#integral
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If a function is always negative, its antiderivative will always be decreasing.
but doesnt the graph imply that the area under the curve in the negative side is positive?
No.
Recall that the area is found using the fundamental theorem of calculus - as the difference of values of the antiderivative.
And since the antiderivative is decreasing, then for x2 > x1 we have F(x2) - F(x1) < 0.
i understand that the rules end up with this , but the way from where i can't fully understand is using the definition of integrals , if they are the area under a curve then why going from right to left here change the sign of the area while the main function is a constent
The antiderivative by itself isn't an area of anything.
The area is found as the difference of values of an antiderivative.
By itself, the antiderivative F(x) of a function f(x) is just such a function that F'(x) = f(x).
thanks
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