#Mnaclaurin series question.
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you took the n-th derivative yet?
usually when you evaluate it at zero there is some nice stuff that occurs
Here is what I did so far, I don't know if what I am doing in e^-X is correct or not
Since all their derivatives are 1 apparently
uhm
what?
no you take the n-th derivative evaluated at 0 of e^(-x)/(1-x)
try a base case n=0,1,2
then see if you notice a pattern
I need them in product form before I proceed with the maclaurin series, so I just separated them so they are now e^-X × (1-x)^-1 and I began to take their maclaurin series separately
both series are known
hmm
Oh
Could you explain this part for me then please
$M(x)=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{f^{(n)}(0)}{n!}x^n$
dark matter
the definition of maclaurin
Ummm

Isn't it supposed to be like
F(x)= f(0)+f'(0)/1!+....
it looks like we tryna prove $\frac{e^{-x}}{1-x}=\sum{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{x^n}{n}$ right
dark matter
Yea , by the nth derivative, you mean I should be differentiating the equations couple of times or?
the whole point of maclaurin is to make an approximate polynomial
how are constants gonna help with that
@plush dirge you there?
Hm
eh i’ll do the first derivative
We need an nth derivative of the function
Or we can just find a pattern and try to prove it via induction, whatever
$\frac{-e^{-x}(1-x)-(-1)(e^{-x})}{(1-x)^2}$
1st derivative is
xe^{-x}/(1-x)^2
dark matter
Nice cancellation occurs
,texsp ||$\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{(-x)^n}{n!}\cdot\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}x^n$||
dark matter
e^{-x} = (-x)^n/n!
i have a sneaky feeling this is a sum abuse notation
Yeah
but this wouldn’t make sense
Maybe try multiplying finite polynomials?
uhh
Nopw
,texsp ||$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{x^n}{n}=\ln(1-x)$||
The maclaurin series is saying that the function is literally equal to ln(1-x)
It’s a minus
dark matter
what the heck
Yeah-
one second
So W(e^{-x}) = ln(1-x) ???
what
Lmaoooo
Wait how tf do you get factorials-
$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}x^n=\frac{xe^{-x}}{(1-x)^2}$
dark matter
that’s what they’re saying
Something looks- wait divide both sides by x
oh yeahhhh
We got this as well
$\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}x^n=\frac{e^{-x}}{(1-x)^2}$
dark matter
oh my god w
where
LHS
the infinite Σ was originally from 0 to ∞
What
ye
Wait
look at og expression he posted
There’s no x here
differentiate that
lol
Cauchy product
so $1=\frac{e^{-x}}{1-x}$
dark matter
What 😭
nah
What the
Multiply both sides by 1-x maybe
this is 100% false
no way
unless for sufficiently small x
Well I basically did this
,w Cauchy Product
And that sums to-
if $(a_k)$ and $(b_k)$ such that their series are absolutely convergent then $\sum_{k=0}^{+\infty} a_k \sum_{k=0}^{+\infty} b_k=\sum_{n=0}^{+\infty} \sum_{k=0}^{n} a_k b_{n-k}$
😑 ɿototoЯ | Rototor 😑
Bruhhh I remember seeing this in analysis
shit i shoulda used that
@neat mist is what I did is right? Taking maclaurin series for them separately and then multiplying the results with each other in the end
Yeah
Take this expression witj x^k you have the product of two power series gives you another power series
$\sum_{k=0}^n\frac{(-x)^k}{k!}x^{n-k}$
Ravioli ≥ ^• ∧ •^ ≤
bruh
Basically you have $\sum_{n=0}^{+\infty} c_n x^n$
😑 ɿototoЯ | Rototor 😑
there isn’t supposed to be factorial in og expression
With $c_n=\sum_{k=0}^{n} \frac{(-1)^{k}}{k!}$
😑 ɿototoЯ | Rototor 😑
And the other sequence is literally 1
Yeah
loooool
b_n-k is just 1
Wait we still have factorials
Umm what are you guys doing?
It’s basically done
,w taylor series (e^{-x})/(1-x)
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How 😭😭😭
You have this
But how does that simplify into what we have above
So $\frac{e^{-x}}{1-x}=\sum_{n=0}^{+\infty} c_n x^{n}$
😑 ɿototoЯ | Rototor 😑
with cn being this
But that’s just the taylor series for e^{-x}
I won’t forgive you
But then we have to evaluate that sum, right?
You can’t simplify further I don’t think
Umm yea I don't know what to do there since our instructor didn't even say anything about this
so we realized your problem is almost impossible

Huh?
to prove using standard methods
I’ll attempt it on paper
First with spamming derivatives
this leads to a black hole
We did a division by 0 error actually
I mean there isn’t a closed form for $\sum_{k=0}^{n} \frac{(-1)^{k}}{k!}$
We can’t divide by x
😑 ɿototoЯ | Rototor 😑
We just know it’s limit is e^-1 that’s all
Rotor did you check my screenshot?
because of power series
wrong ideas
Well, it needs to be in product form
Otherwise, it's extremely difficult to attempt a maclaurin series on the equation
wdym
Maclaurin series in certain equations can't be done or it's very difficult if it's in quotient form
So by default, I just turn it into product form
I mean you can use Leibniz’s formula if you want to evaluate the coefficients rigorously
You will get the same thing
$(fg)^{(n)}=\sum_{k=0}^{n} \binom{n}{k} f^{(k)} g^{(n-k)}$
But I mostly use the talyer series
😑 ɿototoЯ | Rototor 😑
Yeah...I think I am fine with the talyer series now
I mean, you know that $f(x)=\sum_{n=0}^{+\infty} \frac{f^{(n)}(0)}{n!} x^n$
😑 ɿototoЯ | Rototor 😑
so you must evaluate $f^{(n)}(0)$ for $f(x)=\frac{e^{-x}}{1-x}$
😑 ɿototoЯ | Rototor 😑
set $g(x)=e^{-x}$ and $h(x)=\frac{1}{1-x}$ you have $f=gh$
😑 ɿototoЯ | Rototor 😑
Yes that's what I did in their actually, but still I don't know why I got it wrong
So now apply this formula
This feels like there's been a lot more work here than needed to happen?
Sorry to interrupt.
Techie!!
Oh so you applied Leibniz’s formula ?
Also, for the record, MacLaurin series are just a special case of Taylor series.
I mostly applied Talyer in their, liebienz was too complicated for me
You forgot to use the chain rule.
Wait where?
d/dx(e^-x) = -e^-x
Ahhhhh
This is basically a formula to calculate the nth derivative of a product, but if you haven’t seen it, there is no helping it
But again, working out the series from first principles feels like way too much work.
We know the series for e^x and 1/(1 - x) right?
Yes I already proposed the method with Cauchy product of two power series
Ah.
then that became a mess
Not really though we had a nice answer
I mean, I won't say the alternating series of reciprocal factorials is pretty, but it should be relatively simple to prove by induction that it equals what we want it to?
At least, at first glance.
Yeah
The question needs me to show that 1+....... , will your method have the same result as the question requires?
Yes
When you calculate the nth derivative at 0 you obtain the alternating sum of the reciprocals of factorials
When dividing by n!
If you apply the formula correctly its relatively simple
But if you don’t know it and haven’t seen it in class, then maybe thats not what you should do
Like Techie said maybe induction is the answer
,rotate
It only needs me to show 3 factorials
Ahh okay
Well then just calculate the first three derivatives
I apologise, I misunderstood the problem
And then?
Well then you are done, $a_0=f(0)$ $a_1=f’(0)$ $a_2=f’’(0)/2$ $a_3=f’’’(0)/6$
😑 ɿototoЯ | Rototor 😑
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With $f(x)=a_0+a_1x+a_2x^2+a_3x^3+…$
😑 ɿototoЯ | Rototor 😑
Is there an easier and quicker method than doing the derivative of this equation three times?
Since it's not that easy
Wait you don’t have to prove the series?
$e^{-x} \underset{x \to 0}{=}1-x+\frac{x^{2}}{2} -\frac{x^{3}}{6}+o(x^3)$ and $\frac{1}{1-x} \underset{x \to 0}{=} 1+x +x^2+x^3+o(x^{3})$
😑 ɿototoЯ | Rototor 😑
Read the question
No it was only the first 3 terms
Jumps off the Empire State Building
😢
Bruhhh
Here I was about to do some crazy induction
@plush dirge do you know the little « o » notation ?
Umm no
If you did, it would’ve made for a faster way to calculate the derivatives
You can also apply the formula I gave for n=3
Or just do the calculations by hand and torture yourself
Bruh, this feels so unnecessarily long
@plush dirge The problem I have with the previously proposed expansion approaches is that we can't be fully sure that they're valid everywhere, that is, for every x. In fact, the geometric series expansion will most likely fail for |x| larger than 1, so that's a pretty big concern.
To address this, we have to find a method that will make your expansion valid for all x, or at least, as many as we can. For that, you can leverage the fact that the expansion of exp(-x) is actually valid for ALL x. That is, the series for exp(x) converges for all x
The question was only to evaluate the first three terms actually
So if we name S(x) that RHS thing
Not the whole expansion
it would suffice to check that (1-x)S(x) is equal to the expansion of exp(-x) for all x
Really? huh
And yeah we only know radius of convergence of the series is greater than or equal to 1 not the radius
We tortured ourselves for nothing

I misunderstood the statement of computing the three terms, I thought it was just checking for the three first terms but having to prove it for all of them
My apologies
I thought so as well 😭 then I started talking about Cauchy product
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