#limit
52 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)
- Ask your question and show the work you've done so far. If you've posted a screenshot of a question, specify which part you need help with.
- Wait patiently for a helper to come along.
- Once someone helps you, say thank you and close the thread with:
+close - Feel free to nominate the person for helper of the week in #helper-nominations
- Do not ping the mods, unless someone is breaking the rules.
- If you're happy with the help you got here, and the server overall, you can contribute financially as well:
I do not understand the last step how they can write it?
why negative sign
because sin(x) = -sin(x+π) for all x
wait a second
let me send you original post
i am arjun btw i use this account on laptop
they put the negative sign at the front of the fraction
ohh
but here it is different no?
sin pi(x)=-sin pi (y+1)?
sin(πx) = sin(π(y+1))
which is -sin(πy)
note that sin(π(y+1)) = sin(πy + π) = -sin(πy)
adding or subtracting a π to an angle inside sin will always flip the sign
...you can use the same account on multiple devices.
Ok good
Taylor expansion is a lot better for these types of problems imo but if you haven’t learned it yet then l’hôpital is good
Yes. I have learnt it
You switched accounts faster than me running out of school after a long day
Yooo
Yoo
Yoo
Yoo
Okay well try solving it with it you’ll see how efficient it is
If you have time of course non pressure
But how i start with it?
*no
Which function i expand
well you know for instance that (1+t)^a=1+at+o(t) for t approaching 0
And also sin(pit) ~pit for t approaching 0
Also 4^t-1=e^2tln(2)-1~2tln(2) for t approaching 0
And let’s not forget ln(1+t/2)~t/2 for t approaching 0
Using all of these you can simplify the expression further
No it’s fine lol you can have two accounts if you want
+close
+close
+CLOSE