#General Formula for all arithmetic operations
5678 messages · Page 6 of 6 (latest)
With this we could have gotten all numbers for function L
Yeah, I guess
I mean
We still have $log^s_a(x) = \frac{\ln(L_a(x))}{\ln(L_a(a))}$
RoyalBanana
Ye
RoyalBanana
so
Ye sure
$\log^s_a(x) = \frac{\log_a(L_a(x))}{\log_a(L_a(a))}$
RoyalBanana
The base for log can be any number
ye
Hmm
ln(5) - ln(6) = ln(5/6), so what if La(5) / La(6) = La(…..)
RoyalBanana
that would be a different L but ok
I assume La(log_6(5)) bc that's the next step up after division
I just used this idea to convert division into log
that would mean contradictions
Wdym convert lol
Like ln(5) -ln(6) is ln(5/6)
$f(x)/f(y)=f(log_y(x))$?
Subtraction into division
RoyalBanana
Hmm
if you set y=x, you can see f(1)=1
Ah
if you set x to y^x and rearrange the terms
yeah
Because commutative
Not*
technically correct lol
Yeah
@royal river Look at this
okay?
Read it and send your thoughts
it is weird?
Wouldn‘t that be possible with bases?
And that would mean it‘s equal to L(x)
So that should maybe work?
?
La(x)/La(a) = La(loga(x))
La(a^x)/La(a) = La(loga(a^x))
La(a^x)/La(a) = La(x)
La(a^x)= La(x) * La(a)
And that is just this
So La(logx(a^x)) = La(a)
Not sure about that
Maybe I did something wrong
What if L2(2^0) ? As we know this is equal to L2(1) so it‘s 1. that means L2(2) * L2(0) = 1, so L2(0) = 1/L2(2), so L2(0) = L2(2)^(-1)
And I don’t See what this should only hold for 2, so La(0) = La(a)^(-1)
And if I would plug in 1 for a: L1(0) = L1(1)^(-1). We know La(1) and L1(a) = 1, so: L1(0) = 1^(-1), and that means L1(0) = 1
Oh
Right
This just proves that L1(a) = 1
Oh yeah I already found that mb I forgot to say
Nice
so $L_a({}^xa)=L_a(0)^{-x}$
and $L_a(a^x)=\frac{L_a(x)}{L_a(0)}$
Coffey 2.0
interesting
Ohh, cool
hmm plugging in $a=0$ to the second formula
$x>0: L_0(0)=\frac{L_0(x)}{L_0(0)}$
$x=0: L_0(1)=\frac{L_0(0)}{L_0(0)}$
Coffey 2.0
ofc L_a(1)=1 for any a soo L_0(1)=1
Yep
$x>0: L_0(0)^2=L_0(x)$
$x=0: 1=\frac{L_0(0)}{L_0(0)}$
Coffey 2.0
Interesting so for $x>0: L_0(x)=L_0(0)^2$
Coffey 2.0
Wait, where did you get that from?
important to note you can't plug in x<0 if a=0 because that would lead to 0^(negative something)=1/0^positive something=1/0
Ah okayy, i see
Plugging in a=0 and x>0 into $L_a(a^x)=\frac{L_a(x)}{L_a(0)}$
Coffey 2.0
(0^x is 0 for x>0)
Yeah right
So for x>0, $L_0(0)=\frac{L_0(x)}{L_0(0)}$
Coffey 2.0
So I just multiplied both sides by $L_0(0)$ to get $x>0: L_0(x)=L_0(0)^2$
Coffey 2.0
No it just means L_0(x) is constant for x>0
yes
No, it just means the inverse doesn't exist
it's like.. $f_a(b)=ab$
Coffey 2.0
$f_0(b)=0$ it doesn't have an inverse
Coffey 2.0
Wouldn‘t that just mean it‘s commutative? So fa(b) = fb(a) ?
well im a bit late but i love you experimenting with things like that, sorry i didnt real all the messages just like 60 or smth, but do u have any conclusion @jovial rock @azure crane or any progress made? I would love to document it and maybe analyse this further myself it thats okay for yall, we could also collaborate if your still interested
$Fiboboost(6) = 12334445555566666666$
Silverstonely
one 1, one 2, two 3, three 4, five 5, eight 6, thirteen 7s
its fibonacci concatenation timing basically
idk how to use this bot so srry if its wrong
The formula for this is complicated but it works
Nice fr?
$\text{Fiboboost}(x)=\frac{x!}{9^x}\prod_{n=1}^{x}(10^{(\frac{ ({\frac{1+\sqrt{5}}{2}})^n-({\frac{1-\sqrt{5}}{2}})^n}{\sqrt{5}})}-1)$
Coffey 2.0
oh cool, golden ratio
yeah it comes up in the formula for the Fibonacci numbers
niceee, ye I saw that somewhere on yt I think
hmm, it's quite fast.
sadly only for integers
I was wondering if it is possible to create a function which grows like tetration and accepts non integers
Not sure but I think we created many formulas for super logarithmus and tetration but I think the biggest problem is extending it to the reals. I'm open to collaborate, I'm still working on it sometimes in my free time and struggeling with it a bit, but I think I'm making very little progress on it
So I saw this approximation off e^^0.5 and I was very fascinated about it, even though it's pretty basic and I just don't know a lot of math. So what happens with tetration, you apply exponentiation function multiple times, for example exp(exp(exp(x))) = e^e^e^x. What we can do is make a notation like expk(1), which is equal to e^^k. and if we do exp(exp(x)), we get exp2(x). So that mean exp0.5(exp0.5(x)) = e^x. So if we find exp0.5(x). What we need to do is to find f(x) if f(f(x)) = e^x. e^x = 1 + x + x^2/2! + x^3/3 + ... because of the taylor series. now you could just say let f(x) be a + bx + cx^2, and f(f(x)) = a + b * (a + bx + cx^2) + c* (a + bx + cx^2)^2 because we are going to take the first 3 parameters of the e^x taylorseries. We through the bigger things like x^3 and x^4 away so we get: 1 + x + x^2/2! = a + ab + ac^2 + x(b^2 + 2abc) + x^2(bc + 2ac^2 + b^2c). Now we take the parameters and equal them to the parameters in the taylor polynomial: a + ab + ac^2 = 1, b^2 + 2abc = 1, bc + 2ac^2 + b^2c = 1/2. If we solve each of them we get a ≈ 0.4979, b ≈ 0.8781, c ≈ 0.2618 and then we input the parameters for f(x) and we get: f(x) = 0.4979 + 0.8781x + 0.2618x^2 which gives us if we input 1 for f(x): 1.6378. this is an approximation of e^^0.5. It's not very good but it works. And it works even better if we let f(x) be an even bigger polynomial so we have more parameters from the taylor series polynomial. I was wondering if this can be extended to an infinite sum or something to get a percise solution to non integer tetration hights
I heard this is something like a functional squareroot
I tried to approximate it with even more polynomials and these are my solutions:
1.6463542337511945810
This is the approximation of the tetration calculator and I think it's pretty percise to my first digits
If there would just be a general formula...
I'm wondering if there is something like a taylor series which lets you compute all the parameters, so you can find the nth parameter and then have something like a1 + a2x + a3x + a4x+...
This reminds me of the form from e = 1/0! + 1/1! + 1/2! + 1/3! + ...
whoa, e^^-0.5 and e^^-1.5
ln(−0.69609) = −0.3629+i3.1416
so thats e^^-2.5
that means that when the height of e^^x is -2 or all the other smaller integers the result is undefined but not for non integers, like in the gamma function. And btw all numbers between e^^-3 to e^^-2 have something with + pi * i
and thats the whole domain of e^^x, when x is a negative number
I think thats very cool because e^^x has such big domain in the negative values
And I guess this calculator isn't capaple of taking the log of negative numbers, but still has a complex number input...
So my challenge now is to find this infinite sum which equals to e^^0.5. No Idea how I should do that
So I was messing with this stuff a bit and it's pretty hard to find it out. You would need to find out all the infinite parameters to that infinite equation system and then add them all together, only to get tetration to the height of 0.5
there must be a general formula for this, but I can't find it
But I definetely made progress
If I want to, I could find out e^^(1/3), this would just be solve for f(x), when f(f(f(x))) = e^x
Maybe there could be some deeper connection with the super log
not sure
I think I'll stop for now. Still couln't find a formula which could find the exact value of f(1). I made some progress and extended the tetration to values below -2. technically I could find tetration to the reals now, the approximation would just be not very percise. A general Formula could help a lot and I wouldn't need to solve these annoying equation systems.
There probably would need to be a new notation for some function stuff to construct such tetration like functions
Btw Sum(infinity, n=1)((e^^x)^n/n!) = e^^(x+1)
I thought this is cool how an infinite sum of negative infinities is equal to 0 and an infinite sum of zeros ist equal to 1
Btw
nvm, It's completly wrong
I thought that if f(f(x)) = e^x, that f(x) = (e^^0.5)^x what is not right
Yesss
I finally found the Definition of f(f(x)) = e^x. It‘s f(x) = e^^(lns(x) + 0.5)
It‘s still a Bit hard, but with an 5. parameter polynomial approximation it works very well
Now I just need to find the Taylor Series for that one
So if T(x) = e^T(x-1), If we want to take the derivative we get: T'(x) = T(x) * T'(x-1). T'(x) = T(x) * T(x-1) * T'(x-2). T'(x+1) = T(x+1) * T'(x) --> T'(x) = T'(x+1)/T(x+1). T'(x) = T'(x+2)/T(x+2))/T(x+1) --> T'(x) = T'(x+2)/T(x+2))/T(x+1) --> T'(x) = T'(x+2)/(T(x+1)*T(x+2)) ,
T'(x) = T'(x+3)/(T(x+1) * T(x+2) * T(x+3), T'(x) = T(x+n)/Product(n,k=1)(T(x+k))
f^-1(x) = e^^(lns(x) - 0.5)
f^-1(f^-1(x)) = ln(x) = e^^(lns(x)-1)
I found this and I think this is really cool. There is even the super log Graph: https://www.desmos.com/calculator/wkjkhlzrm3?lang=de
Btw, slogb(a^x) = slogb(b^(logb(a) * x)) = slogb(logb(a) * x) + 1
Oh my god I can't even scroll to the top to see anything
5164 messages 🔥
Are we still chatting here?
Yes
some stuff:
fa(x) = tet(slog(x)+a) -> fa(e^^x) = e^^(a+x)
fa(x) = tet(slog(fb(x))+a-b)
fa(x)+fb(y) = f-1(fa+1(x) * fb+1(y))
fa(x)-fb(y) = f-1(fa+1(x)/fb+1(y))
fa(x) * fb(y) = f1(fa-1(x)+fb-1(y))
fa(x)/fb(y) = f1(fa-1(x)-fb-1(y))
fa(x)^fb(y) = f1(fa-1(x) * fb(y))
log_fb(y)(fa(x)) = fa-1(x)/fb-1(x) = f1(fa-2(x)-fb-2(y)
fb(y) th root of fa(x) = f1(fa-1(x)/fb(y))
a = slog(fa(x)) -slog(x)
slog(x) = slog(fa(x)) - a
slog(x * y) = slog(ln(x)+ln(y)) + 1
slog(x/y) = slog(ln(x)-ln(y))+1
slog(y^x) = slog(ln(y) * x) + 1
slog(log_y(x)) = slog(f-2(x)-f-2(y)) + 1
slog(y th root of x) = slog(ln(x)/y)+1
Btw f1(x) = exp(x) and f-1(x) = ln(x)
fa(fb(x)) = fa+b(x)
And btw: d/dx(fa(x)) = Product(a,k=1,fk(x)) this is very similar to faktorial because for negative a it‘s d/dx(f-a(x)) = Product(a,k=0, f-k(x)^-1)
If we could find out How to Connect this to the gammafunction we could take the darivative of for example f-0.5(x) which should be something with the squareroot of pi
what's tet(x) and fa(x)?
tet = tetration (I assume)
you guys may find this interesting
thats my paper with the title "Holomorphic Extension of Tetration to Complex Bases and Heights via Schröder's Equation"
@jovial rock
Ye tet ist tetration. It‘s e^^x, and da ist just f the base a. f_a(x) is as I defined: tet(slog(x)+a) here the base a is the a variable. And it‘s f1(x) = e^x, f2(x) = e^e^x, f-1(x) = ln(x), f-2(x) = ln(ln(x))
RoyalBanana
Yes
I wanted to use a general thing for iterated ln and iterated e
So it‘s a bit easier
And f0(x) = x
Quite cool
Yeah I saw that e^^infinity is equal to the fixpoint of x=e^x and e^^-infinity is the same but with a negative imaginary Part
I Wonder if it would be possible to build a efficient tetration calculator using this
this guy has one
but only for some bases, its pretty efficient too, he wrote a paper about approximating it
Yeah I know that one, it has some bases but not a lot. And it doesn‘t work for e^^-2.5 or just values below -2
It says it is on a branch cut or something but it‘s just ln(e^^-1.5), so ln(-0.69602474) = -0.36237 + pi*i
I think it is a very good one but there are things that can be improved
yeah
Question: what if we analyze (-1)^^x ? It‘s kinda weird because (-1)^^-1 = 0, (-1)^^0 = 1, (-1)^^1 = -1, (-1)^^2 = -1, (-1)^^3 = -1. so after 1 the solution is always -1. my question is if there could be some periodic function like sin or cos that could exactly match (-1)^^x
How did you get -1^^-1 = 0 ?
log_-1(1) = 0
(-1)^x = 1, x = 0
ah, makes sense
Soo, after analyzing tetration with base -1 I saw that it’s a bit more complicated.
If we take f_a(x) = tet(slog(x) + a) where tet and slog are base -1 we see that for all integer a equal or bigger than 1 we get a periodic function. For example (-1)^(-1)^x is just f(x) = f(x+2) and this is for all (-1)^(-1)^…^(-1)^x.
Btw with my definition of f_a(x) = tet(slog(x) + a), a shows how many times you apply the exponential function b^x and x is just the number on top of the tower. So with b=-1, f2(x) = (-1)^(-1)^x.
So we see at f0(x) we just have x, which doesn’t have a periodic thing. And at f-1(x) we get ln(x)/(i*pi). my question is if the periodic holds for just the positive integer or even the positive reals.
Btw I just tried solving (-1)^x using the f(f(x)) = (-1)^x, polynom method but it didn’t work somehow. There was no solution for the coefficients so I guess I can’t really find a way to calculate non integer values for (-1)^^x, which is a bit frustrating
Btw (-1)^^x is multi valued i think because let’s say we find (-1)^^0.5. That means we can find (-1)^^1.5, because (-1)^((-1)^^0.5). And using this we can find (-1)^^2.5. But if we solve (-1)^^2 we get -1 and this is the same as (-1)^^1. So (-1)^(-1) = (-1) so that means f0.5((-1)^(-1)) = f0.5((-1)). So (-1)^^1.5 = (-1)^^2.5 ? The only way I could make sense out of this is that for real heights there are infinite solutions because (-1)^^1.5 should have all the solutions of (-1)^^(n+0.5)
Where n is an integer
My latest submission on arxiv finds a substitution that introduces a family of functions analogous to the W lambert, that solves any equation of form x^^n =a, so im glad you are discussing this topic
I fucking love tetration
“From: Ramdejin tetration” will prove it💀
nicee, yeah tetration is really cool. There is still a lot to explore
btw 3 identities I thoguht I need to note down:
tet(a+b) = fa(tet(b)) = fb(tet(a))
tet(a-b) = f-b(tet(a))
log_y(x) = tet(slog(f-2(x)-f-2(y)) + 1)
thats really interesting do you maybe have a link?
I’ll share the arxiv link if it gets approved lol
But explain what tet(a+b) is
@jovial rock If u use tet() u need a delimiter like “,”because it takes 2 arguments, so tet(a,b) = a^^b or a^(a^(a…..^(a)))…))) b times, so tet(a+b) makes no sense tbh
ah, yeah most of the time I just use e as the base for b^^x, so tet(a+b) = e^^(a+b)
but any base works
ah cool
What is the RHS here? fatet(b)? This is really bad notation and probably incorrect too
Sorry. So fa(x) is repeated exponentiation with x on top of the tower. fa(x) = tet(slog(x) + a). This just means e^e^e^...^e^x with the exp function repated a times. tet is tetration, fa(tet(b)) = fa(x) = tet(slog(tet(b)) + a). slog and tet cancel and it gets tet(a+b) or e^^(a+b). If you ask me why I used this f, it's just for the name function, I just used a small name to make more compact notations, maybe not very good ones but it is something.
I can prove log_y(x) = tet(slog(f-2(x)-f-2(y)) + 1) if you want:
take the ln on both sides
ln(log_y(x)) = ln(tet(slog(f-2(x)-f-2(y)) + 1)), ln is the same as f-1(x), because the inverse of this iterated function fa(x) ist just f-a(x).
ln(log_y(x)) = f-1(tet(slog(f-2(x)-f-2(y)) + 1)), this simplifies to:
ln(log_y(x)) = tet(slog(f-2(x)-f-2(y))), here tet and slog cancel:
ln(log_y(x)) = f-2(x)-f-2(y), f-2 is just ln(ln(x)) so this gets:
ln(log_y(x)) = ln(ln(x))-ln(ln(y))
Now this is easy to prove using:
ln(ln(x)/ln(y)) = ln(ln(x))-ln(ln(y))
It is not incorret, I thought it thought a lot, I mean it should not be incorret, but if you have any questions about this stuff feel free to ask. I'm not very good with notation and stuff😅
btw what means RHS ?
Right hand side
thx
No idea if this is useful but maybe try to derive something like slog(x) * y
so slog(x) * 2 = slog(x) + slog(x). We can rewrite this as slog(fslog(x)). I'm using [...] here to show a in fa(x). slog(x) * 3 should be slog(f[slog(x) * 2]). So slog(x) * y should be slog(fslog(x) * (y-1)). Using this we can also get slog(x)^2 = slog(x) * slog(x) = slog(fslog(x) * (slog(x)-1)). Now we can say e^^(slog(x)^2) = fslog(x) * (slog(x)-1)
This notation is bad like i have been saying, use ^^ for tetration thats about it. If u want to do e^^(a+b), write e^^(a+b) dont define your own nonstandard functions and then compound them, making them readably obsolete and redundant
yeah I've been using ^^ here, I just don't know what to use for fa(x)
fa(x) = e^^(slog(x) + a)
what should I do here then?
I could use expn but yeah
not sure if it's much better
Describe fa(x)
Again
Because e^^(slog(x)+a) makes little sense, its not reducible further
soo, we have fa. a is a variable or a base, I don't know how you call it. What it does is that it shows you the amout of times you take the function exp of x. f1(x) = exp(x), f2(x) = exp(exp(x)). f3(x) = exp(exp(exp(x))), I think you get it. The propeties of slog are that slog(e^x) = slog(x) + 1. so slog(e^e^x) = slog(x) + 2. Now if we input our funcrion fa(x) into slog(x) we get slog(fa(x)) and this can be reduced to slog(e^fa-1(x)) = slog(fa-1(x)) + 1, you can continue shifting this: slog(fa-2(x)) + 2, slog(fa-3(x)) + 3 until you get slog(a-a(x)) + a. fa-a(x) = f0(x) and f0(x) is just like not taking the exp function which means it's just the identity so f0(x) = x, so slog(fa(x)) = slog(x) + a. Now take tetration on both sides: e^^slog(fa(x)) = e^^(slog(x) + a). e^^x is the inverse function of slog so this simplifies to fa(x) = e^^(slog(x) + a)
And I have something to my previous thing with applying a function g(x) to slog(x). I found the identities slog(x) * y = slog(fslog(x) * (y-1)) and slog(x)^2 = slog(fslog(x) * (slog(x)-1)), we could rewrite both identities as slog(x) * y = slog(fslog(x) * y - slog(x)) and slog(x)^2 = slog(fslog(x)^2 - slog(x)). Now we see how when slog(x) * y has a * y, that * y appears also in fslog(x) * y - slog(x) and where slog(x)^2 the ^2 appears in fslog(x)^2 - slog(x). The - slog(x) is just a added term. So With this we can say e^^g(slog(x)) = fg(slog(x)) - slog(x) I can not rigorously prove this but it should be clear that this is true after trying some other functions
If slog(e^x) = slog(x) +1, this implies e^^(slog(x) +1) =e^x, that makes sense because e^^(slog(x) +1) = e^(e^^(slog(x)+1-1)) which becomes e^(e^^slog(x)), but by definition e^^slog(x) = x, hence we get e^(x) in the end, so this is just rewriting the definition of tetration
And your “a” is just adding a level of tetration to cancel
So take a=2
This just means slog(e^(e^x)) = slog(x) +2
This is true because of the same reason, e^^(slog(x)+2) = e^(e^x) but e^^(slog(x)+2) = e^(e^^(slog(x)+2-1) = e^(e^x), and if u reduce this by removing e^ on both sides u get e^^(slog(x)+1) = e^x, which is true cuz we just established slog(e^x) = slog(x)+1
So again, no need for the redundant/obsolete fa(x) and g(x), it adds nothing to the analysis and overcomplicates the basic recursive properties of tetration
you're right, I mean yeah it is tetration in some way with the a decribing the layers. I just found this useful because f0.5(x) would be the solution of f(f(x)) = e^x. Tetration just calculates the hight and I wanted a function which can take any terms at the top. For example if you find f0.1(x) you could apply it to everything, not only the stuff on the tetration function. for example we only now e^^0. with f0.1(x) we can get f0.1(e^^0) ) = e^^0.1 and f0.1(e^^0.1) = e^^0.2. I get your point with saying it's something with just rewriting tetration but it has it's individual uses for me
yeah, I guess I write this down somewhere else so I don't bother you with that stuff. btw g(x) is any function...
This is mainly due to the fact that slog is repeated log or ln
Take e^e^e for instance
Slog(e^e^e) = 3
yeah true
But this comes from the fact that u apply the natural logarithms 3 times, to get it from e^e^e to 1
ln(e^(e^e)) = e^e we used 1 ln, then ln(e^e) = e, we used 2 lns, then finally ln(e)=1, we used 3 lns
This is true for all bases, which is why the functional square root of e^x, or any a^x, can be attributed to a^^0.5
What i mean is
Oh wait, nvm
Not a^x but log base a of x
I see what you are saying, but yeah it doesn’t simplify things much because u will still need to solve f(f(x)) = logbase2(x) to reduce the tower’s height by 0.5
If our base is 2**
For tetration i would recommend working with base 2, its much easier to visualize
Log base a of a^^x = a^^(x-1)
I mean we don't need to. f(f(x)) = 2^x, then f(1) = e^^(slog(1)+0.5) slog(1) = 0 so e^^0.5. now we can shift this: e^e^^0.5 = e^^1.5 or ln(e^^0.5) = e^^-0.5
Again, this doesn’t help if e^^0.5 is multivalued
it isn't
According to who?
Kesner, not sure if this is how you write his name
U do realize there are different extensions to real valuesd heights for tetration right….
Kneser*
Kneser’s method is one way to extend tetration
Its not the official way, there is no “official way”
So are there methods where it's multivalued?
It’s fundamentally mutlivalued because there exist multiple ways to extend tetration to real heights
That is why its multivalued for non integer heights
yeah true, but it would be the same result, the same number right?
No, again, depends on how you extend it
I only know that (-1)^^x for non integers is really multivalued
Not sure about that chief
the rest yeah, I just assume and I cannot prove
If u think about it
me neither but according to my research I think that
(-1)^^0 can technically be either 1 or -1
And (-1)^^(-1) can be either 0 or -1 as well
It doesn’t break the recursion
oh
log base -1 of -1 is 1 right?
everything is multivalued there I think
even integers
or idk
there are probably just infinite branches and (-1)^(-1) has a lot more solutions then just -1
Because think about it, (-1)^^(1) = (-1)^(-1^^0) right? Well since we know (-1)^^1 = -1, then if (-1)^^0 was negative 1 instead of positive 1, it still holds that (-1)^(-1) =-1
Not necessarily
Log base -1 of -1 can be -1 as well!
yeahh
Because (-1)^(-1) =-1
it's mutlivalued
Right
In my research i found that 0^^(x) can be extended by (1+cos(x*pi))/2
If we allow 0^0 =1
🙂
F(x+1) = 0^(F(x)) will no longer be true
yeah true
Yeah but neat correlation for intrgrr heights
I was gonna make a clickbaity youtube video saying 0^^i is approximately 2pi
Because using our equation if u plug x=i we get cosh^2(pi/2) or something
Basically the value is really close to tau
yeah, bases like 0 or below bases are just a bit confusing and there are just to many things you need to look for without breaking math rules
xD, yeah great Idea, there are not really alot of videos about that kind of tetration
Idw plug myself but i make videos on tetration on YouTube (only 2 vids on tetration so far💀)
If u search derivative of tetration u should see a video by darkmaths (or how to differentiate tetration)
Plan to make atleast 2 more in the coming few weeks
Ah cool, nice videos. Some things were a bit confusing for me but all the stuff you explained was very interesting
oh wow a lotta new stuff has been said lol
Yeah, the main point of it all was to stop using bad mathematical notation when a simple one suffices
This was cancerous to read, but it seems op has the fundamental grasp on tetration down
Also tbis is true, log base -1 of -1 can be: 3 or -3 as well, but usually we look at the principle branch for the multivalued stuff
There were already attempts at extending tetration to real and complex values
But really they were just mockeries because there is a fundamental problem with this question
Look them up
Kneser’s method is actually quite robust for fractional heights, the issue is also that i can extend tetration to fractjonal heights with ease, and it won’t violate any rules (it will just be less unique and trash)
Here is one method:
We know a^0 = a^^0
And a^1 =a^^1 = a
So what’s stoping me from saying a^x = a^^x for all x ∈ [0,1]
And now using the recursion rule that a^(a^^x) = a^^(x+1), we can extend tetration to any fractional height (i could be completely wrong abt this🥲🤣)
You could, surely, but the problem is that you can extend it in many ways, not just this way
What makes this way better than, say, a^^x = (a-1)x + 1 for all x in [0, 1]?
Sure, it's uglier, but so what?
Actually after some robust research, my method is wrong
f(0.5+0.5) needs to be f(f(0.5))
With my method, this would mean f(1) = 2^^(1) = f(f(0.5)) but 2^(2^0.5) = 2^(sqrt(2)) =2.665 , but we know 2^^(1) =2 and 2!=2.665
And your method would be wrong for a similar reason
Where did you get that from
From the recursive definition of tetration, f(2) = 2^^(2) , f(1+1) = f(f(1)) = and we know f(1) = 2, hence f(1+1) = f(f(1)), similarly, f(1+2) = f(2+1) = f(f(f(1))) # (f(x) = 2^^x btw)
supposed to be a comment like in python💀🙏
Bruh
this makes text big wtf the # symbol
Oh wait i might have confused f(0.5+0.5) with f(1+0.5)
No actually I’m right because in tetration each fractional operator adds exactly that fraction of a tower. We call the half tower operator f_0.5 and the full tower operator f_1, To get a full tower you must apply f_0.5 twice to get a full tower
What is f(x)?
-# smol
f(x) there is f_0.5(x) the half iterate, a function such that applying it twice gives 2^^x or f(f(x)) = 2^^x
Oh yeah u’re right
Hmmm i was confusing semigroups with iterated functions there
Oh
Wait
If f(x) = 2^^(x) = 2^x between 0 and 1, this means f_0.5(x) = g(x) such that g(g(x)) = f(x), this neccessitates g(x) = 2^^(slog2(2^^(slog2(x)+0.5)) +0.5)), testing at boundaries g(0), this give g(0) equals one, (slog2(0) =-1 , -1+0.5 =-0.5, slog2(2^^(-05)) =-0.5 by definition, this means g(0) = 2^^(-0.5+0.5), = 2^^0 = 2^0, but we need g(g(0)) = 2^^0, not g(0) = 2^^0, this new g(g(0)) = g(1) which is 2, but again, g(g(1)) should be f(1) = 2, not g(1), that’s why my extension is wrong, probably similar working for your extension
Why should g(x) = 2^^(slog2(2^^(slog(x)+0.5))+0.5)? Because this literally simplifies to 2^^(slog(x)+0.5+0.5) = 2^^(slog(x)+1), and this is 2^(2^^(slog(x)+1-1)) = 2^(x), which was the proposed extension between 0 and 1
Also i took long to type this cuz im playing cs2 rn
it's like in jupyter markdown
#(with a space behind it) makes the text bigger, ## works too
Header 1
Header 2
Header 3
U really made that math go 1 space above to show how headers work…
Oh well i pinged john via replying he’ll see it
Oh im dumb
G(x) is just 2^^(slog2(x) + 0.5)
Cuz it satisfies G(G(x)) = f(x)
It's useful for formatting, sometimes
Damn after all this i actually cannot say why our methods are contradictory, f(1+1) = f(f(1)) is not a requirement and i wrongly equated them. I guess the issue just boils down to the non-uniqueness, but i stand corrected, it is still a valid extension that satisfies rules of tetration
Good convo, brain is toasted cuz i confused g(x) with g(g(x))
so $f(x)=\log^{4}_{(2,-0.5)}(x)$
RoyalBanana
um what is that
unless $\log^{4}_{(2,-0.5)}(\log^{4}_{(2,-0.5)}(x)) = 2\uparrow\uparrow x$ (it doesn't) this is wrong
RamDejin
You should research tetration first
Thoroughly
To see if there are any useful properties
Trust me, i have done the necessary research
And the answer remains no
Currently got a paper on inverse tetration on hold on arxiv
💀💀😭
You've never done enough research, there is always more to do
There’s even more research to do when the subject is actually useful😭
For almost 1.5 weeks now btw 😭😭 not looking fly money
You're living your dream life and you don't even know about it
We submitted our paper in September, near November or so it was accepted and it is May and it is still not published
IT IS MAY
Arxiv?
No, another journal
Oh
I didn’t submit to a journal yet (cap i did but, i decided not to publish it there)
Scirp.org’s AJCM accepted my inverse tetration paper and my tower of hanoi one
But
$599 article processing fee per paper
💀💀💀💀
And they got a reputation for being predatory
So it will probably hurt my credibility
Honestly I don't know how much we paid for our paper lol
Would u say its in a similar ball park?
600 benji’s for one paper
Makes sense, thanks for that info
Wat ? You didn't read what we were working on?
It does lol
Yeah, and weren’t you upvoting that when it happened
So u can take ur pseudomath and shove it where the sun don’t shine 🙂
It's not pseudomath😭
Then do the math, instead of giving a terribly formatted math equation and expecting it to make sense😭
It's not terribly formatted you just haven't learned it yet lol
“you just haven’t learned it yet” thank god i avoided the crank school of crankamatics
do you know H notation
? no we invented it lol
Nah, what does that have to do with a dual base argument for the logarithm 😭😭😭
it probably already exists its just how we notated it
Yeah, okay buddy, and our friend in the other discussion “invented” eidometry, doesn’t make it not crankamatics
If you read ur original equation, its not base a but 2 arguments for the base
And H(n,a,b) is already reserved to show “Hyperoperators” 😭
How can you say if you literally haven't read all that is there though about what the person in the thread is trying
Yes that's what it means in that equation
the second number means how many times the log is done
it's a bit of a mess but it worked
Log^1 base a of (H(1,a,b)) = logbase a of (a+b) and idk who taught you math but
$log_{a}(a+b) \neq b$
Then it’s gibberish notation, log^1 in functional notation either means log applied once or log to the power one, and their both equal to log
It's different notation
RamDejin
Well, one thing you could try to do is to find an alternative formula for a^^x for some specific non-trivial a
Because how is a^b extended to reals? You get the identity e^(b ln a) and both can be computed for reals
Actually you'd still have the non-uniquity
Yeah, cuz exponentiation is non commutative
Does that mean that exponentiation is unique?
The reason exponentiation is easy to extend is because multiplication is commutative
And i can explain how
Don't care
Knew it
So wanted to lyk that i could
So consider 2 times 3.5, this can be written in terms of addition as 2(1) +2(1) + 2(1) + 2(0.5)
Oh
Exponentiation, say 2^(3.5) can be written as 2^(1) times 2^(1) times 2^(1) times 2^(0.5), in the last two examples, the order of each 2(something) or 2^(something didnt matter)
With tetration however, 2^^(3.5) can be interpreted as (2^^0.5)^(2^^1)^(2^^1)^(2^^1) but depending on where 2^^(0.5) is placed in the tower u get a different value for 2^^(3.5)
What?
Wait so there’s a unique extension?
Assuming some stuff
Like, im trying to say that when u take 2 times 3.5, u can rewrite as 2(1)+2(1)+2(1)+2(0.5) and same for exponentiation 2^(3.5) = 2^(1) x 2^(1) .. x 2^(0.5) but because addition and multiplication are commutative, the order of where 2(0.5) is placed in the sum or 2^(0.5) is placed in the product is irrelevant because addition and multiplication are commutative
That won’t apply for tetration anymore
U’ll get a unique value based on where u place the 2^^(0.5) in the tower
If u wanted to compute 2^^(3.5)
I'd say it'd be reasonable to always place it in the end. It would be well defined to define f(a + b) = exp^a(f(b)), where a is an integer and b is in [0, 1)
Just a thought i had, but ig if we fix 2^(fractional height) to be the last term in the sequence that can be resolved so i am just kinda yapling
Yapping*
Yeah true, my thoughts exactly, and u can just have it be the last term in the sum and product examples
For consistency
Yeah for the longest time it felt like it was exponentiations non commutativity that made it impossible to extend tetration ti all real heights but ay go kneser
How did you not even check Wikipedia
I did
I know the website that uses this method
By arkansas state
But i didn’t know its the only unique way
There is at least one thing in common between you and the concept of love
You're both blind
Also, in the official university website they say “We have an argument of why this should be the official tetration” 💀💀
Implying there are other methods 😭
Like i said bro, i have done my research
What are the other methods?
Any of the previous methods we discussed that follows F(x) = b^F(x-1)……
And f(0),f(-1) = 1,0
There is a technique called regular iteration with abel’s function
U’ve heard of “Abelian” groups right?
I am a second year student
Math major?
Yeah, math major
I did some googling and the abel iteration method is actually called schroder iteration method💀
So yeah i didn’t get son of adam wrong
Very wild assumption
Yeah and then they average that
To cancel out imaginary parts
Average of L and L* is the kneser method for real valued tetration
Ciao
Also not exactly I think
There's contour integration involved
Right, but i do know the reason we use conjugates is to cancel the imaginary parts
So idk if they average that or sum it a different way
So yeah, like i was saying, they merge the normal the fixed point L and it’s conjugate to generate real valued solutions……
not really
Yes really
No wonder it’s non-standard and something “you invented”💀
Remember when u said log^1 is not log “lol”
💀💀💀
that's true-
you know when creating notation you only have so much choice right? Duplicate notation happens all the time
Or just use existing notation… especially if you’re “new notation” adds nothing to the analysis
or just don't hassle someone over notation...
And if i humor this for a second, log^1 base a(y) according to your notation is equivalent to y-a
It’s not hassling you if you can’t accept the truth and just get sensitive over it being bad notation 😭
Figured, still bad notation
Just use inverse hyperoperators at that point
Also your notation btw is also just a worse version of $H(-n,H(n,a,b),b) = a$
RamDejin
R u feeling pressured because someone called out terrible notation?
No, I'm feeling pressured because you're pressuring me about it
Because hopefully it’ll just prevent you from making the same mistake🤷🏽♂️
<@&775784618955505685>
Equivalently you could do $H(-n,a,H(n,a,b)) = b$
RamDejin
whT
Hi mega can you keep an eye on this convo? It's teetering on the edge of needing a cool down
Bruh
i can keep an eye for a while, but its close to lunch time, i'll be called anytime
Don’t worry, im leaving this convo, i made my point and if it hurts anybody im sorry
@dire scaffold give ncladus perks to send messages in this channel, he cant rn
we never said u hurt anybody
¯_(ツ)_/¯
Alr I believe it is done
@vocal wolf how does it look
Sweet deal
@delicate rivet I think it's fine to have disagreements about notation, I was moreso concerned about the way in which both you and @azure crane were interacting that's all. I don't think anyone did anything against the rules but it was getting close to someone breaking #1
These managers smh
Does the og author need to close the thread
How do i remove this from my list of discussions
Right click in channel tab > Unfollow post
every notation was invented one day...
what happened here...
so now we can use "bad" notations again: )
yay
Go crazy! 🤪
Integral(-2,0,2^^x) = -2 * Integral(0,2,f0.5(x))
btw not true, just wrote some nonsense
maybe functional equation
solve for f(x) where f0.5(x) is the functional squareroot
idk
Here is a code I made one time for calculating tetration. Nothing special, just the taylor polynomial. Could be good for approximating Integrals
for base e btw
Where did you get taylor series for that?
This looks wrong
It shouldn’t be smooth on the negative side
Oops nvm
Hello
hi
Nothing Special but I thought this it interesting:
e^x = e^^(slog(x)+1), so 2^x = e^(x+ln(2)) = e^^(slog(x * ln(2))+1)
And this works for every base:
e^^(slog(x * ln(a))+1) = a^x
That first line is wrong
$2^{x} \ne e^{x+ln(2)}$
ReverseDash
$2^{x} = e^{xln(2)}$
ReverseDash
that's a very obvious thing, no?
Yeah especially when OP simplifies the xln(a) part to be just ln(a^x) lol
Uh yeah, idk how I got that +, probably missclicked
Idk if this is something new but: when g(x) = (x^^(h) -1)/h where h approaches 0 and f(x) = (x^^(1+h) - x)/h where h approaches 0, then g(x) * x*ln(x) = f(x)
g(x) is just a function that gives you the Derivate of tetration at 0, with the base x
I was wondering if g(x) can be represented with elementary functions or/and simple integrals
It looks similar to (x^h -1)/h where h approaches 0, and the function is just ln(x)
This could be useful because x^0 = x^^0
Btw I already calculated g(2) = 0.889364955, g(e) = 1.091767351, g(10) = 1.684289028
Using the tetration calculator from the web
And g(1) should be 0, because 1^^x is constant at 1
This looks similar to the logarithm or super logarithm, maybe there are connections there
I though maybe it could be super logarithm with be base x, where x is the solution to g(x) = 1
But not sure, just an idea
A quick Definition to make Notation easier: x^^h = T_x(h)
So slog_x(T_x(h)) = h. Taking the derivative on both sides: d/dh(slog_x(T_x(h))) = slog_x‘(T_x(h)) * T_x‘(h), d/dh(h) = 1. so slog_x‘(T_x(h)) * T_x‘(h) = 1. Setting h = 0 we get slog_x‘(1) * T_x‘(0) = 1. T_x‘(0) is just g(x), because it takes the derivative of tetration at base x so we get
slog_x‘(1) * g(x) = 1,
g(x) = 1/slog_x‘(1)
Now we Can easily find slog_x‘(0) with slog_x‘(0) = ln(x)/g(x) or ln(x)/T_x‘(0)
explanation:
T_x(h+1) = x^(T_x(h))
T_x‘(h+1) = x^(T_x(h)) * ln(x) * T_x‘(h) (d/dh, not d/dx)
h = -1 —> T_x‘(0) = ln(x) * T_x‘(-1)
Going back to slog_x‘(T_x(h)) * T_x‘(h) = 1
Setting h = -1:
slog_x‘(T_x(-1)) * T_x‘(-1) = 1, slog_x‘(0) * T_x‘(-1) = 1
Remember: T_x‘(0) = ln(x) * T_x‘(-1)
T_x‘(0)/ln(x)= T_x‘(-1)
So: slog_x‘(0) * T_x‘(0)/ln(x) = 1
slog_x‘(0) = ln(x)/T_x‘(0)
using my calculated values for g(x):
slog_2‘(0) = 0.779 373 166
slog_e‘(0) = 0.915 946 057
slog_10‘(0) = 1.367 096 178
Btw with this we can get:
slog_x‘(0)/slog_y‘(0) = log_y(x) * T_y‘(0)/T_x‘(0)
so if we say slog_e(x) is lns(x):
slog_x‘(0)/lns‘(0) = ln(x) * T_e‘(0)/T_x‘(0)
So T_x‘(-1) = (x^^(h-1))/h where h approaches 0 and T_x‘(0) = (x^^h - 1)/h where h approaches 0
We know that T_x’(-1) * ln(x) = T_x’(0)
So: (T_x’(0) = (x^^(h-1) * ln(x))/h where h approaches 0. We can change that to: (x^^(h-1) * (x^h - 1)/h^2
maybe this could be interesting.
slog_x(x^h) = slog_x(h) + 1, taking the derivative on both sides:
slog_x‘(x^h)*x^h * ln(x) = slog_x‘(h)
Now if we set x = e and h = 0 we get:
slog_e’(1) * 1 * 1 = slog_e’(0).
Is this a contradiction?
We Can See that it is a Identity by taking the identities we had before:
T_x’(0) = 1/slog_x’(1)
slog_x’(0) = ln(x)/T_x’(0)
rearranging: slog_x’(1) = 1/T_x’(0)
with slog_x’(0) = ln(x)/T_x’(0) we see the ln(x) term. If we input e for x we would get exactly 1 and we would get 1/T_x’(0) which is the same as slog_x’(0) and shows that slog_e‘(1) = slog_e‘(0). This only holds for the base e, and this is what gives the constant e a special place in tetration for me```
So: slog_x’(0)/slog_x’(1) = ln(x)
please format you text using ` three times (at the beginning and end)
some of your underscores disappeared
because ff discord's formatting
underscore
_underscore_
Of the whole message?
Like this?
Doesn't really matter if it's just the maths or the text too
Okay 👍
Btw: if you take the 2nd derivative and set x = e and h = 0 and simplify you get:
slog_e’’(0) - slog_e’’(1) = slog_e’(1)
or
slog_e’’(0) - slog_e’’(1) = slog_e’(0)
Following slog_x‘(h) = ln(x) * x^h * slog_x‘(x^h)
We get:
slog_x‘(-1) = ln(x)/x * slog_x(1/x)
And with x = e:
slog_e‘(-1) = 1/e * slog_e‘(1/e)
We have slog_x’(h) = ln(x)*x^h*slog_x’(x^h). So we need to find h so that x^-h = ln(x), because we this would cancel with the ln(x).
Solving this gives us h = -(ln(ln(x))/ln(x)
so:
slog_x’(-(ln(ln(x))/ln(x)) = slog_x’(x^(-(ln(ln(x))/ln(x)))
this just shows how for every base there is a Part where the gradient is the same as the known part```
For example slog_2‘(0.52876637…) = slog_2‘(1.442695…)
Or: slog_e^(W(2)/2)(2) = slog_e^(W(2)/2)(e^W(2))
The base is e^(W(2)/2)
By the way, what is slog_x() ? is it some number s * log_x() ?
No, it’s actually the superlogarithm, the inverse of tetration. It’s defined as: slog_b(b^x) = slog_b(x) + 1
ah, makes sense
slog_2(2^2) = slog_2(2) + 1 = 2
slog_e(2^2) = slog_e(e^(2*ln(2))) = slog_e(2*ln(2)) + 1```
But I’m mostly using x for b and h for x in my calculations above because I’m more used to h, h for height
Doesn't that make it less readable for others?
Nevermind
Maybe, but I think I shouldn’t really, because the variables are at the same place and they are just placeholders for numbers
Let’s start from the start:
slog_x’(T_x(h)) * T_x’(h) = 1 h = 1
slog_x’(x) * T_x’(1) = 1
slog_x‘(h) = ln(x) * x^h * slog_x‘(x^h)
slog_x‘(x^h) = ln(x)^-1 * x^-h * slog_x‘(h)
ln(x)^-1 * x^-1 * slog_x’(1) * T_x’(1) = 1
ln(x)^-2 * x^-1 * slog_x‘(0) * T_x‘(1) = 1
T_x‘(1) = (ln(x)^2 * x * 1)/slog_x‘(0)
h = 2
ln(x)^-1 * x^-x * slog_x’(x) * T_x’(2) = 1
ln(x)^-2 * x^-x * x^-1 * slog_x’(1) * T_x’(2) = 1
ln(x)^-3 * x^-x * x^-1 * slog_x’(0) * T_x’(2) = 1
T_x‘(2) = (ln(x)^3 * x^x * x)/slog_x‘(0)
If we continue like this we can see how to product 1 * x * x^x * x^x^x is emerging.
We can now isolate this and get:
(T_x’(h) * slog_x’(0))/(ln(x)^(h+1)) = Product(h,n = 0, T_x(n))
For example let’s find the product from T_2(0) to T_2(4) using this formula:
First using the tetration calc from the web we get T_2’(4) = 1722153.09779. slog_2‘(0)I already calculated in one of my calculations above: 0.779373166. Now we just have to divide by ln(2)^5 and we get: T_2‘(4) * slog_2‘(0) * ln(2)^-5 = 8388608.010838
The expected solution: 2 * 4 * 16 * 65536 =8’388’608
Works pretty well, the values of slog_2’(0) and T_2’(4) weren’t precise enough but it works.
At first glance this looks a bit stupid to use complicated numbers instead of just multiplying these normal numbers, but this could be useful when we have a very long multiplication of power towers but a small base too so the result doesn’t instantly explode. We could just find the derivative very far and calculate the whole product instantly.
And slog_x’(0) we can easily get from T_x’(0) using the formula:
slog_x’(0) = ln(x)/T_x’(0)
If we rearrange it so: 1/T_x’(0) = slog_x’(0)/ln(x)
And replace it in
(T_x’(h) * slog_x’(0))/(ln(x)^(h+1)) = Product(h,n = 0, T_x(n))
to get:
(T_x’(h))/(ln(x)^h * T_x’(0)) = Product(h,n = 0, T_x(n))
Which could make things easier```
Useful paper
This is the first version of the Tetration Calculator I'm developing. It works okay, but doesn't have the best precision yet. It gets 5 digits right with 10^^(1/2) and gets up to 10 digits right with 2^^(1/2). So the bigger the base, the less digits it gets right. I'm working on extending it to heights smaller than -2, and I'll improve some things later probably. 2^^(-2.5) for example is about: −0.19050915414263895125508662432599 + pi/ln(2) * i There is pi/ln(2) * i, because log_2(negative number) = some real number + pi/ln(2) * i
Just type in the terminal: python TetrationCalculator_v1.py 2 0.5 --size 30 --dps 60
Where the first number is the base and the second the height. Only bases over e^(1/e) work good, bases below get tricky.
You may need to pip install mpmath but I'm not sure
I wouldn't recommend changing the size of the carleman-matrix because sometimes the precision gets worse when increasing N.
btw, most of this is made with the new ChatGPT agent mode, because it's really hard for me to wrap my mind around these carleman-matrix things and the other methods
Would be really cool to learn These things by myself, but idk how. I couldn‘t find anything on YouTube to the carleman-matrix and other things
Tf
Someone explain me how this is Crank
See it as a badge of honour ig
Uh, okayy. I guess this server isn‘t really into tetration😅
I guess I‘ll create a server specialized to tetration and continue there researching tetration, isn’t much to do here I guess haha
Mostly because of the title
Also no one knows what you’re doing here atp
Untrue
So what does your tetration calculator output for 2^^(1/2) btw
Because if it outputs ssrt(2) or 1.559610 then it is probably wrong
@jovial rock Which is why kneser took the complex and conjugate branch merge idea to extend tetration to all reals
Well, (-2,inf] technically cuz there is a branch cut at height = -2
ssrt() being the super square root analogous to slog() which is the superlogarithm as you’ve described
ssrt(a) = x—>a= x^x
Truee, it hurts inside me whenever someone tells me ssrt(2) ist equal to 2^^(1/2)
I think it has like a 7-10 digit accuracy with base 2, I need to check rn
1.458781816
9 digits I think
With the 1 at the start 10 digits
But for higher bases it only has like 4-5 digits accuracy
I‘m trying to figure out how to construct the Cross Track method from paulsen, because I think it gives like 50 digits accuracy
Yess
Not 100% sure but I think this is a series expasion for Tetration. L ist the fixedpoint e^L = L. A is schröders function for tetration at 1, where schröders equation is f(e^z) = L*f(z) where L ist still the fixedpoint (the series expansion is in picture 2). Still working on this but I thought this could be a inspiring idea to expand tetration into a series, symplify it and find new identities and stuff
this is all base e, cuz e is easy to work with
What a mess
What's nL^a_b
Agreed, now it’s really getting crank territory imo
I think he really likes tetration
I believe it's not only important to take steps forward, but to also take a step back and rework/revisit older concepts and ideas, clean up notation, etc.
