#Annihilating polynomial and minimal polynomial
21 messages · Page 1 of 1 (latest)
- Ask your question and show the work you've done so far. If you've posted a screenshot of a question, specify which part you need help with.
- Wait patiently for a helper to come along.
- Once someone helps you, say thank you and close the thread with:
+close - Feel free to nominate the person for helper of the week in #helper-nominations
- Do not ping the mods, unless someone is breaking the rules.
- If you're happy with the help you got here, and the server overall, you can contribute financially as well:
(where e_i is the unit vector with 1 at position i)
If P and Q are polynomials with coefficients in $K$ then $P(A) Q(A)=Q(A) P(A)$ for a matrice $A$
Rotor 😑
Polynomials in a matrice commute
And if A and B commute then their kernels are stable from one matrice to another ie if Av=0 then ABv=0
And in my opinion you are over complicating, what you are doing is correct, from what I understand you want to prove that if $(e_i){1 \le i \le n}$ is the canonical basis of $K^{n}$ then $(\mu{A,v_1} … \mu_{A, v_n})(A) . e_i=0$ for all $i \in {1,…,n}$ from my understanding
Rotor 😑
But doing so for any basis works so why not take the given basis ?
I picked e_i because A * e_i represents the i'th column of our matrix that needs to be 0
Picking v instead of e_i doesn't do this
Ah
+close