#Why is this set an Ideal
30 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)
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Well, every a_i is a subset of a_(i + 1), so I is just, well, a_infinity, as it were.
But why is this an ideal?
...because every a_i is an ideal, and I just equals one of those.
Doesn't it equal to a_1?
Not necessarily.
Why is it equal to one of those?
Hold on.
Because. Again. a_i is a subset of a_(i + 1), which means their union is just a_(i + 1).
Right... But it is an infinite union
Do you agree that every finite union across a_i is equivalent to one such a?
Yes
You also have the condition with the k and l there.
That is what we are trying to prove though?
Ah. So then the hypothesis is just the part about the ascending chain of ideals.
Yes... otherwise it is trivial
Is it possible for I to not be an ideal?
The reason I posted this question, is because I cannot see why it should be (i.e. I have already tried to see what happens if it isn't)
Have you gone through checking the 3 requirements for a set to be an ideal?
How is it $I$ an additive subgroup?
Addict
If $f,g\in I$ then $f\in (a_i)$ and $g\in (a_j)$ for indices $i,j$
Omegabet_
if $i=j$, trivial.
so, WLOG, assuming $j>i$.
By the chain condition, $f\in (a_i)\subseteq (a_j)$, so both $f$ and $g$ are in $(a_j)$, hence $f+g\in (a_j)\subseteq I$
Omegabet_
Actually yeh, I was unclear of the definitions of ideals, the authors assumes the knowledge. Next time I will make sure I understand everything
That'd....... be useful.
@long gate
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