#Taking the convolution using the inverse Laplace transform

68 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)

arctic mirage
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I was trying to take the convolution of the function in the picture using the convolution theorem sort of in the opposite way it's meant to be used and my answer was t but the given answer is u of t times t I suspect the difference in answers has something to do with the functions needing to be causal but I'm not sure exactly where my error is as I applied the formulas in a way I think is correct.

prisma mothBOT
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arctic mirage
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Guess this one is too hard for anyone 😭

empty flume
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which picture is the problem statement?

empty flume
arctic mirage
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The notation is standard for convolutions and Laplace transforms, although my handwriting is shit

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The problem statement is in the last pic

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It simply asks for the convolution of the unit step function with itself

empty flume
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oh, heaviside

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let H(t) be the heaviside function

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  1. H(t-1/2) is nonzero only for t > 1/2 and H(t-(x-1/2)) is nonzero only when x-t > -1/2

these two conditions appear at the same time only for t >= 0, hence the convolution is 0 for t<0

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and then all that's left is to calculate

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$$ H(t-1/2) * H(t+1/2) = \int _{-\infty} ^\infty H(x-1/2)H(t-(x-1/2))dx $$

maiden nicheBOT
empty flume
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$$ = \int _{1/2}^{t+1/2} H(x-1/2)H(t-(x-1/2))dx = \int _{1/2}^{t+1/2}dx = t $$

maiden nicheBOT
empty flume
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so conclude

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$$ H(t-1/2)*H(t+1/2) = \begin{cases} t, &t\geqslant 0 \ 0, &t<0 \end{cases} = tH(t) $$

maiden nicheBOT
empty flume
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now repeat the process for H(t-eps) * H(t+eps)

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for however small epsilon

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@arctic mirage

arctic mirage
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Nice! Yes that is the correct proof that I have seen. I'm wondering why using the convolution theorem and instead going through the laplace domain does not work and instead returns simply t and not the correct answer

empty flume
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nothing's wrong with your approach, you are neglecting the domains

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and hence won't conclude the thing you want

arctic mirage
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I'm a little confused what you mean sorry. Could you explain more in detail about how the domains affect this and how I would apply them.

empty flume
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what's the laplace transform of heaviside?

arctic mirage
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1/s if I recall

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Well there's an etern if your c is not zero

empty flume
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yes, if c=0 then 1/s

arctic mirage
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$$e^{-cs}/s$$

maiden nicheBOT
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Stronk

arctic mirage
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Is there a valid domain that I am forgetting?

empty flume
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what do you think s is?

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arbitrary real number? complex number? any restrictions?

arctic mirage
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I thought s could be any complex number. Of course it's not valid when s is equal to zero...

empty flume
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$$ F(s) = \int_0^\infty \exp (-st)f(t)dt $$

maiden nicheBOT
empty flume
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you need this integral to converge

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$$|exp (-st)| = |\exp (\mathrm{Re}(s)t) \exp (i\mathrm{Im}(s)t)| = |\exp (\mathrm{Re}(s)t)| $$

maiden nicheBOT
arctic mirage
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Oh so it won't converge if s or t is somehow negative?

empty flume
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if Re(s) is positive, then the integral converges

arctic mirage
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In the case of a non-time shifted unit step right?

empty flume
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f is arbitrary here

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well, integrable of course

arctic mirage
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But then what if t is negative, wouldn't the exponential not converge?

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Unless s was negative as well

empty flume
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if s was negative the whole thing would blow up fast

arctic mirage
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But if they're both negative then it goes back to being positive right? So converge for negative time?

empty flume
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t is positive by definition

arctic mirage
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Is that in general or just for control systems?

empty flume
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you want the exponent to be "negative" if you're only considering real s

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more generally, it turns out the integral converges whenever Re(s) is positive

arctic mirage
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Okay I'll explore this a little bit more tomorrow. But how does the range of s affect the method that I used in the screenshots for finding the convolution?

empty flume
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this is correct

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but you are assuming t nonnegative here

arctic mirage
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Oh interesting

empty flume
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if t < 0 then the thing is 0

arctic mirage
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So if I use that method for other functions, do I just have to slap a heavy side function on the result if I want it to be valid for all t's

empty flume
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which is the same as t u(t)

empty flume
arctic mirage
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Does the definition say that the Laplace transform of arbitrary functions is always 0 for time less than zero

empty flume