#Trigonometry proof question
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You can't use induction on the real numbers.
And this identity is meant to hold for all real (or possibly even complex) values of theta.
I learnt induction two days ago I was just getting a bit desperate for a solution to be honest
Wait, why are they teaching you induction two days before trigonometry?
I do further maths and maths (different subjects in the uk), so I learn different things at the same time
That kind of feels like something they shouldn't let you do because it'd be confusing? Like, it feels like maths should be a prereq of further maths.
Either way.
The first step in proving any trig identity, I find, is generally converting it into purely sine and cosine.
I did convert the tanx into sinx/cosx, but I couldn't find any progression further than that
Well, I feel like there's an obvious next step after that, right?
Like, show the work you've done so far.
Sin^2x=1-cos^2x
Already being helped.
I'll write the working I've done so far
so I've taken sin^2(x)/(cosx+cos^2(x)) from the sinx/cosx identity
I'm just uncertain where to go from here
Do you recall the Pythagorean identity?
Yes
You should always be thinking about that whenever you see sine or cosine is squared.
so take the numerator as 1-cos^2(x)?
Could we take it as difference of squares
Yes.
No problem.
In general, when you're proving an identity.
The goal is to transform one side into the other side.
But you can work from both ends.
Oh right I see
Like, you can begin by assuming that the equation is true, not to prove it circularly, but to explore its implications to find a path to proving it.
I noticed 1/cos(x) - 1 = (1 - cos(x))/cos(x), and that if we cross-multiply with tan(x)sin(x)/(1 + cos(x)), that we'd get the standard Pythagorean identity sin^2(x) = 1 - cos^2(x).
I see
I wouldn't have thought of that approach I appreciate seeing how you think of it
And that of course doesn't prove the identity, but it shows that the way to prove it might involve the Pythagorean identity and the difference of squares.
Oh right
Though I guess technically all the algebra we did from tan(x)sin(x)/(1 + cos(x)) = 1/cos(x) - 1 to sin^2(x) = 1 - cos^2(x) is reversible.
I can see that yeah
Is there any way I can give you any praise or do I just need to close this?
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