#Eigenvalue of A^(tr) * A and A * A^(tr)
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Now, apparently this doesn't hold if lambda = 0. But couldn't I just argue exactly like in the proof above? Where exactly does it fail
I think the main problem (and what MSE posts allude to) is that you're assuming your w isn't 0 implicitly
The only good explanation I found for why the != 0 condition is requires is because you're proving the lambda-eigenspaces of $AA^T$ and $A^TA$ are isomorphic, and the isomorphism used invokes 1/sqrt(lambda)
Omegabet_
last comment shows the proposed S and T are infact inverses of one another
(there's probably also some connection to the SVD of A that I'm neglecting/forgetting)
Thank you!
@silver garnet has given 1 rep to @cobalt minnow
+close