#Help me understand the proof (PnC)
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Theorem: The total number of ways of dividing n identical items among r persons, each one of whom, can receive $0,1,2,$ or more itmes ($ \textless n$) is ${n+r-1}\choose{r-1}$
Proof:
Consider "r" brackets corresponding to "r" persons. In each bracket, taka an expression given by $x^0 + x^2+x^3+....+x^n$.Here, the various powers of $x$ viz; 0,1,2,....n correspond to the number of items each person can have in the distribution.
Since the total number of items is n. So, the required number of ways is the coefficient of $xn$ in the product
$$(x^0 + x^2+x^3+....+x^n)(x^0 + x^2+x^3+....+x^n).....(x^0 + x^2+x^3+....+x^n)$$ (total "r" brackets)
thus, the required number of ways;
=$$\text{Coefficient of} x^n (x^0 + x^2+x^3+....+x^n)^r$$
=$$\text{Coefficient of} x^n \text{in} \left(\frac{1-x^{n+1}}{1-x}\right)^r$$
=$$\text{Coefficient of} x^n \text{in} (1-x^{n+1})^r(1-x)^-r$$
=$$\text{Coefficient of} x^n \text{in} (1-x)^-r$$
=$$\frac{(r+1)(r+2)...(r+n-1)}{1\cdot2\cdot3.....r}$$
=$${n+r-1}\choose{r-1}$$
Satyam
This is a... very dumb proof.
Actually, you probably shouldn't try to reproduce a proof you don't understand. Maybe take a picture of it instead.
I would call it a "dumb proof" if i've known a "genius proof".
Nah, This proof is mentioned in book.
...so then take a picture of it.
yes...
So do you, like, understand polynomial expansion?
I'm familiar with expansion of binomials and multinomials.
Okay, the thing to understand is that it's basically just distribution.
$(x^0 + x^1 + x^2 + x^3 + ... + x^n)(x^0 + x^1 + ... + x^n)(x^0 + x^1 + ... + x^n)... = x^0(x^0 + x^1 + ... + x^n)(x^0 + x^1 + ... + x^n)... + x^1(x^0 + x^1 + ... + x^n)... + ... + x^n(x^0 + x^1 + ... + x^n)...$
Techie Literate
so, did you just multiply the each brackets? or more specifically you just open the brackets?
Maybe this will be clearer.
$(x^0 + x^1 + ... + x^n)^r = x^0 (x^0 + x^1 + ... + x^n)^{r - 1} + x^1(x^0 + x^1 + ... + x^n)^{r - 1} + ... + x^n(x^0 + x^1 + ... + x^n)^{r - 1}$
Techie Literate
ok...what's next?
Okay, so.
The first thing to establish is that the coefficient of x^n is in fact the number we're after.
So let's think about where these coefficients and powers of x come from.
yes
Where in this polynomial do we get x^0?
last term.
What do you mean, "last term"?
Polynomial is of form $a_nx^n+a_{n-1}x^{n-1}+a_{n-2}x^{n-2}.....a_0x^{0}$ , since you asked "where in the polynomial do we get $x^0$" , it's last term, maybe i interpreted your question differently..
Satyam
How do we get an x^0 term?
p(0), where p(x) is any polynomial?
Okay, it's midnight here, so I can't help you anymore unfortunately.
okay.
Search up "generating functions".
This seems more like a proof designed to introduce students to the concept of a generating function by using one to prove a result they already know, and even in that light it's not great, but as a proof of this result it's completely unmotivated. I have a better one, it's called stars and bars.
I think I have the same one I call it coins and sticks 🤷♂️
@austere verge Sure, maybe i know that proof as well,
Can you share it here?
How does it help?
ok..
you can add a 1 stick anywhere so left side would be 1 part and right would be other
if you put the stick on edge then one of the parts can become zero
oh yeah.
so if want to divide in r parts what do you do?
Maybe, we can put the stick in ${n+1}\choose{1}$ ways?
Satyam
lets take a simple example
you want to divide in 3parts
you can add 2 sticks
right part middle part and left part
yeah..
so what if you want to divide in r parts
For "r" parts, we take (r-1) sticks?
yes
nice
so now we have n alike coins and r-1 alike sticks how many ways can we arrange them?
$\frac{n!}{n!}\cdot(r-1)!$ maybe?
Satyam
wait, mb it's $\frac{(n+r-1)!}{n!(r-1)!}$
close but sticks should be alike as well otherwise we will overcount cases
yeah
youd have to divde with (r-1)! as well
Satyam
But how does this proof explains the original theorem?
This..
I said i had a better proof not related
theorem "
well you have n alike objects to divide in r ways
in case of 2 right side one divison and left side one divison
in case of 3 you have 2 sticks so three parts
and they can have zero if stick is at edge
we've to distribute n identical items among r persons, each can recieve any number of items.
yeah thats what we did
Got it..
we needed n objects divided into r parts
Yeah, i understood now, thanks bhai.
sure?
yeah, it's really good and easy to understand proof, idk what was mentioned in the "RD sharma" -_-
yeah those books
only usew for questions
Thanks man a lot
np
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