#help please
27 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)
when i differentiate 1 it just goes to nothing
so how does that work
yeah thats fine
oh ok
ok let me try 1s
i ended up with 1 + cosx + sinx / (1 + cosx)^2
quotient rule probably works but chain rule would be quicker no?
so f(x) = u^-1 and u(x) = (1 + cosx)
you just got rid of the -sinx
derivative of cosx is -sinx not 1
equally fast really
fair enough
since you can see that the top is 1 then it you can just ignore half of the top in a way
since yk itll go to 0
ohhh yeah theres a minus on the top