#binomial distribution

31 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)

dusky pond
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can someone please explain how u turn P(X=0) into 0.8^n

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<@&791435371564892232>

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I get how u do 0.05 > P(X=0)

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from there onwards im lost

plain iris
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p(x<=0) is the same as p(x=0)

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so its 1-p(x=0)

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and that has to be greater than 0.95

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so 1-p(x=0)>0.95

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now u can simplify it by subtracting one so its p(x=0)<0.05

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now its a binomial distribution

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so we can use the formula

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nCr p^r (1-p)^n-r

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nC0 =1

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p^0 = 1

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1-p = 0.8

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0.8^n-0 is the same as

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0.8^n

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so

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0.8^n<0.05

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and then i think u know whats going on with the logs

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@dusky pond

dusky pond
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this I already knew

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but using a binomial distribution is brazy

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i've never seen that in my life

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is this normal single edexcel maths?

plain iris
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icl im not sure

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it should be

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coz i think its in the formula booklet