I was trying to take the convolution of the function in the picture using the convolution theorem sort of in the opposite way it's meant to be used and my answer was t but the given answer is u of t times t I suspect the difference in answers has something to do with the functions needing to be causal but I'm not sure exactly where my error is as I applied the formulas in a way I think is correct.
#Taking the convolution using the inverse Laplace transform
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Guess this one is too hard for anyone 😭
i suspect it's more about it being unclear what you are asking, and you expect the reader to know what your notation means
The notation is standard for convolutions and Laplace transforms, although my handwriting is shit
The problem statement is in the last pic
It simply asks for the convolution of the unit step function with itself
oh, heaviside
let H(t) be the heaviside function
- H(t-1/2) is nonzero only for t > 1/2 and H(t-(x-1/2)) is nonzero only when x-t > -1/2
these two conditions appear at the same time only for t >= 0, hence the convolution is 0 for t<0
and then all that's left is to calculate
$$ H(t-1/2) * H(t+1/2) = \int _{-\infty} ^\infty H(x-1/2)H(t-(x-1/2))dx $$
aL
$$ = \int _{1/2}^{t+1/2} H(x-1/2)H(t-(x-1/2))dx = \int _{1/2}^{t+1/2}dx = t $$
aL
so conclude
$$ H(t-1/2)*H(t+1/2) = \begin{cases} t, &t\geqslant 0 \ 0, &t<0 \end{cases} = tH(t) $$
aL
now repeat the process for H(t-eps) * H(t+eps)
for however small epsilon
@arctic mirage
Nice! Yes that is the correct proof that I have seen. I'm wondering why using the convolution theorem and instead going through the laplace domain does not work and instead returns simply t and not the correct answer
nothing's wrong with your approach, you are neglecting the domains
and hence won't conclude the thing you want
I'm a little confused what you mean sorry. Could you explain more in detail about how the domains affect this and how I would apply them.
what's the laplace transform of heaviside?
yes, if c=0 then 1/s
$$e^{-cs}/s$$
Stronk
Is there a valid domain that I am forgetting?
I thought s could be any complex number. Of course it's not valid when s is equal to zero...
$$ F(s) = \int_0^\infty \exp (-st)f(t)dt $$
aL
you need this integral to converge
$$|exp (-st)| = |\exp (\mathrm{Re}(s)t) \exp (i\mathrm{Im}(s)t)| = |\exp (\mathrm{Re}(s)t)| $$
aL
Oh so it won't converge if s or t is somehow negative?
if Re(s) is positive, then the integral converges
In the case of a non-time shifted unit step right?
But then what if t is negative, wouldn't the exponential not converge?
Unless s was negative as well
But if they're both negative then it goes back to being positive right? So converge for negative time?
t is positive by definition
Is that in general or just for control systems?
you want the exponent to be "negative" if you're only considering real s
more generally, it turns out the integral converges whenever Re(s) is positive
Okay I'll explore this a little bit more tomorrow. But how does the range of s affect the method that I used in the screenshots for finding the convolution?
Oh interesting
if t < 0 then the thing is 0
So if I use that method for other functions, do I just have to slap a heavy side function on the result if I want it to be valid for all t's
which is the same as t u(t)
i have no idea, follow the definition and things will work out :/
Does the definition say that the Laplace transform of arbitrary functions is always 0 for time less than zero
if you're referring to this, like I said, follow the definition of the function