#Inner Product Space Isomorphism Help Needed!
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What is p(0) and p(1) ?
map basis to basis
How so?
The basis for the inner product space is {1, x}
and the basis for R^2 is {(1,0) , (0,1)}
don't you need to verify that the map preserves orthogonality
there are many bases on r2 but that one is fine too
you have to preserve inner product
try something, you have two elements to choose between
I'm not sure how to show this
Or this
definitions.. 😖
I never studied projective geometry that's why I asked what p(1) and p(0) were, but if I knew better I'd tell you to stare long enough at the defined inner product
There's probably a reason for it being defined that way
what does it mean for a map to "preserve inner product"
in particular, you know the inner product in R² quite well
so you can try reverse-engineering the whole thing to find a map that fits your requirements
what do you have to map to (1, 0) and what do you have to map to (0, 1)?
Do I need to prove it's linear, one to one and onto?
if f is your isomorphism, a desideratum is that <f(x), f(y)> = <x, y>
I'm not sure what preserves inner product actually means
he just said what it means
Um, can I get a simple example of that?
but up to a scaling, it doesn't matter too much (you can rescale afterwards). What really matters to you right now is that right angles are preserved
you got the definition, now start trying things
Is that the only thing needed to find an isomorphism?
map the basis somehow and see if the inner product is preserved
if you wanna do it by definition then thats fine too
find two mutually inverse inner product isomorphisms
you have to know what this means..
As for the technical details I am afraid I cannot help much without better knowledge of projective geometry, so I'll just step out
Ok I'll start trying stuff and get back to u
are you also required to verify the thing on P1 is an inner product?
Is that part of finding an inner product isomorphism?
Generally if $(E,\langle .|. \rangle)$ is a Euclidean space (of dimension n) and $\mathcal{B}=(e_i){1 \le i \le n}$ is an orthonormal basis of $E$ then the map $\phi{\mathcal{B}}: x=\sum_{i=1}^{n} x_i e_i \mapsto (x_i){1 \le i \le n}$ is an isomorphism from $E$ to $\bR^{n}$ and if $\bR^{n}$ is given it’s usual inner product $\langle .|. \rangle_1$ then first prove that $\phi{\mathcal{B}}$ preserves inner product so $\langle x|y \rangle=\langle \phi_{\mathcal{B}}(x)| \phi_{\mathcal{B}}(y) \rangle_1$ for any vector x and y in E
Once you have proved this, you can try finding an orthonormal basis of P1(R) for the inner product then you have an isomorphism that satisfies the conditions
😑 ɿototoЯ | Rototor 😑
That is assuming R^2 is equipped with its usual inner product
Am I assuming that for this question?
If the inner product is not specified for R^2 then I would assume so yes
that given inner product is in P_1(R)
Yeah so consider that R^2 is given its usual inner product and P_1(R) is given the inner product shown in the exercise
Do this
Find an orthonormal basis of P_1(R) for the innner product then you can construct an isomorphism
I don't have to do this
Ok done.
Not sure how to proceed now
Now you can construct an isomorphism that preserves inner product
The isomorphism in question is the application that for a polynomial P=aX+b maps its coordinates in the orthonormal basis that you found
Are we mapping the orthonormal basis to the standard basis of R^2?
if (e_1,e_2) is your basis you are considering the map P=a_1e_1+a_2e_2–>(a_1,a_2)
so for a fixed polynomial P=aX+b you need to find a_1 and a_2
And this can be done easily because (e_1,e_2) is orthonormal (the coefficients in the basis can be expressed via the inner product)
Here for any $i$, $x_i=\langle x|e_i \rangle$
😑 ɿototoЯ | Rototor 😑
So the map in question is basically $x \mapsto (\langle x|e_i \rangle )_{1 \le i \le n}$
😑 ɿototoЯ | Rototor 😑
(Because B is orthonormal)
So how do we write out L?
Take any polynomial P=aX+b what is $\langle P | e_1 \rangle$?
😑 ɿototoЯ | Rototor 😑
e_1 is the first element in your orthonormal basis
And do the same with e_2, e_2 being the second element in your basis
then you can take $L:P \mapsto (\langle P |e_1 \rangle, \langle P|e_2 \rangle )$
😑 ɿototoЯ | Rototor 😑
What does the | mean?
notation
Here $\langle .|. \rangle$ denotes the inner product
😑 ɿototoЯ | Rototor 😑
is it the same as comma?
yes
same as this?
yes
Oh yes, I’m just used to this notation, sorry for the confusion
So this is our inner product isomorphism?
Like this would be the answer to the question?
but we need to show that it preserves inner products?
If (e_1,e_2) is the orthonormal basis you found then yes it would be the answer to the question
Try proving that it preserves inner product
How come we didn't mention anything about the basis of R^2 tho?
Where did we map out orthonormal basis to R^2?
show that the thing you map to IS a basis in R2
and he did say where to map it
So we r doing this?
It is indeed exactly what I told you at the beginning of this post
The preservation of the inner product I mean
Hmm ok
I'm still very confused for what exactly I need to calculate
I calculated the orthogonal basis for the inner product
Polynomials
Ok this whole time I thought it was a projective line
You need to come up with an isomorphism
And prove that it is an isomorphism that is inner product preserving
Yes but how is what I'm still lost about ðŸ˜
Which part
It would help a lot to pinpoint what part is causing you confusion
We can hardly help you if you say "all of it"
Well firstly what is the final form of the answer supposed to look like?
What is the form of "find an inner product isomorphism"
An isomorphism
That is, a linear map that is bijective
you want an isomorphism that verifies the property indicated above (inner product preservation)
Where does the basis for R^2 come into play?
You should have seen in class that between finite dimensional vector spaces, a linear map is characterized by the image of a basis
So it suffices to know where to map basis vectors of P1(R)
Given the desideratum that you must also preserve orthogonality
This is the reason why it suffices to map an orthogonal basis of P1(R) to an orthogonal basis of R²
Now the most obvious orthogonal basis of R² is the standard basis (assuming you're using the standard dot product)
So is my isomorphism then just L(P) = (a_1 a_2) ?
Also, since e1 and e2 are orthonormal is is true that, ⟨e1, e1⟩ = 1, ⟨e2, e2⟩ = 1, and ⟨e1, e2⟩ = 0?
So is this my isomorphism because of the following:
⟨P, e1⟩ and ⟨P, e2⟩ are the inner products of P with the basis elements e1 and e2 in P1_R
​
This map L takes any polynomial P(x) = ax+b in P_1(R) and maps it to a vector in R^2 whose coordinates are determined by the inner products with the orthonormal basis {e1, e2} of P_1(R)?
and since {e1, e2} is orthonormal, L will preserve the inner product, making it an isomorphism of inner product spaces?
Also, in R^2, isn't the standard inner product of two vectors (a,b) â‹… (c,d) = ac + bd ?
This looks alright
Insufficient justification imo
You need to prove the following things
- is L linear?
- is L bijective?
- is L inner product preserving?
And here you can do it methodically
What is P?
So 1. and 2. here are showing that L is a vector space isomorphism?
Well P is the input
x l-> f(x) just refers to the map which associates f(x) to x
I'm also rlly lost where my orthonormal basis even comes into play, can't I prove those things without even knowing what the orthonormal basis for the inner product is?
Correct
For 1 and 2, you don't need orthogonality yet
for 3 you do
it's really not, I think you're just not absorbing information right for some reason
either I suck at explaining, either you're not paying attention
okay ya so we have found (e1, e2) to be this:
Ok, that is fine
and we will make use of that for step 3. above?
Yes
You will need to know that e1 is orthogonal to e2 in P1(R)
that is, (e1, e2) is an orthonormal basis
okay so now my question is that, how did we know that this:
is the inner product isomorphism
like what definition told us it's this?
You can call it a very educated guess
it's just taking the coordinates of P in the basis (e1, e2)
So L is just mapping e1 and e2 to the standard basis vectors (1, 0) and (0,1) in R^2?
Yes
Ok I think I am slowly understanding , sorry for being so slow and difficult ðŸ˜
I'm writing out 1. and 2. above right now
it is not necessarily THE inner product isomorphism
it is an obvious candidate (because projections and so on..), but there can be others, so be careful with your wording
For context, P1 is a 2 dimensional vector space, so it is obvious that it is isomorphic to R2 as a vector space, the only remaining question is whether the inner product is preserved
you can think of it as a more general version of an isometry, where a map is an isometry if it preserves all inner squares, i.e, <f(x), f(x)> = <x,x>
when you map basis to basis, it follows immediately that the map is a vector space isomorphism
your only task now is to verify that inner product is preserved in the sense you linked before
Like i said before all stems from this
That is where L comes from
And (e_i) being orthonormal we can just say x_i=<x|e_i> for all i
So the map becomes x—>(<x|e_i>)_i
So there you have L, now like Rion said you need to prove that it satisfies the conditions (it’s an isomorphism and preserves inner product)
Ok gotcha, I will start with proving the first two conditions because I think I know how but the third condition and making using of the orthonormal basis I found is what i'm not sure about
Ok I have shown it's bijective and surjective aka one to one and onto
Not sure how to show L inner product preserving
I know we need to show (L(p)L(q)) = pq
But how to do so using my orthonornal basis I found?
you have verified the basis is orthonormal, yes?
I know my basis for the inner product is orthonornal ya
is this true?
what does orthonormality mean?
Yeah
Okay lemme quickly write out how I have shown inner product is preserved
Not sure if this is right tho
sure, show us what you worked out
Ya almost done writing it, one sec
Is this good?
this is correct
the hardest part about this problem is to find an orthonormal basis
what your above argument shows is that any orthonormal basis will give you an isomorphism
gotcha
and since I also showed that this is linear, and bijective along with how I showed that L is inner product preserving, I have found AN inner product isomporphism to be L(P) and proved it fully now?
and that is what shows that L is inner product preserving right?