varepsilon $
\
$\textbf{ does this imply the following? }$
\
$\abs{a_n-M}< \varepsilon$
What a wonderful world !
yeah cause you don't know that M equals the limit lol
it may well not!
I could take M to be the infimum of the set of upper bounds of the seqeunce
or you could make that not so roundabout and say M = sup a_n.
now what
@twilit field Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
now play around with classic supremum properties
in particular, if the a_n do not get close to M, then they would have a smaller supremum
okay, so that tells me that M is the supremum, right
so until now, you said that {a_n} is bounded and denoted by M to be the supremum of the set of elements of this sequence
now what does it mean for M to be the supremum
M is the limit of the seqeunce
yes
alright
so what is the definition of supremum
what does "M is the supremum of A={a_n| n in N}" mean by def
$M$ is said to be the supremum of a set $S$, if $M≥a \forall x \in S$ and $M$ is the smallest such number
thats only half of the def
did you mean to say M>=x?
also is that it ?
or is this the definition of any upper bound
What a wonderful world !
alright, how can you write the second part of your statement in symbols
M is said to be the supremum of a set $S$ if $M≥x \forall x \in S$ and $M≤K. \froall K, st k≥x \forall x \in S$
What a wonderful world !
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alright this is a correct way to write it, but does it give you what you are looking for
you are looking to reach something like the last statement here right ?
|a_n-M|<ε
yes
so try rewriting this by beginning as follows : Given ε>0, M is said to be the supremum of S if ...
I don't recall that defn
so if M is a supremum
I think I'll revise these and get back to this soon
then any real number less than M is not an upper bound
alright as you wish
although i think you are pretty close
Sorry and thanks
no need to be sorry because you didnt do anything wrong xD
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ohhh , yea then go rest for a while
wai doesnt know the word rest
its still not too late to look it up 
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not sure where to start
@true lark Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
look at the numbers written on the board + 1
for example if alice writes
3 and 5 (= (3*3 + 1) /2)
then look at
4 and 6
@true lark Has your question been resolved?
what about them?
that is a nice place to start, try find a formula to generate 6 interms of 4 of to generate the next number +1 in terms of the previous number +1
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Hello
If I wanted to find the Volume for the function cos(x) while rotating it around the y-axis on an interval of 0<=x<=pi
what the hell would that mean
should i split it up
into multiple integrals
Do you actually want to know what a solid of revolution is or are you asking how to do it
i think i know what a solid of revolution is already, like i can do it for sin(x) from 0 to pi
but it just struck me that cos(x) would be strange because one part dips into the negative
idk how that would translate at the end
i can imagine the shape it would make too
cos(x) being rotated around the y-axis with 0<=x<=pi
i want to do this myself but just wondering if my thoughts are correct:
could i solve the problem by
first doing cos(x) from 0<=x<=pi/2 first
get that volume
then cos(x) from pi/2<=x<=pi
but for this part
i would have to find the area for a circle with a hole in it
and the hole would be the area i used with the disk method from the first part i already got
or can i do everything using one integral?
so i do this part first
and then i do the outer circle, but since i already did the inner first, i would subtract the area of the inner circle from the larger outer circle
or have i misunderstood, can i just use area of the whole thing off the get go?
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$\int\frac{1}{4x(\ln(x^2)-1)}dx$
<rajel />
Yeah, that's fine
As I mentioned, just use $\ln(x^2)=2\ln|x|$
;(
So that's what I got
Oh I forgot to change dx with its value
Huh?
simplify by cancelling
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Hi I don't really get part i
The particle is not always travelling in a single straight direction. Instead, its vertical acceleration is -10 because of gravity.
Yea.. but how does that help me get the angle of projection?
It seems like you understand parametric functions, so you need to use:
$$v|_{t = 0} = \left<50 \cos(a), 50 \sin(t) \right>$$
$$a = \left<0, -10 \right>$$
@night hawk
am i on the right track?
Something messed up here
Uhh I don't see it
$$y = -5t^2 - 50 \textcolor{red}{t} \cos(a) + \mathrm{C}$$
@night hawk
🤦♀️ Oh right
I think I get it from here
Thanks!
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was watching a tutorial on how to solve this
steps are kinda messy but I was confused at a point
at the ln(y) + c = kt + c part
he substracts c from both sides as he's trying to isolate the y
so how come on the left side there's no more c but right side the c still remains even though he subtracted from BOTH sides?
c1 and c2 can be different
he subtracted c1 from both sides
and defined a new constant C = c2-c1
what a mess this persons work
LMAO he explains really well though which is nice
takes his time
it still kinda doesn't make sense to me but idk I'm thinking of it like idk y + x = 2x so you subtract x from both sides which leaves y = x
if c2 = 3 and c1 = 1 then c2-c1 = 2
does that look like 0
different subscripts -> different variables
so instead of thinking like
y+x = 2x
think
y+z = 2x
ight bro
but yeah I get it now
thanks for the help
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unsure of how to start
I'm also running into an issue factoring for this problem
damn
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if there is infinite many solutions then most likely the kernel is non empty
A^2x - Ax = 0
yea
A(Ax - x) = 0
maybe (A^2 - A)x = 0 is more helpful?
true dat, im so blind
If there are infinite solutions, the dimension of the kernel is atleast 1
ur good
that is indeed way more helpful
yes, exactly!!!!
aka, det is not zero
or something...
Try re arranging the rows of the matrix so that you can find the rank and nullity of the linear transformation
seems like you have it sorted tho
and then find values of alpha that allow for a nullity of atleast 1
we havent covered linear transformations yet, thoo
Nevermind then
how about REF
its annoying
wait you have det but not linear transform?
det is another choice
theyre both a little annoying
very
yea
ok
how do we know that 
you can compute det(A) and det(A-I) and multiply them?
that is not true
IDK i dont know anything about linear algebra tbh
XD
to me i would do whatever is easy
?
yes
youre good its your channel
I am clueless ngl
We have two cases actually, det A can be zero ( because then diemsnion is mapped to 0)
det A being 0 or not depends on alpha
yea
I'm thinking about this in terms of Linear transformations
sorry
so if det A ≠0, you just want the eigenvector(s)
if det (A) is zero, well, that's much easier
dude there is no need to find the eigenspaces wtf
why not
also, not covered until second midterm
lets just find A^2 - A
Yeah lmao
okay, then do what Jan Niiku says
No need for cases
i mean do whatever you want
im sure what wai is suggesting is probably less steps
what im suggesting is a massive headache
tushar suggested something 
but IDK how much det properties you have access to
wait, this may be wrong

,w {{0,-1,1},{5,k,1},{0,0,k}}^2 - {{0,-1,1},{5,k,1},{0,0,k}}
strange it shows it twice
this is actually kind of nice
this det will be not so bad
yes, idk , maybe wai is right we should find the eigenspaces but we havent covered
?
eigenspaces is kind of wrong, we want vectors that map to 0
my bad
You can solve the det from last row, which has 2 0's which makes it easy
eigenvectors, then, yeah srry
,w determinant {{0,-1,1},{5,k,1},{0,0,k}}^2 - {{0,-1,1},{5,k,1},{0,0,k}}
ok true, I see it now
woo
this is a cubic poly
even better
no
its det(A^2 - A)
oh yeah
so what should we do
but, why depressed
its just fancy words
we mean that k is a factor
its really a quadratic
$-5k^3 + 35k^2 - 30k = k(-5k^2+35k-30)$
we should look for the roots of this?
jan Niku
yea
what does it mean if we find some k for which det(A^2-A) = 0?
- k = 0
- something
by zero product property
well say we have Ax = 0 as an equation were trying to solve
we have infinitely many solutions
we dont care about x=0
yea, infinitely many solutions to (A^2 - A)x = 0, if det(A^2-A)=0
-5k^2 + 35k - 30 = 0
we can use bhaskhara
let me just cheat with wolfram for a sec
,w -5k^2 + 35k - 30 = 0
whats a bhaskhara

is in spanish, srry
oh
oh is that quadratic
sorry im a dumb american
anyways, yea, so youre done i guess 
unless you are still confused about anything
interesting, I didnt know they called it that even outside india
yea that does not look like a spanish word at all
is probably the name of the creator
yea, that was old old indian dude who came up with it
i thought this was from antiquity
well, doing A^2 is it hard by hand?
nah I think its fine
no, it just has the same problem as row reducing
its tedious and error prone
the natural impulse is to skip steps and not write everything out
then you make some small mistake and its just a nightmare sometimes
depends on how careful you can force yourself to be
I usually dont do matrix multiplication just do power of two for all the elements in the matrix, is that right?
for A^2 I mean
wdym?
its not true that to find A^2, you just square each element
its a bunch of dot products
,w {{0,-1,1},{5,k,1},{0,0,k}}^2
omg you are right haha
its a good exercise
I feel so ashamed
or maybe you pick an element or two and verify it
i wouldnt worry too much about it
think freshmans dream is so common it has a name
these are common misconceptions 
wdym?

XD
ok I appreciate the help, I would need to knkw how to do the determinant and matrix multiplication but other than that I think its clear
you should def practice the matrix multiplication
that is crazy smart aswell using det(AB) = det(A).det(B)
yea tushar is really good at math
srry I didnt took the time to read all the approaches
i mostly just fumble through it
is the popular name in argentina I guess, idk how it is in america
Btw for determinants you can follow any rule i.r R - R, R -C, C - C
But for matrices only R C rule is correct
wdym?
Row to row multiplication , column to column multiplication and Row to column multiplication
computing the determinant of A is easy, since swapping the first two rows makes it upper triangular, so you can read off the eigenvalues from the diagonal
the determinant is the product of the eigenvalues
swapping rows affect the det
no?
yes, by a factor of -1
Just multiply by -1
and computing the determinant of A - I is the same, it just adds a -1 to each term in the diagonal
thanks
imma be closing this, thanks
.solved
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So I was helping someone with a problem yesterday, want to make sure I didn't miss any solutions
f(x)= 1+ ax, f(x) is its own inverse
find values of a
What I advised was f(f^{-1}(x)) = x, but f=f^{-1}(0)=1
so f(1)=0
we just need to solve this
but I'm concerned it's missing some solutions
Why would f = f^-1(0) = 1
I meant f(0)=f^{-1}(0)=1
I would’ve just went f² = id
I think I'm missing out on a lot of solns, yea
So 1 + a(1 + ax) = x
,w solve 1+a(1+ax)=x in a
Wolfram Alpha doesn't understand your query!
Perhaps try rephrasing your question?
Click here to refine your query online
yea you don’t need to do this
,w solve 1+a(1+ax)=x for a
Now you see that your choice of x has fucked up the solutions
yea, got it
Because perhaps it wasn’t in the image to begin with
An assumption that you made without realising it
It’s good you noticed that you might have lost solutions though
Also the other one clearly only works when the domain has but 1 x value
tbf (x-1)/x isn't really a "valid" solution as it isn't true for all x
But I mean, could be the case
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{1,-1,i,-i} is not klien four group
Because they are not satisfying i×i=-1 and identity is 1
is there a question here?
The reasoning is spotty. Why should I care that i×i = -1? What does the identity have to do with this?
If you don't necessarily care about the reasoning, then yes you are correct that that's not the klien four group
(it's spelled klein)
Dang it
as soon as you observe that $i^2 \neq 1$, you know it's not isomorphic to the klein group (why?)
Bungo
I meant klein group has each element should be self inverse
And it is not satisfying
@nova yoke
which group? you can be more specific
@molten bay Has your question been resolved?
I only say this
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what does the notation P(L\P) mean
for context im finding the probability someone bought only a lottery ticket. i assume it means L not P?
L without P
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to find the modal class of outcomes of a binomial series of events, my teacher told us to find the expected value and see the highest probability around it.
would it be incorrect to instead do (n+1)p and round down? thus far all of them have been correct when i did it like this but it's not in my notes
tbnd
waterrbeam
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uhh
hmm
this is just optimization right
wdym optimization
@astral talon Has your question been resolved?
@astral talon Has your question been resolved?
lemme play around w that
ok so messing around w it on desmos reveals that your formula does look correct
im thinking that this can be proved by establishing that for fixed n, two adjacent probability masses are equal iff p = k/(n+1)
ts bozo needs help now
bro got helper role by asking for help

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in which case might the other equations of the plane come useful? because my course only teach Ax+Bx+Cy+D = 0 like the cartesian one, but In google I am seeing that also theres available point normal, intercept and vector form, is it a matter of how the exercise is designed? or I dont get it
yes
