#Limit should be 1 but geogebra shows it's around 0.8 I think
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what have you tried?
The limit above the fraction looks exactly like e^n
And dividing with the e^n below the fraction ought to give the limit of 1 so it is 1
But I am not sure if this reasoning is correct
Because geobra kinda shows it doesn't go above the line y = 0.8 so I am having doubts
its not 1, just to let you know
Wtf
want me to show you?
Please do
,w Limit[Divide[Power[(40)Divide[2m-1,2m-2](41),2Power[m,2]-2m],Power[e,m]],m->infinity]
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dark matter
To be clear, this is $\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{\left(\frac{2n - 1}{2n - 2}\right)^{2n^2 - 2n}}{e^n}$? (I really hope I typed that correctly.)
Techie Literate
So I immediately notice the numerator is a 1^infinity indeterminate form.
So my first instinct is to evaluate just that limit.
Because if it's finite, then the whole limit is just 0, because the denominator goes to infinity.
And if it's infinite, that opens up L'Hopital's rule for use.
It is infinite since it goes to e^n in the limit which diverges
Can you prove that?
I'm not wholly convinced that logic holds, since you're evaluating one part of the limit before another part.
You should use the standard method of evaluating a 1^infinity indeterminate form.
Show your work.
...why don't you take the whole exponent out into the coefficient of the logarithm?
e^(2n(n-1) * ln(1+1/(2n-2)) )
But this is a infinity * 0 situation
So I thought of transforming the ln(...) into 1/(1/ln(...)) so that we are now into a inf/inf situation
And now we could use L'Hopital?
Sure, but usually you want to double-reciprocal the polynomial, not the logarithm.
Because d/dx(1/ln(x)) contains an (ln(x))^2 term.
Ah yes you're right
That way you wind up with just a rational function.
I'm not sure I follow all of your cancellations, but I also got a cubic over a quadratic.
Exactly
But Wolframalpha says it converges to -1/4 somehow. So does Geogebra indicate so
I'll sleep on it
Thanks for your help so far anyway
Actually, your whole error here is improperly evaluating a 1^inf indeterminate form.
Because the original limit can be rearranged to $\lim_{n \to \infty}\left(\frac{\left(\frac{2n - 1}{2n - 2}\right)^{2n - 2}}{e}\right)^n$
Techie Literate
@wanton falcon
ye
So in general you can't partially evaluate a limit.
But you can do that when the parts are both convergent, right? That has to be true at least
No, because 0^0 is also indeterminate.
As is 0/0.
But obviously, a limit that converges to 0... converges.
I see, thank you
Just for future reference, the rule is that the limit of a sum/product of functions equals the sum/product of the limits of the functions if the limits of both functions converge. Every indeterminate form ultimately amounts to a sum/product of functions whose limits do not both converge.
Let me try to rewrite the whole thing in one place
\begin{align*}
\ln \left( \frac{\left( \frac{2n-1}{2n-2}\right)^{2n^2-2n}}{e^n}\right) &=
(2n^2 - 2n) \ln \left( 1 +\frac{1}{2n-2} \right) - n \\
&= n \left((2n-2) \ln \left(1 + \frac{1}{2n-2} \right) - 1 \right)
\end{align*}
Nagi
I think you can finish this with l'Hospital, as you've mentioned
\begin{align*}
n \left((2n-2) \ln \left(1 + \frac{1}{2n-2} \right) - 1 \right) &= \frac{n}{2n-2} \times \frac{(2n-2) \ln \left(1 + \frac{1}{2n-2} \right) - 1}{\frac{1}{2n-2}}
\end{align*}
Nagi
I'll leave it to you to finish the computations here
OP's asleep.
I also find this after finishing the computations on my side, just for documentation purposes
Yeah, I realized
Oh well, they can reflect on this when they return
😴

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