#Confusion of derivation of radius of curvature
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I'm confused by the question. The angle is delta phi because we have to call it something.
The length of a circular arc with radius r and angle θ is L = rθ.
I assume this is an arbitrary curve in this case. In that case we should have L = rθ + o(θ), θ -> 0, so dL/dθ = r.
I don’t see how delta phi in the circle is related to angle between the two different tangent vectors
Because the tangent is perpendicular to the radius.
Where did u get the higher order terms from L from mathematically ? Is it an expansion
Yep I get that but don’t see how I would use that fact
...because then if the angles of the radii differ by delta phi, then so do the angles of the tangents to those radii.
As depicted in the diagram.
Also, that Greek letter is actually psi.
Hmm I still can’t see this inutively. How would I prove this mathematically
...it's basic circle geometry.
You have two radii of a circle whose angles differ by some amount. Call the angle of the first radius psi and the angle of the second psi + delta psi.
Now observe the tangent of the first radius. What angle does it have? Well, it's perpendicular to the radius, therefore its angle is psi + pi/2.
The tangent to the second radius is perpendicular to it, therefore its angle is psi + delta psi + pi/2.
Hence the tangents also differ by delta psi.
@noble cove Get it now?
Yes I get it thanks
Could u also explain the series approximation
Series approximation?
What series approximation?
Of delta s . I don’t get where the higher order terms come from
To be honest, I don't either.
That's because we have an arbitrary curve, not a circle.
Yes, but how do we know that the variance from a true circle is on the order of delta psi squared?
Well, to be fair, (Δψ)^n = O((Δψ)^2) for any n > 2, too.
So, could be cubed or whatever.
But I do have a problem with that.
It could technically, maybe, be of the order (Δψ)^n where 1 < n < 2.
So, I'm rather proposing to write it as o(Δψ).
So, a term that goes to zero more quickly than just const*Δψ. Doesn't matter if (Δψ)^2, (Δψ)^1.0001 or whatever.
I don't really see why the error should have any particular relation to delta psi at all.
Well, you can think of it as a polar function and expressing its Taylor series, I guess? Maybe...
Maybe not. To be honest, I don't quite remember the process here.
@noble cove
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